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DOST-SEI S&T UNDERGRADUATE SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION REVIEWER ABOUT THIS MATERIAL This review material has two (2) parts: 1) Logical Reasoning; and 2) Power Test. Logical reasoning consists of two (2) sub-tests, as follows: 1) Verbal Reasoni...

DOST-SEI S&T UNDERGRADUATE SCHOLARSHIP EXAMINATION REVIEWER ABOUT THIS MATERIAL This review material has two (2) parts: 1) Logical Reasoning; and 2) Power Test. Logical reasoning consists of two (2) sub-tests, as follows: 1) Verbal Reasoning; and 2) Non-Verbal Reasoning. Power Test, on the other hand, have four (4) sub-tests, namely: 1) English; 2) Science; 3) Mathematics; and 4) Mechanical Technical. Verbal Reasoning tests your ability to understand, analyze and interpret information. It also measures your ability to extract meaning from complex information and to think logically and analytically. Non-Verbal Reasoning measures your abilities to: visualize and transform images in your mind; recreate visual experiences and reasoning about shape, measurement, depiction and navigation; and mentally rotate and manipulate two and three-dimensional spaces. The English sub-test measures your ability to apply the rules of the English language, specifically on grammar and syntax, vocabulary and reading comprehension. Science sub-tests will test your ability to accomplish various important scientific tasks. Mathematics sub-test will measure your ability to comprehend qualitative relationships and their representations. Mechanical-Technical will measure your ability to acquire information about everyday physics and to comprehend mechanical relationships. It consists of mechanical and electrical problems, as well as items that deal with physical forces. The answer key is given at the end for your reference. TABLE OF CONTENTS QUESTIONS PART I VERBAL REASONING ………………………………………………………………………………………… 1 NON-VERBAL REASONING ………………………………………………………………………………………… 10 PART II ENGLISH ………………………………………………………………………………………… 38 SCIENCE ………………………………………………………………………………………… 47 MATHEMATICS ………………………………………………………………………………………… 54 MECHANICAL-TECHNICAL ………………………………………………………………………………………… 68 ANSWER KEY PART I VERBAL REASONING ………………………………………………………………………………………… 84 NON-VERBAL REASONING ………………………………………………………………………………………… 85 PART II ENGLISH ………………………………………………………………………………………… 86 SCIENCE ………………………………………………………………………………………… 87 MATHEMATICS ………………………………………………………………………………………… 88 MECHANICAL-TECHNICAL ………………………………………………………………………………………… 91 REFERENCES ………………………………………………………………………………………… 97 I. LOGICAL REASONING VERBAL REASONING Verbal Reasoning tests your ability to understand, analyze and interpret information. It also measures your ability to extract meaning from complex information and to think logically and analytically. 1. SARAH:TBSBT::PALMA: A. NBQJBO B. RIFJMBO C. QBMNB D. SBSSZ 2. BIG:ENORMOUS::SMALL: A. MINISCULE B. VOLUMINOUS C. MACROSCOPIC D. PARASITIC 3. GALILEO GALILEI:TELESCOPE::BENJAMIN FRANKLIN: A. ELECTRICITY B. STEAM ENGINE C. TELEGRAPH WIRE D. MOTION PICTURE CAMERA 4. ALBERT EINSTEIN:LAW OF GRAVITY:: ALEXANDER FLEMING: A. PENICILLIN B. MONOGRAPH C. TELEPHONE D. SONOGRAM 5. BAT:BALL::BOW: A. ARROW B. TIE C. STRING D. BONE 6. HIDE:CONCEAL::STOP: A. PAUSE B. REFLECT C. HALT D. PONDER 1 7. BOWED STRINGS:VIOLIN::WOODWIND: A. GUITAR B. FLUTE C. PIANO D. HORN 8. WHALE:POD::KITTEN: A. PACK B. HERD C. LITTER D. PRIDE 9. SPONGE:POROUS::SKUNK: A. SHINY B. CARNIVOROUS C. NOCTURNAL D. SMELLY 10. DO:DID::COST: A. COSTED B. COAST C. COASTED D. COST 11. LIFEBELT : SEA :: AIR : A. PILOT B. STRAP C. BALOON D. PATACHUTE 12. ANTERIOR : POSTERIOR :: FRONT : _____________ A. SIDE B. HIND C. HEAD D. MIDSECTION 13. GEO : EARTH :: FERRO : _____________ A. AIR B. FIRE C. IRON D. SAND 14. NEWTON : CALCULUS :: COPERNICUS : _____________ A. ASTROLOGY B. METEOROLOGY C. ARCHAEOLOGY D. ASTRONOMY 2 15. HAMMER : CARPENTER :: _____________ A. ANCHOR : SAILOR B. BRUSH : PAINTER C. BLUEPRINT : ARCHITECT D. SHAVES : BARBER 16. AFFECTION : INFATUATION :: _____________ A. LENIENT : FORGIVE B. LARGE : GIGANTIC C. TIMIDITY : COWARDICE D. FRANKNESS : CANDOR 17. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order. 1. Death 2. Marriage 3. Education 4. Birth 5. Funeral A. 5, 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 4, 2, 3, 1, 5 C. 4, 3, 2, 5, 1 D. 4, 3, 2, 1, 5 18. Arrange the following words in a meaningful order. 1. Word 2. Paragraph 3. Sentence 4. Letters 5. Phrase A. 4, 1, 5, 3, 2 B. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 C. 4, 2, 5, 1, 3 D. 4, 5, 1, 3, 2 19. Statements: Some actors are singers. All the singers are dancers. Conclusions: (1) Some actors are dancers. (2) No singer is actor. A. Only (1) conclusion follows B. Only (2) conclusion follows C. Either (1) or (2) D. Neither (1) or (2) 20. Statements: All the harmoniums are flutes. Conclusions: (1) All the flutes are instruments. (2) All the harmoniums are flutes. A. Only (1) conclusion follows B. Only (2) conclusion follows C. Either (1) or (2) D. Neither (1) or (2) 3 21. Statements: No door is dog. All the dogs are cats. Conclusions: No door is cat. No cat is door. Some cats are dogs. All the cats are dogs. A. Only (1) and (4) B. Only (1) and (3) C. Only (3) and (4) D. Only (3) 22. Statements: Importance of Yoga and exercise is being realized by all sections of the society. There is an increasing awareness about health in the society particularly among middle ages group of people. A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect. B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes. D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause. 23. Statements: Many people in the area are reported to be suffering from Malaria. Private Medical Practitioners in the area have decided to close their clinics for few days. A. Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect. B. Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect. C. Both the statements I and II are independent causes. D. Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes. E. Both the statements I and II are effects of some common cause. 24. MALARIA : MOSQUITO :: ? : ? A. POISON : DEATH B. CHOLERA : WATER C. RAT : PLAGUE D. MEDICINE : DISEASE 25. ABC : ZYX :: CBA : ? A. XYZ B. BCA C. YZX D. ZXY 26. AB4 : 18 :: 6 : ? A. 32 B. 38 C. 11 D. 37 4 27. Which one will replace the question mark ? A. L10 B. K15 C. I15 D. K8 28. Which one will replace the question mark ? A. 25 B. 37 C. 41 D. 47 29. Which one will replace the question mark? A. 4 B. 6 C. 9 D. 8 30. Choose the word which is different from the rest. A. Chicken B. Swan C. Eagle D. Crocodile 5 31. Choose the word which is different from the rest. A. Dagger B. Knife C. Hammer D. Sword 32. Choose the word which is different from the rest. A. Cherry B. Strawberry C. Apple D. Orange 33. The total of the ages of Amar, Akbar and Anthony is 80 years. What was the total of their ages three years ago ? A. 71 years B. 72 years C. 73 years D. 74 years 34. A father is now three times as old as his son. Five years back, he was four times as old as his son. The age of the son (in years) is A. 12 B. 15 C. 18 D. 20 35. Pointing to a photograph of a boy, Ben said, "He is the son of the only son of my mother." How is Ben related to that boy? A. Brother B. Uncle C. Cousin D. Father 36. Introducing a woman, Gwen said, "She is the mother of the only daughter of my son." How that woman is related to Gwen? A. Daughter B. Sister-in-Law C. Wife D. Daughter-in-Law 37. 120, 99, 80, 63, 48, ? A. 35 B. 38 C. 39 D. 40 6 38. 2, 3, 5,7,11,?, 17 A. 12 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15 39. Two positions of dice are shown below. How many points will appear on the opposite to the face containing 5 points? A. 3 B. 1 C. 2 D. 4 40. Which digit will appear on the face opposite to the face with number 4? A. 3 B. 5 C. 6 D. 2/3 41. A, P, R, X, S and Z are sitting in a row. S and Z are in the centre. A and P are at the ends. R is sitting to the left of A. Who is to the right of P? A. A B. X C. S D. Z 42. Five girls are sitting on a bench to be photographed. Seema is to the left of Rani and to the right of Ben. Mary is to the right of Rani. Reeta is between Rani and Mary. Who is sitting to the right of Reeta? A. Ben B. Rani C. Mary D. Seema 7 43. One morning Ren and Josh were talking to each other face to face at a crossing. If Josh's shadow was exactly to the left of Ren, which direction was Ren facing? A. East B. West C. North D. South 44. A man walks 5 km toward south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place? A. East B. West C. North-East D. South-West 45. Sham walks 5 km towards East and then turns left and walks 6 km. Again he turns right and walks 9 km. Finally he turns to his right and walks 6 km. How far is he from the starting point? A. 26 km B. 21 km C. 14 km D. 19 km 46. A train always has? A. Rails B. Driver C. Guard D. Engine 47. A lightbulb always has? A. Glass B. Filament C. Current D. Light 48. If PALE is coded as 2134, EARTH is coded as 41590, how can is PEARL be coded in that language? A. 25413 B. 24153 C. 25430 D. 29530 49. Select the word that has a similar meaning to outgoing: A. Extroverted B. Outside C. Exit D. Contained 8 50. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son." Whose photograph was it? A. His father’s B. His son’s C. His own D. His nephew’s 9 NON-VERBAL REASONING In this test you will be performing tasks that will measure your abilities to: visualize and transform images in your mind; recreate visual experiences and reasoning about shape, measurement, depiction and navigation; and mentally rotate and manipulate two and three-dimensional spaces. 1. Which one is identical to this figure? 2. Which box contains the same shape as the top series? 3. Which of the following frames completes the pattern? Options: 10 4. Which of the following frames does not belong to the group? 5. A three-dimensional object is shown. Which front side view is correct? A. B. C. Front view D. 6. Which of the four figures below is the result when the figure is folded along the dottedlines? A. B. C. D. 11 7. Which of the four choices below is the rotated version of the given figure? 8. If you rotate the given figure, which of the following will be the result? A. B. C. D. 9. Which is the next figure in the series? A. B. C. D. 12 10. Which cube cannot be made based on the unfolded cube? 11. Which of the answer cubes is the original cube rotated in any direction? 12. Which of the following frames completes the pattern? 13 13. Two pieces of the cube puzzle with three adjacent faces in each piece are shown and to be used to form a cube. Each face is drawn with figure different to other sides. Which view fits to the arrangement of the symbol when the cube is assembled? A. B. C. D. 14. A three-dimensional object is shown. Which top side view is correct? Top view A. B. B. D. 15. Create a three-dimensional object out of the two given views below. 14 16. Which of the four choices below is the rotated version of the given figure? A. B. C. D. 17. If you rotate the given figure, which of the following will be the result? 18. Which is the next figure in the series? A. B. C. D. 15 19. Which of the four choices is the result when the figure is cut by a plane as shown below? 20. Which of the four choices is the result when the figure is cut by a plane as shown below? 21. 16 22. 23. 17 24. 25. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 26. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 18 27. Select a figure from amongst the Answer Figures which will continue the same series as established by the five Problem Figures. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 28. Choose the figure which is different from the rest. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 29. Choose the figure which is different from the rest. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 30. Choose the figure which is different from the rest. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 19 31. Choose the alternative which is closely resembles the mirror image of the given combination. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 32. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 33. Find out the alternative figure which contains figure (X) as its part. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 34. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 20 35. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 36. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z). A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 37. Choose a figure which would most closely resemble the unfolded form of Figure (Z). A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 21 38. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once. A. 1,3,9 ; 2,5,6 ; 4,7,8 B. 1,3,9 ; 2,7,8 ; 4,5,6 C. 1,2,4 ; 3,5,7 ; 6,8,9 D. 1,3,6 ; 2,4,8 ; 5,7,9 39. Group the given figures into three classes using each figure only once. A. 7,8,9 ; 2,4,3 ; 1,5,6 B. 1,3,2 ; 4,5,7 ; 6,8,9 C. 1,6,8 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,5,9 D. 1,6,9 ; 3,4,7 ; 2,5,8 40. Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted into each other would form a complete square. A. 145 B. 245 C. 123 D. 234 22 41. Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X). A. 1 and 4 B. 2 and 4 C. 1 and 2 D. 2 and 3 42. How many dots lie opposite to the face having three dots, when the given figure is folded to form a cube? A. 1 B. 2 C. 5 D. 6 43. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?). Problem Figures: Answer Figures A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 23 44. Select a suitable figure from the Answer Figures that would replace the question mark (?).Problem Figures: Answer Figures A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 E. 5 45. Find the number of triangles in the given figure. A. 8 B. 13 C. 14 D. 15 46. Find the number of straight lines to make the given figure. A. 16 B. 17 C. 14 D. 13 47. Identify the figure that completes the pattern. A. 1 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3 24 48. Identify the figure that completes the pattern. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 49. Identify the figure that completes the pattern. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 50. Find out from amongst the four alternatives as to how the pattern would appear when the transparent sheet is folded at the dotted line. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 25 Section 1 – ANALOGY Which shape or figure on the right completes the second pair in a similar way as in the first pair. 01 02 03 04 05 © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 26 Section 1 - ANALOGY 06 07 08 09 10 END OF SECTION 1- DO NOT TURN © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 27 Section 2 – MATRICES Find which shape should fill the empty square. 01 02 03 04 05 © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 28 Section 2 – MATRICES 06 07 08 09 10 END OF SECTION 2 - DO NOT TURN © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 29 Section 3 – ODD ONE OUT Which figure is the odd one out in the group. 01 02 03 04 05 © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 30 Section 3 – ODD ONE OUT 06 07 08 09 10 END OF SECTION 3 - DO NOT TURN © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 31 Section 4 – SIMILARITY Which figure on the right is similar to the figures on the left. 01 02 03 04 05 © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 32 Section 4 – SIMILARITY 06 07 08 09 10 END OF SECTION 4 - DO NOT TURN © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 33 Section 5 – CODES Find which code matches the shape or pattern given at the end of each question. 01 02 03 04 05 © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 34 Section 5 – CODES 06 07 08 09 10 END OF SECTION 5 - DO NOT TURN © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 35 Section 6 – SERIES Find which one of the five figures on the right should come next. 01 02 03 04 05 © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 36 Section 6 – SERIES 06 07 08 09 10 END OF SECTION 6 - DO NOT TURN © 2010 Master Brain Academy This material under copyright. All rights reserved. No part may be reproduced in any form without prior permission Downloaded from ElevenPlusExams.co.uk 37 II. POWER TEST ENGLISH This sub-test measures your ability to apply the rules of the English language, specifically on grammar and syntax, vocabulary and reading comprehension. 1. Which sentence clearly and states the idea and has no structural errors? A. The interest if a loan company is higher than a bank effectively B. The interest at a loan company is higher than a bank C. The interest at a loan company is higher than at a bank D. The interest of a loan company is higher than in a bank. 2. A. Following his defeat, he abdicated with the apparent intention of going into exile in America. B. At Rocherfort, however he found the harbor blockaded and he decided to surrender himself to Royal Navy. C. He was escorted aboard HMS Bellerophon. It was a new experience for him to see the inside of a ship of the Royal Navy, the instrument of France’s defeat at Trafalgar a few years earlier. D. If you or I had been in Napoleon's shoes after his shattering defeat at Waterloo, we might well have lapsed into a state of inward-looking depression if not despair. Not so Napoleon. A. ABCD B. DABC C. DBCA D. ACBD 3. The measure of choosing well is whether or not man likes what he ________. A. is choosing B. choose C. chosen D. chose 4. A dance instructor is holding an aerobics class every morning in front of the town market where there is a big open space. There are many participants and he charges them 10 pesos per session. In contrast, a Zumba class in the nearby dance studio has only 10 participants because the enrollment fee is expensive. Only the rich can afford to enroll in the Zumba class. What can we deduce from the situation? A. The aerobics class is more enjoyable than the Zumba class. B. The aerobics class is more popular than the Zumba class. C. The participants of the aerobics class are all poor. D. More people enroll in the aerobics class because the enrollment fee is affordable. 5. TAILOR is related to NEEDLE as MECHANIC is related to ____________. A. brush B. tool chest C. engineer D. screwdriver 38 6. The traffic flow at the corner was jammed. Manny feared getting late so he _____ with a bus and leaped at the door. A. has caught B. was catching C. catch up D. caught up 7. A. Now we shall do everything we can to enforce this law. B. In the struggle against crime, government and people should join hands. C. Republic Act 7659, the death penalty law is government’s response in law against cruelty and heartlessness. D. The law's main objective is not retribution but reform and rehabilitation of offenders and would-be offenders. E. All countries in the world are presently sieged by violent crime. A. EBCDA B. CBEDA C. ACEBD D. CEBAD 8. “I die just when the dawn breaks to herald the day.” This is a famous quote from ____. A. Benigno S. Aquino B. Manuel L. Quezon C. Jose P. Rizal D. Jose Aquino 9. What word is not properly spelled and used in these sentences? A. There were confusions on admission. B. There were commissions on the fare. C. There was confusion in the plane. D. There was confusion on directions. 10. The games we used to play when we were young have been sidelined by modern gadgets. Nowadays, we no longer see children and teens playing piko, tumbang preso, luksong baka, patintero and other enjoyable games our parents used to play. The young generation of today is so hooked on gadgets that they even have no time to talk to each other during their free time. This is very unhealthy according to some social scientists.From the passage, we can conclude that: A. Children and teens will not enjoy playing piko, patintero, luksong baka and tumbang preso. B. The young generation of today prefers modern gadgets over piko, patintero and the likes. C. Children and teens who use modern gadgets are sickly. D. Modern gadgets should be totally banned to protect our children. 11. The Greek dramatist authored “Alcestis” and “Andromache.” A. Virgil B. Homer C. Sophocles D. Euripides 39 12. “Of man’s first disobedience and the fruit/of that forbidden tree” is the opening to: A. The Pilgrim’s Progress by John Bunyan B. The Fairie Quenne by Edmund Spenser C. The Vision of Delight by ben Johnson D. Paradise Lost by John Milton 13. Before the sleeping time, children are discouraged to watch____ shows that cause nightmares. A. Special B. Spectacular C. Spectral D. Spiteful 14. In the past, consumers would rarely walk into an ice cream store and order low-fat ice cream. But that isn’t the case today. An increasing health consciousness combined with a much bigger selection of tasty low-fat foods in all categories has made low-fat ice cream a very profitable item for ice cream store owners. This paragraph best supports the statement that A. Low-fat ice cream is more popular than other kinds of ice cream. B. Ice cream store owners would be better off carrying only low-fat ice cream. C. Low-fat ice cream produces more revenue than other low-fat foods. D. Ice cream store owners no longer think that low-fat ice cream is an unpopular item. 15. I was speaking to Raquel on the phone when suddenly we were _____. A. Disconnected B. Broken down C. Hung up D. Cut off 16. PORCINE is related to PIG as BOVINE is related to ____________. A. Boy B. Sheep C. Iodine D. Cow 17. Rousseau advised, “Have a good bank account, a good cook and a good digestion.” What is being referred to? A. Investment B. Family C. Duty D. Security 40 18. What figure of speech is employed when the author states, “ O souls and spirits of the martyred brave. Arise?” A. Apostrophe B. Metonymy C. Onomatopoeia D. Metaphor 19. We buy only cherry plums since we like ______ best. A. That kinds B. That C. These kind D. Those kind 20. Being the scion of a wealthy patriarch, the family enjoys a good life. A. Relative B. Paintings C. Family D. Descendant 21. Which of the following works by DANIEL DEFOE features a castaway who spends 28 years on a remote tropical island near Venezuela, encountering Native Americans, captives, and mutineers before being rescued? A. Moll Flanders B. Memoirs of a Cavalier C. Robinson Crusoe D. Captain Singleton 41 22. The main protagonist acted out the part with great elan. A. Great pride B. Supervised movements C. Memorized dialogue D. Enthusiasm and style 23. One New York publisher has estimated that 50,000 to 60,000 people in the United States want an anthology that includes the complete works of William Shakespeare. And what accounts for this renewed interest in Shakespeare? As scholars point out, his psychological insights into both male and female characters are amazing even today. This paragraph best supports the statement that A. Shakespeare’s characters are more interesting than fictional characters today. B. Academic scholars are putting together an anthology of Shakespeare’s work. C. People even today are interested in Shakespeare’s work because of the characters. D. New Yorkers have a renewed interested in the work of Shakespeare. 24. Which of the following is a work of SAMUEL LANGHORNE CLEMENS? A. The Scarlet Letter B. Animal Farm C. Adventures of Huckleberry Finn D. Uncle Tom’s Cabin 25. Which is NOT synonym for ‘gathering’? A. Colligation B. Contesseration C. Collocation D. Conjuration 26. ___________ wiring is the cause of the sudden blackout. A. Lose B. Losing C. Lost D. Loose 27. We should work for a total ban ____ of pesticides that are harmful to man. A. By the use B. With the use C. On the use D. On using 28. Please read the chapter __________________. A. “Filing Your Income Tax Returns” B. Filling your Income Tax Returns C. Filing Your Income Tax Returns D. “Filing your Income Tax Returns” 42 29. There was HIATUS of two years before I went back to college. HIATUS means _______. A. Uninterruption B. Length C. Continuation D. Lapse 30. BREAD is related to BUTTER as POTATOES is related to ____________. A. Gravy B. Margarine C. Lamb D. Steak 31. The ancient people made a ___________ that the end of the world is near. A. Prophetic B. Prophesy C. Prophecy D. Prophet 32. “We moved into the house last week, but I’m afraid everything, is still at sixes and sevens.” A. The things have not been shipped. B. In a state of confusion. C. In an orderly manner. D. The boxes are still intact 33. Both Nenita and _____ plan to go. A. I B. Myself C. Me myself D. Me 34. The nearest post office is on _____________________. A. Twenty-Second Street B. Twenty second street C. Twenty Second Street D. Twenty-second street 35. Which of the following sentences is punctuated correctly? A. He worked all night, therefore, he was able to finish the report in time. B. He worked all night; therefore, he was able to finish the report in time. C. He worked all night, therefore he was able to finish the report in time. D. He worked all night therefore he was able to finish the report in time. 36. Select the sentence with the most appropriate order of adverbs and adverbial phrases. A. Ramonita prays fervently for her grandmother’s recovery at St. Matthew’s Church. B. Ramonita prays fervently at St. Matthew’s Church for her grandmother’s recovery. C. Ramonita prays at St. Matthew’s Church fervently for her grandmother’s recovery. D. Any one of the choices is fine. 43 37. A Chinese proverb says, “the virtue with the shortest memory is gratitude.” This tells of persons who are: A. Grateful B. Greetful C. Hospitable D. Careful 38. Choose the sentence that expresses the thought clearly and that has no error in structure/spelling. A. The farmer has plowed, planted and harvested his corn in record time. B. The farmer plowed, planted and harvested his corn in record time. C. The farmer did plow, plant, harvest his corn in record time. D. The farmer plowed, has planted and has harvested his corn in record time. 39. The wounded soldiers were visited by the President who honored them with ______ for their ______. A. Appointments – consistency B. Medals – valor C. Appearance – bravery D. Money – sacrifice 40. GNASH is related to TEETH as LISTEN is related to ____________. A. Dissuade B. Resolve C. Ears D. Hear 41. Joevy _____ in bed too long and missed her classes. A. Lay B. Lied C. Lays D. Laid 42. In Feng Shui, clutter is a big no-no. Clutter is consists of old toys, clothes, old magazines and everything old which are no longer used. It hinders the free circulation of the fresh energy inside the house, preventing it to enter every room. It makes the energy inside the house stale and inactive, making the residents of the house sickly and less aggressive. To avoid more unlucky situations in the homes, clutter should be cleared once it starts to pile up. This is good Feng Shui. What conclusion can we make? A. Old toys should be recycled. B. Old books and old magazines should be arranged in one place. C. Clutter should be stored in one room of the house for good Feng Shui. D. Clutter is inauspicious in the homes. 43. All of the following correctly describes the BALLAD, except A. A ballad often uses learned language B. A ballad often rhymes C. A ballad use dialogue D. A ballad is a narrative poem 44 44. He’s a good doctor but instead of working in a big hospital, he opts to practice his profession in remote areas. A. Tries B. Decides C. Chooses D. Starts 45. The line from the Koran, “Woe to every backbiter,” talks of _____________. A. Anguish for those who defend unrighteousness B. Sorrow for those who oppose other’s opinion C. Misery for those who talk ill of others D. Punishment for those who say good things 46. Which of the following job has the stress on the first syllable? A. Psychiatrist B. Secretary C. Biologist D. Photographer 47. It is hard to earn a dollar these days. A. Metonymy B. Synechdoche C. Personification D. Oxymoron 48. I should have returned this book last Tuesday, it is now five days ____. A. Delayed B. Overdue C. Postponed D. Beyond 49. The beautiful façade of the building elicited admiration from the guests. A. Front B. Paintings C. Decoration D. Lobby 50. Which among the following is the correct sequence of the sentences below? 1. The image of a good teacher is one who is constantly reflecting about how best to help different types of learners how to learn. 2. The National Competency-Based Teacher Standards (NCBTS) define a new paradigm of teaching where the teacher is viewed as a knowledge professional who is responsible for facilitating learning. 3. Good teaching is defined in terms of those practices that help students learn better. 4. Competency-based means that the standards or criteria for characterizing good. 45 5. The NCBTS can be used as a self assessment tool for professional development. A. 2, 4, 3, 1, 5 B. 1, 2, 4, 5, 3 C. 3, 4, 5, 1, 2 D. 4, 1, 3, 5, 2 46 SCIENCE This section consists of test items in Biology, Chemistry, Physics, and Earth Science that will test your ability to accomplish various important scientific tasks. 1. What type of soil is most suitable for plant growth? a. loam b. sand c. silt d. clay 2. What instrument measures earthquakes? a. seismograph b. barograph c. thermograph d. polygraph 3. What is believed to be the composition of the earth’s core? a. heavy liquid b. heavy solid c. soft liquid d. soft gases 4. Where are nutrients mostly absorbed? a. small b. large c. stomach intestine intestine d. esophagus 5. Why are whales considered mammals? a. They nourish their young with milk. c. They use lungs to breathe. b. They give birth to live youngs and not d. All of the these hatched from eggs. 6. Why are most fungi parasitic? a. They can kill their host. c. They can cause diseases or infections. b. They take nutrients from their host. d. They stick to the other organisms. 7. Convert 104F to Celsius. a. 27C b. 30C c. 40C d. 100C 8. If your mass on Earth is 54 kg, what is your weight on the moon? a. 90 kg b. 54 kg c. 88 N d. 540 N 9. Which of the following is true about acids? a. It tastes bitter. c. Its pH is more than 7. b. It feels slippery. d. It turns blue litmus paper into red. 10. Which of the following produces the greatest acceleration? a. F = 16 N, m = 4 kg c. F = 5 N, m = 1 kg b. F = 10 N, m = 5 kg d. F = 2 N, m = 15 kg 47 11. Which of the following is the function of the liver? a. It filters waste materials from the blood. b. It manufactures bile to aid fat digestion and remove toxins from the blood. c. It supplies most enzymes for digestion. d. It destroys old red blood cells, produces lymphocytes, which is a type of white blood cells, and stores blood. 12. Which of the following chemical equations shows a composition reaction? a. Cl2 + NaBr → NaCl + Br2 c. Na + O2 → Na2O b. C20H42 + O2 → CO2 + H2O d. NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O 13. Why is it warmer in the regions near the equator than those near the poles? a. Regions near the equator receive vertical rays of the sun. b. The air above the equator is thicker. c. Regions near the equator have longer days than night. d. Sunlight is converted into heat faster near the equator. 14. The atomic mass of iron is 56 and its atomic number is 26. How many neutrons does an atom of iron have? a. 26 b. 28 c. 30 d. 32 15. What is the most abundant gas in the Earth’s atmosphere? a. oxygen c. carbon dioxide b. nitrogen d. hydrogen 16. The principal quantum number of an atom is 5, what can you conclude? a. There are 10 orbitals. c. The electron has very low energy. b. There are 5 subshells. d. The maximum number of electrons is 25. 17. What is the longest fault? a. San Andreas Fault c. Chaman Fault b. Marikina Fault d. Calaveras Fault 18. The half-life of radon is four days. If at start, you have 32 grams, how many grams will be left after 20 days? a. 4 b. 2 c. 1 d. 0.5 19. How many 1.5-volt dry cells can you put in a circuit that has a 12-volt lamp to give maximum light without breaking the lamp? a. 6 b. 8 c. 9 d. 12 48 20. What do you call a hail rain? a. precipitation b. mixture c. solution d. condensation 21. A plant’s leaves have parallel veins and each of its flower has 6 petals; to which group does it belong? a. monocot c. cannot be determined b. dicot d. neither monocot nor dicot 22. What is the largest classification of animals? a. Kingdom b. Phylum c. Class d. Species 23. If the resistance of the circuit is decreased, what happens to the current? a. Decreases c. Stays the same b. Increases d. None of these 24. If the distance between two objects is doubled, what happens to the force of attraction between them? a. Decreases c. Stays the same b. Increases d. None of these 25. If you would travel from Earth to Mars, your a. mass would stay same but your weight would be different. b. mass and weight would both stay the same. c. mass would be different but your weight would stay the same. d. mass and weight would both change. 26. Barnacles adhering to the skin of a whale is an example of a. mutualism. c. parasitism. b. commensalism. d. predation. 27. Which of the following is true? a. pH of less than 7 is basic. c. Acids are bitter. b. pH of more than 7 is acidic. d. None of the above. 28. When blood passes through the lungs, what do the lungs do on the blood? a. Supply oxygen to the blood c. Supplies carbon dioxide to the blood b. Filters waste from the blood d. Takes away oxygen from the blood 29. What is the part of the earth in which living organisms exist? a. lithosphere b. hydrosphere c. biosphere d. atmosphere 30. How many alleles can be formed in a person with AaBb genotype? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 49 31. Temperatures have risen during the last 30 years. As the Earth warms up, seawater level rises. Why is there an expected increase in seawater level when the temperature increases? a. The oceans spread or expand. c. The ice in the north and south poles b. The mountain glaciers melt. melt. d. All of these 32. Where are chromosomes located? a. nucleolus c. plasma membrane b. nucleus d. cytoplasm 33. Lightning can be defined as a. collision of cold air and hot air. b. the expansion of rapidly heated air. c. violent disturbance of the atmosphere with strong winds and usually rain. d. massive electrostatic discharge between electrically charged regions within clouds. 34. What is the moho? a. inner core c. boundary between the outer and inner b. outer core core d. boundary between the crust and the mantle 35. Where is chlorophyll found? a. stomata b. chloroplasts c. chromoplasts d. leucoplasts For numbers 36 and 37, refer to the v-t graph below. v (m/s) 30 0 t (s) 3 7 –30 36. What is the slope of the line segment from 3 s to 5 s? a. –15 b. 15 c. –30 d. 30 37. To what does the slope of the graph refer? a. distance b. displaceme c. velocity d. acceleratio nt n 38. What does the stomach produce other than hydrochloric acid? a. pepsin b. lipase c. citric acid d. lactic acid 50 39. A projectile is launched at an angle from the ground. What becomes zero as the projectile approaches the ground? a. vertical displacement c. acceleration b. speed d. velocity 40. Why can you smell perfume in an open bottle? (1) Molecules are moving. (2) Molecules attract one another. (3) Molecules of air have large spaces between them. (4) Air has no definite volume. 41. The movement of food through the intestines is known as: A. Peristalsis B. Ileum translation C. Microvilli propulsion D. Flexure propulsion 42. The enzyme maltase does the following: A. Breaks down lactose to glucose B. Turns glucose into maltose C. Breaks down maltose to glucose D. Turns glucose into lactose 43. High levels of bilirubin in the blood stream can result in: A. Uric acid overexposure B. Jaundice C. Bile salt production D. Hepatic mutation 44. The symbol B on the periodic table stands for: A. Beryllium B. Boron C. Barium D. Berkelium 45. The symbol Mn on the periodic table stands for: A. Magnesium B. Molybdenum C. Manganese D. Margon 46. The symbol Ca on the periodic table stands for: A. Calcium B. Carbon C. Cobalt D. Chlorine 51 47. The symbol Br on the periodic table stands for: A. Beryllium B. Boron C. Barium D. Bromine 48. Vinegar is also known as: A. Acetic acid B. Acetone acid C. Sulfuric acid D. Ascorbic acid 49. A Lewis acid is a/an ____ pair acceptor. A. Neutron B. Proton C. Electron D. Ion 50. _____ reactions produce heat. A. Endothermic B. Exothermic C. Hydrogen D. Buffered 51. Which of the following match the definition: The pressure (P) is inversely proportional to the volume (V) of a gas. A. Archimedes' principle B. Charles' law C. Boyle's law D. Anderson's principle 52. The combination of sodium and chlorine to form NaCL is considered a/an ___ bond. A. Ionic B. Covalent C. Hydrogen D. Metallic 53. Outer shell electrons are known as ______ electrons. A. Hybrid B. Valence C. Vector D. Transitional 54. Forces can be indicated on graph paper by the use of _____. A. Empirical rules B. Interaction coefficients C. Variables D. Vectors 52 55. P1V1 = P2V2 represents: A. Archimedes' principle B. Charles' law C. Boyle's law D. Anderson's principle 56. Which of the following is not considered a primary color of light? A. Green B. Blue C. Red D. Yellow 57. The unit of charge is called the _____. A. Newton B. Coulomb C. Joule D. Watt 58. A/An ______ is a device specifically designed to measure current. A. Ammeter B. Cyclotron C. Resistor D. Capacitor 59. The two bones found in the area between the knee and ankle in humans are known as: A. Femur and Tibia B. Fibula and Tibia C. Ulna and Tibia D. Radius and Tibia 60. _____ is the current flow of one coulomb per second. A. Ampere B. Joule C. Watt D. Kilowatt 53 MATHEMATICS 1. What does D represent in Roman numeral system? a. 500 b. 50 c. 100 d. 1000 2. What is 70.3 divided by 10? a. 7.03 b. 27.03 c. 17.03 d. 703 3. How many irrational numbers are there between 1 and 6 ? a. Infinitely many b. 3 c. 10 d. 4 4. Which of the following has the smallest value? a. 0.01 b. 0.0001 c. 0.1 d. 0.00001 e. 0.001 5. A herd of cows gives 4 liters of milk each day. But each cow gives one-third of total milk each day. They give 24 liters milk in six days. How many cows are there in the herd? a. 2 b. 3 c. 5 d. 4 6. What is the square root of 144? a. 67 b. 12 c. 34 d. 24 7. Which fraction is equal to 0.20%? a. 1/500 54 b. 1/20 c. 1/400 d. 1/50 8. Sarah is twice as old as her youngest brother. If the difference between their ages is 15 years. How old is her youngest brother? a. 15 b. 10 c. 20 d. 25 9. Simplify: √48 a. 6√3 b. 4√2 c. 4√3 d. 4√2 10. A typical high school student consumes 67.5 pounds of sugar per year. As part of a new nutrition plan, each member of a track team plans to lower the sugar he or she consumes by at least 20% for the coming year. Assuming each track member had consumed sugar at the level of a typical high school student and will adhere to this plan for the coming year, what is the maximum number of pounds of sugar to be consumed by each track team member in the coming year? a. 66 b. 54 c. 48 d. 44 11. If you purchase two stamps costing 60 centavos each and you give the cashier ₱2.00, how much change should you receive? a. 60 cents b. 40 cents c. 70 cents d. 80 cents 12. In a writing competition, the first place winner receives ½ of the prize money. The second runner up receives ¼ of what the winner won. What was the total amount of prize money distributed if the winner receives ₱6,000? a. ₱12,000 b. ₱6,000 c. ₱8,500 d. ₱15,000 13. You decide to dye your hair various colors for Halloween. If you dye 1/3 of it blue, 1/4 pink, and 1/4 black, how much of your original hair color is left? 55 a. 4/5 b. 5/6 c. 3/4 d. 4/6 14. A DVD player with a list price of ₱100 is marked down 30%. If John gets an employee discount of 20% off the sale price, how much does John pay for the DVD player ? a. ₱86.00 b. ₱56.00 c. ₱44.00 d. ₱77.60 15. What will it cost to tile a kitchen floor that is 12 feet wide by 20 feet long if the tile cost ₱8.91 per square yard? a. ₱271.38 b. ₱237.60 c. ₱246.55 d. ₱224.51 16. An instrument store gives a 10% discount to all students off the original cost of an instrument. During a back to school sale an additional 15% is taken off the discounted price. Julie, a student at the local high school, purchases a flute for ₱306. How much did it originally cost? a. ₱450 b. ₱325 c. ₱400 d. ₱350 17. If 5 ounces is equal to 140 grams, then 2 pounds of ground meat is equal to how many grams? a. 896 b. 915 c. 863 d. 878 18. One half of the students in a school are girls, 3/5 of these girls are studying in lower classes. What fraction of girls are studying in lower classes? a. 2/4 b. 3/10 c. 2/10 d. 3/4 19. If 3x=6x-15 then x + 8= a. 5 b. 10 c. 13 56 d. 11 20. Find the area of the parallelogram. a. 30.6 m2 b. 13 - 50....thats 47 c.... 5.6 m2 d.... 13.26 m2 21. Find the missing term in the following sequence: 4, 9, 19, , 79 a. 36 b. 37 c. 38 d. 39 22. What is three fifths of 50? a. Thirty-five (35) b. Forty (40) c. Forty-five (45) d. Thirty (30) 23. You are lying 120 ft away from a tree that is 50 feet tall. You look up at the top of the tree. Approximately how far is your hear from the top of the tree in a straight line? a. 75 feet b. 130 feet c. 120 feet d. 50 feet 24. Which of the following fractions is equal to 5/6? a. 20/30 b. 15/24 c. 25/30 d. 40/54 25. In his pocket, a boy has 3 red marbles, 4 blue marbles, and 4 green marbles. How many will he have to take out of his pocket to ensure that he has taken out at least one of each color? a. 7 b. 8 c. 3 d. 9 26. What is the cube root of 216? a. ₱12,000 b. ₱6,000 c. ₱8,500 57 d. ₱15,000 27. A car averages 27 miles per gallon. If gas costs $4.04 per gallon, which of the following is closest to how much the gas would cost for this car to travel 2,727 typical miles? a. $44.44 b. $109.08 c. $408.4 d. $444.40 28. Find side AB? a. 11.54 m b. 8.66 m c. 20 m d. 5m 29. The number of milliliters in 1 liter is: a. 0.1 b. 10,000 c. 1,000 d. 0.01 30. 4/7 of a number is 84. Find the number. a. 140 b. 100 c. 120 d. 147 31. 0.2+0.02+0.002=? a. 0.22 b. 22 c. 2 d. 0.222 e. 0.2 32. 20 % of 2 is equal to: a. 0.4 b. 4 c. 0.04 d. 20 33. 2345 x 0.00001 = ? a. 0.2345 58 b. 2.345 c. 23.45 d. 0.02345 e. 234.5 34. What is the greatest common factor of 42, 126, and 210 ? a. 14 b. 21 c. 42 d. 2 35. Students mailed invitations to a play to 414 parents. Each student mailed 18 invitations. If s equals the number of students who mailed invitations, which equation best shows the number of invitations that were mailed? a. 18s = 414 b. s ÷ 18 = 414 c. 18 ÷ s = 414 d. s + 18 = 414 36. How many degrees are there in a right angle? a. 90 b. 360 c. 180 d. 45 37. 0.00072 x 10000 = ? a. 0.0072 b. 7.2 c. 0.72 d. 72,000 e. 720,000 38. Which of the following is the sine of angle A in the right triangle below? a. 12/5 b. 12/13 c. 5/13 d. 5/12 39. Sharon weeded 5/6 of her yard in the morning and 1/6 of the yard in the afternoon. What part of the yard did she weed altogether? a. 3/6 b. 2/6 59 c. 4/6 d. 1 40. What is the equation of this line? a. Cannot be Determined b. y = 2x -2 c. y = 2x +2 d. y = -x + 2 41. Write the equation for the line in slope-intercept form. a. y=1/4x+3 b. y= -4x+3 c. y= 4x+3 d. y= -1x+3 42. In a small company average salary of three employees is ₱1000 per week. If one employee earns ₱1100 and other earns ₱500, how much will the third employee earn? a. 1400 b. 2000 c. 1000 d. 1200 43. 2/5 + 3/8 = ? a. 34/40 b. 5/13 c. 6/13 d. 31/40 44. What is 4995 divided by 15? a. 350 b. 333 c. 320 d. 325 45. What is the square root of 81? a. 7 b. 8 c. 9 d. 6 46. What is the value of x when 2x + 3 = 3x – 4 ? a. -7 b. 1 c. -1/5 60 d. 7 47. If y(x-1)=z then x= a. z(y-1) b. y-z c. z/y + 1 d. y(z-1) 48. There is a box of pebbles where 1/4 are blue, 2/4 are yellow, and 1/4 are black. What fraction of the box has yellow and black pebbles? a. 2/4 b. 1/2 c. 3/4 d. 1/4 49. What is the meaning of Pi in Math? a. It's the ratio of a circle's circumference to its radius. b. It's the ratio of a circle's secant to its diameter. c. It's the ratio of a circle's chord to its diameter. d. It's the ratio of a circle's circumference to its diameter. 50. The ratio in a right triangle of adjacent to hypotenuse is a. cosine b. inverse cosine c. tangent d. sine 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– DIAGNOSTIC TEST 5. All of the rooms in a building are rectangular, with 8-foot ceilings. One room is 9 feet wide by 79 PRACTICE QUESTIONS 11 feet long. What is the combined area of the Shop Arithmetic four walls, including doors and windows? a. 99 square feet 1. A length of rope 3 feet 4 inches long was divided b. 160 square feet in 5 equal parts. How long was each part? c. 320 square feet a. 1 foot 2 inches d. 72 square feet b. 10 inches c. 8 inches Tool Knowledge d. 6 inches Put the correct letter next to the description of the tools. 2. Plattville is 80 miles west and 60 miles north of (A) (B) (C) Quincy. How long is a direct route from Plattville to Quincy? a. 100 miles b. 120 miles c. 140 miles (D) (E) d. 160 miles 3. A builder has 27 cubic feet of concrete to pave a sidewalk whose length is 6 times its width. The concrete must be poured 6 inches deep. How long is the sidewalk? a. 9 feet 6. used with hammer to notch or chip away stone b. 12 feet ___ c. 15 feet 7. used to crimp wire ends to fit into screw termi- d. 18 feet nals ___ 4. A floor plan is drawn to scale so that 41 inch rep- 8. used with glue stick to apply adhesive ___ resents 2 feet. If a hall on the plan is 4 inches long, how long will the actual hall be when it is built? 9. used to remove nails or open crates ___ a. 2 feet 10. used with sockets to loosen or tighten nuts b. 8 feet and/or bolts ___ c. 16 feet d. 32 feet LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude CHAPTER 6 209 68 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Mechanical Knowledge Mechanical Insight 11. Which of the following automotive systems uses 16. What is the most accurate statement regarding lubrication fluid? the relationship between weight and density? a. the transmission system a. Weight equals density divided by volume. b. the exhaust system b. A bathroom scale cannot measure density. c. the suspension system c. Density can be measured in pounds. d. the electrical system d. All of the above. 12. Which automotive system uses fuses and an 17. Expansion is to contraction as alternator? a. pressure is to density. a. the steering system b. acceleration is to deceleration. b. the cooling system c. weight is to center of gravity. c. the electrical system d. direction is to velocity. d. the engine 18. The center of gravity of a baseball bat would be 13. What is the function of the spark plugs in the best described as internal combustion engine in a car? a. near the grip. a. to transfer electricity to the alternator b. near the fat end. b. to increase the cylinder size c. near the skinny end. c. to cool the engine d. at the top. d. to ignite the fuel 19. Which is heavier, five pounds of feathers or five 14. Which fluid is contained in a car radiator? pounds of lead? a. transmission fluid a. The feathers are heavier. b. cooling fluid b. The lead is heavier. c. brake fluid c. They weigh the same. d. steering fluid d. It is not possible to compare the two. 15. What is the primary function of the water pump 20. Which material is best suited for use as a boat in a car? anchor? a. to circulate coolant a. metal b. to evacuate waste water b. foam c. to remove exhaust c. wood d. to filter water d. glass 210 CHAPTER 6 LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude 69 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Hidden Figures Use Figure J-3 for questions 21–25: 21. The hidden figure in block 21 is ___. 24. The hidden figure in block 24 is ___. a. A a. A b. B b. B c. C c. C d. D d. D e. E e. E 22. The hidden figure in block 22 is ___. 25. The hidden figure in block 25 is ___. a. A a. A b. B b. B c. C c. C d. D d. D e. E e. E 23. The hidden figure in block 23 is ___. a. A b. B c. C d. D e. E LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude CHAPTER 6 211 70 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Block Counting 28. Block 28 is touched by ___ other blocks. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 29. Block 29 is touched by ___ other blocks. a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 For questions 26–30, refer to Figure I-4 d. 5 26. Block 26 is touched by ___ other blocks. e. 6 a. 2 30. Block 30 is touched by ___ other blocks. b. 3 a. 2 c. 4 b. 3 d. 5 c. 4 e. 6 d. 5 27. Block 27 is touched by ___ other blocks. e. 6 a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5 e. 6 Rotated Blocks 31. 212 CHAPTER 6 LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude 71 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– 32. 33. 34. 35. LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude CHAPTER 6 213 72 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Matching Pieces and Parts In questions 36–37 below, select the single answer choice that represents the two parts that join together to make the given whole. Pieces may be reflected and/or rotated. 36. a) b) c) d) 37. a) b) c) d) In questions 38–39 below, pick the two answer choices that will come together to make the figure shown. Pieces may be reflected and/or rotated. 38. a) b) c) d) e) 39. a) b) c) d) e) 214 CHAPTER 6 LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude 73 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– In question 40 below, four pieces are given. Choose the answer choice that represents a figure comprised of all four pieces. Pieces may be rotated and/or reflected. 40. a) b) c) d) Spatial Analysis 41. a. b. c. d. 42. a. b. c. d. 43. a. b. c. d. 44. a. c. b. d. 45. a. b. c. d. LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude CHAPTER 6 215 74 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Understanding Patterns 46. a. b. c. d. 47. a. b. c. d. 48. a. b. c. d. 49. a. b. c. d. 216 CHAPTER 6 LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude 75 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– 50. a. b. c. d. Eye-Hand Coordination 4 LETTER-SYMBOL QUESTIONS Reference Code Letter A B C D E F G H I J Code Letter K L M N O P Q R S T Code Questions Question Answer 1. 2. 3. 4. LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude CHAPTER 6 217 76 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Answers Question Answer 1. O 2. T 3. L 4. Q Letter A B C D E F G H I J Code Letter K L M N O P Q R S T Code 3 1 4 2 3 EXAMINING OBJECTS QUESTIONS Sorting Code 5 5 lbs 5 lbs lbs 5 lbs 5 lbs BOX BOX BOX BOX 1 2 3 4 Ship Fail Recycle Discount The Sorting Code above is a graphical summary for the following Sorting Code. Read the code carefully. 218 CHAPTER 6 LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude 77 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Sorting Code for Boxes 1 through 4: In the questions below, you are presented with a Box 1: Ship package containing two pieces. Use the above sorting All packages placed in this box must satisfy each of the code to determine which box each package needs to be following requirements placed in. The two pieces are the same weight. 51. a. Box 1 The two pieces are the same shape. b. Box 2 5 3lbs The two pieces are free from defects. c. Box 3 lbs Box 2: Fail d. Box 4 All packages placed in this box contain two defective 52. a. Box 1 pieces. Regardless of weight or shape, if both pieces b. Box 2 inside a package are defective, put them in Box 2. c. Box 3 Note: A “defect” is displayed as a black circle on the d. Box 4 piece. See the graphic code above. Box 3: Recycle 53. a. Box 1 All packages placed in this box contain one defective 3 b. Box 2 lbs piece. Regardless of shape or weight, if one piece of the c. Box 3 pair is defective, put the package in Box 3. d. Box 4 Box 4: Discount All packages placed in this box contain non-defective pieces that do not match in weight or shape. LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude CHAPTER 6 219 78 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– MAZES E enter D A C B 54. Follow the maze above and mark the letter that correctly represents the way out of the maze. ___ 220 CHAPTER 6 LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude 79 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Reading Maps Answer questions 55–59 based on the map and the information below. N W E one way KEY two way S EXPRESSWAY BROWN STREET GAS STATION DRUG STORE OAK STREET PARK Junior High School 11th AVENUE 10th AVENUE 12th AVENUE 9th AVENUE PARK PARK STREET STREET POLICE LIBRARY STATION MAPLE STREET HOSPITAL FIRE STATION CLINIC GREEN STREET This is a map of a section of the city where some public buildings are located. Each of the squares repre- sent one city block. Street names are as shown. If there is an arrow next to the street name, it means the street is one way only, in the direction of the arrow. If there is no arrow next to the street name, two-way traffic is allowed. LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude CHAPTER 6 221 80 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– 55. There has been a vehicular accident at the cor- 58. Someone at the junior high school has been ner of Brown Street and 9th Avenue and gaso- injured and needs to go to the hospital. What line is leaking from one of the cars. What is the directions would you give to the ambulance most direct legal way for a fire engine to travel driver? to the scene of the accident? a. north on 10th Avenue, west on Brown a. east on Maple Street and north on 9th Street, and south on 12th Avenue to the Avenue to the accident hospital entrance b. west on Maple Street, north on 12th b. south on 10th Avenue and west on Green Avenue, and east on Brown Street to the Street to the hospital entrance accident c. north on 10th Avenue and south on c. east on Maple Street and north on 11th Brown Street to the hospital entrance Avenue to the accident d. south on 10th Avenue, west on Maple d. west on Maple Street, north on 11th Street, and west on Green Street to the Avenue, and east on Brown Street to the hospital entrance accident 59. You are leaving work at the police station and 56. What streets run north and south of the park? need to fill your gas tank before you go home. a. Brown Street and Oak Street What is the quickest legal route to the gas sta- b. Maple Street and Park Street tion? c. Brown Street and Park Street a. south on 9th Avenue, west on Maple d. Green Street and Oak Street Street, north on 11th Avenue, and west on Oak Street to the entrance 57. If you were giving directions to the drug store b. east on Maple Street, north on 10th from the hospital, what would be the most Avenue, and west on Oak Street to the direct, legal route? entrance a. east on Maple Street, north on 9th c. north on 9th Avenue and west on Brown Avenue, and west on Brown Street to the Street to the entrance store entrance d. north on 9th Avenue, west on Park Street, b. west on Maple Street, north on 10th north on 10th Avenue, and west on Oak Avenue, and west on Brown Street to the Street to the entrance store entrance c. west on Green Street, north on 12th Avenue, and east on Brown Street to the store entrance d. east on Oak Street, north on 11th Avenue, and east on Brown Street to the store entrance 222 CHAPTER 6 LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude 81 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Symbol Series (A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (C) (D) (D) (E) (E) (A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (C) (D) (D) (E) (E) 60. 61. 62. Group Group 1 Group 2 (A) (B) (C) (D) (E) Group 1 1 Group Group 2 2 (A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (C) (D) (D) (E) (E) ?? 63. ? ?? 64. ? ?? ? Symbol Analogies ?? ? 65. ?? ? 66. ?? ? 67. x x ?? x x T T ? x o x 68. ??? ??? 69. LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude CHAPTER 6 223 82 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– Sorting and Classifying Figures Group Group 1 1 Group Group 2 2 (A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (D) (D) (E) (E) Group (C) (D) (E) 70. Group 1 1 Group Group 2 2 (A) (A) (B) (B) (C) (C) (D) (E) 71. 72. 73. 74. Series Reasoning 75. Look at this series: U32, V29, W26, X23,... What 78. Look at this series: 17, ___, 28, 28, 39, 39,... number should come next? What number should fill the blank? a. Y20 a. 6 b. Y17 b. 17 c. Z20 c. 28 d. Z26 d. 50 76. Look at this series: 664, 332, 340, 170, 178,... 79. Look at this series: 75, 65, 85, 55, ___, 85, 35, 25, What number should come next?.... What number should fill the blank? a. 89 a. 25 b. 94 b. 45 c. 109 c. 65 d. 184 d. 85 77. Look at this series: 2, IV, 8, XVI,... What num- ber/Roman numeral should come next? a. XXXII b. XIX c. 16 d. 32 224 CHAPTER 6 LearningExpress Mechanical & Spatial Aptitude 83 Answer Key Part I VERBAL REASONING 1. C 26. B 2. A 27. D 3. A 28. C 4. A 29. B 5. A 30. D 6. C 31. C 7. B 32. D 8. C 33. A 9. D 34. B 10. D 35. D 11. D 36. D 12. B 37. A 13. C 38. B 14. D 39. D 15. B 40. A 16. C 41. B 17. D 42. C 18. A 43. C 19. A 44. D 20. B 45. C 21. D 46. D 22. B 47. B 23. D 48. B 24. B 49. A 25. A 50. B 84 NON-VERBAL REASONING 1. C 26. C 2. D 27. B 3. D 28. A 4. D 29. D 5. A 30. C 6. B 31. A 7. C 32. A 8. C 33. D 9. C 34. B 10. B 35. A 11. D 36. C 12. D 37. B 13. A 38. A 14. B 39. D 15. A 40. D 16. B 41. A 17. D 42. D 18. D 43. A 19. B 44. A 20. D 45. C 21. C 46. B 22. B 47. C 23. B 48. C 24. C 49. D 25. C 50. D 85 86 PART II ENGLISH 1. C 26. D 2. B 27. C 3. C 28. A 4. D 29. D 5. D 30. A 6. D 31. C 7. A 32. B 8. C 33. A 9. A 34. A 10. B 35. B 11. D 36. A 12. D 37. A 13. C 38. B 14. D 39. B 15. D 40. C 16. D 41. A 17. D 42. D 18. A 43. B 19. B 44. C 20. D 45. C 21. C 46. B 22. D 47. A 23. C 48. B 24. C 49. A 25. B 50. A 87 MATHEMATICS 1. A 26. A 2. A 27. C 3. A 28. B 4. D 29. C 5. B 30. D 6. B 31. D 7. A 32. A 8. A 33. D 9. D 34. C 10. B 35. A 11. D 36. A 12. A 37. B 13. B 38. B 14. B 39. D 15. B 40. D 16. C 41. C 17. A 42. A 18. B 43. D 19. C 44. B 20. D 45. C 21. D 46. D 22. D 47. C 23. B 48. C 24. C 49. D 25. D 50. A 88 89 90 –DIAGNOSTIC TEST– DIAGNOSTIC TEST ANSWER Tool Knowledge EXPLANATIONS 6. d. Choice d is a stone chisel used with a Shop Arithmetic hammer to notch or chip stone. 1. c. Three feet 4 inches equal

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