CTLE Organic Chem Pre-Board Exam 2023 PDF

USC CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN LICENSURE EXAM REVIEW CENTER ORGANIC CHEMISTRY PRE-BOARD 2023 Instruction: On your answer sheet, shade the letter that corresponds to the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The structure of...

USC CHEMICAL TECHNICIAN LICENSURE EXAM REVIEW CENTER ORGANIC CHEMISTRY PRE-BOARD 2023 Instruction: On your answer sheet, shade the letter that corresponds to the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question. 1. The structure of urea is shown below. The carbon atom in urea is: A. sp3 hybridized B. sp2 hybridized C. sp hybridized D. not hybridized E. All of the above 2. What is the relationship of the following pair of compounds? A. stereoisomer D. skeletal isomer B. functional isomer E. cis-trans isomer C. position isomer 3. What functional group is present in the terpene, camphor (structure shown below)? A. hydroxyl D. alkoxy B. carboxyl E. amino C. carbonyl 4. What functional class is represented by the alkaloid, coniine (structure shown below)? A. amine D. aromatic hydrocarbons B. amide E. alcohol C. nitrile 5. Which of the following compounds would be the most soluble in water? A. dichloromethane D. diethyl ether B. cyclohexane E. chloroform C. ethyl alcohol 6. The following compounds have similar molecular weights. Which has the lowest boiling point? A. D. CH3CH2CH3 B. E. CH3CH2NH2 C. CH3-O-CH3 7. Which of the following pairs of compounds are constitutional isomers? A. CH3CH2OCH3 and CH3CH2CHO D. CH3CH2CH2CHO and CH3COCH2CH3 B. CH3CH2CHO and CH3CH2CH2OH E. Both C and D C. CH3COCH2CH3 and CH3CH2COCH3 8. How many structurally distinct (different) sets of hydrogen atoms are present in (CH3)3CCH2OCH3? A. 2 D. 8 B. 3 E. 14 C. 4 9. What is the correct IUPAC name for the given compound? 1  A. Methyl p-chlorobenzoate D. p-chloroacetophenone B. p-chlorophenyl ethanoate E. chloromethyl benzoate C. 3-chlorophenyl acetate 10. The structure below has ________. A. 1º, 2º, and 3º carbon atoms B. 1º and 2º carbon atoms C. 1º and 3º carbon atoms D. 2º and 3º carbon atoms 11. There are four constitutional isomers having the formula of C4H9Cl. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name for one of these isomers? A. 1-chloro-2-methylpropane D. 1-chloro-3-methylpropane B. 3-chlorobutane E. 1-chloro-2-methylbutane C. 2-chloro-2-methylbutane 12. The IUPAC name for (CH3)2CHCH(CH3)CH2CH=CH2 is ________. A. 4,5-dimethyl-1-hexene D. 4-methyl-4-isopropyl-1-butene B. 4,5,5-trimethyl-1-pentene E. 1,1,2-trimethyl-5-pentene C. 2,3-dimethyl-5-hexene 13. Which compound is the likely product from addition of Cl2 to 1-butene? A. CH3CH2CH2CHCl2 D. CH3CH2CCl2CH3 B. CH3CH2CHClCH2Cl E. CH3CCl2CH2CH3 C. ClCH2CH2CH2CH2Cl 14. What is the correct name for the compound below? A. 1,1-dimethyl-2-cyclohexenol D. 4,4-dimethyl-2-cyclohexenol B. 3,3-dimethyl-1-cyclohexen-6-ol E. 1,1-dimethyl-2-cyclohexen-4-ol C. 6,6-dimethyl-1-cyclohexen-3-ol 15. In which of the following groups are compounds arranged in increasing volatility? A. CH4, CH2Cl2, CH3Cl, CHBr3 B. CBr4, CHBr3, CH2Cl2, CH4 C. CH3CH2CH3, CH3OCH3, CH3CH2CH2OH, CH3CH2CHO D. HOOC-COOH, CH3COOH, CH3Cl, HOOC-CH2-COOH E. None of the given options. 16. After a DUI incident, the driver is asked to breathe into a breathalyzer apparatus which contains potassium dichromate in acidic medium. A change in color from orange to green indicates the A. estimated blood alcohol content. D. presence of illegal drugs. B. level of acetaldehyde in the breath. E. amount of acetic acid in the mouth. C. driving capability of the person. 17. Which of the following compounds is named correctly? A. isobutyl acetate B. 2-methylpentanamide C. HOOCC(CH3)2CH2COOH 2,2-dimethypentanedioic acid D. propyl propanoate E. ethyl m-bromobenzoate 18. What is the order of increasing acidity (weakest to strongest) for the following compounds? (I) 4-methylpentanoic acid (III) 2-bromopentanoic acid (II) 3-chloropentanoic acid (IV) 2,2-dichloropentanoic acid A. I, II, III, IV D. II, III, I, IV B. IV, III, II, I E. I, II, IV, III C. I, III, II, IV 2 19. Which of the following is the correct structure for N,N-dimethylaniline? A. D. B. E. C. 20. Which compound is NOT an ether? A. CH3CH2OCH2CH3 D. B. CH3COCH2CH3 C. E. 21. Which of the following is arranged in increasing order of boiling points? A. 1-butanol, butane, butanone, butanoic acid B. butane, butanone, 1-butanol, butanoic acid C. butane, butanone, butanoic acid, 1-butanol D. butanone, butane, butanoic acid, 1-butanol E. butanoic acid, 1-butanol, butanone, butane 22. Which compound from the given pairs is more soluble in water? Use the letter symbol enclosed in parentheses. I. 1-butanol (U) or 1-hexanol (V) II. n-hexane (W) or 1-propanol (X) III. benzoic acid (Y) or propanoic acid (Z) A. UWY D. VWZ B. VXZ E. UXZ C. VXY 23. Which is NOT a physical property of alcohols or phenols? A. Phenols are generally only slightly soluble in water. B. The solubilities of normal primary alcohols in water decrease with increasing molecular weight. C. The hydroxyl group of an alcohol is nonpolar. D. Due to hydrogen bonding, boiling points of alcohols are much higher than those of corre- sponding alkanes. E. Boiling points of normal primary alcohols increase with increasing molecular weight. 24. All of the following statements describe the reaction of Cl2 with ethane except A. It is a substitution reaction. B. The reaction will give a single product of C2H5Cl. C. The reaction requires the presence of sunlight or source of heat. D. Polychlorinated products may form. E. The reaction involves formation of free radicals. 25. Which of the following reagents converts unsaturated hydrocarbons into saturated ones? A. NaBH4 D. KMnO4, OH1- B. LiAlH4 E. H2, Pt C. Tollens’ reagent 26. An organic compound was found to exhibit the following IR peaks at these wavenumbers: 3020- 3100 cm-1 and 1650-1670 cm-1. Which of the following compounds is the most likely identity of this compound? A. 2-hexyne D. cyclohexane B. 1-hexyne E. cyclohexene C. Acetaldehyde 3 27. A strong signal at 3400 cm-1 in an IR spectrum indicates the presence of a/an A. alcohol. D. alkene. B. ether. E. aromatic ring. C. carbonyl. 28. When an organic molecule is irradiated with ultraviolet radiation, the energy absorbed by the molecule corresponds to A. the amount necessary to increase molecular motions in functional groups. B. the amount necessary to excite electrons from one molecular orbital to another. C. the amount necessary to flip the spin of atomic nuclei. D. the amount necessary to strip a molecule of one electron to generate a radical cation. E. the amount necessary for increase the vibration of atoms between bonds. 29. Absorption of radiation in the UV range attributable to n  π* electronic transitions is character- istics of which of the following types of compounds? A. aromatic hydrocarbons D. conjugated polyenes B. unsaturated carbonyl compounds E. alkenes C. non-conjugated polyenes 30. The IR spectrum of a compound with a molecular formula of C4H8O shows a strong peak at 1740 cm-1. What functional group is present in this compound? A. double bond D. triple bond B. hydroxyl E. carbonyl C. alkoxy 31. All proteins, complex and huge organic molecules, absorb electromagnetic radiation of wave- length around 190 nm, which corresponds to a π  π* excitation in the protein molecule. In which region of the spectrum is this wavelength found? A. X-ray D. Infrared B. Ultraviolet E. Microwave C. Visible 32. Infrared (IR) spectroscopy is useful for determining certain aspects of the structure of organic molecules because A. all molecular bonds absorb IR radiation. B. IR peak intensities are related to molecular mass. C. most organic functional groups absorb in a characteristic region of the IR spectrum. D. each element absorbs at a characteristic wavelength. E. All of above statements justify the usefulness of IR spectroscopy. 33. At which IR region can be found the peaks due to N ― H, C ― H, and O ― H stretching and bending motions? A. 4000 to 2500 cm-1 D. 1500 to 1000 cm-1 B. 2000 to 1500 cm-1 E. below 1000 cm-1 -1 C. 2500 to 2000 cm 34. Given the absorption spectra of beta-carotene below, which of the following is true about this compound? A. It is a colored compound. B. It absorbs the most at 500 nm. C. Its λmax is at the UV region. D. More electrons undergo transition at the UV region. E. It does not absorb light at 400 nm. 35. What infrared absorptions are most affected by intramolecular hydrogen bonding in the com- pound shown below? A. Methyl group C-H stretching B. Hydroxyl group O-H stretching C. Aromatic ring C-H bending D. Aromatic ring C-H stretching E. Aromatic ring C-C stretching 36. Which of the following filtration technique is proper to collect filtrate? A. Vacuum filtration using Buchner Funnel D. Filtration using a Hirsch funnel B. Hot gravity filtration using a fluted filter paper E. All of the above C. Gravity filtration using a fluted filter paper 4 37. If a technician needs to collect crystals during a microscale recrystallization, which of the follow- ing filtering technique should be used: A. use a Hirsch funnel D. use gravity filtration using flute filter paper B. use a Craig tube E. perform sublimation C. use a Pasteur pipette with cotton plug 38. When a component has a small Kd value, it means that: A. The component will most likely to stay with the original solution B. The component will most likely to be found by the extracting solvent. C. The component will be found in both layers D. The component will be found in the upper layer E. The component will be found in the lower layer. 39. Which pair of solvents are good combination for solvent-solvent extraction? A. Dichloromethane – hexane D. Methanol – acetone B. Acetone – acetic acid E. Hexane – toluene C. Hexane – water 40. Hyoscyamine is an alkaloid from a plant in the nightshade family. It is medicinally used to pro- vide relief for gastrointestinal disorders. If a saturated solution of 1.53 g hyoscyamine in 50.0 mL water is extracted with 150 mL diethyl ether. How much hyoscyamine would be found in the diethyl ether layer after the extraction process? Kd = 4.07 A. 18.7 g D. 4.07 B. 1.13 g E. 1.41 g C. 0.135 g 41. A technician was asked to recrystallize acetylsalicylic acid from water. His expected amount of product is 2.63g. However, he isolated only 1.05 g. Which of the scenario could have happen that will account for his low yield? A. Crystals of acetylsalicylic acid was allowed to grow at room temperature. B. Acetylsalicylic acid is soluble in hot water but insoluble in cold water. C. Hot solution of acetylsalicylic acid was filtered using a gravity filtration set up. D. Crystals was wash with hot distilled water during vacuum filtration. E. A pinch of charcoal was added to the hot solution of acetylsalicylic acid. 42. In recrystallization, charcoal is used to A. Remove odor of the sample D. Capture insoluble impurities B. Remove colored impurities E. Extract sample from impurities C. Filtering agent 43. What is the key feature of a good recrystallization solvent? A. Solute must be insoluble in hot solvent and soluble in cold solvent B. Solute must be soluble in both hot and cold solvent C. Solute must be soluble in hot solvent and insoluble in cold solvent D. Solute must be insoluble in both hot and cold solvent E. A good recrystallization reagent should be cheap and accessible. 44. Which of the following statement describes a wrong technique regarding melting point determi- nation? A. Capillary tube must be heated to close one of its ends. B. Crystals must be completely dry prior to analysis C. Crystals must be crushed to ensure thermal heat transfer is efficient. D. Capillary tube must be near the heat source for efficient heat transfer. E. Crystal inside the capillary tube must be next to the thermometer’s mercury bulb. 45. Suppose that urea (MP 132oC) and succinimide (MP 126oC) was mixed in 1:1 ratio. What would the observed melting point be? A. Higher than 132oC D. Equal to 132oC B. Lower than 126oC E. Equal to 126oC C. Average of the two-melting point 46. Complete the following sentence: Melting point of a pure substance is defined as___. A. Temperature at which the crystals started to melt until its completely melted. B. Temperature at which the crystals started to melt C. Temperature at which the crystals was completely melted. 5  D. Temperature at which the crystals turned black. E. Temperature at which the crystals sublime. 47. When is it time to record the boiling point of a liquid solution? A. When the capillary starts to bubble B. When the capillary gives off steady stream of bubbles C. When the bubbling of the capillary stopped D. When the unknown solution starts to go inside the capillary tube. E. When the unknown solution stops going inside the capillary tube. 48. A constant boiling mixture of two or more components in a solution is called A. An eutectic mixture D. An ideal solution B. An azeotrope E. A common mixture C. A non-ideal solution 49. Based on the vapor-liquid plot, which of the following statements is TRUE? A. Single distillation can separate component A and component B with initial 50:50 composi- tion B. Distillation of a mixture of 60% compound A and 40% compound B will give us a pure com- pound A. C. The vapor pressure of compound A is less than compound B. D. A mixture containing 40% B and 60% A will give us 70% B after distillation. E. A mixture containing 40% B and 60% A needs a fractional distillation column with a theoret- ical plate of 2 to successfully isolate compound A. 50. Some organic solvents used in synthesis should be dry in order for the reaction to proceed. Which of the following is the correct way of drying organic solvents? A. Placing organic solvent in a desiccator overnight. B. Adding a drying agent until a snow globe effect is achieved. C. Distilling the organic solvent. D. Refluxing the organic solvent. E. Filtering the organic solvent. 51. A laboratory glassware come with ground glass joints have labels written as 29/32. What does these label mean? A. The inner diameter 29mm with length of 32mm. B. Working temperature of the glassware is C C. The inner diameter is 32mm with length of 29 mm D. Room temperature range of the glassware is 29-32 C E. It is the catalog number of the glassware. 52. How do we properly apply grease in the ground glass joints? A. Place a thin coating in the female joint and mate the joints by rotating the other half. B. Place a thin coating in the male joint and mate the joints, then rotate the female half. C. Place a generous amount of grease in the female joints D. Place a generous amount of grease in the male joints E. Ground glass joints should not be greased. 53. A reaction needs to be carried out in an anhydrous environment at very high temperatures, which of the following should be a part of the set up. A. Drying tube and an air condenser D. a stirring bar and a vacuum set up B. Drying tube and a water condenser E. Drying tube only. C. Lab jack and vacuum set up 54. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the west condenser? A. The condenser can be used as a fractional distillation column 6  B. A condenser without water can act as an air condenser. C. Water inlet of a condenser should be located near the reaction vessel. D. A condenser can be used to convert vapors into liquid during distillation. E. A condenser can also be used as a glass column for chromatography. 55. A technician needs to do a reflux experiment. The experimental procedure is stated as follows: Dissolve 5g of acetamide in 5 mL 6M H2SO4. Reflux the mixture for 30 mins. After 30 mins of heating, add 20 mL of distilled water dropwise. Heat the resulting solution of another 30 mins. Then cool the reaction mixture at room temperature. The following glassware is available in the laboratory, which of the following glassware should the technician prepare? I. 2-neck round bottom flask II. Drying tube III. 1 neck round bottom flask IV. Reflux condenser V. Separatory funnel A. II, III and IV D. III and IV B. I, IV and V E. I, II, IV and V C. III, IV and V 56. Which of the following statements is the correct weighing procedure? A. Solid reactants can be weighed directly in the weighing pan of the analytical balance. B. Solid reactants can be poured directly to the weighing boat to avoid contamination. C. Weight of liquids is approximately equal to its density. D. Liquids can be weighed using a weighing pan. E. Volatile liquids can be weighed by getting the mass of the empty vial with cap first. 57. Electronic thermometer is preferred equipment in measuring the temperature of a reaction mix- ture. This is due to A. Electronic thermometers contain mercury inside B. Electronic thermometers contain alcohol inside C. Electronic thermometers are used to reduce risk of mercury poisoning D. Electronic thermometers are more economical E. None of these 58. A technician needs to transfer 60 mL ethanol to a 100-mL graduated cylinder from a 2.5L amber bottle. Which of the following is the correct technique in transferring the organic solvent? A. Pour liquid directly to the graduated cylinder from a 2.5L bottle to avoid contamination B. Use a stemmed funnel when pouring the liquid from a 2.5L bottle to avoid spillage. C. Place the plastic collar near 60 mL to visualize the target volume. D. Pour small amount of liquid in a clean beaker then transfer to the graduated cylinder E. Use a glass pipette directly to the 2.5L amber bottle for accurate volume measurement. 59. Which of the following can accurately measure a 50 uL solution? A. Beaker D. Glass pipette B. Erlenmeyer flask E. Glass syringes C. Pasteur pipette 60. Which of the following apparatus can be used to weigh a solid sample until the nearest 0.0001 g? A. Triple balance beam D. Analytical balance B. Top-loading balance E. Microbalance C. Top-loading balance with draft shield 61. If a technician needs to heat a microscale reactions vessel, which of the following heating tech- niques should he/she used? A. Heat gun D. Steam bath B. Water bath E. Sand bath C. Heating mantle 62. When choosing heating methods for your experiment, which of the following is not appropriate. A. Use a laboratory jack to quickly remove the heating source from your glassware B. Use flameless heat source to heat organic solvents C. Use a Bunsen burner to boil flammable hot solvents D. Use a steam bath to evaporate solvents with boiling point below 100C E. Use a water bath to heat but solvents not higher than 90C 7 63. Which of the following techniques will not prevent heat spots or bumping? A. Place a wire gauze under the glassware when flame is used. B. Place boiling chips inside the glassware when heated. C. Constantly stir the inside the glassware when heated. D. Place a lab jack under the heating mantle. E. Holding test tube over the flame with moving it from side to side. 64. A technician observed the vapors of the reaction mixture is already reaching the half of the con- denser. Which of the following should the technician do? A. Continue heating the reaction vessel. B. Lower down the heat of the reaction vessel. C. Place the reaction vessel in an ice bath D. Check the course of the reaction. E. Place a drying agent to the reaction vessel. 65. After refluxing, the reaction mixture should be cooled at below 0 to -10oC. Which of the follow- ing cooling techniques should be used? A. Placing the reaction mixture under cooled running water. B. Placing the reaction mixture inside the freezer. C. Placing the reaction mixture inside the refrigerator. D. Placing the reaction mixture in salt-ice mixture E. Placing reaction mixture in an ice water bath. 66. Suppose that you are monitoring the amide coupling reaction presented below. Note that only compounds A and C absorbs UV light. During the course of the reaction, the fol- lowing TLC plate was obtained. The middle marked as rxn is the reaction mixture. Which of the following statements is correct? A. The reaction mixture has no product D. The limiting reagent is A B. The reaction mixture is complete E. The limiting reagent is B C. The reaction mixture is in progress 67. Which of the following is not the use of TLC? A. Determine the purity of a sample B. Determine the identity of a sample C. Determine the functional group of the sample D. Determine the mobile phase for column chromatography E. Determine the fractions to be pooled during column chromatography 68. Which of the following statements describes a wrong technique regarding TLC determination? A. TLC plates must be heated to 120°C prior to use. B. Only pencil can be used to mark the TLC plate. C. TLC chamber must be saturated by placing a filter paper and mobile phase inside the cham- ber. D. Concentrated samples can repeatedly spot in the TLC plate E. Different spots must be adequately spaced to prevent coelution. 69. Which of the following statement/s is/are correct regarding the normal phase TLC plate below: I. Substance 1 is more non polar than substance 2 II. Substance 1 is more polar than substance 2 III. Substance 1 has a large Rf value than substance 2 IV. Substance 1 has a smaller Rf value than substance 2 A. I and II D. II and IV B. I and III E. I and IV C. II and III 70. Which of the following techniques can be used to visualize the spots in a TLC plate? A. Use a UV 366 nm lamp D. Use visible light 8  B. Use iodine vapors E. All of the above C. Use a UV 254 nm lamp 71. Given the following experimental conditions, Column length: 25 cm Stationary phase: C18 bonded phase particles Mobile phase: 60% water: 40% methanol Flow rate: 0.4 mL/min Propose the elution order of a mixture containing an aromatic hydrocarbon, carboxylic acid, ether and an alcohol with similar molecular weights. (Rt is retention time) A. Rt aromatic < Rt ether < Rt alcohol < Rt carboxylic acid B. Rt carboxylic acid < Rt alcohol < Rt ether < Rt aromatic C. Rt aromatic < Rt alcohol < Rt ether < Rt carboxylic acid D. Rt carboxylic acid < Rt ether < Rt alcohol < Rt aromatic E. Rt carboxylic acid < Rt alcohol < Rt aromatic < Rt ether 72. Which of the following statements would best describe reverse phase chromatography A. Stationary and mobile phases are both polar. B. Stationary and mobile phases are both non-polar C. Stationary phase is polar and mobile phase is non-polar D. Stationary phase is non-polar and mobile phase is polar E. Polarity of both phases doesn’t matter 73. Which of the following statement about chromatography is correct? A. The longer the retention time means that the analyte has a strong affinity to the mobile phase B. The longer the retention time means that the analyte is the least non-polar compound C. The longer the retention time means that the analyte has a strong affinity to the stationary phase D. The longer the retention time means that the analyte is a polar compound E. Retention time of the analyte is solely dependent on the interaction of the components in the mixture 74. The best measure of the quantity of a solute in liquid chromatography is A. the height of the elution band D. the retention time of the elution band B. the area of the elution band E. the resolution of the elution band C. the baseline width of the elution band 75. A mixture of naphthalene, benzoic acid and phenyl acetate was subjected to gravity column chro- matography using dichloromethane as mobile phase. Which of the compound will elute first? A. benzoic acid D. Benzoic acid with naphthalene B. phenyl acetate E. phenyl acetate with naphthalene C. naphthalene 76. All of the following are common carrier gases for gas chromatography except: A. Oxygen D. Helium B. Argon E. Nitrogen C. Carbon Dioxide 77. Open tubular or capillary columns are preferred over packed tubular columns in GC because A. They are cheaper D. they prevent detector over loading B. They are easily packed in the laboratory E. they can withstand higher pressure changes C. They provide better resolution 78. A split injector is used in A. Split samples and introduce to the column in small amounts B. Split the sample so it will not over load the column C. Split the samples and introduce it to a packed tubular column D. Split the sample and introduce it to the column using parallel ports E. None of the above 79. Headspace analysis is carried out in order to A. Analyze volatile compounds from solid or liquid samples B. Determine the physiological state of the liquid samples C. Analyze the column content ahead of the sample D. Determine the non-volatile components of the sample E. None of the above 9  [𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛𝑎𝑟𝑦 𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒] 80. Benzene has a smaller distribution ratio [𝐷 = [𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑐𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑟𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑎𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒 𝑖𝑛 𝑚𝑜𝑏𝑖𝑙𝑒 𝑝ℎ𝑎𝑠𝑒] ] in squalene than cyclohexane. Squalene is an aliphatic type of hydrocarbon. What is the order of elution of the two compounds from the GC column? A. Cyclohexane will be eluted first B. Benzene will be eluted first C. The two peaks will overlap D. The order of elution cannot be determined E. Benzene and cyclohexane cannot be analyzed using GC. 81. Which group of compounds are compatible with each other? I. Acetic Acid, Ammonium Hydroxide, Nitric Acid II. Sodium peroxide, Citric acid, Stearic acid III. Aniline, Histidine, Urea IV. Potassium Permanganate, Nitric acid, Sodium Metal V. Butyric acid, Ammonium Hydroxide, Acetic acid A. I only D. IV, V B. I, V E. II, III C. III, IV 82. When handling concentrated hydrochloric acid, which type of glove is NOT SUITABLE for use? A. Surgical D. Butyl B. Neoprene E. Natural Latex rubber C. Nitrile 83. In case if an earthquake occurs when you are working in the laboratory, what should you do first? A. Duck, cover, and hold D. Evacuate the building immediately B. Run for safety E. Call the family members and ensure their safety C. Call emergency number 84-87, use the choices below A. B. C. D. E. 84. Ethanol vapour will catch fire at temperatures above 13°C. A bottle of ethanol must have this GHS symbol_______. 85. Waste liquids whose pH is less than or equal to 2 or pH greater than or equal to 12.5 are corro- sive. Which GHS symbol should be placed on the waste container? __________ 86. Perchloric acid is a strong oxidizing liquid. Its bottle should have this pictogram________. 87. Which pictogram above should be placed in a bottle containing benzene?_________ 88. Which of the following practices is prohibited by RA 9003 or the Ecological Solid Waste Man- agement Act of 2000? A. Importation of toxic wastes misrepresented as “recyclable” or “with recyclable content”. B. Operation of open dumpsite C. Open burning of solid waste D. Collection and transport of non-segregated waste E. All of the above 89. What are the two signal words that can be found in a Safety Data Sheet (SDS) that indicate the relative level of severity of hazard and alert the chemical user? A. Hazard and Toxic D. Hazard and Warning B. Dangerous and Hazard E. Toxic and Danger C. Warning and Danger 90. Who should provide the Safety Data Sheet? A. End-user D. Safety Officer B. Manufacturer E. Manufacturer and Distributer C. Distributer 91. Which of these chemicals are not in the Chemical Control Order (CCO) list regulated by DENR- EMB? A. Mercury and mercury compounds D. Lead and lead compounds B. Cyanide and cyanide compounds E. Acetone C. Polychlorinated biphenyls 10 92. Who among the personnel in the organization can have access of the Safety Data Sheets? A. Managers only D. End-users only B. Supervisors only E. All should have access C. Managers and Supervisors only 93. Which section in the Safety Data Sheet tells you if you need a respirator when handling a sub- stance and what kind of respirator is suitable? A. Section 6: Accidental Release Measures B. Section 7: Handling and Storage C. Section 8: Exposure Control/Personal Protection D. Section 10: Stability and Reactivity E. Section 10: Stability and Reactivity 94. How many sections should a Safety Data Sheet have? A. 16 D. 14 B. 10 E. Depends on the manufacturer C. 12 95. When you accidentally spilled 30% Hydrogen peroxide solution on your hands, how many minutes should you wash your hand with water? A. 5 minutes D. 2 minutes B. 8 minutes E. 10 minutes C. 15 minutes 96. Which of the following do not promote safety in the laboratory environment? A. Do not work alone in the laboratory B. You may perform unauthorized experiments as long as you are sure it is safe to do so. C. Wear the appropriate PPEs D. Always read the Safety Data Sheets of the all the chemicals you will work with. E. Use appropriate ventilation when working with hazardous chemicals. 97. What is the benefit of performing regular physical chemical inventory updates? A. Ensures that chemicals are stored according to its compatibility B. Eliminates unneeded or outdated chemicals C. Ensures integrity of shelving and storage cabinets D. None of the Above E. All of the Above 98. Which of the following does NOT follow a good laboratory practice regarding emergency safety equipment? A. Eyewash units are available, inspected, and tested on a regular basis. B. First-aid equipment should be stored in a safe and locked cabinet which only the supervisor has a key of. C. Pathways to fire extinguishers, eyewash units, fire blankets, first-aid kits, and safety showers are clear. D. Safety showers are available and tested routinely. E. Fire alarms and telephones are available and accessible for emergency use. 99. In managing an emergency, this includes efforts to minimize the likelihood that an incident will occur and to limit the effects of an incident that does occur. A. Mitigation Phase D. Recovery Phase B. Preparedness Phase E. Planning Phase C. Response Phase 100. This refers to the philosophy of designing products and processes that reduce or eliminate the use and generation of hazardous substances, which fits well with the overall goals of a culture of safety A. Good Laboratory Practice D. Waste Reduction B. Green Chemistry E. Chemical safety and security C. Recycling ----------END OF THE EXAMINATION---------- 11