CSEET Current Affairs - Financial Affairs PDF

Financial Affairs CHAPTER 2 | FINANCIAL AFFAIRS 1. When was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) nationalized? a) 1935 b) 1949 c) 1950 d) 1965 Ans (b) 2. Who owns the Reserve Bank...

Financial Affairs CHAPTER 2 | FINANCIAL AFFAIRS 1. When was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) nationalized? a) 1935 b) 1949 c) 1950 d) 1965 Ans (b) 2. Who owns the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? a) Private shareholders b) Foreign investors c) State Bank of India d) The government of India Ans (d) 3. What is the main function of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)? a) to manage foreign investments b) to serve as the secondary bank of India c) to issue corporate loans d) to serve as the central bank of India Ans (d) 4. In which year was the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) established? a) 1935 b) 1949 c) 1951 d) 1960 Ans (a) 5. The Reserve Bank of India was established under _______. a) Banking Regulation Act, 1949 b) Indian Companies Act, 1913 c) Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 d) Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 Ans (c) 6. What role does the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) serve in the Indian banking system? a) Commercial bank b) Apex bank and bankers' bank c) Union bank d) Supreme bank Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 7. The Reserve Bank of India is referred to as the "bankers' bank" because it: a) Provides loans to individuals b) Regulates foreign trade c) Provides financial services to commercial banks d) Invests in private companies Ans (c) 8. Why is the Reserve Bank of India called the apex bank? a) It deals with private sector funding b) It supervises only rural banks c) It manages the national stock exchange d) It oversees and regulates all banking institutions in India Ans (d) 9. Which of the following is a key function of the Reserve Bank of India as a Monetary Authority? a) Regulating stock exchanges b) Formulating and implementing monetary policy c) Managing government pensions d) Issuing passports Ans (b) 10. What role does the Reserve Bank of India play as the Manager of Foreign Exchange? a) Setting income tax rates b) Managing the foreign exchange reserves of the country c) Regulating international trade agreements d) Managing foreign tourism policies Ans (b) 11. As the Issuer of Currency, what responsibility does the Reserve Bank of India have? a) Issuing and managing the Indian Rupee b) Creating new bank accounts c) Printing international currency d) Collecting income taxes Ans (a) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 12. What is the developmental role of the Reserve Bank of India? a) Regulating all private businesses b) Supporting economic growth and financial inclusion c) Promoting foreign direct investments d) Issuing corporate bonds Ans (b) 13. What does the Reserve Bank of India regulate as part of its role in Payment and Settlement Systems? a) Overseeing the smooth operation of digital and banking payment systems b) Managing investment portfolios c) Regulating land purchases d) Enforcing corporate taxes Ans (a) 14. On which bank did RBI take supervisory action against, on April 24, 2024? a) ICICI Bank b) HDFC Bank c) Axis Bank d) Kotak Mahindra Bank Ans (d) 15. What supervisory action did the Reserve Bank of India take against Kotak Mahindra Bank in April 2024? a) Imposed a fine on the bank b) Directed the bank to stop onboarding new customers online c) Ordered the closure of several bank branches d) Suspended the bank's foreign exchange operations Ans (b) 16. Why did the RBI direct Kotak Mahindra Bank to cease onboarding new customers and issuing credit cards online in April 2024? a) Non-compliance with foreign exchange rules b) Unresolved IT examination concerns from 2022 and 2023 c) Allegations of money laundering d) Issues with loan disbursements Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 17. Which of the following actions was included in the RBI's directive to Kotak Mahindra Bank in April 2024? a) Stop granting home loans b) Cease issuing fresh credit cards c) Halt international transactions d) Close all ATMs across the country Ans (b) 18. Who was re-appointed as the Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2024? a) Shaktikanta Das b) Urjit Patel c) Shri T. Rabi Sankar d) N. S. Vishwanathan Ans (c) 19. When did Shri T. Rabi Sankar's re-appointment as Deputy Governor of the RBI take effect? a) April 24, 2024 b) May 31, 2024 c) June 1, 2024 d) May 3, 2024 Ans (d) 20. For how long has Shri T. Rabi Sankar been re-appointed as the Deputy Governor of the RBI starting from May 3, 2024? a) Two years b) Six months c) One year d) Three years Ans (c) 21. What was the theme of Financial Literacy Week 2024? a) "Invest Wisely, Save Safely" b) "Manage Your Money" c) "Make a Right Start – Become Financially Smart" d) "Financial Planning for Retirement" Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 22. Financial Literacy Week 2024, held from February 26 to March 1, 2024, was aimed at which target group? a) Senior citizens b) Young adults c) Bank employees d) Entrepreneurs Ans (b) 23. When was Financial Literacy Week 2024 observed? a) January 15 to January 20, 2024 b) March 1 to March 7, 2024 c) February 26 to March 1, 2024 d) April 5 to April 10, 2024 Ans (c) 24. What was the focus of Financial Literacy Week 2024? a) Financial planning for senior citizens b) Tax planning for professionals c) Promoting stock market investments d) Financial education for young adults Ans (d) 25. What sentiment did Indian consumers express regarding economic conditions for the next year in the RBI survey? a) Pessimism about future growth b) Optimism about economic conditions c) Indifference to economic changes d) Concern about inflation rates Ans (b) 26. What decision did the Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) make regarding the policy repo rate? a) Increased it to 7.00% b) Decreased it to 6.25% c) Kept it unchanged at 6.50% d) Increased it to 6.75% Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 27. What was the reason for the MPC's decision to maintain the policy repo rate at 6.50%? a) To encourage consumer spending b) To support economic growth while managing inflation c) To stabilize the stock market d) To increase government revenues Ans (b) 28. What significant development regarding PhonePe was announced on April 2024? a) Launch of a new credit card b) UPI payments accepted in Singapore c) Introduction of cryptocurrency transactions d) Partnership with local banks in India Ans (b) 29. As of April 2024, how many merchants in Singapore accept PhonePe UPI payments for Indian travellers? a) Over 8,000 b) Around 5,000 c) Over 10,000 d) Over 15,000 Ans (a) 30. Which payment system is being utilized by Indian travellers in Singapore as of April 2024? a) PayPal b) Visa c) Mastercard d) PhonePe UPI Ans (d) 31. Which of the following is an example of a broad-market index in India? a) BSE SmallCap b) NIFTY 50 c) S&P 500 d) Nasdaq Composite Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 32. What do the NIFTY 50 and SENSEX represent in the Indian stock market? a) Top companies on the NSE and BSE, respectively b) Only technology companies c) Top scrips on the FOREX market d) Small and medium enterprises (SMEs) Ans (a) 33. Which of the following is an example of a sectoral index under the NIFTY brand? a) Automobiles b) NIFTY 50 c) SENSEX d) BSE MidCap Ans (a) 34. Which of the following sectors is NOT typically tracked by sectoral indices? a) Banking b) IT c) Agriculture d) Realty Ans (c) 35. In addition to Automobiles and IT, which other sector is tracked by NIFTY sectoral indices? a) Banking b) Healthcare c) Retail d) Telecommunications Ans (a) 36. What do strategy indices focus on in their composition? a) Overall market performance b) Specific investment strategies c) International stock trends d) Government policies Ans (b) 37. Which of the following is an example of a strategy index? a) SENSEX b) NIFTY 50 c) NIFTY Alpha 50 d) BSE Sensex 30 Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 38. Which of the following is NOT a strategy index mentioned? a) NIFTY Low Volatility 30 b) NIFTY 100 Equal Weight c) NIFTY Growth Index d) NIFTY Alpha 50 Ans (c) 39. What do fixed income indices measure? a) Stock market performance b) Performance of fixed income securities c) Currency exchange rates d) Real estate values Ans (b) 40. Which of the following is an example of a fixed income security included in fixed income indices? a) Common stocks b) Government bonds (T-bills) c) Real estate investment trusts d) Mutual funds Ans (b) 41. Which of the following would NOT be considered a fixed income security? a) Common shares of a company b) Treasury bills c) Corporate bonds d) Commercial papers Ans (a) 42. What do hybrid indices combine in their composition? a) Equity and commodities b) Equity and fixed income components c) Real estate and commodities d) International and domestic stocks Ans (b) 43. What types of entities are included in the Social Stock Exchange (SSE)? a) Only publicly listed companies b) Companies registered under the Companies Act, Section 8 companies, trusts, and societies c) Private limited companies only d) Foreign corporations Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 44. What is the primary purpose of the Social Stock Exchange (SSE)? a) To facilitate mergers and acquisitions b) To provide investment opportunities in real estate c) To facilitate fundraising for social enterprises d) To promote foreign investments in India Ans (c) 45. Which regulated stock exchanges are associated with the Social Stock Exchange (SSE)? a) NSE and BSE b) NYSE and NASDAQ c) LSE and ASX d) HKG and SGX Ans (a) 46. What kind of companies are specifically recognized under the SSE framework? a) Only for-profit companies b) Section 8 companies c) Companies with a market capitalization above a certain limit d) Startups only Ans (b) 47. What does the T+1 system refer to in trading? a) A one-day delay between trade execution and settlement b) A two-day delay between trade execution and settlement c) Immediate settlement on the same day d) A three-day delay between trade execution and settlement Ans (a) 48. What new settlement system has BSE and NSE launched in beta version? a) T+2 settlement b) T+3 settlement c) T+1 settlement d) T+0 settlement Ans (d) 49. What does the T+0 settlement system imply? a) A one-day delay between trade execution and settlement b) Immediate settlement on the same day as trade execution c) A two-day delay between trade execution and settlement d) A three-day delay between trade execution and settlement Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 50. What potential benefit does T+0 settlement offer to traders? a) Longer wait for cash availability b) Faster access to funds and reduced settlement risk c) Increased transaction fees d) More complex trading processes Ans (b) 51. How does the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) assist in Corporate Social Responsibility (CSR) activities? a) By providing tax exemptions to companies b) By enabling companies to fund social initiatives through investments in social enterprises c) By regulating CSR spending d) By offering loans to corporations for CSR activities Ans (b) 52. Which organization is involved in the MoU with DBS Bank to promote investor education? a) RBI b) IEPFA c) SEBI d) Ministry of Finance Ans (b) 53. What is one of the primary aims of the MoU between IEPFA and DBS Bank? a) Enhance investor awareness on investment safety and fraudulent schemes b) Increase interest rates on fixed deposits c) Promote international investment opportunities d) Reduce banking fees for customers Ans (a) 54. What specific topics will the MoU between IEPFA and DBS Bank focus on educating investors about? a) Investment safety only b) Fraudulent schemes only c) Both investment safety and fraudulent schemes d) Cryptocurrency investments Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  Financial Affairs 55. What does IEPFA stand for? a) Indian Employee Provident Fund Authority b) Investor Education and Protection Fund Authority c) Indian Economic Policy Framework Association d) International Equity and Portfolio Fund Association Ans (b) 56. When was the MoU between IEPFA and DBS Bank signed? a) January 15, 2024 b) April 7, 2024 c) March 1, 2024 d) February 19, 2024 Ans (d) 57. Which two organizations are involved in the MoU aimed at improving investor awareness? a) IEPFA and DBS Bank b) SEBI and RBI c) NSE and BSE d) RBI and NABARD Ans (a) 58. Which of the following entities is eligible for listing on a Social Stock Exchange? a) Multinational corporations. b) Individual investors. c) Non-profit organizations (NPOs). d) Start-up companies. Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA FINANCIAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS CHAPTER 3 | POLITICAL AFFAIRS 1. Who has been appointed as the Chief of Naval Staff, effective April 30, 2024? a) Vice Admiral R. Hari Kumar b) Vice Admiral Karambir Singh c) Vice Admiral Dinesh Kumar Tripathi d) Vice Admiral Ajit Kumar Ans (c) 2. Who are the newly appointed Election Commissioners in the Election Commission of India? a) Shri Rajiv Kumar and Dr. Nasim Zaidi b) Shri Gyanesh Kumar and Dr. Sukhbir Singh Sandhu c) Shri Sunil Arora and Dr. Syed Nasim Ahmad Zaidi d) Shri Om Prakash Rawat and Dr. Achal Kumar Joti Ans (b) 3. Who has been appointed as the Vigilance Commissioner in the Central Vigilance Commission? a) Shri Rajiv Mehrishi b) Shri Ajay Kumar Bhalla c) Shri AS Rajeev d) Shri Sanjay Kothari Ans (c) 4. The Grievance Appellate Committees were established under which set of rules? a) IT Rules 2020 b) IT Rules 2021 c) IT Act 2008 d) Digital Media Guidelines 2019 Ans (b) 5. How many Grievance Appellate Committees were established to address grievances related to digital platforms? a) Two b) Five c) Three d) Four Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 6. What is the purpose of the Grievance Appellate Committees recently established in India? a) To handle grievances related to banking fraud b) To address complaints regarding public transport c) To address grievances related to digital platforms d) To resolve disputes related to employment contracts Ans (c) 7. What is the vision outlined in the Interim Budget 2024-25 for India by 2047? a) India becoming a global superpower b) Achieving 100% literacy by 2047 c) A vision for ‘Shresht Bharat’ by 2047 d) A vision for 'Viksit Bharat' by 2047 Ans (d) 8. What is the primary aim of the Rooftop Solarization Initiative? a) To reduce electricity consumption in urban areas b) To provide free solar electricity to one crore households c) To promote wind energy across the country d) To install solar panels in government buildings Ans (b) 9. How much can households potentially save annually through the Rooftop Solarization Initiative? a) ₹5,000 to ₹7,000 b) ₹10,000 to ₹12,000 c) ₹15,000 to ₹18,000 d) ₹20,000 to ₹25,000 Ans (c) 10. What additional benefit does the Rooftop Solarization Initiative provide to households? a) Access to government subsidies b) Free maintenance of solar panels c) Enabling surplus electricity sale d) Job opportunities in solar energy Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 11. What is the primary focus of the Electric Vehicle (EV) Manufacturing initiative? a) To expand EV manufacturing b) To reduce the price of fuel c) To promote traditional vehicle manufacturing d) To increase imports of electric vehicles Ans (a) 12. What infrastructure is being prioritized alongside EV manufacturing? a) High-speed rail systems b) Charging infrastructure c) Gasoline stations d) Residential power grids Ans (b) 13. What is the overall aim of the Net Zero Emissions Commitment? a) To increase emissions from industrial activities b) To promote the use of single-use plastics c) To reduce India’s carbon emissions d) To eliminate all forms of energy consumption Ans (c) 14. What is one of the measures included in the Net Zero Emissions Commitment? a) Increasing coal production b) Viability gap funding for offshore wind energy c) Expanding oil drilling operations d) Reducing renewable energy investments Ans (b) 15. What goal is associated with the commitment to Net Zero Emissions? a) Reducing water pollution b) Reducing imports of polluting fuels c) Increasing carbon emissions d) Expanding the use of plastics Ans (b) 16. What is a key focus of the Blue Economy 2.0 initiative? a) Launching schemes for coastal aquaculture b) Increasing industrial fishing c) Promoting oil drilling in coastal areas d) Reducing marine biodiversity Ans (a) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 17. What type of activities does Blue Economy 2.0 aim to promote? a) Urban development projects b) Increased tourism without regulations c) Deforestation for coastal resorts d) Sustainable activities in coastal areas Ans (d) 18. What is one of the objectives of the Blue Economy 2.0 initiative? a) To expand pollution in marine environments b) To protect the marine ecosystem c) To increase plastic usage in coastal areas d) To promote overfishing Ans (b) 19. What overarching goal does Blue Economy 2.0 seek to achieve? a) To reduce economic activities in coastal regions b) To promote non-renewable resource exploitation c) To balance economic growth with environmental sustainability d) To eliminate all fishing activities Ans (c) 20. What does PM SVANIDHI stand for? a) Prime Minister's Street Vendor's Assistance Network for Integrated Development of Households b) Prime Minister’s Street Vendor’s AtmaNirbhar Nidhi c) Prime Minister's Support for Vocational and Non-Formal Education d) Prime Minister’s Sustainable Urban and National Development Initiative Ans (b) 21. Which group is specifically targeted by the PM SVANIDHI initiative? a) Street vendors b) Large-scale industrialists c) Government employees d) Students and youth Ans (a) 22. What kind of support does the PM SVANIDHI scheme offer to street vendors? a) Free housing b) Credit and financial assistance c) Free educational services d) Employment in government sectors Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 23. How many street vendors get benefited credit assistance under the PM SVANIDHI scheme? a) 50 lakh street vendors b) 30 lakh street vendors c) 78 lakh street vendors d) 90 lakh street vendors Ans (c) 24. Which initiative is responsible for the training and upskilling of youth in India? a) Yuva Bharat Mission b) Atmanirbhar Bharat Abhiyan c) Make in India Initiative d) Skill India Mission Ans (d) 25. How many youth have been trained and upskilled under the Skill India Mission? a) 50 lakh youth b) 1.4 crore youth c) 80 lakh youth d) 2 crore youth Ans (b) 26. What type of training programs does the Skill India Mission provide? a) Short-term and long-term training programs b) Only long-term degree programs c) Exclusive vocational training for women d) Training for government jobs only Ans (a) 27. What is the total amount of loans sanctioned under the PM Mudra Yojana? a) ₹10 lakh crore b) ₹22.5 lakh crore c) ₹15 lakh crore d) ₹5 lakh crore Ans (b) 28. What is the primary objective of the PM Mudra Yojana? a) To provide grants to large corporations b) To reduce imports of goods c) To foster entrepreneurial aspirations among youth d) To support only agricultural activities Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 29. What is the target number of houses close to being achieved under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Grameen)? a) 1 crore houses b) 2 crore houses c) 3 crore houses d) 5 crore houses Ans (c) 30. How many additional houses are targeted for the next 5 years under the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Grameen)? a) 1 crore houses b) 2 crore houses c) 3 crore houses d) 5 crore houses Ans (b) 31. What is the primary objective of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Grameen)? a) To provide housing to rural poor households b) To build urban infrastructure c) To promote industrial development d) To improve public transportation Ans (a) 32. What has been a significant achievement of the Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana (Grameen) so far? a) Increasing the number of urban houses b) Close to achieving the target of 3 crore houses c) Reducing housing prices in cities d) Providing free land to all citizens Ans (b) 33. How much healthcare coverage is provided per family under the Ayushman Bharat scheme? a) ₹1 lakh b) ₹2 lakhs c) ₹5 lakhs d) ₹10 lakhs Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 34. Who is the primary beneficiary of the Ayushman Bharat scheme? a) Wealthy families b) Economically vulnerable families in India c) Middle-class families d) Foreign nationals Ans (b) 35. What type of coverage does the Ayushman Bharat scheme provide? a) Health insurance for all citizens b) Free healthcare coverage of up to ₹5 lakhs per family per year c) Only maternity benefits d) Coverage for government employees Ans (b) 36. By what percentage has the capital expenditure outlay increased for infrastructure development? a) 5.5% b) 11.1% c) 8.2% d) 12.5% Ans (b) 37. Which sector is a key focus of the increased capital expenditure outlay? a) Railway programs b) Renewable energy projects c) Highway maintenance d) IT infrastructure Ans (a) 38. Apart from railway corridors, what other infrastructure areas are being emphasized with the increased expenditure? a) Housing development and malls b) Airport expansions and metro rail projects c) Water supply systems and rural roads d) Telecommunications and internet services Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 39. Which of the following is NOT a focus area of the increased capital expenditure in Interim Budget 2024-25? a) Railway corridor programs b) Metro rail projects c) Hydroelectric power projects d) Airport expansions Ans (c) 40. What is the primary focus of technology and innovation efforts mentioned? a) Increasing agricultural production b) Emphasis on deep-tech technologies for defence c) Promoting e-commerce platforms d) Expanding digital education systems Ans (b) 41. What is the estimated fiscal deficit for the financial year 2024-25 as a percentage of GDP? a) 3.5% b) 5.1% c) 6.2% d) 4.8% Ans (b) 42. Which specific type of tourism development is being targeted along with iconic tourist centers? a) Rural tourism b) Medical tourism c) Island tourism development d) Space tourism Ans (c) 43. What is one of the primary goals of developing iconic tourist centers and island tourism projects? a) To reduce the number of international tourists b) To restrict entry to popular tourist destinations c) To decrease taxes on travel d) To boost domestic tourism Ans (d) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 44. Apart from boosting tourism, what other benefit is expected from these tourism development projects? a) Reducing environmental impacts b) Increasing employment opportunities c) Lowering travel costs d) Expanding global tourism companies Ans (b) 45. Which economic corridor is the focus of recent corporate sector initiatives? a) Asia-Pacific Economic Corridor b) India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor c) North America Free Trade Corridor d) Africa-Europe Trade Corridor Ans (b) 46. What is one of the primary goals of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor? a) To promote domestic investment b) To reduce international trade c) To encourage sustained foreign investment d) To limit bilateral trade agreements Ans (c) 47. Along with the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, what other strategy is being used to boost foreign investment? a) Bilateral investment agreements b) Imposing higher tariffs on imports c) Reducing infrastructure projects d) Increasing corporate taxes Ans (a) 48. Who launched the SWAYAM Plus platform? a) Shri Dharmendra Pradhan b) Shri Piyush Goyal c) Shri Rajnath Singh d) Shri Narendra Modi Ans (a) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 49. What is the primary purpose of the SWAYAM Plus Platform? a) Offering free online courses to anyone who wants to learn b) Providing paid university education c) Promoting private coaching institutions d) Offering scholarships to international students Ans (a) 50. How does the SWAYAM Plus Platform contribute to India's development? a) By reducing internet access b) By boosting employment c) By promoting international trade d) By lowering taxes on education Ans (b) 51. Who can access the free courses provided on the SWAYAM Plus Platform? a) Only students with a university degree b) Only government employees c) Anyone who wants to learn d) Only citizens of India Ans (c) 52. Which feature of SWAYAM enhances collaboration between education and industry? a) Collaboration with industry leaders and big companies b) Exclusive university partnerships c) International scholarship programs d) Government-only certifications Ans (a) 53. How does SWAYAM make content accessible to a broader audience? a) By providing only technical courses b) Offering all courses in English c) Providing multilingual content d) Limiting access to urban students Ans (c) 54. What technological feature does SWAYAM use to assist learners? a) Virtual reality learning b) Cloud computing courses c) AI-enabled guidance d) Blockchain certification Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 55. What benefit do learners get from completing SWAYAM courses? a) International internships b) Credit recognition and pathways to employment c) Guaranteed government jobs d) Direct admission to foreign universities Ans (b) 56. Which of the following statements is true about the focus areas of SWAYAM? a) It only targets students from urban areas b) It aims to align educational content with market needs c) It excludes mentorship programs d) It focuses solely on academic performance Ans (b) 57. What type of support does SWAYAM offer to enhance student employability? a) Mentorship and job placement opportunities b) Free transportation for students c) Housing for students in urban areas d) Only academic counseling Ans (a) 58. Who inaugurated the Start-up Mahakumbh? a) Shri Amit Shah b) Shri Narendra Modi c) Shri Piyush Goyal d) Shri Nitin Gadkari Ans (b) 59. What is the significance of the Start-up Mahakumbh for India? a) To promote traditional industries b) To focus only on agriculture c) To be crucial for India's development roadmap d) To reduce international trade Ans (c) 60. By what year does India aim to become a developed nation, as highlighted during the Start-up Mahakumbh? a) 2030 b) 2040 c) 2047 d) 2050 Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 61. In which sectors has the start-up revolution been noted? a) Only in technology and finance b) Across agriculture, textiles, medicine, transport, space, yoga, and ayurveda c) Exclusively in the service sector d) Only in manufacturing and exports Ans (b) 62. What aspect of Digital India was lauded for its transformative impact? a) Internet accessibility b) Unified Payments Interface c) Social media usage d) E-commerce growth Ans (b) 63. What is the highest civilian award in India? a) Padma Vibhushan b) Padma Shri c) Padma Bhushan d) Bharat Ratna Ans (d) 64. Which of the following awards is the third-highest civilian award in India? a) Bharat Ratna b) Padma Bhushan c) Padma Vibhushan d) Padma Shri Ans (b) 65. When was the 7th edition of Pariksha Pe Charcha conducted? a) January 19, 2024 b) January 10, 2024 c) February 1, 2024 d) December 25, 2023 Ans (a) 66. What is the primary aim of Pariksha Pe Charcha (PPC)? a) To promote online education b) To conduct examinations c) To celebrate and encourage the unique individuality of each child d) To provide scholarships to students Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 67. Who conducted the 7th edition of Pariksha Pe Charcha? a) Shri Amit Shah b) Shri Dharmendra Pradhan c) Shri Narendra Modi d) Shri Rahul Gandhi Ans (c) 68. Who are the key participants involved in Pariksha Pe Charcha? a) Only students b) Only teachers c) Students, parents and teachers. d) Schools and colleges Ans (c) 69. What is one of the key themes addressed in Pariksha Pe Charcha? a) Dealing with External Pressure and Stress b) Memorization techniques c) Traditional teaching methods d) Standardized testing Ans (a) 70. Which theme specifically addresses coping mechanisms for students during exams? a) Coping with Exam Stress b) Role of Parents c) Career Progression d) Intrusion of Technology Ans (a) 71. What is the primary aim of the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana? a) To promote urban development b) To provide comprehensive support to artisans and craftspeople c) To focus solely on large industries d) To reduce imports of handicrafts Ans (b) 72. Who are the main beneficiaries of the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana? a) Corporate employees b) Artisans and craftspeople engaged in traditional trades c) IT professionals d) Government officials Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 73. How many trades are encompassed in the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana? a) 10 trades b) 15 trades c) 5 trades d) 18 trades Ans (d) 74. Which of the following is NOT a trade included in the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana? a) Carpenter b) Boat Maker c) Software Developer d) Goldsmith Ans (c) 75. Which of the following trades is included in the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana? a) Electrician b) Blacksmith c) Architect d) Chef Ans (b) 76. The Advanced Training is aimed at which of the following? (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana) a) Basic skill development b) Skill upgrading c) Financial literacy d) Marketing strategies Ans (b) 77. What is the stipend provided during the Basic and Advanced Training? (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana) a) Rs. 500 per day b) Rs. 300 per day c) Rs. 750 per day d) Rs. 1,000 per day Ans (a) 78. What is the duration of the Advanced Training provided under the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana? a) 5 days b) 10 days c) 15 days d) 30 days [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS Ans (c) 79. What type of loans are provided under the Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana? a) Collateral-free 'Enterprise Development Loans' b) Secured business loans c) Personal loans with collateral d) Home loans Ans (a) 80. What is the maximum loan amount available to beneficiaries under the scheme? (Pradhan Mantri Vishwakarma Yojana) a) Rs. 1 lakhs b) Rs. 3 lakhs c) Rs. 5 lakhs d) Rs. 10 lakhs Ans (b) 81. How does MY Bharat aim to achieve its objectives for youth? a) By providing only financial aid b) By leveraging technology c) By limiting access to education d) By focusing solely on rural development Ans (b) 82. What is the primary purpose of the National Turmeric Board established by the Government of India? a) To increase the prices of turmeric b) To promote international trade c) To oversee and promote the development of turmeric and its products d) To eliminate the cultivation of turmeric Ans (c) 83. When was the CSR Portal launched by IREDA? a) October 15, 2023 b) November 07, 2023 c) December 1, 2023 d) January 5, 2024 Ans (b) 84. What is the primary purpose of the IREDA CSR Portal? a) To increase salary of employees b) To enhance transparency in receiving & processing CSR request c) To manage financial transactions d) To provide donation to subsidiaries Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 85. Under which ministry does IREDA operate? a) Ministry of Agriculture b) Ministry of Finance c) Ministry of New and Renewable Energy d) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change Ans (c) 86. Which government enterprise launched the CSR portal? a) Ministry of Power b) Indian Renewable Energy Development Agency (IREDA) c) National Thermal Power Corporation (NTPC) d) Renewable Energy Corporation Ans (b) 87. What category does IREDA fall under as a Mini Ratna enterprise? a) Category – I b) Category – II c) Category – III d) Category – IV Ans (a) 88. What is the primary objective of the ESG framework introduced by IFSCA? a) To reduce environmental regulations b) To enhance transparency and standardization in ESG disclosures c) To promote fossil fuel investments d) To limit foreign investments Ans (b) 89. What does ESG stand for in the context of the new framework introduced by IFSCA? a) Economic, Social, and Governance b) Economic, Sustainable, and Governance c) Environmental, Safety, and Growth d) Environmental, Social, and Governance Ans (d) 90. What initiative is the ESG framework a part of, according to the IFSCA? a) To increase stock market investments b) To establish GIFT-IFSC as a hub for sustainable finance c) To promote traditional finance models d) To regulate cryptocurrency transactions Ans (b) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  POLITICAL AFFAIRS 91. What does IFSCA stand for? a) Indian Financial Services Commission Authority b) International Financial Services Centres Authority c) International Financial Securities Compliance Agency d) Indian Financial Services Centres Association Ans (b) 92. Which financial products does the framework for ESG scheme disclosures specifically apply to? a) Real estate investments b) Mutual funds c) Personal loans d) Government bonds Ans (b) 93. What is the primary purpose of the ESG framework introduced by IFSCA? a) To ensure that financial products claiming to focus on ESG are genuine and consistent b) To promote high-risk investments c) To increase the cost of financial products d) To limit investments in green technologies Ans (a) 94. How does the framework for ESG scheme disclosures enhance consumer trust? a) By reducing the number of financial products available b) By ensuring accuracy, allowing for easy comparison of products based on international standards c) By focusing solely on domestic investments d) By increasing paperwork requirements for financial products Ans (b) 95. Which of the following is a key benefit of the ESG framework for investors? a) Increased volatility b) Restricted access to financial products c) Ability to trust and compare financial products more easily d) Mandatory long-term investments only Ans (c) [DOCUMENT TITLE] PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA POLITICAL AFFAIRS Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS CHAPTER 4 | LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 1. What is the Lok Sabha commonly known as? a) house of states b) council of people c) house of the people d) people's council Ans (c) 2. What is the Rajya Sabha commonly referred to as? a) house of the people b) people's assembly c) house of representatives d) council of states Ans (d) 3. Which of the following statements about the Indian Parliament is true? a) it consists of the Lok Sabha and the Vidhan Sabha b) it consists of the Lok Sabha and the Vidhan Parishad c) it consists of the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha d) it consists of the Rajya Sabha and the Legislative Assembly Ans (c) 4. Which of the following is true about the President of India? a) The President is not a part of the Parliament b) The President is a part of the Parliament c) The President only heads the Rajya Sabha d) The President is not involved in the legislative process Ans (b) 5. The Indian Parliament consists of the Lok Sabha, the Rajya Sabha, and which other entity? a) The Prime Minister b) The Supreme Court c) The Governor d) The President of India Ans (d) 6. The President of India holds which of the following positions? a) Head of Government b) Head of the Lok Sabha c) Head of State d) Head of the Rajya Sabha Ans (c) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 7. What are the two houses of a bicameral state legislature in India known as? a) Lok Sabha (lower house) and Rajya Sabha (upper house) b) Vidhan Sabha (lower house) and Vidhan Parishad (upper house) c) Rajya Sabha (lower house) and Lok Sabha (upper house) d) Gram Sabha (lower house) and Gram Parishad (upper house) Ans (b) 8. Which article of the Indian Constitution is associated with the legislative powers of the Union and the State? a) Article 245 b) Article 247 c) Article 246 d) Article 248 Ans (c) 9. How many subjects are listed in the Union List of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution? a) 50 b) 66 c) 47 d) 97 Ans (d) 10. Which schedule of the Indian Constitution details the distribution of responsibilities between the Union and State governments? a) 3rd Schedule b) 5th Schedule c) 7th Schedule d) 9th Schedule Ans (c) 11. In the context of the Indian Constitution, what does the term "Union" refer to? a) The central government of India b) The state governments c) Local self-governments d) The judiciary system Ans (a) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 12. Which of the following subjects is included in the Union List? a) Police b) Agriculture c) Income tax d) Trade and commerce Ans (c) 13. Which subjects are covered under the Concurrent List of the Seventh Schedule? a) Defense and foreign affairs b) Police and trade c) Education and trade unions d) Banking and currency Ans (c) 14. What distinguishes the subjects in the Concurrent List from those in the Union and State Lists? a) Only the Union can legislate on them b) Only the States can legislate on them c) Both the Union and State legislatures can legislate on them d) They are of no importance Ans (c) 15. Which of the following is NOT included in the subjects of the State List? a) Trade b) Police c) Foreign affairs d) Agriculture Ans (c) 16. What is the primary function of the Legislative branch of government? a) Makes laws b) Enforces laws c) Interprets the law d) Administers justice Ans (a) 17. What role does the Judiciary branch play in the government? a) Makes laws b) Interprets the law, administers justice, and ensures laws are upheld c) Enforces laws d) Creates policies Ans (b) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 18. Which branch of government is primarily responsible for making policy decisions? a) Judiciary b) Legislative c) Executive d) Federal Ans (c) 19. Which of the following is a key responsibility of the Executive branch? a) Drafting legislation b) Implementing laws c) Deciding cases d) Conducting trials Ans (b) 20. What is the primary function of the Judiciary branch? a) Making laws b) Enforcing laws c) Interpreting the law and administering justice d) Drafting policies Ans (c) 21. Which court typically serves as the highest authority in interpreting the Constitution? a) District Court b) High Court c) Family Court d) Supreme Court Ans (d) 22. How does the Judiciary branch ensure that laws are upheld? a) By drafting new legislation b) By making policy decisions c) By interpreting the law in individual cases d) By implementing laws Ans (c) 23. Which of the following is NOT a role of the Judiciary? a) Resolving disputes b) Enforcing laws c) Protecting individual rights d) Reviewing the constitutionality of laws Ans (b) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 24. What type of jurisdiction is typically held by a court? a) General jurisdiction over all matters b) Limited jurisdiction c) Exclusive jurisdiction d) Concurrent jurisdiction Ans (a) 25. Which of the following statements is true regarding tribunals? a) They have unlimited jurisdiction b) They handle all legal matters c) They focus on specific issues or service matters d) They are equivalent to a Supreme Court Ans (c) 26. How does the jurisdiction of a tribunal differ from that of a court of law? a) Tribunals have no jurisdiction b) Courts deal with specific issues only c) Tribunals are vested with limited jurisdiction d) Both have the same jurisdiction Ans (c) 27. What is the primary function of a tribunal? a) To handle criminal cases b) To deal with service matters and specific issues c) To interpret constitutional law d) To draft new legislation Ans (b) 28. Which is considered the Apex Court in India? a) High Court b) District Court c) Supreme Court d) NCLT Ans (c) 29. Which of the following statements about the Supreme Court of India is true? a) It is subordinate to the High Courts b) It serves as the highest authority in the judiciary of India c) It handles only criminal cases d) It was established in 1947 Ans (b) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 30. When was the Supreme Court of India established? a) August 15, 1947 b) January 26, 1950 c) November 26, 1949 d) May 1, 1952 Ans (b) 31. Which of the following is NOT a function of the Supreme Court of India? a) Hearing appeals from lower courts b) Protecting fundamental rights c) Appointing members to the Parliament d) Deciding on the constitutionality of laws Ans (c) 32. How many judges, including the Chief Justice, currently constitute the Supreme Court of India? a) 20 b) 34 c) 25 d) 15 Ans (b) 33. Who is the current Chief Justice of India as of October 2024? a) Ranjan Gogoi b) N.V. Ramana c) D.Y. Chandrachud d) Sharad Arvind Bobde Ans (c) 34. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India? a) The President of India b) The Prime Minister of India c) The Parliament of India d) The Chief Justice of the High Court Ans (a) 35. Which body is responsible for appointing the judges of the Supreme Court of India? a) The President of India b) The Prime Minister of India c) The Chief Justice of India d) The Union Cabinet Ans (a) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 36. What is the process for appointing judges to the Supreme Court in India? a) They are elected by the public b) They are appointed by the Chief Justice only c) They are appointed by the President based on recommendations from the Chief Justice and other senior judges d) They are appointed by the Parliament Ans (c) 37. What does the review jurisdiction of the Supreme Court entail? a) The power to hear appeals from high courts b) The power to issue writs c) The power to review laws passed by the legislature d) The power to transfer cases between lower courts Ans (c) 38. What authority does the Supreme Court have in relation to contempt of court? a) To ignore contemptuous acts b) To advise the government on contempt laws c) To transfer contempt cases to high courts d) To punish for contempt of court Ans (d) 39. Which of the following statements is true about the Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? a) It can only hear civil cases b) It deals exclusively with constitutional issues c) Take appeals from High Courts d) It cannot review the decisions of High Courts Ans (c) 40. What type of cases can the Supreme Court hear under its original jurisdiction? a) Cases between state governments and the Union of India b) All civil cases c) All criminal cases d) Cases related to local government Ans (a) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 41. What is the status of High Courts in the Indian judicial system? a) Second highest court in hierarchy b) A federal court c) The highest judicial body at the state level d) Both a & c Ans (d) 42. What is the appellate jurisdiction of High Courts primarily concerned with? a) Hearing appeals from lower courts and tribunals b) Advising the state government c) Enforcing laws d) Reviewing laws passed by Parliament Ans (a) 43. What is the primary function of Administrative Tribunals in India? a) To legislate new laws b) To handle criminal cases c) To deal with service matters of civil servants d) To advise the President Ans (c) 44. Under which act are Administrative Tribunals established in India? a) Service Matters Act of 1980 b) Administrative Service Act of 1990 c) Administrative Tribunals Act of 1985 d) Civil Servants Act of 1975 Ans (c) 45. Which article of the Indian Constitution allows for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals? a) Article 136 b) Article 323A c) Article 323B d) Article 50 Ans (b) 46. What is one of the main features of the Administrative Tribunals in terms of representation? a) Only lawyers can represent the parties b) Government representation is mandatory c) Individuals can represent themselves d) Only judges can represent the government Ans (c) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 47. What is the establishment date of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)? a) January 26, 1950 b) July 15, 1980 c) November 1, 1985 d) March 18, 1997 Ans (c) 48. How many organizations are included within the jurisdiction of the Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)? a) Around 150 organizations b) Around 250 organizations c) Around 209 organizations d) Around 300 organizations Ans (c) 49. What is the primary goal of the Administrative Tribunals? a) To provide swift and cost-effective justice b) To conduct lengthy trials c) To impose heavy fines d) To create new laws Ans (a) 50. To which body can appeals against decisions made by Administrative Tribunals be filed? a) The Supreme Court of India b) The Division Bench of the concerned High Court c) The Central Administrative Tribunal d) A separate Administrative Appellate Authority Ans (b) 51. If political parties or donors fail to comply with the return and refund of bonds, where will the amount be credited? (Case: Association for Democratic Reforms & Anr. v/s Union of India & Ors.) a) The Election Commission of India’s account b) The Prime Minister’s Relief Fund c) The State Bank of India d) The Ministry of Finance Ans (b) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 52. What triggered the series of writ petitions filed in the Vishal Tiwari v. Union of India & Ors. case? a) Decline in investor wealth and market volatility due to a report by Hindenburg Research. b) Decline in Adani Group’s share prices following a report by Hindenburg Research. c) Increase in Adani Group's market capitalization after SEBI regulations. d) Decline in SEBI’s regulatory power over the Adani Group. Ans (b) 53. What did the Hindenburg Research report accuse the Adani Group of doing? a) Bribing SEBI officials to avoid investigation. b) Manipulating share prices and failing to disclose related party transactions. c) Engaging in insider trading on a massive scale. d) Hiding income from international business dealings. Ans (b) 54. What was the Court’s stance on SEBI's investigation into the Adani Group? a) The Court ordered a new investigation team to handle the matter. b) The Court directed SEBI to halt the investigation. c) The Court did not interfere with SEBI’s investigation outcomes. d) The Court found SEBI’s investigation to be incomplete and unreliable. Ans (c) 55. What were the Court’s findings on the petitioner’s reliance on the OCCPR report? a) The Court found the report to be conclusive proof of SEBI's inaction. b) The Court rejected the report due to lack of verified authenticity. c) The Court ordered further investigations based on the OCCPR report. d) The report was found to be fabricated and unreliable. Ans (b) 56. When did the Supreme Court deliver its judgment in the Hindenburg Report case? a) January 24, 2023 b) February 15, 2023 c) January 3, 2024 d) December 10, 2023 Ans (c) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 57. Under which section of the Companies Act, 2013, was the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) established? a) Section 409 b) Section 408 c) Section 411 d) Section 410 Ans (b) 58. When did the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) become operational? a) January 1, 2015 b) June 1, 2016 c) March 31, 2016 d) July 1, 2017 Ans (b) 59. How many initial benches of the NCLT were set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs? a) 9 b) 12 c) 11 d) 15 Ans (c) 60. Who is the current President of the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT)? a) Justice Ashok Bhushan b) Justice S. Ravindra Bhat c) Justice Ramalingam Subramanian d) Chief Justice (Retd) Ramalingam Sudhakar Ans (d) 61. Which section of the Companies Act, 2013, established the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)? a) Section 409 b) Section 410 c) Section 413 d) Section 408 Ans (b) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 62. Who is the current Chairperson of the National Company Law Appellate Tribunal (NCLAT)? a) Chief Justice (Retd) Ramalingam Sudhakar b) Hon'ble Justice Shri Ashok Bhushan c) Justice A.K. Sikri d) Justice R. Banumathi Ans (b) 63. Which additional organizations' decisions does NCLAT handle appeals for, following amendments to the Companies Act and the Finance Act? a) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) b) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India and the Competition Commission of India (CCI) c) The Supreme Court d) The Ministry of Corporate Affairs Ans (b) 64. What energy source did the Supreme Court judgment emphasize as a priority to combat the climate emergency? a) Solar power b) Wind energy c) Hydropower d) Nuclear energy Ans (a) 65. What solution did the Court suggest to mitigate the environmental impact of climate change? a) Transition to biofuels and ethanol-based energy. b) Adoption of clean energy solutions like solar power. c) Investing in nuclear energy projects. d) Reducing urbanization and industrialization. Ans (b) 66. Who filed the petition that led to the Supreme Court's judgment regarding climate change and its impact on the right to life? a) Environmental activists group b) The Indian National Congress party c) The Ministry of Environment d) Wildlife activist MK Ranjitsinh and others Ans (d) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 67. In which states is the Great Indian Bustard primarily found? a) Uttar Pradesh and Uttarakhand b) Rajasthan and Gujarat c) Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra d) Karnataka and Kerala Ans (b) 68. On what date did the Supreme Court deliver its judgment regarding the demonetisation decision? a) January 2, 2023 b) December 31, 2022 c) January 15, 2023 d) February 1, 2023 Ans (a) 69. What was the Supreme Court's ruling ratio regarding the demonetization decision? a) 3:2 b) 4:1 c) 5:0 d) 2:3 Ans (b) 70. What currency denominations were demonetized by the Central Government? a) Rs 50 and Rs 100 notes b) Rs 1,000 and Rs 500 notes c) Rs 10 and Rs 20 notes d) Rs 2,000 notes Ans (b) 71. What was the primary action taken by the Supreme Court in relation to the demonetization decision? a) Upheld the decision b) Rejected the decision c) Called for a review of the decision d) Recommended amendments to the decision Ans (a) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 72. What did the Supreme Court clarify regarding the inheritance rights of daughters under the Hindu Succession Act? a) Daughters do not have any inheritance rights. b) Daughters have the right to inherit self-acquired property of a Hindu male who dies intestate. c) Daughters can only inherit property if there are no male heirs. d) Daughters can inherit property only if specified in a will. Ans (b) 73. How will the self-acquired property of a Hindu male who dies intestate devolve according to the Supreme Court's ruling? a) By survivorship to the father's brother's son b) To the Hindu male's parents c) To his daughter by inheritance d) To the government Ans (c) 74. What was the key conclusion drawn by the Supreme Court in this case? a) Daughters will inherit self-acquired property rather than it devolving to a male relative. b) Daughters cannot inherit self-acquired property at all. c) Property should be divided equally among all male relatives. d) Self-acquired property cannot be inherited by anyone. Ans (a) 75. What does the ruling signify for the rights of daughters in Hindu families? a) Daughters have limited rights compared to sons. b) Daughters have no rights in ancestral property. c) Daughters have equal rights to inherit self-acquired property. d) Daughters can only inherit property with prior consent from male relatives. Ans (c) 76. When did the Supreme Court deliver its verdict regarding the abrogation of Article 370? a) November 15, 2023 b) December 5, 2023 c) December 11, 2023 d) January 1, 2024 Ans (c) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 77. What did the Court find regarding the President’s 2019 orders related to Article 370? a) They were made under duress. b) They violated the Constitution. c) There was no prima facie case of mala fide or extraneous exercise of power. d) They were influenced by external factors. Ans (c) 78. How did the Supreme Court characterize the reorganization of Jammu and Kashmir into Union Territories? a) As a temporary move. b) As a permanent change. c) As a necessary evil. d) As a constitutional mandate. Ans (a) 79. Under which Act was the Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) established? a) Companies Act, 1956 b) Company Secretaries Act, 1980 c) Companies Act, 2013 d) Securities and Exchange Board of India Act, 1992 Ans (b) 80. Who is the current President of ICSI for the year 2024? a) CS Dhananjay Shukla b) CS B. Narasimhan c) CS Rajesh Kumar d) CS Anita Singh Ans (b) 81. Who is the current Vice President of ICSI for the year 2024? a) CS Dhananjay Shukla b) CS B. Narasimhan c) CS Rajesh Kumar d) CS Anita Singh Ans (a) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 82. Where is the headquarters of the Institute of Company Secretaries of India located? a) Mumbai b) Chennai c) New Delhi d) Kolkata Ans (c) 83. How many members and students does ICSI currently have approximately? a) 50,000 members and 200,000 students b) 72,000 members and 200,000 students c) 72,000 members and 150,000 students d) 60,000 members and 250,000 students Ans (b) 84. Which of the following countries does not have an ICSI Overseas Centre? a) Australia b) Canada c) Singapore d) Germany Ans (d) 85. How many international centres does ICSI have as mentioned? a) 5 b) 6 c) 7 d) 8 Ans (b) 86. What was the theme of the 2nd National Women’s Conference held in Bengaluru? a) Empowering Women Entrepreneurs b) Women in Leadership Roles c) Inspire Women Leadership - Accelerate Progress d) Celebrating Women in Business Ans (c) 87. When was the 3rd International Conference hosted by ICSI in Singapore? a) April 1-2, 2024 b) April 3-4, 2024 c) April 5-6, 2024 d) April 7-8, 2024 Ans (c) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 88. What date marked the 55th Foundation Day Celebrations of ICSI? a) October 4, 2023 b) October 5, 2023 c) November 4, 2023 d) December 5, 2023 Ans (a) 89. What was the main theme of the 3rd International Conference in Singapore? a) Economic Growth in Asia b) Building Resilient & Sustainable Economies c) Innovation in Business Practices d) Corporate Governance Ans (b) 90. On which dates was the 2nd National Women’s Conference held in Bengaluru? a) March 20-21, 2024 b) March 22-23, 2024 c) March 24-25, 2024 d) March 26-27, 2024 Ans (b) 91. Who graced the 55th Foundation Day Celebrations of ICSI? a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman b) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi c) Smt. Droupadi Murmu d) Both a & c Ans (d) 92. When was the Institute of Company Secretaries of India (ICSI) setup? a) October 4, 1965 b) October 4, 1968 c) October 4, 1971 d) October 4, 1981 Ans (b) 93. Which of the following best describes the purpose of the 3rd International Conference? a) Celebrating ICSI's anniversary b) Addressing challenges in achieving sustainable economies c) Launching new policies by the government d) Promoting individual companies Ans (b) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 94. What is the primary focus of the first ICSI International ADR Centre inaugurated in Noida? a) Promote Company Secretaries' roles b) Conduct corporate training c) Promote ADR methods d) Facilitate government contracts Ans (c) 95. When was the first International ADR Centre inaugurated in Noida? a) February 28, 2024 b) February 29, 2024 c) March 1, 2024 d) February 20, 2024 Ans (b) 96. At which event was the resolution on promoting sustainable lifestyles adopted? a) COP26 b) United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) c) G20 Summit d) World Economic Forum Ans (b) 97. When did the Sixth Session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA) take place? a) January 15 - 20, 2024 b) February 26 - March 1, 2024 c) March 5 - 10, 2024 d) February 20 - 25, 2024 Ans (b) 98. Where was the UNEA's Sixth Session held? a) Nairobi, Kenya b) New York, USA c) Paris, France d) New Delhi, India Ans (a) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 99. What is the initial focus of the Green Credit Programme (GCP)? a) Urban afforestation b) Voluntary tree plantation on degraded and wasteland c) Carbon credit trading d) Renewable energy projects Ans (b) 100. Which organization is designated as the GCP administrator? a) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change b) Central Pollution Control Board c) National Biodiversity Authority d) ICFRE Ans (d) 101. What is the initial target for reducing emissions intensity of GDP set by India for 2030? a) 20-25% b) 33-35% c) 40-45% d) 50% Ans (b) 102. What updated target was set in August 2022 for reducing GDP emissions intensity by 2030? a) 30% b) 35% c) 45% d) 50% Ans (c) 103. What significant plan did India develop as the first country in the world? a) National Water Policy b) National Energy Policy c) Comprehensive Cooling Action Plan d) National Forest Policy Ans (c) 104. What percentage reduction in Hydro Chlorofluorocarbon (HCFC) emissions has India achieved by surpassing the 2020 target? a) 35% b) 40% c) 50% d) 44% LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS Ans (d) 105. What percentage of electric power capacity from non-fossil fuels did India achieve as of October 31, 2023? a) 40% b) 38% c) 43.81% d) 45% Ans (c) 106. At which event was the Green Credit Initiative launched? a) COP 28 b) COP 27 c) COP 26 d) G20 Summit Ans (a) 107. What is the initial target for reduction of use of fossil fuel for electricity generation by 2030? a) 25% b) 40% c) 50% d) 35% Ans (b) 108. What is the updated target for reduction of use of fossil fuel for electricity generation by 2030? a) 60% b) 80% c) 50% d) 70% Ans (c) 109. What is one of the key projects under India's Presidency related to land management? a) Global Initiative on Soil Health b) Global Alliance on Land Restoration and Forest Fire Management c) International Water Conservation Program d) Global Biodiversity Fund Ans (b) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 110. What does HLPSRBE stand for in the context of sustainable economies? a) High-Level Principles for a Sustainable and Resilient Blue/Ocean-based Economy b) High-Level Policies for Sustainable Resource Management c) High-Level Program for Blue Economy Initiatives d) High-Level Principles for Sustainable Development Goals Ans (a) 111. What is the Circular Economy Industry Coalition (RECEIC) comprised of? a) 20 founding members b) 40 founding members c) 30 founding members d) 50 founding members Ans (b) 112. How many countries participated in the mega beach cleaning event organized under India's Presidency? a) 15 countries b) 20 countries c) 25 countries d) 18 countries Ans (d) 113. What issue does embracing a circular economy primarily aim to tackle? a) Economic growth at any cost b) Overpopulation c) Resource scarcity and environmental degradation d) Global trade restrictions Ans (c) 114. What organization introduced the Corporate Governance Charter for startups? a) Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce & Industry (FICCI) b) National Association of Software and Service Companies (NASSCOM) c) Confederation of Indian Industry (CII) d) Ministry of Corporate Affairs Ans (c) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 115. What is a key feature of the Corporate Governance Charter for startups? a) Mandatory registration with the Ministry of Corporate Affairs b) An online self-evaluative governance scorecard c) Government grants for startups d) Tax incentives for compliance Ans (b) 116. What is the purpose of the online self-evaluative governance scorecard included in the Corporate Governance Charter? a) To assess market trends b) To measure and improve governance practices over time c) To evaluate financial performance d) To track employee performance Ans (b) 117. Where was the COP28 UN Climate Change Conference held? a) Paris, France b) New York, USA c) Dubai, UAE d) Tokyo, Japan Ans (c) 118. How many participants attended the COP28 conference? a) Around 50,000 b) Around 85,000 c) Around 100,000 d) Around 75,000 Ans (b) 119. What is the primary goal of the Paris Agreement? a) To limit global warming to well below 2°C b) To eliminate fossil fuels by 2030 c) To support technological advancements d) To create financial aid programs Ans (a) 120. What is the future limit set under the Paris Agreement with respect to global warming? a) 0.5°C b) 1°C c) 1.8°C d) 1.5°C Ans (d) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 121. What significant event marked the conclusion of COP28? a) The signing of a new treaty b) The opening of a new office c) The first 'global stocktake' under the Paris Agreement d) The establishment of a new organization Ans (c) 122. Which of the following was a major outcome of COP28? a) Creation of a new carbon tax b) Approval of the Loss and Damage Fund c) Agreement to cease all fossil fuel use d) Establishment of a new environmental organization Ans (b) 123. How much funding has been pledged for the Loss and Damage Fund so far? a) Around USD 700 million b) Around USD 1 billion c) Around USD 500 million d) Around USD 300 million Ans (a) 124. Which countries have announced financial contributions to the Santiago Network? a) India, UK and Brazil b) Canada, Japan, Spain, Switzerland, and the USA c) Australia, Pakistan and New Zealand d) South Africa, West Indies and Mexico Ans (b) 125. When did COP28 take place? a) November 1-15, 2023 b) December 1-15, 2023 c) November 30 - December 13, 2023 d) November 25 - December 13, 2023 Ans (c) 126. What did the G20 New Delhi Leaders’ Declaration highlight as necessary for effective climate action by 2030? a) Use of only renewable energy b) Trillions of dollars in climate finance c) Ban on fossil fuels d) New global energy sources LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS Ans (b) 127. Who emphasized the importance of a steady flow of climate finance from developed nations at the G20? a) The Prime Minister of India b) The President of India c) The Finance Minister of India d) The Union Minister of Environment Ans (a) 128. Until when has the Rooftop Solar Programme been extended? a) March 31, 2024 b) March 31, 2025 c) March 31, 2026 d) March 31, 2027 Ans (c) 129. Who can benefit from subsidies under the Rooftop Solar Programme? a) Industrial consumers b) Residential consumers c) Commercial consumers d) Agricultural consumers Ans (b) 130. Which ministry is responsible for implementing the Rooftop Solar Programme? a) Ministry of Power b) Ministry of Environment, Forest & Climate Change c) Ministry of Renewable Energy d) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs Ans (b) 131. What is the name of the first lunar railway system NASA plans to build? a) MOONRAIL b) FLOAT c) LUNATRACK d) ASTRO-TRAIN Ans (b) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 132. What does the acronym FLOAT stand for in NASA's lunar railway project? a) Flexible Levitation on a Track b) Fast Lunar Orbital Automated Transport c) Functional Lift for Operational Astronaut Tasks d) Flexible Load and Transport Ans (a) 133. What is one optional feature that the track of the FLOAT system can include for power generation? a) Wind turbines b) Thin-film solar panels c) Nuclear reactors d) Fuel cells Ans (b) 134. When did NASA announce its plan to build the first lunar railway system, FLOAT? a) May 15, 2024 b) May 04, 2024 c) March 14, 2024 d) May 14, 2024 Ans (d) 135. When did India deliver the first batch of BrahMos missiles to the Philippines? a) April 14, 2024 b) January 22, 2024 c) March 10, 2023 d) April 1, 2023 Ans (a) 136. What is the value of the deal under which India supplied BrahMos missiles to the Philippines? a) $250 million b) $400 million c) $375 million d) $500 million Ans (c) LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS PROF. DARSHAN DHOKA Unique Academy for Commerce | CSEET Current Affairs MCQs  LEGAL AND OTHER AFFAIRS 137. How many BrahMos missile batteries will India supply to the Philippines? a) Two b) Three c) Four d) Five Ans (b) 138. When did ISRO announce preparations for the Chandrayaan-4 mission? a) January 8, 2024 b) March 8, 2024 c) February 15, 2024 d) April 2, 2024 Ans (b) 139. What amount did the Union Cabinet approve for the India AI mission? a) ₹5,000 crore b) ₹7,500 crore c) ₹10,300 crore d) ₹12,000 crore Ans (c) 140. When did the Union Cabinet approve funds for the India AI mission? a) March 8, 2024 b) March 7, 2024 c) March 18, 2024 d) May 7, 2024 Ans (b) 141. What is the primary purpose of the Chakshu facility? a) To provide internet access b) To allow citizens to report suspected fraud communication c) To facilitate online payments d) To offer customer service support Ans (b) 142. When was the Digital Intelligence Platform (DIP) and Chakshu facility launched? a) March 4, 2024 b) March 1, 2024 c) March 10, 2024 d) March 15, 2024