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ASSIGNMENT 1 1. What is traceability in the gem and jewelry industry? A. Evaluation of a gem’s quality and price B. Location of trace elements in a gem C. Investigation of a stone’s price change over time D. Confirmation of a gem’s history acros...

ASSIGNMENT 1 1. What is traceability in the gem and jewelry industry? A. Evaluation of a gem’s quality and price B. Location of trace elements in a gem C. Investigation of a stone’s price change over time D. Confirmation of a gem’s history across the supply chain 2. What are used in the GIA Diamond Grading System? A. Symbols B. Trade names C. Roman numerals D. Letters and simple expressions 3. How can diamond science help with sales? A. Expand clientele B. Increase foot traffic C. Convey diamond rarity D. Lower cost of inventory 4. What is the benefit of a standard diamond grading system? A. Allow widespread use and acceptance of trade terms B. Permit comparison of different diamonds C. Enable dealers to develop unique terms D. Let consumers purchase at lower prices 5. What is often done when evaluating small, low-quality diamonds? A. Thorough grading of all quality factors B. Advanced testing with instruments C. Examination under a microscope D. Quick inspection with a loupe 6. What research is important to the identification of lab-grown and treated diamonds? A. Market trend analysis B. Natural diamond studies C. Colored gemstone studies D. Diamond exploration surveys 7. What operation is at the start of the diamond value chain? A. Retail store B. Online store C. Diamond mine D. Cutting factory 8. What is true about diamond formation? A. They often form in outer space B. They form anywhere underground C. They form under extreme conditions D. They often form on the earth’s surface 9. What industry commonly works with mounted diamonds? A. Cutting B. Mining C. Appraisal D. Lab grading 10. What industry knowledge helps better satisfy client demand? A. Laser techniques B. Diamond defects C. Advanced testing D. Market awareness 11. What are the Four Cs of the GIA Diamond Grading System? A. Cut, color, clarity, and community B. Color, cut, clarity, and carat weight C. Carat weight, control, clarity, and color D. Criteria, clarity, color, and carat weight 12. What is another term for diamond value chain? A. Diamond production system B. Diamond supply chain C. Diamond trading platform D. Diamond manufacture supply 13. Why is identifying lab-grown diamonds challenging? A. Natural and lab-grown diamonds are identical B. Advancement and refinement of growth techniques C. Instruments to identify them are unavailable D. Laboratories cannot distinguish them from natural diamonds 14. What statement about treated diamonds is incorrect? A. They can be natural or lab-grown. B. They require advanced testing to identify. C. They can be treated in many different ways. D. They are easy to identify with the unaided eye. 15. What must diamond jewelry retailers carefully consider? A. Efficient diamond cutting B. Advanced mining techniques C. Locations for potential mines D. Multiple consumer generations 16. What best describes the diamond value chain? A. Chain of branded jewelry B. Series of segments and practices C. Multiple rough diamond suppliers D. All involved in the industry 17. What research aids determination of diamond color origin? A. Clarity analysis B. Colored gemstone studies C. Diamond color cause studies D. Diamond exploration surveys 18. What is the benefit of a standard diamond grading system? A. Allow widespread use and acceptance of trade terms B. Enable accurate discussion of diamond quality C. Permit comparison of different diamonds D. Let consumers purchase at lower prices 19. What type of work do appraisers do? A. Plan diamond cutting B. Evaluate jewelry C. Study color causes D. Investigate buyer ASSIGNMENT 2 1. How does the amount of participants change moving down the diamond value chain? A. Increases B. Fluctuates C. Decreases D. Stays the same 2. What led to De Beers’s control of the diamond trade? A. Great Depression B. Strong global campaigns C. Limited Russian production D. Death of Ernest Oppenheimer 3. What segment of the diamond value chain has the most chance and uncertainty? A. Mining B. Jewelry retail C. Cutting and polishing D. Jewelry manufacturing 4. When was the first diamond rush in South Africa? A. 1690s B. 1780s C. 1860s D. 1900s 5. Who took control of all claims in the De Beers and Kimberley mines? A. Cecil Rhodes B. Lawrence Graff C. Barney Barnato D. Ernest Oppenheimer 6. Where are the majority of rough diamonds cut and polished? A. Surat, India B. Tel Aviv, Israel C. Antwerp, Belgium D. New York, United States 7. What is the key reason for growth in the diamond industry? A. Advertising B. Jewelry design C. Diamond supply D. Consumer demand 8. What describes large-scale mining companies that lead the industry? A. Chiefs B. Majors C. Principals D. Dry diggers 9. What caused rough diamond sales to shift from a single-channel to multi-channel market? A. Death of Cecil Rhodes B. Sales outside of the CSO C. Dissolution of the Syndicate D. Decline in diamond demand 10. Where does the physical trade of rough for long-term contracts take place? A. Sights B. Tenders C. Auctions D. Spot sales 11. What group formed in the late 1800s to buy and sell all diamond production? A. Diamond Trading Company B. London Diamond Syndicate C. Antwerp Diamond Association D. De Beers Consolidated Mines Ltd. 12. What is an upstream segment of the diamond value chain? A. Cutting and polishing B. Jewelry manufacturing C. Sorting and distribution D. Faceted diamond trading 13. What concept describes a nation saving a share of its assets for economic growth? A. Enrichment B. Beneficiation C. Industrialization D. Technical unification 14. What business plan describes operation in multiple segments? A. Diamond pipeline B. Vertical integration C. Multi-channel market D. Single-channel market 15. Why did the Indian diamond industry decline in the 1700s? A. Resources depleted B. Diamonds lost value C. Preference for colored stones D. Diamonds discovered in South Africa 16. Where did the diamond industry first start? A. Italy B. India C. Belgium D. South Africa 17. What made it difficult for independent claim hold to survive during the diamond rush in South Africa? A. Variable pricing B. Severe weather C. Global pandemic 18. What business did Ernest Oppenheimer create to control sales of rough? A. Antwerp Diamond Association B. Diamond Trading Company C. Central Selling Organisation D. De Beers Consolidated Mines Ltd. 19. What distinguishes the concept of a single-channel marketing strategy? A. Vertical integration B. Local management C. Secondary market D. Central control 20. What global event disrupted De Beers’s control of the diamond industry? A. Cold War B. World War II C. Great Depression D. Collapse of the Soviet Union 21. What segment follows mining in the diamond value chain? A. Cutting and polishing B. Jewelry manufacturing C. Sorting and distribution D. Faceted diamond trading 22. What is the main sales method for rough diamonds? A. Online B. Tenders C. Auctions D. Long-term contracts 23. What companies supply most of the global rough diamonds by value? A. ALROSA and De Beers B. Consortium and Rio Tinto C. Lucara Diamond and Petra Diamonds D. Dominion Diamond Mines and Gem Diamonds 24. What limits entry to the upstream value chain segments? A. Size B. Capital C. Climate D. Location 25. What market consumes the second largest share of polished diamond jewelry? A. India B. China C. Japan D. United States 26. What advertising method is key to the current diamond jewelry market? A. Newspapers B. Social media C. Radio commercials D. Outdoor billboards 27. Who created De Beers? A. Ernest Oppenheimer B. Nicolaas de Beer C. Barney Barnato D. Cecil Rhodes 28. What is a midstream segment of the diamond value chain? A. Diamond jewelry retail B. Mining and exploration C. Sorting and distribution D. Faceted diamond trading 29. What sales format is typical of the secondary market for diamonds? A. Wholesale B. Estate sales C. Long-term contracts D. Short-term contracts 30. What is an upstream diamond supply chain segment? A. Retail jewelry B. Rough distribution C. Cutting and polishing D. Faceted diamond trading ASSIGNMENT 3 1. What does basaltic rock change to in the mantle during subduction? A. Eclogite B. Peridotite C. Lamproite D. Kimberlite 2. Where do most superdeep diamonds form? A. Pipes B. Outer core C. Oceanic crust D. Lower mantle 3. What layer of the earth includes continental and oceanic components? A. Core B. Crust C. Transition zone D. Upper mantle 4. What best describes the lithosphere? A. Inner core B. Oceanic crust C. Transition zone D. Crust and uppermost mantle 5. What lies beneath cratons? A. Transition zone B. Mantle keels C. Carbonates D. Pipes 6. What results from kimberlite or lamproite eruptions? A. Plumes B. Plates C. Pipes D. Pits 7. How are igneous rocks formed? A. In gas B. By erosion C. From a molten state D. By heat and pressure 8. What is an example of a superdeep diamond? A. Crustal B. CLIPPIR C. Carbonado D. Lithospheric 9. What causes the movement of the earth’s plates? A. Volcanism B. Subduction C. Metasomatism D. Mantle convection 10. What are the rock types where most diamonds form? A. Basaltic crust B. Granite and graphite C. Peridotite and eclogite D. Kimberlite and lamproite 11. What layers does the transition zone separate? A. Lower mantle and core B. Upper and lower mantle C. Continental crust and mantle D. Oceanic crust and lithosphere 12. Where do most mined diamonds form? A. Pipes B. Kimberlite C. Outer core D. Lithosphere 13. How does metasomatism affect lithospheric diamond formation? A. Supplies heat B. Transports rock C. Removes oxygen D. Provides hydrogen 14. How can crustal diamonds form? A. Oceanic subduction B. Volcanic eruptions C. Meteorite impacts D. Radiation decay 15. Where are cratons generally found? A. Under the oceans B. Center of landmasses C. New mountain ranges D. Tectonically active parts of the crust 16. What is the primary component of diamond? A. Boron B. Carbon C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen 17. What theory describes the movement of earth’s landmasses? A. Subduction B. Plate tectonics C. Metasomatism D. Mantle convection 18. What does diamond formation require other than sufficient carbon? A. Extreme low pressures and temperatures B. Extremely high pressures and temperatures C. Extreme high pressure and low temperatures D. Extremely high temperatures and low pressures 19. Where do most diamonds form? A. Crust B. Outer core C. Upper mantle D. Transition zone 20. What element limits potential diamond formation with available carbon in mantle keels? A. Iron B. Boron C. Oxygen D. Nitrogen 21. What indicates superdeep diamond formation? A. Fractures B. Cleavage C. Inclusions D. Growth marks 22. What is characteristic of superdeep CLIPPIR diamonds? A. Canadian B. Small size C. Cullinan-like D. Inclusion-rich 23. What combines with carbon to create a carbonate? A. Boron B. Oxygen C. Nitrogen D. Sea water 24. What is a feature of carbonado? A. Light color B. Single crystal C. Transparency D. Extremely tough 25. What rocks transport diamond to the surface? A. Eclogite B. Meteorite C. Peridotite D. Kimberlite 26. Where do diamond-bearing kimberlites tend to occur? A. Oceanic crust B. Center of cratons C. Newly formed mountains D. Where continental plates collide 27. What happens to diamond if kimberlite stalls in the continental crust? A. Nothing B. Increases in size C. Converts to graphite D. Becomes blue diamond 28. What are diamond deposits found away from water called? A. Dirt pits B. Dry diggings C. Field operations D. Open land mining 29. Where do plates exist? A. Outer core B. Lithosphere C. Lower mantle D. Transition zone 30. What process is critical in diamond formation? A. Geothermal gradient B. Metamorphism C. Resorption D. Subduction 31. What is a carbon source for diamond formation in mantle keels? A. Magma B. Eclogite C. Meteorite D. Carbonado ASSIGNMENT 4 1. Where are rocks and geological structures similar to Africa found due to ancient connections? A. India B. Brazil C. Canada D. Arkansas 2. What type of sampling indicates a deposit’s initial ore grade? A. Bulk B. Character C. Core drilling D. Microdiamond 3. What are the horizontal tunnels in an underground mine? A. Drifts B. Caves C. Shafts D. Blocks 4. What caused the shift in diamond mining from secondary deposits to primary? A. Economics B. Technology C. Ease of operations D. Diamond concentration 5. What is the main consideration in mining a diamond deposit? A. Climate B. Location C. Profitability D. Diamond concentration 6. What diamond deposit type is found outside a lamproite pipe? A. Primary B. Original C. Secondary D. Overburden 7. What is geochemical testing? A. Seismic analysis B. Ore grade concentration C. Chemical analysis of a sample D. Thermal conductivity of a mineral 8. What do geologists look for to locate a primary diamond deposit? A. Termites B. Gold nuggets C. Trace elements D. Indicator minerals 9. What size ore is considered manageable for diamond recovery? A. Kilogram B. One inch C. One cubic foot D. A couple inches 10. What methods are used to mine primary diamond deposits? A. Dredge and recovery B. Artisanal and industrial C. Small-scale and large-scale D. Open-pit and underground 11. What type of survey measures rock density in search of diamond deposits? A. Gravity B. Magnetic C. Geochemical D. Mineral sampling 12. What quality of diamonds do secondary deposits typically contain? A. Industrial B. Top grade C. Gem-quality D. Heavily included 13. What countries produce the most diamonds by value (U.S. dollars) and volume in carat weight? A. Russia, Botswana, and Canada B. Angola, South Africa, and India C. Brazil, Australia, and New Zealand 14. Where do geologists first search for diamonds? A. Cratons B. Riverbeds C. Shorelines D. Mountaintops 15. What are the main steps in diamond extraction? A. Sampling, mining, and ranking B. Removing, sorting, and appraising C. Crushing, separating, and assessing D. Sizing, concentrating, and recovering 16. What are two different types of diamond deposits? A. Primary and secondary B. Alluvial and lithospheric C. Cratonic and superdeep D. Gem-quality and industrial 17. What deposit type typically has a higher concentration of diamonds? A. Primary B. Tertiary C. Secondary D. Quaternary 18. What kind of survey uses sound waves to detect the features of rocks? A. Seismic B. Magnetic C. Secondary D. Aerial photography 19. What might red and orange garnet in a mineral sample indicate? A. An ancient glacier B. A secondary deposit C. Gem-quality diamonds D. A nearby primary deposit 20. What are geologists looking for with geochemical testing? A. Soil composition B. Thermal conductivity C. Ore grade concentration D. Elements from indicator minerals 21. How many carats must bulk sampling produce for accurate evaluation of a primary deposit? A. 1,000 B. 2,000 C. 3,000 D. 5,000 22. What describes most modern diamond mining operations? A. Artisanal B. Large in scale C. Relatively inexpensive D. Primarily use hand tools 23. What determines depth of an open-pit mine? A. Drifts B. Climate C. Economics D. Low-velocity charges 24. What recovery step includes crushing and scrubbing operations? A. Sizing B. Sampling C. Tumbling D. Concentrating 25. What is one of the world’s top diamond-producing countries by value and volume? A. Lesotho B. Namibia C. Botswana D. South Africa 26. What type of diamond mining is typically done in Brazil? A. Small-scale B. Large-scale C. Botswana D. South Africa 27. What is a key factor in a diamond mine’s economic potential? A. Geography B. Deposit size C. Environmental impact D. Socioeconomic stability 28. What deposits are found in the ocean? A. Marine B. Primary C. Glassies D. Eluvial 29. How do geologists locate a primary diamond deposit? A. Character sampling B. Geochemical testing C. Hydrothermal analysis D. Underground sampling 30. What testing is first performed after locating a diamond deposit? A. Bulk B. Character C. Ore grade D. Microdiamond 31. What happens in the concentration step of diamond recovery? A. X-rays detect diamonds mixed in gravel. B. Screens target diamond-bearing ore from overburden. C. Scrubbers wash and tumble ore to remove dirt and clay. D. Dense media separates heavier materials, like diamonds, from lighter material. ASSIGNMENT 5 1. In diamond, what is a group of five carbon atoms with one at the center? A. Unit cell B. Octahedron C. Tetrahedron D. Trisoctahedron 2. How are nitrogen atoms arranged in the diamond crystal lattice when diamonds first form? A. Pairs B. Isolated C. Groups of 4 D. Groups of 6 3. Which type of growth mark indicates an octahedral crystal face in diamond? A. Trigons B. Hillocks C. Tetragons D. Parallel grooves 4. What is a shallow diamond crystal with limited potential shape? A. Flat B. Sawable C. Splittable D. Makeable 5. What is the optic character of a crystal when all light rays behave identically in all directions? A. Organic B. Anisotropic C. Singly refractive D. Doubly refractive 6. What shape is a diamond’s unit cell? A. Cube B. Sphere C. Pyramid D. Cylindrical 7. What is the only way to accurately determine diamond type? A. Spectroscopy B. Specific gravity C. Checking for strain D. Checking for cleavage 8. What kind of atoms replace carbon atoms in a type I diamond? A. Nickel B. Boron C. Nitrogen D. Hydrogen 9. What can cause a combination of octahedral and dodecahedral crystal forms? A. Cleavage B. Fractures C. Resorption D. Glide planes 10. What forms when a crystal’s growth stops and then grows in a different, symmetrical direction? A. Glassie B. Carbonado C. Octahedron 11. What is the regular, repeating pattern of atoms in a mineral? A. Habit B. Cleavage C. Crystal system D. Crystal structure 12. What type of bond is formed when carbon atoms share electrons? A. Ionic B. Covalent C. Magnetic D. Hydrogen 13. How many directions of cleavage does diamond have? A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Six 14. What is the most important value factor for cuttable rough diamond? A. Size B. Shape C. Country of origin D. Position of inclusions 15. What are the categories of defects common in diamonds? A. Point, line, and density B. Point, line, and volume C. Period, line, and volume D. Point, sequential, and volume 16. What is the basic structural unit of all matter? A. Habit B. Atom C. Proton D. Electron 17. How many tetrahedrons form the core of a diamond’s unit cell? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 18. What is a mineral’s characteristic crystal shape? A. Cube B. Form C. Habit D. Tetrahedron 19. What is a deviation from the ideal diamond crystal lattice? A. Fault B. Defect C. Mistake D. Cleavage 20. What is distortion or deformation in a crystal? A. Strain B. Stress C. Pressure D. Inorganic 21. What is an example of a volume defect? A. Dislocation B. Trace element C. Mineral inclusion D. Isolated nitrogen atom 22. What elements are the basis of the diamond type classification system? A. Nitrogen and nickel B. Nitrogen and boron C. Hydrogen and boron D. Nitrogen and hydrogen 23. Which of these diamond types is rarely found in nature? A. Type Ib B. Type Ia C. Type laA D. Type laB 24. What planar feature describes the atomic weakness along which a mineral tends to break? A. Table B. Dislocation C. Glide plane D. Cleavage plane 25. Which crystal system is the most symmetrical? A. Cubic B. Triclinic C. Hexagonal D. Orthorhombic 26. Which type of growth mark indicates a cubic crystal face in diamond? A. Trigons B. Hillocks C. Parallel grooves D. Square depressions 27. What is a possible visible result of resorption? A. Strain B. Trigons C. Cleavage D. Twinning 32. What kind of diamond typically forms as very included single crystals in yellows, grays, and browns? A. Bort B. Glassie C. Carbonado 33. What is an example of an extrinsic defect? A. Stress B. Vacancy C. Carbon atom D. Trace element 34. How are the nitrogen atoms arranged in type IaB diamonds? A. Pairs B. Isolated C. Groups of 4 D. Groups of 6 35. What are diamond’s most common crystal shapes? A. Cube, octahedron, dodecahedron B. Cube, double pyramid, tetrahedron C. Trisoctahedron, tetrahedron, dodecahedron D. Octahedron, hexoctahedron, triangular pyramid 36. Which crystal planes offer the optimal sawing directions for cutting large, regularly shaped crystals? A. Cubic B. Octahedral C. Dodecahedral 37. Which type of growth mark indicates a dodecahedral crystal face in diamond? A. Trigons B. Tetragons C. Parallel grooves D. Square depressions 38. What is the most common type of twinned diamond crystal? A. Macle B. Glassie C. Carbonado D. Tetrahedron ASSIGNMENT 6 1. What is the emission of visible light by a material when it is exposed to a radiation source? A. Absorption B. Irradiation C. Luminescence D. Electromagnetism 2. How is luminescence important for diamond identification? A. Indicates geographic origin B. Reveals presence of defects C. Confirms superdeep formation D. Separates pink from red diamonds 3. How is a colorless, defect-free diamond categorized by band structure? A. Insulator B. Conductor  C. Semi-insulator D. Semiconductor 4. What is the process where a material absorbs some light and transmits the rest? A. Refraction B. Diffraction C. Selective reflection D. Selective absorption 5. What does irradiation create when it displaces carbon atoms in the crystal lattice? A. Feathers B. Graining C. Vacancies D. N3 defects 6. What percent of natural colorless diamonds fluoresce under UV radiation? A. 35% B. 50% C. 85% D. 100% 7. How does light travel? A. Waves B. Bursts C. Right angles D. Curves 8. What is the most common cause of yellow color in diamond? A. Boron B. Nitrogen C. Hydrogen D. Aluminum 9. What is the main cause of color in diamond? A. Defects B. Cut style C. Diffraction D. Selective reflection 10. What type of defect causes color in white diamonds? A. Line B. Point C. Volume D. Intrinsic 11. What energy state does an electron shift to when absorbing visible light? A. Stable B. Excited C. Neutral D. Stimulated 12. What bodycolor can the GR1 defect produce with high nitrogen concentration? A. Pink B. Green C. Yellow D. Orange 13. What instrument allows one to see an absorption spectrum? A. Spectroscope B. Refractometer C. X-ray generator D. Electromagnetic sensor 14. How do color centers enable movement of electrons in the band gap of diamond? A. Reduce transitions B. Excite protons C. Maintain ground state D. Produce steps 15. What describes the distance between two high points of a light path? A. Node B. Radius C. Velocity D. Wavelength 16. What type of energy is light? A. Atomic B. Potential C. Gravitational D. Electromagnetic 17. What happens to energy as wavelength decreases? A. Stays the same B. Doubles C. Increases D. Decreases 18. What type of light combines all the colors in the visible spectrum? A. Gray B. Black C. White D. Yellow 19. What represents light absorption in an absorption spectrum when using a spectroscope? A. Bright areas B. Dark vertical bands C. Thin horizontal lines D. None of the above 20. Why is a colorless, defect-free diamond an insulator? A. Bands overlap B. Large band gap C. Small conduction band D. No band gap 21. What can natural irradiation create? A. Stains B. Graining C. Trigons D. Mineral inclusions 22. What form of luminescence is observed while a material is exposed to radiation? A. Fluorescence B. Bioluminescence C. Phosphorescence D. Chemiluminescence 23. What types of energy form the electromagnetic spectrum? A. Electric and potential B. Electric and magnetic C. Nuclear and potential D. Gravitational and magnetic 24. How would a diamond appear if it transmitted all the spectral colors? A. Blue B. Black C. Yellow D. Colorless ASSIGNMENT 7 1. What did researchers conclude in developing the GIA Cut Grading System? A. Exact proportions create the ideal cut B. Round brilliant cut offers the best potential C. Range of proportions can achieve an excellent cut grade D. Any proportion set can create attractive light performance 2. How is the angle of incidence measured? A. Between the normal and the surface B. Between the incident ray and the normal C. Between the incident and reflected rays D. Between the surface and the incident ray 3. How is polish assessed in cut grading? A. Facet placement B. Exactness of shape C. Proportions and durability D. Surface condition of facets 4. What describes the change in speed and/or direction when light travels from air into diamond? A. Surface reflection B. Refraction C. Internal reflection D. Critical angle 5. What attribute is responsible for diamond’s superior luster? A. Stability B. Hardness C. Toughness D. Specific gravity 6. What pattern can result from a deep pavilion? A. Fisheye B. Nailhead C. Radiating mains D. Hearts and arrows 7. What is always equal to the angle of reflection? A. Normal B. Critical angle C. Wavelength D. Angle of incidence 8. What happens to light rays outside the critical angle cone? A. Change color B. Reflect internally C. Exit the gemstone D. Change speed 9. How does refracted light behave when it enters material of higher optical density? A. Speeds up B. Bends toward the normal C. Increases angle of incidence D. Reflects perpendicular to surface 10. What diamonds does the GIA Cut Grading System apply to? A. All cut shapes, any color, any clarity B. Round brilliant cut, D-to-Z colors, any clarity C. Fancy-cut, D-to-Z colors, Flawless to I3 clarity D. Round brilliant cut, any color, Internally Flawless to I3 clarity 11. What describes the separation of white light into its spectral colors? A. Brightness B. Brilliance C. Dispersion D. Scintillation 12. What characteristic helps provide a visual assessment for cut grade? A. Absorption B. Pattern C. Carat weight D. Refractive index 13. What best enhances the amount of fire seen in a diamond? A. Spot lighting B. Fluorescent lighting C. Darkfield illumination D. Diffused lighting 14. What is the refractive index of a material with a small critical angle? A. Low B. Zero C. High D. Irrelevant 15. What results from a long light path within a colored diamond? A. Deeper color B. Less absorption C. Increased brilliance D. Lighter color 16. What principle states that the angle at which light approaches a surface is the same as the angle of its return? A. Incident law B. Law of reflection C. Law of refraction 17. What is refraction? A. Sum of internally reflected light B. Separation of light into spectral colors C. Increased speed of light as it passes through diamond D. Change in speed and possibly direction when light travels from air to diamond 18. What measurement indicates optical density? A. Total depth B. Wavelength C. Carat weight D. Refractive index 19. What causes dispersion? A. Critical angle cone B. Angle of reflection C. Different speeds of light D. Total internal reflection 20. What results when a light path within a colored diamond shortens? A. Lighter color B. More absorption C. Decreased brilliance D. Increased saturation 21. What does design quality evaluate? A. Fire B. Proportions C. Critical angle D. Scintillation 22. How does daylight-equivalent diffused fluorescent lighting affect a diamond’s face-upappearance? A. Suppresses pattern B. Increases dispersion Diffused florescent lighting helps you evaluate a diamond's brightness and C. Darkens appearance pattern. While spot lighting helps you evaluate its fire. 23. What best describes the angle of incidence? A. Angle between incident and reflected light B. Angle between incident light and the surface C. Angle created by incident light and the normal D. Angle created by the normal and the surface 24. What is dispersion? A. Complete reflection of light back into the diamond B. Separation of white light into its spectral colors C. Ability to speed up light D. Combination of spectral colors into white light ASSIGNMENT 8 1. Why did cutters first make a table cut? A. Ease of cut B. Avoid chips C. Reduce weight D. Resemble natural crystal 2. What diamonds benefit most from laser bruting? A. Colored B. Strained C. Fancy shapes D. Round brilliant 3. What device allows cutters to adjust angles during polishing? A. Saw blade B. Scaife C. Tang D. Dop 4. How does a cutter prepare a diamond rough for cleaving? A. Carve a kerf B. Create a map C. Polish the crystal D. Remove growth marks 5. What technology gives planners an internal three-dimensional view of a diamond? A. Polarized filters B. Rough mapping C. Laser processing D. Microscopy 6. What splitting method does not rely on crystal directions? A. Cleaving B. Polishing C. Laser sawing D. Blade sawing 7. Why polish “windows” on the surface of frosted diamond rough? A. Retain weight B. View inclusions C. Improve brilliance D. Remove growth marks 8. What enabled the mass production of faceted diamonds? A. Cast-iron polishing wheel B. Motorized diamond saw C. Coated iron wires D. Diamond dust 9. What cut style results from blocking? A. Rose B. Table C. Single D. Brilliant 10. What improved the precision and efficiency of diamond cutting in the 1980s? A. Laser processing B. Motorized sawing C. Automated cleaving D. Mechanized bruting 11. What process creates a diamond’s outline shape? A. Splitting B. Sawing C. Bruting D. Cleaving 12. What was the earliest diamond cut? A. Table cut B. Point cut C. Single cut D. Rose cut 13. What is the goal of coning? A. Brute girdle B. Create culet C. Polish star facets D. Form pavilion angle 14. What step polishes the final facets of a diamond? A. Brillianteering B. Blocking C. Bruting D. Coning 15. What outline shape was most common to early brilliant cuts? A. Pear B. Oval C. Circular D. Cushion 16. What made true round-shaped diamonds possible? A. Diamond saw B. Polishing wheel C. Bruting machine D. Cleaving 17. What early cut resembles a rough diamond octahedron? A. Table cut B. Point cut C. Single cut D. Rose cut 18. What shape has dominated the market since the 1900s? A. Pear B. Round C. Trillion D. Triangular 19. Which cut style has a long history in India? A. Point B. Polki C. Table D. Round brilliant 20. Why identify crystal direction during the planning stage? A. Locate inclusions B. Divide the rough C. Enhance clarity D. Detect strain 21. What laser process simplified manufacturing of fancy-shape diamonds? A. Bruting B. Cleaving C. Polishing D. Bearding 22. What type of diamond rough does blade sawing divide better than laser sawing? A. Macle B. Strained C. Resorbed D. Octahedral 23. What improved diamond cutting precision and profits in the 1980s? A. Motorized sawing B. Rough mapping C. Automated cleaving D. Mechanized bruting 24. Which cut was the foundation of the full-cut modern brilliant? A. Rose cut B. Table cut C. Single cut D. Maza  ASSIGNMENT 9 1. What are the two types of inclusions? A. Blemishes and surface features B. Surface-reaching and on the surface C. Totally enclosed and on the surface D. Totally enclosed and surface-reaching 2. What magnification is used to assess clarity characteristics’ visibility? A. 5x B. 10x C. 20x D. 30x 3. What type of loupe has been corrected for color distortion and linear distortion? A. Quadruplet B. Doublet C. Singlet D. Triplet 4. What are diamond’s inclusions and blemishes called? A. Clarity traits B. Clarity attributes C. Clarity enhancers D. Clarity characteristics 5. What type of characteristic is in focus while the surface is out of focus? A. Inclusion B. Blemish C. Scratch D. Nick 6. What describes the distance that’s clear and sharp above and below a focus point? A. Linear distortion B. Focal length C. Depth of field D. Spherical aberration 7. What does chromatic aberration cause? A. Color correction B. Black and white field of view C. Rainbow effect at edges of lens D. Bending of lines in field of view 8. What is an advantage of a loupe versus a microscope in clarity grading? A. Stability B. Portability C. Adjustability D. Higher precision 9. Which factor of clarity characteristics can influence a diamond’s clarity grade? A. Size B. Shape C. Depth D. Length 10. What is key to determining a clarity grade? A. Plotting B. First impression face-up at 10x C. Profile in tweezers D. Table-down under a microscope 11. What clarity characteristic is caused by treatment? A. Cavity B. Laser drill-hole C. Etch channel D. Indented natural 12. What is the abbreviation for a tiny crystal that looks like a very small dot at 10x? A. Ndl B. Xtl C. Pp D. K 13. What do clarity characteristics help determine? A. Identity B. Cut grade C. Color grade D. Symmetry rating 14. Where does light enter a stone in darkfield illumination? A. Top B. Side C. Bottom D. All surfaces 15. Where is an inclusion if it touches its reflection? A. Deep in the stone B. Near the surface C. Breaks the surface D. On the culet 16. What clarity characteristic is found within a diamond? A. Scratch B. Blemish C. Inclusion D. Imperfection 17. What factor of clarity characteristics can influence a diamond’s clarity grade? A. Depth B. Shape C. Outline D. Number 18. What correction does a loupe require for clarity grading? A. Depth of field B. Magnification C. Size aberration D. Linear distortion 19. What type of illumination uses black, non-reflective background against a stone lit from the side? A. Brightfield B. Reflective C. Darkfield 20. What happens to the depth of field as magnification increases? A. Increases B. Decreases C. Width expands D. No change 21. What is considered an inclusion? A. Pit B. Nick C. Natural D. Twinning wisp 22. What clarity characteristic is a collection of pits along a facet junction? A. N B. Scr C. Abr D. Nck 23. What is an advantage of the GIA clarity grading system? A. Flexible application B. Variable interpretations C. Standard statement of quality D. Use of trade terms 24. Where are inclusions most visible? A. Below the girdle B. On the girdle plane C. Beneath the crown facets D. Under the table 25. What is an advantage of a microscope versus a loupe for clarity grading? A. Cost B. Stability C. Portability D. Lower precision 26. What type of illumination lights a diamond from below? A. Brightfield B. Reflective C. Darkfield D. Overhead 27. What clarity characteristic factor helps determine a diamond’s clarity grade? A. Shape B. Texture C. Contour D. Location  ASSIGNMENT 10 1. What clarity grade are diamonds with minor inclusions difficult to somewhat easy to see under 10x? A. IF B. VVS1 or VVS2 C. VS1 or VS2 2. What is most efficient for systematic examination during clarity grading? A. Loupe B. Microscope C. Table gauge D. DiamondDock 3. What is a plot? A. Clarity grading scale B. Color grade chart C. Map of clarity characteristics D. Diagram of proportions 4. What must be listed first on the Key to Symbols? A. Knots B. Metalwork C. Naturals D. Laser drill-hole 5. What has more effect on the clarity grade of a diamond? A. Small crystal B. Tiny needle C. Numerous scratches D. Deep feather 6. What are clarity characteristics that don’t affect the clarity grade called? A. Callable B. Non-callable C. Grade-setters D. Inclusions 7. What describes the nature of a clarity characteristic? A. Color B. Transparency C. Type D. Location 8. What clarity range can have inclusions visible to the unaided eye? A. Flawless B. Internally Flawless C. Very Very Slightly Included D. Included 9. What is used to determine the final clarity grade? A. Loupe B. Microscope C. Pointer probe D. DiamondDock 10. What is considered in addition to the five factors when assigning a clarity grade? A. Geographic origin B. Diamond size and shape C. Brightness distribution D. Amount of fire 11. What should be included when judging the number of clarity characteristics? A. Reflections B. Location C. Color D. Size 12. What would disqualify a stone from being graded IF? A. Scratch B. Pinpoint C. Abrasion D. Polish lines 13. What best describes the clarity characteristics in SI1 and SI2 stones? A. Minor B. Minute C. Obvious D. Noticeable 14. What is an advantage of the GIA clarity grading system? A. Uniform evaluation B. Flexible application C. Variable interpretations D. Use of trade terms 15. Where is a feather that reaches both the crown and pavilion plotted? A. Nowhere B. Only on the crown diagram C. Only on the pavilion diagram D. On both the crown and pavilion diagrams 16. What ensures that all clarity characteristics are found before assigning a clarity grade? A. Wedge technique B. Overall impression table-down at 20x C. First impression face-up at 10x D. Final clarity call with unaided eye 17. What clarity grade might result from tiny inclusions very difficult to see at 10x magnification? A. IF B. SI1 or SI2 C. VS1 or VS2 D. VVS1 or VVS2 18. What is a clarity characteristic seen at 10x magnification? A. Potential B. Callable C. Non-callable D. Removable 19. What color ink is used to plot extra facets? A. Red B. Blue C. Black D. Green 20. What is listed last on the Key to Symbols? A. Cavities B. Metalwork C. Naturals D. Laser drill-holes 21. What is the highest clarity grade a diamond with blemishes can receive? A. IF B. SI C. VS D. VVS ASSIGNMENT 11 1. Why are colored diamonds graded in the opposite position of D-to-Z diamonds? A. Less variation B. Influence of cut C. Impact of fire D. Difference in light 2. What color grades have the largest difference in price, with all other factors equal? A. D and E B. E and F C. J and K D. M and N 3. What components make up depth of color? A. Tone and hue B. Hue and shade C. Hue and saturation D. Tone and saturation 4. What color is predominant in the “orange-yellow” hue of the GIA system? A. Yellow B. Orange C. Orangy yellow D. Neither 5. What is a benefit of GIA’s color grading system? A. Starts with the letter “A” B. Broadly defines trade terms C. Universally defines grades D. For round brilliant cuts only 6. What surface is optimal for color grading diamonds? A. Neutral, shiny B. Yellow, matte C. Black, reflective D. White, non-reflective 7. What is a term that describes hue? A. Yellow B. Light C. Silky D. Very light 8. What is the term for a colored diamond’s fundamental color? A. Master-eye color B. Dominant color C. Characteristic color D. Representative color 9. What illusion causes a diamond to look lighter or darker than a masterstone, depending on the side it’s on? A. Bezold effect B. Cat’s-eye effect C. Master-eye effect 10. What does a D-to-Z masterstone represent? A. Least color in range B. Grade not in use C. Least amount of transparency D. Difference between hues 11. How can a very deep pavilion affect color appearance of a diamond? A. Darken B. Lighten C. More bluish hue D. No effect 12. What does each letter grade in the GIA Color Scale represent? A. Various hues B. Range of color C. Specific color D. Range of dispersion 13. What describes the darkness or lightness of a color? A. Hue B. Tone C. Richness D. Saturation 14. What results from slight color differences in colored diamonds? A. Large effect on value B. Huge impact on brilliance C. Confusion among graders D. No impact on price 15. How should a diamond be examined when estimating color? A. Profile B. Table-down C. Face-up and face-down D. Perpendicular to culet 16. What is a component of color? A. Hue B. Shade C. Richness D. Fullness 17. What is a term that describes tone? A. Blue B. Weak C. Very light D. Orangy pink 18. How does color differ in adjacent grades of the GIA Color Scale? A. Vastly B. Slightly C. Moderately D. No difference 19. What term falls on the GIA D-to-Z color scale? A. Dark B. Faint C. Intense D. Very clear 20. Where do grades N through R fall on the GIA Color Scale? A. Light B. Faint C. Very light D. Near-colorless 21. What is the color grade for a diamond with more color than the G masterstone but slightlyless color than the H? A. E B. F C. G 22. Where is the focus when color grading a colored diamond? A. Dark areas B. Washed-out areas C. Surface reflections D. Characteristic color ASSIGNMENT 12 1. What weight retention method may cause irregular scalloping on a diamond’s girdle? A. Sawing B. Digging out C. Quilting D. Brillianteering 2. What table percentage estimate does not require magnification? A. Flash B. Ratio C. Bowing D. Direct measurement 3. What is a purpose of a diamond’s girdle? A. Prevent damage B. Add carat weight C. Increase beauty D. Create a gray ring reflection 4. What facets are used to estimate the crown angle in profile? A. Table and star facets B. Table and bezel facets C. Table upper half facets D. Upper and lower half facets 5. What is the total depth percentage of a round brilliant with a depth of 6.57 mm and an average girdle diameter of 10.810 mm? A. 59.0% Total Depth Percentage = (Depth ÷ Average Girdle Diameter) × 100 B. 60.7% = (6.57 ÷ 10.810) x 100 = 60.77 ( Round to 60.8%) C. 60.8% 6. What is the average girdle diameter of a diamond with a minimum diameter of 5.23 mm and a maximum diameter of 5.30 mm? A. 5.265 Average Girdle Diameter = (Minimum Girdle Diameter + Maximum Girdle Diameter) ÷ 2 B. 5.275 = ( 5.23 + 5.30 ) ÷ 2 = 5.265 C. 5.300 7. What distance are star facets compared to for estimating star length percentage? A. Girdle diameter B. Girdle edge to table edge C. Star corner to table edge D. Crown edge to table corner 8. What table percentage might negatively affect a diamond’s cut grade? A. 55% B. 60% C. 65% D. 75% 9. Where is the focus when describing girdle thickness? A. Hills B. Ridges C. Valleys D. Ravines 10. What proportion estimate might require adjustments for star facet length? A. Culet size B. Table size C. Crown angle D. Pavilion depth 11. What measurements are needed to calculate the average girdle diameter of a round brilliant? A. Minimum table diameter and depth B. Maximum girdle diameter and depth C. Minimum and maximum table diameter D. Minimum and maximum girdle diameter 12. What might be associated with shallow crown angles due to a shallow rough? A. Large table B. Small culet C. Thick girdle D. Deep pavilion 13. What weight retention method changes the angle of the upper or lower half facets? A. Sawing B. Painting C. Blocking D. Brillianteering 14. What is necessary to measure a diamond’s table? A. Hole gauge B. Table gauge C. Millimeter gauge D. Crown angle card 15. What is the table percentage if the average table diameter of a round brilliant diamond is 4.70mm and its average girdle diameter is 8.130 mm? A. 57% Table Percentage = (Average Table Diameter ÷ Average Girdle Diameter) × 100 B. 58% = ( 4.70 / 8.130) x 100 = 57.811(Round to 58%) C. 59% 16. What facet reflection is examined to estimate crown angle face-up? A. Star B. Bezel C. Lower half D. Pavilion main 17. Why dig out a diamond’s girdle? A. Enhance fire B. Improve cut grade C. Remove blemishes D. Vaporize inclusions ASSIGNMENT 13 1. Where do cutters conceal extra weight in a diamond? A. Extra facets B. Shallow pavilion C. Extra-thick girdle D. Large culet 2. What describes a diamond’s shape, proportions, and durability during fashioning? A. Finish B. Polish C. Design D. Brilliance 3. What magnification is used to evaluate a diamond’s polish and symmetry? A. 10x B. 20x C. 40x D. None 4. What distance is compared to lower half facet length to determine lower half facet length percentage? A. Table-to-culet B. Girdle-to-culet C. Girdle-to-girdle 5. How does the table reflection change as a diamond’s pavilion deepens? A. Increases B. Lightens C. Decreases D. No change 6. What pavilion depth percentage might reflect the girdle face-up through the table? A. 37.0% B. 42.0% C. 45.0% D. 48.0% 7. How do steep pavilion angles affect appearance? A. Dark radiating mains B. Dark upper half facets C. Fisheye reflections D. Dark areas under table 8. What is the total depth percentage of a diamond with a crown height of 10.5%, girdle thickness of 2.5%, and pavilion depth of 41.5%? A. 53.0% Total Depth% = Crown Height% + Girdle Thickness% + Pavilion Depth% B. 53.8% = 10.5 + 2.5 + 41.5 = 54.5% C. 54.5% 9. What is the estimated girdle thickness percentage of a diamond with a total depth of 62.8%, crown height of 15.5%, and pavilion depth of 45.5%? A. 1.0% Girdle Thickness Percentage = Total Depth % – Crown Height % – Pavilion Depth % B. 1.5% = 62.8% - 15.5% - 45.5% = 1.8% Round to nearest 5 point = 2.0% C. 2.0% 10. How would a 1.15-ct. round brilliant diamond with an average girdle diameter of 6.50 mmcompare to a diamond of the same diameter and typical weight of 1.00 ct.? A. Light B. Overweight C. Underweight 11. What is the purpose of the culet facet? A. Prevent chipping B. Improve symmetry C. Maximize brilliance D. Maximize light leakage 12. What is assessed to evaluate a diamond’s craftsmanship? A. Color B. Finish C. Durability D. Proportions 13. What is compared to a diamond’s pavilion depth to determine pavilion depth percentage? A. Total depth percentage B. Crown diameter C. Average girdle diameter D. Girdle radius 14. What do pavilion proportions significantly impact? A. Fire B. Polish C. Luster D. Hardness 15. What might be found in a diamond with misalignment (Aln)? A. Out-of-round B. Misshapen facets C. Table/culet alignment D. Crown height variation 16. What is compared to a diamond’s average girdle diameter to determine pavilion depth percentage? A. Carat weight B. Minimum diameter C. Maximum diameter 17. What is required to calculate girdle thickness percentage? A. Table percentage B. Pavilion depth percentage C. Star facet length percentage D. Lower half facet length percentage 18. What is the estimated girdle thickness percentage of a diamond with a total depth of 56.4%, crown height of 10.5%, and pavilion depth of 43.0%? A. 2.5% B. 3.0% Girdle Thickness Percentage = Total Depth % – Crown Height % – Pavilion Depth % C. 3.5% = 56.4 - 10.5 - 43 = 2.9 19. What is the total depth percentage of a diamond with a crown height of 10.5%, girdlethickness of 4.5%, and pavilion depth of 45.0%? A. 60.0% Total Depth % = Crown Height % + Girdle Thickness % + Pavilion Depth % B. 60.1% = 10.5 + 4.5 + 45 = 60% C. 61.0% 20. How does a diamond’s too large culet appear in darkfield lighting? A. Small cavity B. Indented natural C. Fuzzy, white speck D. Black spot beneath table 21. Why do diamonds with deep pavilions offer less value? A. Unattractive B. Durability issues C. Impossible to set in jewelry D. Look smaller face-up than weight suggests 22. What is the average girdle diameter of a diamond with a minimum diameter of 3.34 mm and a maximum diameter of 3.39 mm? A. 3.300 Average Girdle Diameter = (Minimum Girdle Diameter + Maximum Girdle Diameter) ÷ 2 B. 3.365 = ( 3.34 + 3.39) /2 = = 3.365 C. 6.730 23. What measurement is key to evaluating a diamond’s proportions? A. Average table size B. Average girdle diameter C. Smallest girdle diameter D. Depth from table to culet 24. What is necessary to measure a diamond’s table? A. Hole gauge B. Stone holder C. Magnification D. Millimeter gauge 25. What is the total depth percentage of a round brilliant diamond with a depth of 4.35 mm andan average girdle diameter of 6.810 mm? A. 63.9% Total Depth Percentage = (Depth ÷ Average Girdle Diameter) × 100 B. 64.0% = (4.35 ÷ 6.810) x 100 C. 64.1% = 63.87% = 63.9% 26. What is the table percentage if the average table diameter of a round brilliant diamond is 2.20 mm and its average girdle diameter is 3.560 mm? A. 59% Table Percentage = (Average Table Diameter ÷ Average Girdle Diameter) × 100 B. 60% = (2.20 / 3.56) x 100 C. 61% = 0.617977 x 100 = 62 ( round 61.79%) ASSIGNMENT 14 1. What is a negative factor of pavilion bulge? A. Reduces weight B. Makes stone difficult to set C. Difficult for cutters to create D. Unpleasant face-up pattern 2. What cut tends to have the highest weight retention? A. Heart brilliant B. Round brilliant C. Princess cut D. Standard round brilliant 3. What is the length-to-width ratio for a fancy cut 10 mm long and 7 mm wide? A. 1.50:1 B. 5.00:1 C. 1.43:1 D. 1.80:1 4. What is a commonly used step-cut accent stone? A. Baguette B. Emerald C. Triangular D. Princess 5. What cut makes clarity characteristics obvious? A. Heart B. Emerald C. Old mine D. Marquise 6. What describes the curved center of a marquise shape? A. Center B. Lobe C. Belly D. Wing 7. What direction do graders view a face-down fancy-cut diamond in to assess the color? A. Across width B. Lengthwise C. Vertical D. Diagonal 8. What is a square or rectangular modified brilliant cut? A. Emerald B. Radiant C. Heart D. Polki 9. What facets do cutters use to make French tips? A. Star and pavilion main B. Star and upper half C. Lower and upper half D. Crown and pavilion main 10. What is the area between the head and belly of an oval? A. Shoulder B. Wing C. Point D. Cleft 11. How is table size measured for most fancy shapes? A. Across stone length B. Across stone width C. Across crown main D. Across star facets 12. How do graders assess the bow-tie effect? A. Unaided eyes B. 10x magnification C. 20x magnification D. Under a microscope 13. What describes the attractiveness of an individual fancy-cut diamond when compared toothers of the same outline? A. Brilliance Shape appeal B. Scintillation C. Cut allure 14. What cutting style is characterized by triangular and kite-shaped facets? A. Star cut B. Step cut C. Emerald cut D. Brilliant cut 15. What describes the arrangement of a diamond’s facets? A. Finish B. Shape C. Proportion D. Cutting style 16. What might be found in a diamond with misalignment (Aln)? A. Pointing B. Out-of-round C. Table/culet alignment D. Pavilion angle variation 17. What describes the curved center of an oval shape? A. Center B. Lobe C. Wing D. Belly 18. Where is the width measured on an oval brilliant cut? A. Lobe B. Belly C. Tip D. Wing 19. What is the rounded area of a heart shape? A. Head B. Lobe C. Point D. Cleft 20. What brilliant cut takes best advantage of a macle? A. Marquise B. Princess C. Radiant D. Trillion 21. What magnification is used for grading clarity in fancy cuts? A. 3x B. 10x C. 20x D. 50x 22. What cut may show the bow-tie effect? A. Step B. Pear C. Polki D. Emerald 23. What is the length-to-width ratio for a fancy cut 15.00 mm long and 6.00 mm wide? A. 1.50:1 B. 90.00:1 Length-to-Width Ratio = (Length ÷ Width):1 C. 2.00:1 (15.00 / 6.00):1 = 2.50:1 D. 2.50:1 ASSIGNMENT 15 1. What do appraisers assign to small mounted diamonds when clarity grading? A. A range of grades B. A grade lower C. A single grade D. A grade higher 2. What is an ultimate consideration for diamond recutting? A. Clarity B. Polish quality C. Final value D. Color 3. Why does girdle thickness have the most impact on weight? A. Located at the widest part of a diamond B. Longest outline among facets C. Where most dust collects D. Most symmetrical 4. What is a good case for recutting? A. Remove a deep internal inclusion B. Remove a large dark inclusion C. Modernize an old cut D. Eliminate graining 5. How can the mounting impact clarity grading? A. Change shape outline B. Restrict viewing angles C. Hide cutting style D. Add weight to the diamond 6. What term describes a diamond whose clarity can become IF after repolishing? A. Improvable B. Potential C. Cuttable D. Possible 7. How is the culet size judged for mounted diamonds? A. Check reflections B. Measure directly C. View through the table D. Examine pavilion facets 8. What adjustment factor is used to estimate the weight of an emerald-cut diamond that is 8.40 x 5.59 x 2.85 mm? A. 0.0080 Estimated Weight = Length x width x depth x adjustment factor B. 0.0092 Length-to-Width Ratio = (Length ÷ Width):1.00 C. 0.0100 = ( 8.40 ÷ 5.59):1.00 = 1.50: 1 ( See this value in Adj. factor table) = 0.0092 9. What is the estimated weight of a heart-shaped brilliant that is 5.58 x 5.51 x 3.21 mm, withmedium girdle thickness? A. 0.51 ct. Estimated Weight = Length x width x depth x 0.0059 x weight correction B. 0.55 ct. = 5.58 x 5.51 x 3.21 x 0.0059 = 0.58229 ct. C. 0.58 ct. Note: Medium girdle thikness weight correction factor ma consider thase nahi 10. What is the most common color improvement from recutting? A. Change hue B. Reduce color zoning C. Lighten D-to-Z stones D. Intensify color to fancy range 11. What variation does not need weight estimation adjustment? A. Bulged pavilion B. High shoulders C. Bulged wings D. Table off-center 12. What can help detect inclusions hidden by prongs? A. A camera B. Diffused light C. UV light D. Locate reflections 13. How can the mounting affect color grading? A. Reveal inclusions B. Limit view of table C. Hamper use of masterstones D. Increase diamond’s true color 14. What is required for weight estimation of a diamond in a bezel setting that covers the girdle? A. Assess in profile view B. Measure girdle thickness with millimeter gauge C. Check girdle thickness by reflection D. Evaluate bezel facets and pavilion mains 15. What is the estimated weight of a round brilliant with average girdle diameter of 7.25 mm, depth of 5.45 mm, and a very thick girdle? A. 1.83 cts. Estimated Weight = Average girdle diameter2 x depth x 0.0061 x weight correction B. 1.85 cts. = (7.25 x 7.25) x 5.45 x 0.0061 x 1.05 = 1.83 cts C. 1.88 cts. Weight correction (average girdle diameter of 7.25 mm) = 5% = 100 + 5 = 105% = 1.05 16. How can mounting impact clarity grading? A. Obstruct lighting B. Hide cutting style C. Change shape outline D. Add weight to the diamond 17. How do diamond professionals estimate the weight of mounted diamonds? A. Best guess B. Mathematical formulas C. Images of the diamond D. Spectroscopy techniques 18. What do appraisers assign to larger mounted diamonds when color grading? A. A range of grades B. A grade lower C. A single grade D. A grade higher 19. What is the estimated weight of a round brilliant with average girdle diameter of 6.95 mm, depth of 4.28 mm, and a slightly thick girdle? A. 1.24 cts. Estimated Weight = Average girdle diameter2 x depth x 0.0061 x weight correction B. 1.26 cts. (6.95)2 x 4.28 x 0.0061 x 1.01) = 1.27 cts. C. 1.27 cts. Weight correction (average girdle diameter of 6.95 mm) = 1% 20. What adjustment factor is used to estimate the weight of a marquise-cut diamond that is 11.10 x 5.52 x 3.38 mm? A. 0.00565 Length-to-Width Ratio = (Length ÷ Width):1.00 B. 0.00580 (11.10 ÷ 5.52):1.00 = 2.01:1 select according to ans. from adj. tbl C. 0.00585 21. What parameter is required for round brilliant weight estimation? A. Pavilion depth percentage B. Crown height percentage C. Depth D. Table size 22. What term describes a diamond whose clarity can become VVS after repolishing? A. Improvable B. Potential C. Cuttable D. Possible  ASSIGNMENT 16 1. What is a typical substrate in CVD growth? A. Carbonado B. Natural diamond C. Diamond aggregate D. HPHT lab-grown diamond 2. What can aid in the detection of lab-grown diamonds? A. Fire B. Strain C. Brilliance D. Proportions 3. What influences the size of gem-quality lab-grown diamonds? A. Energy source B. Material scarcity C. Equipment capacity D. Laboratory location 4. What helps ensure public trust in the diamond and lab-grown diamond industries? A. Disclose diamond origin B. Discourage product knowledge C. Limit sale of lab-grown diamonds D. Discount lab-grown diamond prices 5. When were the first lab-grown diamonds created? A. 1700s B. 1800s C. 1900s D. 2000s 6. What can be a carbon source in CVD lab-grown diamond production? A. Graphite B. Methane C. Diamond powder D. Carbon dioxide 7. What principle is critical in the design of most diamond screening instruments? A. Hardness B. Diamond type C. Refractive index D. Rough diamond shape 8. What clarity are most CVD lab-grown diamonds? A. Low B. High C. Moderate D. Extremely Low 9. What light rarely produces fluorescence in colorless and near-colorless CVD lab-growndiamonds? A. Infrared B. Longwave UV C. Shortwave UV 10. What growth method most resembles natural growth conditions? A. Verneuil flame fusion B. Chemical vapor deposition C. Low-pressure, high-temperature D. High-pressure, high-temperature 11. What diamond type can be created by the HPHT method? A. Ib B. IaA C. IaB D. IaAB 12. What angle are polarizers rotated in relation to each other for cross-polarized light? A. 0 degrees B. 10 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 90 degrees 13. What increases the rate of a chemical reaction? A. Vapor B. Catalyst C. Substrate D. Template 14. What type are most CVD lab-grown diamonds? A. Ia B. Ib C. IIa D. IIb 15. What treatment can remove the brown color of as-grown CVD diamond? A. LPHT B. HPHT C. Coating D. Irradiation ASSIGNMENT 17 1. Where in the supply chain do diamond professionals and regulatory agencies require disclosure of diamond treatments? A. Retail B. Wholesale C. Manufacturing 2. What bodycolor results from HPHT treatment of a type I diamond? A. Red B. Blue C. Yellow D. Colorless 3. What color treatment can be reversed to restore the diamond’s original bodycolor? A. Coating B. Annealing C. Irradiation D. HPHT treatment 4. What diamond clarity treatment disguises dark crystal inclusions? A. Coating B. Irradiation C. Laser drilling D. Fracture filling 5. What diamond color treatment reorganizes color centers in the diamond crystal lattice? A. Coating B. Annealing C. Irradiation D. Fracture filling 6. What are the spaces where displaced carbon atoms move to when irradiated? A. Vacancies B. Cleavages C. Glide planes D. Interstitial positions 7. Why can diamond color differ as a result of irradiation? A. Defects present B. Pressures required C. Geographic origin D. Rough diamond shape 8. What lighting is best to use when looking for evidence of irradiation? A. Diffused B. Polarized C. Brightfield D. Fiber optic 9. What was the earliest method of diamond color treatment? A. Cutting B. Coating C. Annealing D. Fracture filling 10. Why are multistep treatments used for diamond color? A. Rarity of starting material B. Lower treatment cost C. Shorter treatment time D. Increased durability 11. What diamonds on the D-to-Z color scale are typically selected for color treatment? A. Faint B. Colorless C. Near-colorless D. Light yellow range 12. Where are the openings of laser drill-holes typically found? A. Culet B. Girdle C. Crown D. Pavilion 13. What diamond clarity treatment relies on similar refractive index (RI) values? A. Coating B. Irradiation C. Laser drilling D. Fracture filling 14. Where does acid enter an internally laser-drilled diamond? A. Cleavage B. Drill-hole C. Etch channel D. Indented natural 15. How does LPHT treatment create color? A. Removes defects B. Isolates vacancies C. Creates color centers D. Induces graphitization ASSIGNMENT 18 1. What was one of the first assembled simulants in jewelry? A. Coated CZ B. Garnet-and-glass doublet C. Synthetic spinel triplet D. Synthetic sapphire and strontium titanate doublet 2. What diamond property enables a diamond probe to separate most simulants from diamond? A. Light reflection B. Light refraction C. Heat conduction D. Superior hardness 3. What diamond simulant shows noticeable doubling and strong fire? A. Synthetic rutile B. CZ C. GGG D. Strontium titanate 4. What girdle condition separates diamond from simulants? A. Polished B. Faceted C. Wavy D. Bruted 5. Where can two materials be bonded to create a doublet? A. Near the girdle B. Just above the culet C. Parallel to the bezel facets D. Perpendicular to the table 6. What best helps protect from transactions involving misrepresented stones? A. Stay current with knowledge and skills B. Submit every stone to a lab C. Buy directly from mines D. Sell only colored stones 7. What causes doubling in a simulant? A. High refractive index B. Low dispersion value C. Doubly refractive crystal system D. Exceptional toughness 8. What indicates coating? A. Surface graining B. Oily or iridescent facets C. Misshapen facets D. Wavy girdle 9. Why do some diamond simulants display “read-through”? A. High RI B. Low hardness C. Poor polish D. Large critical angles 10. What simulant is most popular today? A. Synthetic moissanite B. Synthetic rutile C. Zircon D. CZ 11. What was the earliest diamond simulant? A. Synthetic sapphire B. Synthetic rutile C. Cubic zirconia D. Glass 12. How do a diamond’s facet junctions compare to those of simulants? A. Sharp B. Rounded C. Wavy D. Rough 13. What is most simulants’ heft in relation to diamond? A. Higher B. Lower C. Equal D. Half 14. What simulant is a natural gemstone? A. GGG B. YAG C. Strontium titanate D. Zircon 15. What best describes a diamond simulant? A. Always natural B. Always synthetic C. Same chemistry as diamond D. Same appearance as diamond ASSIGNMENT 19 1. What is the aperture? A. How long a gem phosphoresces B. Number of images per second C. Opening where light enters D. Length of time light enters 2. What tool eases the sorting of large numbers of small, round loose diamonds? A. Sieve set B. Template C. Electronic scale D. Hole gauge 3. What type of energy always causes a diamond to fluoresce? A. Infrared B. Longwave C. Shortwave D. Ultra-shortwave 4. What does photoluminescence mapping reveal? A. Clarity B. Formation C. Inclusion type D. Defect concentration 5. How is diamond inventory organized and stored? A. Sorting pads B. Stone papers C. Matching trays D. Diamond envelopes 6. Why do gemologists use UV-Vis-NIR spectrometer analysis for diamond? A. Determine country of origin B. Determine diamond type C. Determine origin of color D. Determine diamond age 7. What portions of the electromagnetic spectrum does the UV-Vis-NIR spectrometer analyze? A. Visible, ultraviolet, and X-rays B. Visible, infrared, and radio waves C. Ultraviolet, X-rays, and gamma rays D. Ultraviolet, visible, and near-infrared 8. What type of spectroscopy is used to determine diamond type? A. UV-Vis-NIR B. PL C. FTIR D. Raman 9. What clarity range varies most in appearance when matching diamonds? A. VVS B. VS C. SI D. I 10. How sensitive is PL spectroscopy compared to UV-Vis-NIR spectroscopy? A. Less sensitive B. More sensitive C. Same sensitivity D. Not possible to compare 11. Why is a scoop useful for diamonds? A. Sorting by color B. Sorting by weight C. Picking up small gems D. Measuring diameter 12. What helps separate natural from lab-grown diamonds? A. Refractometer B. Electric scale C. DiamondView D. UV-Vis-NIR spectroscopy 13. What does cooling a diamond do to spectral absorption peaks? A. Sharpen B. Multiply C. Diminish D. Eliminate 14. What tool provides precise measurements? A. Scoop B. Sieve set C. Hole gauge D. Millimeter gauge 15. What characteristic is one of the most important when matching diamonds for jewelry? A. Color B. Clarity C. Culet size D. Pavilion depth ASSIGNMENT 20 1. What is the price of a 3-ct. diamond with per-carat price of $30,000? A. $10,000 B. $75,000 1-ct. = $30000 3 X $30000 = $90000 C. $70,000 3-ct. = ? D. $90,000 2. What is the history of possession of a gemstone or jewelry piece? A. Provenance B. Consignment C. Beneficiation D. Memo 3. Where is a good place to sell products and services? A. Trade show B. Alumni party C. Gemology classroom D. Education seminar 4. What term describes diamond industry trends? A. Stable B. Ever-changing C. Misleading D. Not significant 5. What best helps develop industry contacts? A. Trade magazine B. Networking event C. Alumni newsletter D. Self-paced course 6. What information does a wholesale price sheet provide? A. Exact prices B. Estimated prices C. Prices lower than market D. Prices not reflective of market 7. What buying agreement anticipates a rapid return? A. Memorandum B. Beneficiation C. Consignment D. Terms of payment 8. What describes the use of natural resources to benefit the source country? A. Modernization B. Beneficiation C. Innovation D. Integration 9. What is an agreement that involves multiple payments over time? A. Memo B. Beneficiation C. Consignment D. Terms 10. What parcel price comes at a discount? A. Lot price B. Pick price C. Per-carat price D. Unit price 11. What is a purpose of environmental management systems for diamond mining companies? A. Reduce environmental impact B. Increase sales strategy C. Improve rough sorting D. Recycle mechanical lifts 12. What technology tracks the journey of a diamond through the supply chain? A. Laser inscription B. Blockchain C. Computer imaging D. X-ray sorting 13. What is considered when pricing a diamond parcel? A. Branding B. Sales experience C. Consumer’s generation D. Sorting labor 14. What is true about diamond pricing? A. Increases B. Fluctuates C. Tends downward D. Remains constant 15. What describes the capacity for continuous performance in the diamond industry? A. Cautious B. Automatic C. Innovative D. Sustainable Average girdle diameter—The result achieved by adding the smallest and largest diameter measurements of a round brilliant and dividing by two. Average Girdle Diameter = (Minimum Girdle Diameter + Maximum Girdle Diameter) ÷ 2 Total depth percentage—Table-to culet depth, expressed as a percentage of average girdle diameter. Total Depth Percentage = (Depth ÷ Average Girdle Diameter) × 100 Well-proportioned diamonds typically have total depth percentages around 60.0 percent.(55-65) below 55.0 percent are generally underweight Above 65.0 percent are generally overweight Table percentage—A diamond’s table size expressed as a percentage of its average girdle diameter. Average Table Diameter = (Table Measurement + Table Measurement + Table Measurement + Table Measurement) ÷ 4 Table Percentage = (Average Table Diameter ÷ Average Girdle Diameter) × 10 Table percentages that range from about 55 percent to about 65 percent There are three estimation methods: flash, ratio, and bowing. Star facet length—the distance between the base of the star and the point— might affect your estimate of the diamond’s table size. Star length percentage—The length of the star facets expressed as a percentage of the total distance between the girdle and the edge of the table facet. Star length percentages typically range from 50 to 55 percent. Crown angle—The angle formed by the bezel facets and the girdle plane. Crown height percentage—The distance from the girdle plane to the table, expressed as a percentage of average girdle diameter. crown angles from about 25 to about 35 degrees. Girdle thickness—The width of a fashioned gem’s girdle. Pavilion angle—The angle formed by the pavilion mains and the girdle plane. Pavilion depth percentage—The distance from the girdle plane to the culet, expressed as a percentage of average girdle diameter. The pavilion depth percentage is 44.5 percent.(38-50) Girdle thickness percentage—Girdle thickness expressed as a percentage of average girdle diameter. Girdle Thickness Percentage = Total Depth % – Crown Height % –Pavilion Depth % Lower half length percentage—The length of the lower half facets expressed as a percentage of the total distance between the girdle and the culet. Culet size—The size of the facet at the bottom of the diamond where the pavilion mains meet. Total Depth Percentage = Crown Height Percentage + Girdle Thickness Percentage + Pavilion Depth Percentage