DNM Quizzes PDF

Started on Sunday, 4 August 2024, 8:31 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 4 August 2024, 8:42 PM Time taken 10 mins 17 secs Grade 20.00 out of 20.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: A patient with...

Started on Sunday, 4 August 2024, 8:31 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 4 August 2024, 8:42 PM Time taken 10 mins 17 secs Grade 20.00 out of 20.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: A patient with somatic symptom disorder is likely to report dissatisfaction with previous clinical assessment and treatment. Select one: a. True  b. False The correct answer is: True Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A deficiency in thiamine will result in: Select one: a. Beri-Beri b. Subacute combined degeneration of the cord c. Korsakoff's psychosis d. Both (A) and (C) above are true  e. All of the above are true The correct answer is: Both (A) and (C) above are true Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A deficiency of thiamine results in: Select one: a. Seborrhoiec dermatitis b. Normocytic anaemia c. Dry Beri-Beri  d. Angular stomatitis e. Flushing The correct answer is: Dry Beri-Beri Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Aribovitaminosis typically presents with: Select one: a. Fatigue b. Angular stomatitis c. Anaemia d. Seborrhoiec dermatitis e. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following B group vitamins does NOT have a function in oxidative phosphorylation? Select one: a. B1 b. B2 c. B3 d. B5 e. B6  The correct answer is: B6 Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What level of health care should focus most on prevention and health promotion? Select one: a. Primary care  b. Secondary care c. Tertiary care d. All of the above The correct answer is: Primary care Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is Public Health? Select one: a. A broad and diverse multi-dimensional field that includes many health-related disciplines b. The application of medical, social and allied disciplines in an organised community activity designed primarily to protect and advance the health of the people c. What we, as a society do collectively to assure the conditions in which people can be healthy d. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which vitamin is required for the conversion of tryptophan to serotonin? Select one: A. Thiamine B. Riboflavin C. Pyridoxine  D. Pantothenic acid E. Cobalamin The correct answer is: Pyridoxine Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following nutrient deficiencies results in Wernicke's Encephalopathy? Select one: A. Vitamin C B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin E D. Vitamin B1  E. Vitamin B6 The correct answer is: Vitamin B1 Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 For the last 18 months Winnie has experienced intense fear of having a heart attack and is hyper-vigilant to any sensations in her chest, despite usually finding no evidence of illness or pain. What diagnosis is Winnie likely suffering from? Select one: A. Somatic Symptom Disorder B. Illness Anxiety Disorder  C. Conversion Disorder D. Factitious Disorder The correct answer is: Illness Anxiety Disorder Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 For each characteristic listed, state whether it is attributed predominantly to left sided heart failure or right sided heart failure. dyspnoea left sided heart failure  elevated jugular venous pressure right sided heart failure  ankle oedema right sided heart failure  crackles auscultated at lung bases left sided heart failure  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: dyspnoea → left sided heart failure, elevated jugular venous pressure → right sided heart failure, ankle oedema → right sided heart failure, crackles auscultated at lung bases → left sided heart failure Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely underlying cause for the fusion observed in the image below? Select one: a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Congenital fusion  c. DISH d. Old infection Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Congenital fusion Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely underlying cause for the fusion observed in the image below? Select one: a. Ankylosing spondylitis  b. Congenital fusion c. DISH d. Old infection Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Ankylosing spondylitis Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following biochemistry findings would be most likely to be associated with chronic renal failure? Select one: a. Increased parathyroid hormone  b. Hypokalaemia c. Low serum phosphate d. High serum sodium e. Low plasma urea Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Increased parathyroid hormone Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Clinical suspicion of congestive heart failure would indicate possible referral for all of the following investigations EXCEPT: Select one: a. Chest x-ray b. EEG  c. Blood assessment including electrolytes, creatinine and liver function tests d. Echocardiography The correct answer is: EEG Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely underlying cause for the fusion observed in the image below? Select one: a. Ankylosing spondylitis b. Congenital fusion c. DISH  d. Old infection Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: DISH Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 76 year old male presents progressive muscle weakness over the last few months and the following physical exam findings. Which of the following diagnoses would be most likely based on these findings? Exam findings: No sensory loss Generalised weakness of myotomes in both arms and left leg Babinski reflex positive on the left Left foot drop Hyperreflexia in both upper limbs (biceps, brachioradialis and triceps) and left leg (knee and ankle) Atrophy of anterior upper arm musculature bilaterally and left anterior thigh Stiffness of left arm Fasciculations in the right arm Select one: a. Multiple sclerosis b. Progressive muscular atrophy c. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis  d. Syringomyelia e. Primary lateral sclerosis Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following conditions tends to usually affect upper motor neurones only? Select one: a. Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis b. Primary lateral sclerosis  c. Progressive muscular atrophy d. Spinal muscular atrophy The correct answer is: Primary lateral sclerosis Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY cause of bilateral leg and ankle oedema? Select one: a. congestive cardiac failure b. renal failure c. liver failure d. chronic venous congestion in lower limbs e. deep vein thrombosis  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: deep vein thrombosis Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following clinical features are common to both upper and lower motor neurone lesions? Select one: a. changes in muscle tone b. muscle weakness c. muscle wasting d. a and b  e. a, b and c Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: a and b ◀︎Unit guide Jump to... Quiz 2 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 11 August 2024, 10:33 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 11 August 2024, 10:43 PM Time taken 10 mins 2 secs Grade 18.00 out of 20.00 (90%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely underlying diagnosis for these radiographic findings? Select one: a. Infection b. Degenerative joint disease c. Osteitis condensans ilii d. Osteitis pubis  There are erosions and sclerosis at the symphysis pubis consistent with osteitis pubis or infection. Osteitis pubis is more common than infection and therefore more likely. The correct answer is: Osteitis pubis Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is most likely to be causing this patients acute low back pain? Select one: a. Modic changes b. Disc bulge c. Annular tear  d. Disc herniation Your answer is correct. There is a high intensity zone in the posterior aspect of the L4-5 disc indicating inflammation from an annular tear. This is most likely to be associated with pain. The correct answer is: Annular tear Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following terms refers to excessive menstrual blood loss? Select one: a. Dysmenorrhoea b. Metorrhagia c. Endometriosis d. Menorrhagia  The correct answer is: Menorrhagia Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most correct diagnosis for the following? Select one: a. Scheuermann's disease b. Spondylolisthesis c. Baastrup's disease d. Limbic bone and Schmorl's nodes  Your answer is correct. Limbic bones and schmorls nodes are present - although Scheuerman's disease can occur in the lumbar spine there are no other features here to suggest it and the patient is too old to have active Scheuermanns The correct answer is: Limbic bone and Schmorl's nodes Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely cause for the radiographic changes at L5-S1? Select one: a. Spondylolisthesis b. Degenerative joint disease  c. Lumbosacral transitional segment d. Facet tropism The image shows increased sclerosis and hypertrophy of the facet joints at L5-S1 on the left indicative of facet osteoarthritis and underlying degenerative joint disease  The correct answer is: Degenerative joint disease Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely cause for the radiographic appearance at L5-S1? Select one: a. Spondylolisthesis  b. Degenerative joint disease c. Lumbosacral transitional segment d. Facet tropism The image shows a change or orientation of L5 giving a Napoleans hat sign. This is consistent with a spondylolisthesis (grade 4 or 5) The correct answer is: Spondylolisthesis Question 7 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following conditions in a female is most likely to present with symptoms of virilisation developing shortly after puberty? Select one: a. Endometriosis b. Polycystic ovarian syndrome  c. Long term corticosteroid medication d. A and B are correct e. A and C are correct The correct answer is: A and C are correct Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Metorrhagia refers to: Select one: a. Excessive menstrual bleeding b. Painful menstrual bleeding c. Bleeding from the uterus not associated with menstruation  d. Absence of menstrual bleeding Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Bleeding from the uterus not associated with menstruation Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most correct diagnosis for the following? Select one: a. Facet tropism  b. Lumbosacral transitional segment c. Spina bifida occulta d. Clasp-knife deformity Your answer is correct. The joint line is visible at L5-S1 on one side where it shouldn't be - this is facet tropism The correct answer is: Facet tropism Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely and most clinically significant underlying diagnosis? Select one: a. Osteitis pubis b. Rheumatoid arthritis  c. Degenerative joint disease d. Osteitis condensans ilii Bilateral central hip joint space loss typical of rheumatoid arthritis. Also degeneration at pubic symphysis. The correct answer is: Rheumatoid arthritis Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Everyone defines health in the same way. a. True b. False  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: False Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which vitamin enhances the absorption of iron in food? Select one: A. Vitamin B1 B. Vitamin B2 C. Vitamin C  D. Vitamin E E. Vitamin A The correct answer is: Vitamin C Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which is not a diagnosis in the DSM-5 in the 'somatic symptom and related disorders' category? Select one: a. Somatic Symptom Disorder b. Illness Anxiety Disorder c. Health Anxiety Disorder  d. Factitious Disorder The correct answer is: Health Anxiety Disorder Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Can a diagnosis of Conversion Disorder be made after 1 appointment with an experienced health professional? Select one: a. Yes, if the practitioner is highly experienced in somatic and conversion disorders. b. Yes, if the practitioner has taken a thorough medical history from the patient of the symptoms and past failed treatments. c. No, the diagnosis can only be made by a Clinical Psychologist. d. No, the diagnosis can only be made after all reasonable medical explanations have been ruled out.  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: No, the diagnosis can only be made after all reasonable medical explanations have been ruled out. Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following briefly describes Conversion Disorder? Select one: a. Medically unexplained functional somatic symptoms (e.g., chest pain). b. Intentionally feigned symptoms (e.g., limping) that are present in examination but not at home. c. Excessive fear and anxiety about developing a chronic or serious health condition (e.g., cancer). d. Medically unexplained altered voluntary motor or sensory functioning (e.g., blindness)  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Medically unexplained altered voluntary motor or sensory functioning (e.g., blindness) Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is NOT an example of a conversion symptom? Select one: a. Anxiety about a medical illness  b. Medically unexplained weakness or paralysis c. Pseudoseizures d. Hoover’s sign The correct answer is: Anxiety about a medical illness Question 17 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which statement best describes health equality? a. Providing identical healthcare services and resources to all individuals regardless of their needs. b. Ensuring that everyone has equal access to healthcare facilities without considering individual circumstances. c. Addressing disparities in healthcare access and outcomes based on individual needs and circumstances.  d. Focusing healthcare efforts solely on improving outcomes for disadvantaged populations. Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is: Providing identical healthcare services and resources to all individuals regardless of their needs. Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A deficiency of which vitamin can cause megaloblastic anaemia? Select one: A. Vitamin B12 B. Vitamin C C. Vitamin B9 D. Both (A) and (B) E. Both (A) and (C)  The correct answer is: Both (A) and (C) Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following vitamins requires particularly good stomach function for good absorption? Select one: a. Cobalamin  b. Thiamine c. Niacin d. Folic acid e. Riboflavin The correct answer is: Cobalamin Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which vitamin is necessary in the conversion of homocysteine to cysteine? Select one: a. Vitamin B6  b. Vitamin B9 c. Vitamin B12 d. Vitamin B1 e. Vitamin B2 The correct answer is: Vitamin B6 ◀︎Quiz 1 Jump to... Quiz 3 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 18 August 2024, 10:14 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 18 August 2024, 10:26 PM Time taken 12 mins 32 secs Grade 20.00 out of 20.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 All of the following conditions may cause renal calculi EXCEPT? Select one: a. Hyperparathyroidism b. Hypervitaminosis A c. Inflammatory bowel disease d. Hypervitaminosis E  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Hypervitaminosis E Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY to be associated with a sub-serosal uterine fibromyoma? Select one: a. menorrhagia  b. constipation c. urinary frequency d. lower limb varicose veins Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: menorrhagia Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A colicky style pain in the left flank region and radiating to the left groin in a 30 year old male would be most likely to be associated with: Select one: a. Acute appendicitis b. Nephrolithiasis  c. Acute diverticulitis d. Pancreatitis The correct answer is: Nephrolithiasis Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 27 year old female presents with vaginal spotting of blood between periods and a small amount of bleeding after sex. Which of the following is the LEAST likely cause of her symptoms: Select one: a. Vaginitis b. Hormonal fluctuations  c. cervical carcinoma d. Cervicitis Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Hormonal fluctuations Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 38 year old female presents with recent onset dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia and constipation. The most likely diagnosis for this combination of symptoms would be: Select one: a. Cervical cancer b. Ovarian cyst c. Ectopic pregnancy d. Uterine fibroid  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Uterine fibroid Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most correct diagnosis for the image below? Select one: a. Osteochondritis dissecans  b. Femoroacetabular impingement c. Synovial chondromatosis d. HADD e. Stress fracture Your answer is correct. A sclerotic oval fragment of bone is present at the superior femoral head with a corresponding concave defect in the femoral head. This is consistent with osteochondritis dissecans The correct answer is: Osteochondritis dissecans Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most correct diagnosis for the below image? Select one: a. Femoral neck fracture  b. Femoral dislocation c. Paget's disease d. Osteomalacia e. Stress fracture Your answer is correct. There is a sharp angulation between the medial femoral neck and femoral head with lateral displacement of the femoral neck on femoral head indicating a femoral neck fracture The correct answer is: Femoral neck fracture Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most correct diagnosis for the below image? Select one: a. Rheumatoid arthritis b. Osteoarthritis  c. Paget's disease d. Osteomalacia e. Blastic metastases Your answer is correct. There is decreased superior joint space, subchondral sclerosis and osteophyte formation. Osteoarthritis The correct answer is: Osteoarthritis Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most correct diagnosis for the image below? Select one: a. Osteochondritis dissecans b. Femoroacetabular impingement c. Synovial chondromatosis d. HADD e. Stress fracture  Your answer is correct. A sclerotic oval fragment of bone is present at the superolateral acetabulum with a corresponding concave defect in the acetabulum. This is consistent with either a congenital anomaly (os acetabuli) or a stress fracture as the diagnosis. Femoroacetabular impingement may be the underlying cause of the stress fracture. The correct answer is: Stress fracture Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following conditions is most likely to present with dysmenorrhoea, menorrhagia and constipation? Select one: a. Endometriosis b. Polycystic ovarian syndrome c. Uterine fibroids d. A and B are correct e. A and C are correct  The correct answer is: A and C are correct Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Cognitive behavioural therapy for chronic pain management incorporates the following components: Select one: a. Goal setting, psychoeducation, activity pacing, grounding techniques  b. Goal setting, activity pacing, detoxification, mood management c. Activity pacing, psychoeducation, exposure, detoxification d. Goal setting, psychoeducation, activity pacing, rest The correct answer is: Goal setting, psychoeducation, activity pacing, grounding techniques Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Cognitive-Behavioural Treatments (CBT) for pain most accurately includes: Select one: a. The main goal is to develop a baseline that encourages a gradual increases of movement with pacing techniques. b. Psycho-education, relaxation exercises, positive thinking and medication reviews. c. Cognitive reconceptualisation of chronic pain, learning new behavioural and coping skills like pacing, living within their values and self-  management skills. d. There is no evidence for CBT for chronic pain. Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Cognitive reconceptualisation of chronic pain, learning new behavioural and coping skills like pacing, living within their values and self- management skills. Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which nutrient is necessary for the synthesis of the light absorbing pigment in the eye? Select one: A. Vitamin A  B. Vitamin E C. Copper D. Iron E. Selenium The correct answer is: Vitamin A Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which statement is NOT correct? Select one: a. Liver is a good source of vitamin A b. Fat in the diet is necessary for absorption of vitamin K c. Water soluble vitamins are not toxic at high concentrations  d. Vitamin D is found in mushrooms e. Lack of vitamin A results in less rhodopsin in the rods of the eyes The correct answer is: Water soluble vitamins are not toxic at high concentrations Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 In the Workman et al. study, they found ____% of chronic pain patients also had a co-morbid Axis I disorder. Select one: a. 70%  b. 50% c. 90% d. 20% Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: 70% Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following statements in regard to tocopherol is incorrect? Select one: a. The α-tocopherol form is the most active b. Levels over 10µg/dy interferes with blood clotting  c. It is easily destroyed by heat and oxygen d. It is an anti-oxidant e. Prolonged deficiency can cause spinocerebellar ataxia Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Levels over 10µg/dy interferes with blood clotting Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following nutrients is important for blood clotting? Select one: a. Vitamin K  b. Potassium c. Vitamin C d. Iron e. Vitamin B2 The correct answer is: Vitamin K Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 In what way does the boom/bust cycle most commonly lead to worse outcomes for the patient? Select one: a. The boom/bust cycle leads to pain exacerbation and flare-ups, which reduces the likelihood of the individual engaging in activity in the future  b. The boom/bust cycle can interfere with help-seeking behaviour as the individual can only seek treatment when they are in the boom phase c. The boom/bust cycle leads the individual to experience increased lethargy causing an increase in sleep and/or rest, and further tiredness d. The boom/bust cycle promotes inaccurate, unhelpful and negative thinking and interpretations of the individuals pain The correct answer is: The boom/bust cycle leads to pain exacerbation and flare-ups, which reduces the likelihood of the individual engaging in activity in the future Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A chronically high intake of which of the following nutrients can result in increased intracranial pressure? Select one: A. Vitamin D B. Vitamin K C. Vitamin A  D. Vitamin B6 E. Vitamin B3 The correct answer is: Vitamin A Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The Cultural Safety Principles outlined above are transferable to clients who differ from health professionals in other ways - either by religion, gender, socioeconomic status, sexuality or age. a. True  b. False Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: True ◀︎Quiz 2 Jump to... Quiz 4 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 25 August 2024, 10:03 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 25 August 2024, 10:17 PM Time taken 14 mins 5 secs Grade 15.50 out of 20.00 (77.5%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 25 year old sexually active female complains of vaginal discomfort, pruritis and dysuria. She has also noted a vaginal discharge. The LEAST likely cause of these symptoms is: Select one: a. Bacterial vaginosis b. Thrush c. Chlamydia d. Cystitis  The correct answer is: Cystitis Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the most correct diagnosis for the following image? Select one: a. Segond's fracture b. Compression fracture  c. Pelligrini-Stieda lesion d. Spontaneous osteonecrosis of the knee Your answer is correct. A step defect is present in the lateral tibial plateau typical of a compression fracture The correct answer is: Compression fracture Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Why are urinary tract infections more common in females than males? Select one: a. Females tend to urinate less often than males, leading to stagnation of urine in the bladder and urethra and increased chance of bacterial infection b. Females have a shorter urethra and there is a closer proximity of the urethra to the anus, leading to increased chance of  bacterial infection c. Females are more likely to get kidney stones, leading to irritation to the urethra and increased chance of bacterial infection d. Females are more prone to thrush which may cause urinary tract infections if not treated properly Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Females have a shorter urethra and there is a closer proximity of the urethra to the anus, leading to increased chance of bacterial infection Question 4 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the most correct diagnosis for the following image? Select one: a. Grade 3 tear in the lateral aspect of the meniscus shown b. Grade 2 tear in the lateral aspect of the meniscus shown  c. Grade 3 tear in the anterior aspect of the meniscus shown d. Grade 2 tear in the anterior aspect of the meniscus shown Your answer is incorrect. The tear interrupts the articular surface so is grade 3. This is a sagittal slice and the patella is seen, indicating it is the anterior aspect of the meniscus being visualised The correct answer is: Grade 3 tear in the anterior aspect of the meniscus shown Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely underlying cause for the erosions seen in the below image? Select one: a. Gout b. Osteomyelitis c. Psoriatic arthritis  d. Neurotrophic arthropathy Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Psoriatic arthritis Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which structure is torn in this image? Select one: a. Anterior cruciate ligament b. Posterior cruciate ligament  c. Polpiteus d. Gastrocnemius tendon Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Posterior cruciate ligament Question 7 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely underlying cause for the erosions seen in the below image? Select one: a. Gout  b. Osteomyelitis c. Psoriatic arthritis d. Neurotrophic arthropathy  Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is: Osteomyelitis Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 24 year old male presents with knee pain and catching after a game of soccer but no specific trauma. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for the following image? Select one: a. Synovial chondromatosis b. Avulsion fracture of the lateral tibial spine c. Loose body secondary to degeneration d. Osteochondritis dissecans  Your answer is correct. There is a loose body overlying the lateral tibial spine. Although the lesion of osteochondritis dissecns is not obvious, there is no history of trauma and no degeneration evident. There is only one loose body and the patient is not typical age range for synovial chondromatosis. Furthermore, the history is typical of osteochondritis dissecans. The correct answer is: Osteochondritis dissecans Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following sexually transmitted infections is often symptomatic in males but asymptomatic in females? Select one: a. Genital herpes b. Genital warts c. Chlamydia  d. Thrush Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Chlamydia Question 10 Partially correct Mark 0.50 out of 1.00 A thick and yellowish coloured urethral discharge is typical of infection with: Select one: a. chlamydia sp b. Neisseria gonorrhoea  c. gardnerella sp d. both a and b e. a, b and c Your answer is partially correct. The correct answer is: both a and b Question 11 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following statements is FALSE? Select one: a. Deliberate Self-Harm (DSH) is often an attempt to manage emotional pain. b. DSH should be taken most seriously when it looks as if medical intervention is required (eg a cut requires stiches). c. DSH is common in Borderline Personality Disorder. d. You should avoid trying to problem solve around reducing DSH with your clients.  Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is: DSH should be taken most seriously when it looks as if medical intervention is required (eg a cut requires stiches). Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Both casual and overt racist attacks are still commonly experienced by First Nations people, on and off the sporting field. a. True  b. False Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: True Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Traits that include a pervasive and excessive need to be taken care of, submissive and clinging behaviour, and excessive fear of separation, are indicative of which personality disorder type? Select one: a. Borderline personality disorder b. Dependent personality disorder  c. Histrionic personality disorder d. Schizoid personality disorder The correct answer is: Dependent personality disorder Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Cluster B Personality Disorders are characterised by which type of presentation? Select one: a. Fearful and anxious b. Odd and eccentric c. Emotional and impulsive  The correct answer is: Emotional and impulsive Question 15 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is NOT a symptom of potassium deficiency? Select one: a. Irregular heartbeat b. Cramps c. Muscle weakness d. Glucose intolerance e. All the above are symptoms of potassium deficiency  The correct answer is: Cramps Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following does not control blood levels of calcium? Select one: a. Parathyroid hormone b. Calcitonin c. Vitamin D d. Dietary intake  e. All the above control blood calcium levels Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Dietary intake Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Factors that can negatively impact the therapeutic relationship with a patient with Borderline personality disorder traits include: Select one: a. Interpersonal conflict b. Boundary slippage c. Unrealistic expectations by patient d. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 An increase in the blood levels of parathyroid hormone causes: Select one: A. Calcium deposition into the bones B. Reduced calcium uptake in the kidneys C. Decreased calcium uptake in the intestine D. Calcium reuptake from the bones  E. Increased calcitonin levels in the blood The correct answer is: Calcium reuptake from the bones Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Cluster B personality disorders are often associated with: Select one: A. Childhood trauma B. Emotional suffering C. Pervasive functional impairments D. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Sport is valued solely for its links to competition and being able to demonstrate skill and expertise. a. True b. False  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: False ◀︎Quiz 3 Jump to... Quiz 5 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 1 September 2024, 9:54 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 1 September 2024, 10:14 PM Time taken 19 mins 24 secs Grade 19.00 out of 20.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following statements in regard to magnesium is NOT true: Select one: a. Magnesium antagonises the role of calcium in catecholamine release from the adrenal gland b. Magnesium interferes with the role of calcium in muscle contraction c. Magnesium may be useful in asthma attacks by acting as a bronchodilator d. Magnesium reduces the release of histamine and may help in allergic reaction e. Magnesium has been shown to be effective in treating muscle cramps  The correct answer is: Magnesium has been shown to be effective in treating muscle cramps Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which mineral antagonises calcium in the muscle? Select one: A. Potassium B. Sodium C. Magnesium  D. Chloride E. Iron The correct answer is: Magnesium Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is NOT a known function of zinc? Select one: A. Zinc is required in the synthesis of insulin B. Zinc is required to produce active vitamin A C. Zinc is required for normal taste perception D. Zinc is required for normal platelet function E. None of the above are incorrect - all options are known functions of zinc  The correct answer is: None of the above are incorrect - all options are known functions of zinc Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which mineral is found in gustin, necessary for normal taste bud development? Select one: a. Iodine b. Zinc  c. Copper d. Sodium e. Selenium The correct answer is: Zinc Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Zinc deficiency in children can present with: Select one: a. Hypochromic anaemia b. Rickets c. Cerebellar ataxia d. Growth retardation  e. All of the above The correct answer is: Growth retardation Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A patient has cirrhosis and diabetes mellitus, and so do his brother and cousin. Part of his management requires frequent phlebotomy. His likely condition is: Select one: a. Alcoholism b. Wilson’s disease c. Idiopathic haemochromatosis  d. Haemosiderosis e. Chronic hepatitis Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Idiopathic haemochromatosis Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Effective treatments for substance use most typically include: Select one: A. Inpatient Rehabilitation Programs, Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies, and Medication B. Detoxification, Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies, and Medication  C. Inpatient Rehabilitation Programs, Detoxification, and Medication D. All of the above The correct answer is: Detoxification, Cognitive-Behavioural Therapies, and Medication Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is true when taking iron supplements? Select one: A. They are absorbed better than food-sourced iron B. They are best taken on an empty stomach  C. They should be taken with meals D. They should be taken with a glass of orange juice E. They should be taken together with other minerals The correct answer is: They are best taken on an empty stomach Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Problematic alcohol or substance use can interfere with chiropractic assessments and treatments. Which of the following is NOT true? Select one: A. Clients with problematic alcohol use need inpatient hospitalisation before engaging in chiropractic treatments  B. Substance-related symptoms can present as, or contribute to, other conditions (such as, balance problems) C. Clients who manage their pain with alcohol may give inaccurate information about their symptoms and pain levels D. Client’s may have low motivation to change their substance use patterns, even when they interfere with physical health The correct answer is: Clients with problematic alcohol use need inpatient hospitalisation before engaging in chiropractic treatments Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Magnesium acts as a muscle relaxant because: Select one: a. It antagonises calcium at the neuromuscular junction.  b. It causes the release of serotonin. c. It increases tidal volume. d. It antagonises potassium and prevents the repolarisation of membranes. e. all of the above Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: It antagonises calcium at the neuromuscular junction. Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A neck mass will always be present in hyperthyroidism due to thyroid gland pathology Select one: a. True b. False  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: False Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the most correct diagnosis for the following image? Select one: a. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation b. Osteolysis of the distal clavicle  c. Distal clavicle fracture d. Rotator cuff tear Your answer is correct. There is an increase in the acromioclavicular joint distance but without elevation of the clavicle. In addition there are small erosions evident at the distal end of the clavicle The correct answer is: Osteolysis of the distal clavicle Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 23 year old male presents with generalised and tender lymphadenopathy, splenomegaly, a sore throat and petechiae on the hard palate. The most likely diagnosis is: Select one: a. Infectious mononucleosis  b. Acute bronchitis c. Lymphoma d. Cytomegalovirus infection The correct answer is: Infectious mononucleosis Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the most correct diagnosis for the following image? Select one: a. Posterior glenohumeral dislocation b. Rotator cuff tear c. Inferior dislocation d. Hills-Sachs lesion  Your answer is correct. A hatchet-like defect is present on the superolateral humeral head consistent with a Hills-Sachs injury probably acquired during an anterior dislocation (subsequently relocated) The correct answer is: Hills-Sachs lesion Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Elevated free thyroxine levels and elevated thyroid stimulating hormone is associated with: Select one: a. Hypothyroidism due to thyroid gland pathology b. Hypothyroidism due to pituitary gland pathology c. Hyperthyroidism due to thyroid gland pathology d. Hyperthyroidism due to pituitary gland pathology  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Hyperthyroidism due to pituitary gland pathology Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following diagnoses would be least likely to be associated with symptoms of tremors, palpitations, increased sweating, poor sleep, and weight loss Select one: a. Anxiety b. Cushings syndrome  c. Phaeochromocytoma d. Hperthyroidism Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Cushings syndrome Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Hyper-reflexia is common in anxiety states Select one: a. True  b. False Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: True Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the most correct diagnosis for the following image? Select one: a. Inferior glenohumeral dislocation b. Medial glenohumeral dislocation c. Anterior glenohumeral dislocation  d. Posterior glenohumeral dislocation Your answer is correct. The humeral head has displaced inferiorly and medially from the glenoid fossa with no arm abduction - only anterior dislocations will get this pattern The correct answer is: Anterior glenohumeral dislocation Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which one of the following signs is the most useful in distinguishing whether a patient has a lymphoma or infectious mononucleosis? Select one: a. presence of absence of night sweats and fever b. number of lymph node groups involved (ie, local or generalised lymphadenopathy) c. whether the lymph nodes are tender or non-tender  lymph nodes in lymphoma are generally non-tender d. level of fatigue e. presence or absence of splenomegaly Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: whether the lymph nodes are tender or non-tender Question 20 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the most correct diagnosis for the following image? Select one: a. Acromioclavicular joint dislocation  b. Osteolysis of the distal clavicle c. Distal clavicle fracture d. Rotator cuff tear Your answer is incorrect. There is a reduced acromiohumeral interspace with cystic change over the greater tuberosity consistent with rotator cuff degenerative tear. The acromioclavicular joint cannot be well visualised due to the elevation and protraction of the scapula The correct answer is: Rotator cuff tear ◀︎Quiz 4 Jump to... Quiz 6 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 8 September 2024, 8:26 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 8 September 2024, 8:39 PM Time taken 13 mins 45 secs Grade 20.00 out of 20.00 (100%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most likely underlying cause of primary nocturnal enuresis? Select one: a. Lack of functional maturity of the nervous system responsible for bladder control  b. Urinary tract infection c. Diabetes mellitus d. Psychological factors Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Lack of functional maturity of the nervous system responsible for bladder control Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A mother brings in her 9 month child who she reports was crying unusually the previous night. The child woke every 1-2 hours, crying uncontrollably and tugging her right ear for about 20 minutes before going back to sleep. The childs temperature was between 38 to 39 degrees overnight. She appears to be slightly better this morning but is still irritable and crying easily. On examination you observe that her right eardrum is re and bulging. The most likely diagnosis is: Select one: a. Chronic serous otitis media b. Acute otitis media  c. Upper respiratory tract infection d. Acute otitis externa Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Acute otitis media Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the LEAST LIKELY clinical presentation in a child with chronic serous otitis media? Select one: a. otalgia  Pain is not typical of glue ear. b. learning difficulties c. behavioural changes d. diminished hearing Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: otalgia Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is secondary nocturnal enuresis? Select one: a. Bed wetting at night that is secondary to an underlying urinary tract infection b. Bed wetting at night that develops at least 6 months after a child has learnt to control their bladder at night  c. Bed wetting at night that occurs at least twice every night d. Bed wetting at night that is secondary to undiagnosed diabetes Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Bed wetting at night that develops at least 6 months after a child has learnt to control their bladder at night Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the most appropriate initial management for unilateral otitis media with effusion of one month duration and mild associated hearing loss? Select one: a. Surgical referral b. Antibiotic prescription c. Antihistamine prescription d. Advice and reassurance  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Advice and reassurance Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Irritability, disruptive behaviour and lack of response to commands in a preschool age child may be signs of an underlying physical problem. Which of the following conditions should be considered as a possible underlying cause? Select one: a. Serous otitis media b. Amblyopia c. Petit mal epilepsy d. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Risk factors predisposing to acute otitis media in young children include all of the following EXCEPT Select one: a. Bottle feeding b. Sleeping in a prone position  c. Regular exposure to cigarette smoke d. Regular use of a dummy Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Sleeping in a prone position Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Why is acute otitis media more common in children under 3 yrs of age? Select one: a. Initial ear infection is often untreated in these age ranges and so develops into acute otitis media b. The anatomy of the auditory tube in this age range predisposes to infection  c. Antibiotic therapy is typically not effective in this age range d. Young children often put things in their ears that may introduce infection Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: The anatomy of the auditory tube in this age range predisposes to infection Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The best method(s) for prevention and control of diabetes appear(s) to be: Select one: a. Vigilantly dosed insulin b. The nutritional supplements vanadyl sulfate and chromium picolinate c. Consuming less red meat d. Diet and exercise  e. None of the above The correct answer is: Diet and exercise Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Excess fluoride ingestion in adults can cause: Select one: A. White flecks on the teeth B. Tooth decay C. Physicochemical changes to the bones  D. Osteoporosis E. mental deterioration The correct answer is: Physicochemical changes to the bones Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following health behaviours is not a risk factor common across chronic conditions Select one: a. Smoking b. High alcohol use c. Physical inactivity d. Inadequate diet e. Walking around with vertebral subluxation  The correct answer is: Walking around with vertebral subluxation Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Distal determinants of chronic disease include: Select one: A. The physical environment B. The political environment C. The social economic environment D. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Sleep disturbance affects which of the following aspects of daily functioning? Select one: a. Motor activity, neurophysiology, gut health, mood regulation and social engagement b. Memory, learning, performance, mood regulation, heart health, and immune and endocrine system functioning  c. Motor activity, depressive symptoms, activities of daily living and social anxiety d. Memory, learning, performance, heart health, depressive symptoms, motor activity The correct answer is: Memory, learning, performance, mood regulation, heart health, and immune and endocrine system functioning Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which condition is not one of the four chronic conditions that account for 75% of all deaths in Australia Select one: a. Cardiovascular disease b. Cancer c. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) d. Diabetes e. Vertebral subluxation  The correct answer is: Vertebral subluxation Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 ’ Approximately how many Australian s report having at least one chronic condition? Select one: A. 11 million  B. 12 million C. 5 million D. 6 million The correct answer is: 11 million Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: When copper or iron is in their free form, they cause free radical damage. But when incorporated into antioxidant enzymes, they prevent free radical damage. Select one: a. True  b. False The correct answer is: True Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following minerals are incorporated into antioxidant enzymes in the body? Select one: a. Copper b. Manganese c. Iron d. Zinc e. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which mineral has been found in many studies to improve glycaemic control? Select one: a. Manganese b. Potassium c. Chromium  d. Magnesium e. Calcium The correct answer is: Chromium Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Fred has been having a great deal of trouble initiating and maintaining sleep. He guesses that he is sleeping for an average of about 3 hours each night and complains that he feels terrible during the day. In addition, Fred has always experienced some anxiety but has recently felt a tremendous increase in his overall anxiety level. The existence of both a sleep disorder and anxiety: Select one: A. Makes the diagnosis of primary insomnia incorrect B. Increases our confidence that primary insomnia is the correct diagnosis C. Indicates that the insomnia is a result of the anxiety rather than a cause of the anxiety D. Is extremely common since sleep problems can be both a cause and a result of anxiety  The correct answer is: Is extremely common since sleep problems can be both a cause and a result of anxiety Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Obesity can be associated with: Select one: a. Breathing difficulties b. Osteoarthritis c. Liver cancer d. Malnutrition e. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above ◀︎Quiz 5 Jump to... Quiz 7 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 15 September 2024, 10:30 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 15 September 2024, 10:49 PM Time taken 19 mins 39 secs Grade 14.00 out of 20.00 (70%) Question 1 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 If a person weighs 91.8kg and is 1.75m tall, they are considered to be: Select one: a. Underweight b. Normal c. Overweight  d. Obese class I e. Obese class II Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is: Obese class I Question 2 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A normal percent of body weight as fat for a woman would be: Select one: a. 3% b. 15% c. 13% d. 20%  e. 30% Your answer is incorrect. The correct answer is: 30% Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A BMI of 15.5 is: Select one: a. Very severely underweight b. Severely underweight  c. Underweight d. Normal e. overweight The correct answer is: Severely underweight Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 In regard to the Haddon’s matrix for falls in the elderly, a slippery floor surface is best conceptualised as: Select one: A. Pre-event phase; host factor B. Pre-event phase; vector factor C. Pre-event phase; environment factor  D. Event phase; vector factor The correct answer is: Pre-event phase; environment factor Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: Vitamins are assessed by the TGA for safety, quality and efficacy before being legally supplied in Australia. Select one: a. True b. False  The correct answer is: False Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 In Australia, which of the following is NOT a leading cause of death among young people aged 15–24 years? Select one: A. Accidental poisoning B. Falls  C. Road injury D. Self-inflicted violence The correct answer is: Falls Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 In the 1950s Keys and colleagues completed a study that examined the impact of starvation on behaviour. Which of the following was NOT a finding of their study? Select one: a. The participants became plagued by consistent thoughts about food and eating b. The participants started to take longer time to consume their food c. Many of the participants experienced periods of depression and irritability d. The participants experienced decreased activity levels and increased need for sleep  The correct answer is: The participants experienced decreased activity levels and increased need for sleep Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Injuries sustained in fires, falls, poisonings, drowning, as well as nearly all traffic-related injuries are examples of ____________ injuries. Select one: a. Intentional b. Self-directed c. Unintentional  d. Deliberate e. All of the above The correct answer is: Unintentional Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 As a chiropractor, suspicion of child abuse should be reported to the authorities when: Select one: a. The child makes a formal complaint of abuse b. You have direct evidence of the abuse c. The abuse is related to the childs' symptomatic presentation d. You have any suspicion abuse may be occurring  The correct answer is: You have any suspicion abuse may be occurring Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Your patient is 1.78m tall and weighs 65kg. Her BMI is: Select one: a. 0.027 b. 25.5 c. 18 d. 20.5  e. 36.5 The correct answer is: 20.5 Question 11 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the most correct radiographic diagnosis? Select one: a. Ehler's Danlos syndrome b. Congenital hip dysplasia  c. Achondroplasia d. Developmental hip dislocation Your answer is incorrect. Dysplasia is present but the hip is also dislocated. This may be secondary to dysplasias but no other confirmatory findings of an underlying disease The correct answer is: Developmental hip dislocation Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is a primary breast cancer LEAST likely to metastasize to? Select one: a. Kidneys  b. Liver c. Lymph nodes d. Bone Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Kidneys Question 13 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 What is the radiographic diagnosis for the below image? Select one: a. Type 2 dens fracture b. Mach effect - normal finding c. Jefferson's fracture  d. Burst fracture of C1 with transverse ligament rupture Your answer is incorrect. Bilateral displacement of the lateral masses indicates a Jefferson's fracture (burst fracture of C1) and degree of displacement indicates probable transverse ligament rupture. The patient is also wearing a neck brace The correct answer is: Burst fracture of C1 with transverse ligament rupture Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the radiographic diagnosis for the below image? Select one: a. Teardrop fracture  b. Limbic bone c. Intercalary bone d. Wedge fracture Your answer is correct. This is a fracture rather than a congenital or degenerative anomaly. The fragment has broken off the original bone and has displaced with angulation The correct answer is: Teardrop fracture Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 28 year old female presents with concern over a lump that she recently felt in the upper lateral aspect of her right breast. She says that the lump is not tender and that it is hard and non-mobile. Is it likely that this represents a serious finding? Select one: a. Yes - non-mobile lumps in that location are usually malignant  b. Yes - non-tender lumps in that location are usually malignant c. No - non-mobile lumps in that location are usually benign d. No - non-tender lumps in that location are usually benign Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Yes - non-mobile lumps in that location are usually malignant Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is the most likely radiographic diagnosis? Select one: a. Marfan's syndrome b. Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia  c. Achondroplasia d. Osteopetrosis Your answer is correct. Uniform platyspondyly is exhibited. Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia is the most likely of the options to exhibit this finding The correct answer is: Spondyloepiphyseal dysplasia Question 17 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 What is the radiographic diagnosis for the below image? Select one: a. Whiplash injury b. Facet dislocation c. Clay-Shoveller's fracture  d. Wedge fracture Your answer is incorrect. Altered alignment between C6 and 7 indicate a facet dislocation The correct answer is: Facet dislocation Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A breast-feeding woman complains of flu-like symptoms which have been present for over 12 hours. She states that when her baby feeds, there is severe pain in her left breast. What is the most likely diagnosis? Answer: acute mastitis  The correct answer is: acute mastitis Question 19 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 What is the radiographic diagnosis for the below image? Select one: a. Isthmic spondylolisthesis  b. Traumatic spondylolisthesis c. Degenerative spondylolisthesis d. Pathological spondylolisthesis Your answer is incorrect. Bilateral pedicle fracture is a traumatic spondylolisthesis, also known as a Hangman's fracture The correct answer is: Traumatic spondylolisthesis Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is the radiographic diagnosis? Select one: a. Spondyloschisis b. Down's syndrome c. Agenesis of the posterior arch of the atlas  d. Occipitalisation Your answer is correct. There is no visible posterior arch of the atlas with no alteration to occipital shape so unlikely to be occipitalisation The correct answer is: Agenesis of the posterior arch of the atlas ◀︎Quiz 6 Jump to... Quiz 8 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 6 October 2024, 10:33 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 6 October 2024, 10:50 PM Time taken 17 mins 9 secs Grade 19.67 out of 20.00 (98.33%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following statements are CORRECT regarding cerebral palsy? Select one: a. Diagnosis commonly occurs when developmental milestones are not reached b. Motor function is usually affected more than sensory function c. Mental retardation is common d. Both a and b are correct  e. a, b and c are correct Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Both a and b are correct Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which one of the following statements about cleft palate is INCORRECT? Select one: a. It is a congenital disorder b. Aetiology is usually multifactorial c. it may be unilateral or bilateral d. it usually affects the infant's breathing  Feeding is predominantly affected e. it can occur concurrently with a cleft lip Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: it usually affects the infant's breathing Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Symptoms of conjunctivitis include all of the following EXCEPT: Select one: a. Photophobia b. Scales on lid margins  c. Purulent discharge d. Sensation of grittiness or discomfort in eye Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Scales on lid margins Question 4 Partially correct Mark 0.67 out of 1.00 Please select the correct definition for the following terms from the list Spasticity muscle hypertonia  Athetoid movements involuntary movement  Dysarthria difficulty writing  Your answer is partially correct. You have correctly selected 2. The correct answer is: Spasticity → muscle hypertonia, Athetoid movements → involuntary movement, Dysarthria → difficulty speaking Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The disorder(s) illustrated in the following image is/are: Select one: a. conjunctivitis and entropion b. acute glaucoma c. conjunctivitis and ectropion  d. acute iritis Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: conjunctivitis and ectropion Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Luke, a 12-year-old with Oppositional Defiant Disorder, presents with his mother for chiropractic treatment. He clearly does not wish to receive chiropractic care as his mother reports it was very difficult to support Luke in attending the appointment. Which of the following represent appropriate strategies to support Luke in engaging in care most effectively? Select one: A. Use a highly motivating reward system  B. Use directive language C. Allow Luke’s mother to manage the behavioural concerns D. Both A and B The correct answer is: Use a highly motivating reward system Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is CORRECT about neurodevelopmental disorders? Select one: a. Autism Spectrum Disorder is caused by vaccinations b. Children with learning difficulties are stupid c. Children with ADHD eventually grow out of it d. Individuals with intellectual disability can live independently  The correct answer is: Individuals with intellectual disability can live independently Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A patient with Tourette Syndrome presents with neck and shoulder pain due to a head jerking tic. Which of the following courses of action would support the best outcome for this patient? Select one: A. Provide chiropractic treatment as usual for the pain; no further intervention is required B. Refer to a psychologist with experience in treating tics for CBIT intervention C. Refer to a paediatrician for medication review D. Both B and C  The correct answer is: Both B and C Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The overall rate of smoking for men and women is: Select one: A. Declining in men and increasing for women B. Declining in both men and women  C. Declining in women and increasing in men D. Increasing in both men and women The correct answer is: Declining in both men and women Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A primary public health strategy for decreasing tobacco consumption is Select one: A. Plain packaging for tobacco products  B. Inquiring about tobacco use and severity C. Motivational interviewing D. Accessing Outline The correct answer is: Plain packaging for tobacco products Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Risk factors for drug abuse included: Select one: A. Drug abuse in the family B. Comorbid depression and bipolar disorders C. Hyperactivity D. Both A and B E. All of A, B, and C  The correct answer is: All of A, B, and C Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Informed consent to procedures is more complicated when a patient has an intellectual disability. Which of the following is NOT an appropriate recommendation for managing the difficulties in gaining informed consent? Select one: a. Explain the rationale using basic language b. Use multiple communication tools c. Request consent from a carer in addition to the patient d. Ask leading or closed questions to make it easier to give a response  The correct answer is: Ask leading or closed questions to make it easier to give a response Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following should be avoided during pregnancy? Select one: a. All cheeses b. Fried eggs c. Meats d. Supplements with high doses of vitamin A  e. Fibre Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Supplements with high doses of vitamin A Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 An example of secondary prevention of smoking-related morbidity and mortality is: Select one: a. Enforcement of laws banning in public places in an effort to decrease the incidence of lung cancer b. A smoking cessation intervention program in a community that reduces the costs related to smoking-related diseases c. An attempt to reduce the impact of lung cancer on an individual and promote quality of life through novel medications d. Early diagnosis of smoking-related lung disease by screening followed by appropriate treatment  e. None of the above The correct answer is: Early diagnosis of smoking-related lung disease by screening followed by appropriate treatment Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Problematic alcohol or substance use can interfere with chiropractic assessments and treatments. Which of the following is NOT true? Select one: a. All clients with problematic alcohol use need inpatient hospitalisation before engaging in chiropractic treatments  b. Substance-related symptoms can present as, or contribute to, other conditions (such as, balance problems) c. Clients who manage their pain with alcohol may give inaccurate information about their symptoms and pain levels d. Client's may have low motivation to change their substance use patterns, even when they interfere with physical health The correct answer is: All clients with problematic alcohol use need inpatient hospitalisation before engaging in chiropractic treatments Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 According to the guidelines, woman who is of normal weight at the start of her pregnancy should put on: Select one: a. 18kg during her pregnancy b. 11.5 – 16kg during her pregnancy  c. No more than 11.5kg during her pregnancy d. Less than 10kg during her pregnancy e. Cannot tell, as it depends on the woman The correct answer is: 11.5 – 16kg during her pregnancy Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Drug dependence can include physical dependence: Select one: a. Which is identified by intense physical disturbances when the drug is no longer used  b. Which is a physiologic response requiring higher doses of a drug to achieve the original effect of the drug c. In which psychological dependence is manifested in physical signs and symptoms d. In which consumption of the substance produces pleasure or avoids discomfort resulting in a feeling of satisfaction and psychic drive e. All of the above are non-modifiable risk factor for chronic neck pain The correct answer is: Which is identified by intense physical disturbances when the drug is no longer used Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following nutrients would you particularly council a pregnant women to be sure to get the required daily intake? Select one: a. Iron b. Iodine c. Folic acid d. Calcium e. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is NOT a guiding principle for healthcare treatment of individuals with disabilities? Select one: a. Using a person-centred approach b. Right to equal access to services c. Need to involve supportive others  d. Respect for human dignity Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Need to involve supportive others Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: High socioeconomic status increases the risk for substance abuse, as drugs are more accessible to this group. Select one: a. True b. False  The correct answer is: False ◀︎Quiz 7 Jump to... Quiz 9 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 13 October 2024, 10:04 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 13 October 2024, 10:18 PM Time taken 13 mins 31 secs Grade 19.00 out of 20.00 (95%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The conditions that are now called neurocognitive disorders typically cause impairment in all of the following primary abilities EXCEPT ______________. Select one: a. memory b. perception c. dreaming  d. attention Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: dreaming Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 When a group migrates to a new location, the transformation and change of a minority group's culture to the dominant society's culture is termed: Select one: a. Marginal shaping b. Ethnicity mix c. Culturisation d. Acculturation  e. None of the above The correct answer is: Acculturation Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is TRUE when comparing indigenous to non-indigenous Australians? Select one: a. Indigenous Australians have a higher average need for health care when compared to non-indigenous Australian in remote locations, with the reverse true in major cities b. Indigenous Australians have a higher average need for health care when compared to non-indigenous Australian in major cities, with the reverse true in remote locations c. A higher percentage of indigenous compared to non-indigenous Australians die of coronary heart disease when aged 75 years or more d. A higher percentage of indigenous compared to non-indigenous Australians die of coronary heart disease when aged less  than 75 years The correct answer is: A higher percentage of indigenous compared to non-indigenous Australians die of coronary heart disease when aged less than 75 years Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The Tharawal Community of Airds, NSW provides a practical illustration application of the Social Determinants of Health. Which of the following was NOT an intervention used in this case study? Select one: A. Tharawal Koori Community Kitchen B. Healthy Food Policy and Recipe Book C. My Family Diabetes Program D. Aboriginal Tobacco Control Project E. Indigenous Drug and Alcohol Intervention Program  The correct answer is: Indigenous Drug and Alcohol Intervention Program Question 5 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Between 2008-12 what proportion of deaths occurred before the age of 65 in the Australian indigenous population? Select one: A. 14% B. 26% C. 56%  D. 65% E. 85% The correct answer is: 65% Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 10/12 old boy recovering from an upper respiratory tract infection, presents with an acute onset of cough, fever and dyspnoea. He seems distressed, and on examination there is tachycardia, a temperature of 39 degrees C, widespread wheezing and indrawing of the intercostal spaces. The MOST likely diagnosis is: Select one: a. Croup b. Asthma c. Bronchitis d. Bronchiolitis  Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Bronchiolitis Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 6 week old baby has developed a pronounced cough with wheezing and fever. She is refusing most of her feeds and has a reduced number of wet nappies. What is the most appropriate management for this baby? Select one: a. Emergency hospital care  b. General practice care c. Maternal and childhood nurse care d. Chiropractic care Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Emergency hospital care Question 8 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following conditions is the LEAST likely to interfere with successful breastfeeding of a 9 week old infant? Select one: a. Acute bronchiolitis in the infant b. Cleft palate in the infant c. Fibroadenoma in the mother  d. Acute mastitis in the mother The correct answer is: Fibroadenoma in the mother Question 9 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 A 5 year old boy wakes with coughing and mild dyspnoea but no fever. The LEAST likely diagnosis is: Select one: a. Post-nasal drip b. Asthma c. Epiglottitis  d. Croup Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Epiglottitis Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Many respiratory tract infections in children can be caused by either viruses or bacteria. Which one of the following is MORE commonly due to a bacterial agent? Select one: a. acute bronchitis b. croup c. acute bronchiolitis d. acute epiglottitis  e. rhinitis Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: acute epiglottitis Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is not considered a risk factor for developing osteoarthritis? Select one: a. A dysbiosis  b. Aging c. Overweight and obesity d. Genetic determinants e. All of the above are risk factors for developing osteoarthritis Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: A dysbiosis Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 One major difference that is useful to differentiate major neurocognitive disorder from delirium is that: Select one: A. Major neurocognitive disorder symptoms are generally not reversible, and delirium symptoms generally are reversible  B. Major neurocognitive disorder symptoms are usually associated with underlying medical conditions, and delirium is usually the result of other factors C. The symptoms of major neurocognitive disorder are generally a much faster onset, whereas the symptoms of delirium are much slower D. The symptoms of major neurocognitive disorder involve memory, but the symptoms of delirium are more likely to involve expressive language The correct answer is: Major neurocognitive disorder symptoms are generally not reversible, and delirium symptoms generally are reversible Question 13 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The impact/s on health of a lower socioeconomic status include/s: Select one: a. Lack of ability to access health-related information b. Lack of ability to afford high quality healthcare c. Lack of employment d. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Neurocognitive Disorders are: Select one: a. The group of disorders in which the primary clinical deficit is in cognitive function, and that are acquired rather than  developmental b. The group of disorders in which the primary clinical deficit is in cognitive function, and that are developmental rather than acquired c. The group of disorders in which the primary clinical deficit is in neurological function, and that are acquired rather than developmental d. The group of disorders in which the primary clinical deficit is in neurological function, and that are developmental rather than acquired The correct answer is: The group of disorders in which the primary clinical deficit is in cognitive function, and that are acquired rather than developmental Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: Coenzyme Q10 inhibits inflammatory mediators, and thus has been shown to reduce the pain of osteoarthritis. Select one: a. True  b. False The correct answer is: True Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following would not be good for someone with rheumatoid arthritis? Select one: a. Fatty fish b. Olive oil c. Yoghurt d. Barbeque chicken  e. Eggs Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Barbeque chicken Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: The Mediterranean diet has been shown to have beneficial effects in reducing pain in people with rheumatoid arthritis. Select one: a. True  b. False The correct answer is: True Question 18 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Level of education has been connected with health outcomes. Select one: a. True  b. False The correct answer is: True Question 19 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Four groups of chronic conditions account for 2/3 of the gap between indigenous and non-indigenous Australians. The greatest contributor is: Select one: A. Circulatory Disease  B. Endocrine Disease C. Metabolic Disease D. Cancer E. Respiratory Disease The correct answer is: Circulatory Disease Question 20 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following statements is correct in regard to chondroitin sulphate supplementation? Select one: a. It slightly improves pain in the short term  b. It increases the joint space on X-rays of affected joints c. It increases bone mineral density d. It reduces the risk of ligament tears e. It rebuilds cartilage The correct answer is: It slightly improves pain in the short term ◀︎Quiz 8 Jump to... Quiz 10 ▶︎  Started on Sunday, 20 October 2024, 10:01 PM State Finished Completed on Sunday, 20 October 2024, 10:13 PM Time taken 12 mins 26 secs Grade 17.00 out of 20.00 (85%) Question 1 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Solid foods should ideally be introduced to the infant at _______ months. Select one: a. 3 b. 6  c. 12 d. 18 e. 24 The correct answer is: 6 Question 2 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: Orexins stimulate appetite when blood glucose levels fall. Select one: A. True  B. False The correct answer is: True Question 3 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following is NOT an example of non-verbal communication? Select one: a. Facial expressions b. Proximity c. Pitch, tone and rate of speech d. The content of what you say  The correct answer is: The content of what you say Question 4 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 What is considered to be the most sensitive index of child development? Select one: A. Oral health B. Physical growth  C. Motor function D. Social interaction The correct answer is: Physical growth Question 5 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 If you suspect a child or a teenage has experienced emotional or physical abuse by a parent, which of the follow options is the most appropriate as a chiropractor? Select one: A. Talk to both the child and parent involved, and try to come to a resolution within the consult B. Contact the Child Protection Hotline and document everything from the consult  C. Call the police immediately and do not let the child leave your office D. Do nothing as it has nothing to do with you The correct answer is: Contact the Child Protection Hotline and document everything from the consult Question 6 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Leptin: Select one: a. is secreted by adipocytes  b. Increases if fat reserves decrease c. is low in obese subjects d. Administration causes amenorrhoea e. Decreases the metabolic rate The correct answer is: is secreted by adipocytes Question 7 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 True or False: Orexins stimulate appetite when blood glucose levels fall. Select one: a. True  b. False The correct answer is: True Question 8 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 Mila is a patient who presents for chiropractic treatment. When communicating with you she stands too close to you and tells you how you should complete your consult. What style of communication best describes Mila’s engagement with you? Select one: a. Passive  b. Assertive c. Aggressive d. Passive aggressive The correct answer is: Aggressive Question 9 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 When weight loss occurs: Select one: A. Lipoprotein lipase activity declines B. Leptin levels fall C. Lipoprotein lipase activity increases  D. Leptin levels increase E. Both (B) and (C) are correct The correct answer is: Both (B) and (C) are correct Question 10 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following hormones inhibit appetite? Select one: a. leptin  b. neuropeptide Y c. melanin-concentrating hormone d. ghrelin e. orexins Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: leptin Question 11 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following statements is the MOST correct regarding infantile seborrheic dermatitis? Select one: a. It results from an allergic reaction b. It needs prompt management to prevent secondary alopecia c. It has been linked to overactivity of sebaceous glands  d. It is usually contagious Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: It has been linked to overactivity of sebaceous glands Question 12 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Appearance of a golden crust over an itchy area of skin would be most likely due to: Select one: a. Allergy b. Bacterial infection  c. Viral infection d. Fungal infection Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: Bacterial infection Question 13 Incorrect Mark 0.00 out of 1.00 A 3 year old girl develops red lesions over which a yellowish crust has formed. The most likely diagnosis is: Select one: a. Acute dermatitis  b. Scabies c. Psoriasis d. Impetigo The correct answer is: Impetigo Question 14 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The most important reason for referring a child with concomittant strabismus is : Select one: a. cosmetic reasons b. likely development of amblyopia  c. likely development of infection d. likely development of cataract development Your answer is correct. The correct answer is: likely development of amblyopia Question 15 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 The parent of a 6 year old boy tells you that her son has a 'lazy eye'. What is the likely diagnosis? Select one: a. Astigmatism b. Amblyopia  c. Hypermetropia d. Myopia The correct answer is: Amblyopia Question 16 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Falls in older people can lead to: Select one: a. Direct injury or death b. Reduced quality of life c. Reduced social engagement d. All of the above  The correct answer is: All of the above Question 17 Correct Mark 1.00 out of 1.00 Which of the following women were found to be more likely to be exclusively breastfeeding at 6mths of age in a 2005-2006 NSW population health survey? Select one: a. Women without degrees rather than women with degrees b. Women living in higher socioeconomic status areas rather than women in lower socioeconomic areas  c. Younger women (