Crack Your Exit Exam for D.Pharm Candidates (2023) PDF

See discussions, stats, and author profiles for this publication at: https://www.researchgate.net/publication/375088616 Crack your exit exam for all D. Pharm candidates Book · October 2023 CITATIONS READS 0 13,967 1 author: Parimita Kalita 10 PUBLICATIONS 0 CITATIONS SEE PROFILE All content following this page was uploaded by Parimita Kalita on 19 June 2024. The user has requested enhancement of the downloaded file. Crack your Exit exam (For all D.Pharm Candidates) AUTHORS Mrs Parimita Kalita Dr. Ratna Jyoti Das DibyoJyoti Sarmah Rajani Saikia Purabi Das Bhanita Saud Swagata baruah Nituporna Borah (SCIENTIFIC INTERNATIONAL PUBLISHING HOUSE) i Title of the Book: Crack your Exit exam Edition: First - 2023 Copyrights © Authors No part of this text book may be reproduced or transmitted in any form by any means, electronic or mechanical, including photocopy, recording, or any information storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing from the copyright owners. Disclaimer The authors are solely responsible for the contents published in this text book. The publishers or editors do not take any responsibility for the same in any manner. Errors, if any, are purely unintentional and readers are requested to communicate such errors to the editors or publishers to avoid discrepancies in future. ISBN: 978-93-5757-314-6 MRP: 550/- PUBLISHER & PRINTER: Scientific International Publishing House Contact: +917019991025 Website: www.sipinternationalpublishers.com ii PREFACE The main aim of publishing this MCQ book is to spread the knowledge and make ready Diploma in Pharmacy students for the Exit exam which will be governed by the Pharmacy Council of India. It caters to the needs of aspiring pharmacy students for other pharmacist competitive examinations. This book is completely written and edited by expert teachers by giving the most priority to the syllabus subject of the D. Pharm Exit exam provided by PCI. A student should approach the subject confidently. It should be learning with pleasure for the students. He/she should face competition at any time and at any place. The latest trend in education is teaching through multiple-choice questions. The MCQ’s are intended to enable students to prioritize and plan their learning through regular practice. The book contains a large number of multiple-choice questions on the subject. The quality of the MCQ’s stands out in the market. Generally, there are varieties of MCQ’s that comprehend all the related questions on the subjects. The contents have been so designed as to include the true spirit of the syllabus of D. Pharma. Another innovation in the book is that each section is divided into various sub-sections. The entire syllabus is divided into sections and headings. The book is user-friendly and provides information in the form of MCQ. It provides a comprehensive and critical study of the various concept of the subject matter. It is felt that the contents should be crystal clear. A word or suggestion from your side may add another feather to the cap of the subject matter of the book. The author of this book looks forward to the comments, suggestions, and criticism from the readers. Constructive suggestions and feedback from users would be highly appreciated, gratefully acknowledged, and suitably incorporated. From Authors and Editors Mrs. Parimita Kalita & Dr. Ratna Jyoti Das CONTENTS MCQ SPECIALLY DESIGNED FOR THE D. PHARM EXIT EXAM Section Subject Page Nos. A Pharmaceutics-1 1-30 B Pharmacy Law & Ethics 31-69 Hospital Pharmacy and Clinical C 70-91 Pharmacy Community Pharmacy & D 92-106 Management E Pharmaceutical Chemistry- I 107-165 F Biochemistry and clinical pathology 166-207 G Pharmacology 208-239 H Pharmacognosy 240-271 I Human Anatomy and Physiology 272-286 Sincere acknowledgment to the students and management of "AYUSH PHARMACY INSTITUTE" (www.ayushpharmajrt.in) Jorhat, Assam, India Section- A (Pharmaceutics- I) 1 1. Describe the safety measures to be taken while using eye drops. (a) Never rinse the dropper (b) Never use eye drops that have changed colour (c) Discard the content after one month of use (d) Do not touch the tip of the dropper (e) All of the above Ans: (e) All of the above 2. Another name for molten glass is (a) Gob (b) Body (c) clump (d) Mob Ans: (a) Gob 3. Using the bubble test as a quality assurance test for (a) Sachet (b) Glass container (c) Plastic container (d) Blister pack Ans: (d) Blister pack 4. Which of the following packing materials shields the medication inside from light? (a) Plastic containers (b) Metal containers (c) Glass containers (d) Amber-colored glass containers Ans: (d) Amber-colored glass containers 5. Which of the following is not a step in the manufacturing of glass? (a) Heat treatment (b) Finishing (c) Forming and shaping (d) Extrusion Ans: (d) Extrusion 6. The container that immediately interacts with the formulation is known as (a) Secondary package (b) Primary and secondary package (c) Primary package (d) Tertiary package Ans: (c) Primary package 7. Alkalinity in which type of glass is determined using the water attack test. (a) Type-I glass (b) Type-II glass (c) Type-III glass (d) Amber-colored glass 2 Ans: (b) Type-II glass 8. What size of particle should topical powders have? (a) 50 to 100 microns (b) 150 to 250 micron (c) 250 to 500 microns (d) Above 1000 microns Ans: (a) 50 to 100 microns 9. Benefit of liquid dosage form over powdered dosage form (a) Bioavailability is less (b) Easy to swallow (c) More bulky (d) Easy to handle Ans: (b) Easy to swallow 10. Which of the following liquid dosage form is used for oral administration? (a) Elixirs (b) Liniments (c) Lotion (d) Enema Ans: (a) Elixirs 11. What kind of powder particles can pass through a No. 60 sieve (0.25 mm) yet not more than 40% can pass through a No. 100 sieve? (a) Very Coarse powders (b) Coarse powders (c) Moderately coarse powders (d) Fine powders Ans: (d) Fine powders 12. How much dextrose is needed to make 3000 ml of a 5% w/v solution? (a) 150 gms (b) 200 gms (c) 250 gms (d) 300 gms Ans: (a) 150 gms 13. Sugar content in syrup IP is ……. % w/w. (a) 66.7 (b) 16.6 (c) 60.5 (d) 56.6 Ans: (a) 66.7 14. Which sweet-tasting solvents are employed in the creation of liquid dosage forms? (a) Propylene glycol (b) Glycerine (c) Polyethylene glycol (d) Polysorbate 80 3 Ans: (b) Glycerine 15. Determine how much dextrose is needed to make 200 mL of a 5% w/v solution. (a) 5 grams (b) 10 grams (c) 5 mg (d) 100 grams Ans: (b) 10 grams 16. Which sweetening agent is utilized as an additive in liquid dose form as low-calorie or nonnutritive? (a) Aspartame (b) Dextrose (c) Glucose (d) Lactose Ans: (a) Aspartame 17. The liquid solutions used in throat paints are (a) Viscous (b) Non-viscous (c) Solid (d) Gas Ans: (a) Viscous 18. Which powder is suitable for ingestion or oral usage (a) Electrolyte powder (b) Talcum powder (c) Snuffs (d) Dusting powder Ans: (a) Electrolyte powder 19. The powders which are sterile, used in body cavities, and also in major wounds in healing are known as (a) Non-medicated powders (b) Medicated dusting powders (c) Surgical dusting powders (d) Natural dusting powders Ans: (c) Surgical dusting powders 20. The capsules that enclosed powders are formed of ….. (a) Gelatin (b) Rice flour (c) Fructose (d) Dextrose Ans: (a) Gelatin 21. The inscription, which is a section of the prescription, contains (a) Name and quantity of ingredients (b) Direction to the patient (c) Direction to the patient’s relatives (d) Patient information 4 Ans: (a) Name and quantity of ingredients 22. The Chairman of the first edition of IP was….. (a) Dr. B.N. Ghosh (b) Dr. B. Mukherjee (c) Dr. Nityanand (d) Mr. PrasanaTotta Ans: (a) Dr. B.N. Ghosh 23. One minim is equivalent to (a) 0.6ml (b) 0.06ml (c) 0.006ml (d) 0.0006ml Ans: (b) 0.06ml 24. Douches are designed to be used in …………… (a) Vaginal cavity (b) Rectal cavity (c) Buccal cavity (d) Nasal cavity Ans: (a) Vaginal cavity 25. Which of the following uses a camel hair brush to apply (a) Throat paint (b) Mouthwash (c) Gargle (d) Liniment Ans: (a) Throat paint 26. _ _ are wafers made of rice flour and contain a solid dose form of medication. (a) Cachets (b) Powders (c) lozenges (d) Tablets Ans: (a) Cachets 27. are cough medications in the form of pleasant, thick liquid dosages. (a) Inhalations (b) Lozenges (c) Linctus (d) Tablets Ans: (c) Linctus 28. Who coordinates the annual Indian Pharmaceutical Congress? (a) Indian Pharmaceutical Association (b) Indian Pharmaceutical Congress 5 (c) Indian Pharmaceutical Congress Association (d) Indian Pharmacy Graduates Association Ans: (a) Indian Pharmaceutical Association 29. Calculate the dose for a 20-pound child using Clark's formula. Adults should take 300 mg. (a) 40 mg (b) 110 mg (c) 200 mg (d) 35 mg Ans: (a) 40 mg 30. Use of formulations made up of numerous plants referred to as……….. (a) Generics (b) Parenteral (c) Plant Vehicles (d) Galenicals Ans: (d) Galenicals 31. What does one fluid ounce equal? (a) 30.47 ml (b) 29.57 ml (c) 27.67 ml (d) 28.77 ml Ans: (b) 29.57 ml 32. The was enacted as the nation’s first minimum standard of educational qualification for pharmacy practice. (a) Pharmacy Act 1948 (b) Drugs and Cosmetics Act 1940 (1945) (c) DPCO Act (d) Pharmacy Practice regulation Ans: (a) Pharmacy Act 1948 33. For creating a main emulsion of mineral oil using the dry gum method, the ratio of oil to water to gum is (a) 03:02:01 (b) 02:02:01 (c) 01:01:01 (d) 02:01:02 Ans: (a) 03:02:01 34. which of the following is a hydroalcoholic preparation. (a) Elixir (b) syrup (c) suspension (d) emulsion 6 Ans: (a) Elixir 35. Which of the following monophasic liquid formulations falls within the category of an oral cavity solution? (a) Eardrop (b) douches (c) Gargle (d) nasal drop Ans: (c) Gargle 36. The emulsifying agent plays the role of. (a) Decrease surface area in emulsion (b) Improves the medication taste (c) Increase the size of globules (d) Reduce the interfacial tension between miscible phases Ans: (a) Decrease surface area in emulsion 37. The B.P. Calamine Lotion is an illustration of. (a) Suspension containing indifussible solids (b) Mixture Containing precipitate forming (c) Liquid Suspension produced by chemical reaction (d) Dispersion of oils in inhalations Ans: (a) Suspension containing indifussible solids 38. A defining feature of _ suspension is the production of hard cakes. (a) Flocculated (b) Thixotropic (c) Structured (d) De-flocculated Ans: (a) Flocculated 39. Mouthwash is necessary in which of the following circumstance. (a) Yawning (b) Indigestion (c) Halitosis (d) Hirsutism Ans: (c) Halitosis 40. In an assembly, an emulsion is applied to a pair of electrodes attached to an electric bulb, which causes the electric bulb to glow. It indicates which type of emulsion. (a) o/s (b) w/o (c) g/o (d) o/w Ans: (d) o/w 41. The term " " refers to the interaction between two or more chemicals that may result in a change in color, oodor taste, viscosity, and morphology. (a) Biological incompatibility 7 (b) Physical incompatibility (c) Therapeutic incompatibility (d) Chemical incompatibility Ans: (b) Physical incompatibility 42. When a monovalent cation soap-based emulsion is combined with polyvalent cations, phase inversion occurs. This is an illustration of which type of incompatibility. (a) Chemical (b) Physical (c) Therapeutic (d) Biological Ans: (a) Chemical 43. Which type of suppository base is categorised as Witepsol's? (a) Glycero-Gelatin base (b) Synthetic base (c) Cocoa butter base (d) Macrogol base Ans: (b) Synthetic base 44. Double decomposition is an example of incompatibility. (a) Chemical (b) Physical (c) Therapeutic (d) Biological Ans: (a) Chemical 45. What kind of cocoa butter is regarded as stable enough for suppositories? (a) Alpha Crystal (b) Gamma Crystals (c) Delta Crystals (d) Beta Crystal Ans: (d) Beta Crystal 46. How can we overcome the incompatibility between oil and water? (a) Addition of sweetener (b) Addition of a surfactant (c) Addition of preservative (d) Mixing of two phases by stirring Ans: (b) Addition of surfactant 47. measures the time required by suppository to soften under pressures similar to those found in the rectum in the presence of water at 37◦C. (a) Solidification test (b) Disintegration test (c) Liquefaction test (d) Dissolution test 8 Ans: (c) Liquefaction test 48. The term "urethral suppositories" are also known as (a) Pessaries (b) Bougies (c) Enema (d) Douches Ans: (b) Bougies 49. It is possible to make suppositories by. (a) Precipitation method (b) Redispersion Method (c) Maceration method (d) Compression moulding Ans: (d) Compression moulding 50. Resin agglomerates are created when water is added to a tincture containing resinous material. This is an illustration of which type of incompatibility. (a) Chemical (b) Physical (c) Therapeutic (d) Biological Ans: (b) Physical 51. Calculating displacement values makes sure. (a) Correct amount of base (b) Correct amount of drug (c) Formation of stable suppositories (d) Formation of easily mouldable suppositories. Ans: (b) Correct amount of drug 52. Young’s rule for calculating approximate child’s dose is given as (a) Dose of Child = Adult dose×(age/(age+12)) (b) Dose of Child = Age (in months) x 150 /Adult (c) Dose Dose of Child = Adult dose×age/(age+20)) (d) Dose of Child = (Age (in months) x Adult Dose ) /20 Ans: (a) Dose of Child = Adult dose×(age/(age+12)) 53. Using Dilling’s rule, Calculate the dose for a 2 years old child. The adult dose is 500 mg. (a) 50 mg (b) 80 mg (c) 120 mg (d) 90 mg Ans: (a) 50 mg 54. The components of the capsule shell (a) Gelatin (b) Carrageenan (c) PVA 9 (d) All of the above Ans: (d) All of the above 55. What are the key considerations for creating an effective capsule dosage form: (a) Physical and chemical stability (b) Fill composition (c) Shell material (d) All of the above Ans: (d) All of the above 56. The gel strength of gelatin for softgel capsules should fall between (a) 12-80 bloom (b) 1500-2000 bloom (c) 1.5-8 bloom (d) 150-200 bloom Ans: (d) 150-200 bloom 57. The extraction of a drug by heating it in a particular pressure is known as (a) Digestion (b) Evaporation (c) Maceration (d) Infusion Ans: (a)Digestion 58. Which of the following is a semiautomatic capsule filling technique: (a) Auger fill method (b) Mechanical vibration filling method (c) Dosator method (d) Compression filling method Ans: (a) Auger fill method 59. Equipment for filling soft gels with a ribbon system is (a) Pneumatic type (b) Electronic type (c) Both (d) None Ans: (c) Both 60. What pH range should hypromellose capsules fall into: (a) 3.2-4.8 (b) 4.8-5.8 (c) 5.8-8.0 (d) 8.0-9.2 Ans: (c) 5.8-8.0 61. The moisture content of a soft gelatin capsule should be between the range of: (a) 10% Ans: (b) 6-10% 62. The creation of a capsule dosage form of a medication currently available in tablet form will be regarded as (a) Strategic reason (b) Technological reason (c) Safety reason (d) Consumer preference Ans: (a) Strategic reason 63. Which of these are unit dose forms? (a) Suspension (b) Tablet (c) Emulsion (d) Solution Ans: (b) Tablet 64. The numerous dose configuration is (a) Tablet (b) Capsule (c) Ointment (d) All of the above Ans: (c) Ointment 65. One which can't be given via oral tablets (a) NSAIDs (b) Antibiotics (c) Proteins (d) Hormones Ans: (c) Proteins 66. Peak and valley effect is associated with (a) SR dosage forms (b) Conventional dosage forms (c) Large volume parenteral products (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Conventional dosage forms 67. API cannot be made into tablets are (a) With a very short half-life (b) Which is destroyed in GIT (c) A & B both (d) None of the above Ans: (c) A & B both 68. There is no disintegrant in the composition of (a) Conventional tablets (b) Chewable tablets (c) Enteric-coated tablet (d) Immediate-release tablet Ans: (b) Chewable tablets 11 69. The formulation which can be ingested without water (a) Conventional Tablets (b) Effervescent Tablets (c) Chewable Tablets (d) All of the above Ans: (c) Chewable Tablets 70. Glidants are incorporated for (a) Improving flow properties (b) Improving binding (c) Improved drug release (d) Improved disintegration Ans: (a) Improving flow properties 71. The most used technique for granulation is (a) Dry granulation (b) Wet granulation (c) Direct compression (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Wet granulation 72. The Wurster process is related to (a) Fluidized Bed Granulation (b) Dry granulation (c) Sieving (d) None of the above Ans: (a) Fluidized Bed Granulation 73. Preformulation aims to make sure (a) Stability (b) Safety (c) Efficacy (d) All of the above Ans: (d) All of the above 74. The pattern of X-ray diffraction suggests (a) Solubility (b) Crystallinity (c) Functional groups (d) Permeability Ans: (b) Crystallinity 75. The structure is seen in crystal form is (a) 3D (b) 2D (c) Short-range (d) None of the above Ans: (a) 3D 76. A monotropic polymorph can take on different forms (a) reversibly (b) irreversibly 12 (c) does not change (d) None of the above Ans: (b) irreversibly 77. The equation for the link between pH and an acidic drug's solubility and pKa value is (a) Henderson Hasselbalch equation (b) Bragg’s Equation (c) Noye’s Whitney Equation (d) All of the above Ans: (a) Henderson Hasselbalch equation 78. API's pure form's solubility is determined by (a) Partition coefficient (b) Phase solubility study (c) Permeability study (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Phase solubility study 79. Carr’s Index indicates (a) Flow property (b) Solubility (c) Partition coefficient (d) All of the above Ans: (a) Flow property 80. You may enhance the flow property by (a) Glidant (b) Plasticizer (c) Binder (d) All of the above Ans: (a) Glidant 81. Infra-Red spectroscopy is used for determining (a) Particle size (b) Crystallinity (c) Functional groups (d) Shape Ans: (c) Functional groups 82. Cold cream is (a) W/O emulsion (b) O/W emulsion (c) Both a and b (d) None of the above Ans: (a) W/O emulsion 83. Vanishing cream is (a) O/W emulsion (b) W/O emulsion (c) All of the above (d) None of the above 13 Ans: (a) O/W emulsion 84. Which is the commonly used humectant in cosmetic preparation (a) Polyethylene glycol (b) IPA (Isopropyl alcohol) (c) Glycerol (d) None of the above Ans: (c) Glycerol 85. SPF stands for (a) Sun Permeation Factor (b) Sun Product factor (c) Sun Perfection factor (d) Sun Protection factor Ans: (d) Sun Protection factor 86. What is the ideal percentage of detergent used in dentifrices? (a) 1 – 5% (b) 1 – 9 % (c) 1 – 3 % (d) None of the above Ans: (c) 1 – 3 % 87. What is the ideal percentage of sweetening agents used in dentifrices? (a) 0.09 – 3% (b) 2 – 3% (c) 1 – 2% (d) 0.05 – 2% Ans: (a) 0.09 – 3% 88. The creamy appearance of shampoo is due to- (a) Pearlizers and opacifiers (b) Conditioning agent (c) Aesthetic additives (d) None of the above Ans: (a) Pearlizers and opacifiers 89. Hydroquinones are used as a (a) Preservatives (b) Buffer (c) Bleaching agent (d) None of the above Ans: (c) Bleaching agent 90. The ideal property of temporary hair colour is- (a) Do not penetrate into the hair (b) Can be easily rinsed off (c) Both A and B (d) None of the above Ans: (c) Both A and B 14 91. Which of the following dosage form is having maximum bioavailability? (a) Tablet (b) Parenteral (c) Emulsion (d) None of the above Ans: (b) Parenteral 92. Parenteral dosage form must be (a) Sterile (b) Clear (c) Isotonic (d) All the above Ans: (d) All the above 93. The usual volume for an intrathecal route of administration is (a) 0.5-2ml (b) 2-20ml (c) 1-4ml (d) 5-10ml Ans: (c) 1-4 ml 94. pKa for basic drug ranges from ——– (a) 3-7.5 (b) 5-8.5 (c) 7-11 (d) 11-13 Ans: (c) 7-11 95. X-ray powder diffractometry of amorphous form gives——- (a) Sharp peak (b) Diffused peak (c) Both sharp/diffused (d) None of the above Ans: (b) Diffused peak 96. Co- solvents can be used to is to improve ———- (a) Solubility (b) Dielectric constant (c) pKa (d) pH Ans: (a) Solubility 97. Chemical modification can be used to improve- (a) Solubility (b) Optical activity (c) Solvate formation (d) None Ans: (a) Solubility 98. Benzalkonium chloride is generally used as (a) Preservative 15 (b) Antioxidant (c) Surfactant (d) Solubilizing agent Ans: (a) Preservative 99. Distillation is one of the methods of preparation of –———- (a) WFI (b) Solution (c) Emulsion (d) None Ans: (a) WFI Water for injection 100. Which of the physical form gives rapid absorption and slow duration of action? (a) Crystalline form (b) Amorphous form (c) Both a and b (d) None of the above Ans: (b) Amorphous form 101. Limitation of aerosol (a) Portable (b) Cheap (c) Direct delivery to the site of action (d) The quick onset of action Ans: (b) Cheap 102. Propellants with a detrimental effect on the environment are (a) Chlorofluorocarbons (b) Hydrocarbons (c) Hydrofluoroalkanes (d) Compressed Gases Ans: (a) Chlorofluorocarbons 103. Aerosol is manufactured by (a) Pressure filling (b) Cold filling (c) a & b both (d) Compression Ans: (c) a & b both 104. Compressed gas systems needs (a) High initial pressure (b) Low initial pressure (c) No initial pressure (d) a & b both Ans: (a) High initial pressure 105. Aerosol made up of uncoated glass can withstand pressure upto (a) 18 psig (b) 25 psig (c) 140 psig 16 (d) 180 psig Ans: (a) 18 psig 106. CFC114 is (a) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane (b) Dichlorodifluoromethane (c) Tetra-fluoroethane (d) None of the above Ans: (a) Dichlorotetrafluoroethane 107. Second digit in the digital name of liquefied propellant refers to (a) Number of carbons – 1 (b) Number of hydrogens – 1 (c) Number of carbons + 1 (d) Number of hydrogens +1 Ans: (d) Number of hydrogens +1 108. The piezoelectric effect is associated with (a) MDI (b) Pneumatic jet nebulizer (c) Mesh Nebulizer (d) Ultrasonic nebulizer Ans: (d) Ultrasonic nebulizer 109. A propellant free inhaler is? (a) MDI (b) DPI (c) SVN (d) None of the above Ans: (b) DPI 110. Packaging should help in (a) presentation (b) Information (c) Identification (d) All of the above Ans: (d) All of the above 111. Vial is (a) Secondary Package (b) Primary package (c) Tertiary package (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Primary package 112. Which is the Tamper-evident technology (a) Heat-shrunk bands or wrappers (b) Aerosol container (c) Bottles with inner-mouth seals (d) All of the above Ans: (d) All of the above 17 113. Which is not child-resistant technology? (a) Push and turn down (b) Squeeze the sides and turn (c) Turn clockwise (d) Push down the tab and turn Ans: (c) Turn clockwise 114. Secondary package is (a) Cartons (b) Paper box (c) Blister pack (d) Ampoule Ans: (b) Paper box 115. Package Integrity Testing is performed for? (a) Dye leak (b) visual inspection (c) vacuum leak (d) All of the above Ans: (d) All of the above 116. Package information is governed by (a) Pharmacy Act (b) Drugs and Cosmetic Act (c) Dangerous drugs Act (d) All of the above Ans: (b) Drugs and Cosmetic Act 117. Alkali leaching from glass is assessed by (a) Water attack test (b) Water vapour permeability (c) Arsenic limit test (d) light transmission test Ans: (a) Water attack test 118. The volume of acid used in the Powdered Glass Test should be least for (a) Type I (b) Type II (c) Type III (d) NP Ans: (a) Type I 119. Maximum number of fragments allowed in Fragmentation test (a) 15 (b) 5 (c) 10 (d) 20 Ans: (a) 15 120. A homogenous mixture of two or more substances which has the same chemical composition and physical properties is called. 18 (a) Emulsion (b) Solution (c) Suspension (d) Ointment Ans: (b) Solution 121. A Solution is composed of. (a) Solute (b) Solvent. (c) Both A and B (d) None Ans: (c) Both A and B 122. A dispersion in which particle or solute size is maximum is called. (a) True Solution (b) Colloidal dispersion (c) Coarse dispersion (d) None (e) Ans: (c) Coarse dispersion 123. The physical properties which depends upon the sum of the properties of all the constituents of the solution, are called. (a) Constitutive properties (b) Colligative properties (c) Additive properties (d) None Ans: (c) Additive properties 124. Those solutes which do not ionize in the solution and such solution cannot conduct electricity are called (a) Electrolyte (b) Weak electrolyte (c) Non-electrolyte (d) Both A and B (e) Ans: (c) non-electrolyte 125. The Number of moles of solute per liter of solution is called (a) Normality (b) Molarity (c) Mole fraction (d) None Ans: (b) Molarity 126. In the concentration expression method PPM stands for (a) Parts per Molarity (b) Parts per Million (c) Parts per mole fraction (d) Both A and B Ans: (b) Parts per Million 19 127. On the basis of the concentration of solute present in the solution can be classified as (a) Saturated (b) Unsaturated (c) Super saturated (d) All above (e) Ans: (d) All above 128. If one part of the solute is dissolved in 1-10 parts of the solvent, then the solute will be (a) Soluble (b) Sparingly soluble (c) Freely soluble (d) None Ans: (c) Freely soluble 129. The solubility of gasses in liquids depends upon the following important factors (a) Pressure (b) Temperature (c) Presence of salt (d) All Ans: (d) All 130. A solution that resists the change in PH by the addition of small amount of acid or base is called (a) True solution (b) Ideal solution (c) Buffer solution (d) All Ans: (c) Buffer solution 131. Hydrolysis is the decomposition of a substance by the addition of …………. (a) Alcohol (b) Water (c) Glycerin (d) All Ans: (b) Water 132. The science and technology of small particles are known as (a) Rheology (b) Micromeritics (c) Physics (d) None Ans: (b) Micromeritics 133. Which of the method used for particle size and shape determination (a) Microcopy (b) Sieving method (c) Sedimentation 20 (d) All Ans: (d) All 134. Colloids in which the dispersed phase exhibits an affinity for the solvent or mediuare calleded (a) Lyophobic (b) Solvent hating (c) Lyophilic (d) Non Ans: (c) Lyophilic 135. Methods used for the purification of colloids are (a) Dialysis (b) Ultra Dialysis (c) None (d) Both A and B Ans: (d) Both A and B 136. Electro dialysis Methods used for the purification of (a) Suspension (b) Colloids (c) Emulsion (d) All Ans: (b) Colloids 137. Solvent hating colloids are known as (a) Lyophilic sol (b) Lyophobic sol (c) hydrophilic sol (d) All Ans: (b) Lyophobic sol 138. Factors Affecting Stability of colloids include (a) Presence of charge (b) Removal of charge (c) Both A and B (d) None Ans: (c) Both A and B 139. Artificial kidney Machine is used for the (a) Hemodialysis (b) Isolation of proteins (c) Purification of protein (d) All Ans: (a) Hemodialysis 140. Particle of colloidal dispersion can be seen with (a) Naked eye (b) Only ultra-microscope (c) Ordinary microscope (d) All Ans: (b) Only ultra-microscope 21 141. The phenomenon of light scattering by sol particles is called (a) Florescent effect (b) Tyndall effect (c) Gradient effect (d) None Ans: (b) Tyndall effect 142. The process by which the colloidal particles settled …….. in the dispersion medium due to the force of gravity is known as sedimentation. (a) Upward direction (b) Downward (c) Both A and B (d) None Ans: (b) Downward 143. The properties of colloids that depends upon the charge on colloidal particles are called …… properties of colloids. (a) Chemical (b) Electrical (c) Physical (d) None Ans: (b) Electrical 144. An ordinary emulsion is consisting of mixture of two immiscible liquids and an emulsion usually consist of…. (a) Oily phase (b) Aqueous phase (c) Emulsifying agent (d) All Ans: (d) Al 145. The type of emulsion in which the oily phase is dispersed as droplets throughout the aqueous phase is called................. Emulsion. (a) Water in oil (b) Oil in water (c) Multiple emulsion (d) None Ans: (b) Oil in water 146. Clear dispersion of oil in water or water in oil is designated as ………. and these emulsions are more stable with globules diameter is less than 0.1 micro meters. (a) Water in oil (b) Micro emulsion (c) Multiple emulsion (d) None Ans: (b) Micro emulsion 147. Different identification method are used to identify type of emulsion which included the following method (a) Dilution test 22 (b) Conductivity test (c) Fluorescent test (d) All Ans: (d) All 148. In conductivity test if emulsion conduct electric current to pass through it, it indicates emulsion is ……… type emulsion. (a) Water in oil (b) Oil in water (c) None (d) All Ans: (b) Oil in water 149. Milk is example of natural ……. (a) Suspension (b) Cream (c) O/W Emulsion (d) All Ans: (c) O/W Emulsion 150. HLB stands for ……. that are helpful to determine the type of emulsion. (a) Highly lipophilic base (b) High low balance (c) Hydrophilic lipophilic balance (d) All Answer: (c) Hydrophilic lipophilic balance 151. Process of emulsification is determined by various theories included… (a) Surface tension theory (b) Oriented wedge theory (c) Interfacial film theory (d) All Ans: (d) All 152. The type of emulsion in which o/w or w/o are dispersed in another liquid medium to produce w/o/w or o/w/o emulsion is called ……. ….. Emulsion. (a) Micro emulsion (b) Oil in water (c) Multiple emulsion (d) None Ans: (c) Multiple emulsion 153. Example of Natural emulsifying agent included…… (a) Acacia (b) Egg yolk (c) Both A and B (d) None Ans: (c) Both A and B 23 154. Cholesterol, bees Wax, wool fat, egg yolk, lecithin, gelatin and acacia gum are classified as…… (a) Artificial emulsifier (b) Natural emulsifier (c) Both A and B (d) Semi-synthetic. Ans: (b) Natural emulsifier 155. Emulsions are prepared by ……. (a) Dry gum method (b) Wet gum method (c) Both A and B (d) None Ans: (c) Both A and B 156. For preparation of emulsions, if oil is triturated with gum and then water is added for making primary emulsion this method is called as… (a) Wet gum method (b) Bottle method (c) Dry gum method (d) Both B and C Ans: (c) Dry gum metho 157. If O/W type emulsion is changed into W/O type emulsion this is called (a) Creaming (b) Phase inversion (c) Sedimentation (d) Both B and C Ans: (b) Phase inversion 158. Pharmaceutical emulsions instability factors included are (a) Creaming (b) Phase inversion (c) Coalescence (d) All Ans: (d) All 159. The size range of the suspended particles in pharmaceutical suspension are ranges…. (a) 1-10 (b) 0.5-5.0 µm (c) 5-10 (d) All Ans: (b) 0.5-5.0 µm 160. Qualities of good pharmaceutical suspension included are……. (a) Physical and Chemical stable (b) Easily pourable (c) Resist to microbes (d) All 24 Ans: (d) All 161. In which type of suspension particles form loose aggregates and form a network like structure. (a) Flocculated (b) Non flocculated (c) None (d) Both A and B Ans: (a) Flocculated 162. The use of thickening agent for formulation of suspension ……..….. Viscosity of suspension and makes it stable. (a) Decreases (b) Increases (c) None (d) Both A and B Ans: (d) Both A and B 163. For the formulation of pharmaceutical suspension which of the ingredients are required. (a) Flocculated agents (b) Dispersing agents (c) Wetting agents (d) All Ans: (d) All 164. Pharmaceutical application of suspension included are (a) Oral and injectable use (b) Topical and ophthalmic use (c) Both A and B (d) None Ans: (c) Both A and B 165. The internal resistance or friction to flow of liquids to relative motion of one molecule to another molecule is called as….. (a) Density (b) Viscosity (c) Surface tension (d) None Ans: (b) Viscosity 166. The type of deformation in which applied stress is removed and fluid comes back to its original structure, it is................. deformation or elastic deformation. (a) Irreversible (b) Reversible (c) Both A and B (d) None Ans: (b) Reversible 167. Non-Newtonian liquids are those whose …… and flow rates are affected by applying sheer stress. 25 (a) Density (b) Viscosity (c) Surface tension (d) None Ans: (b) Viscosity 168. The process of removing the water of crystallization from crystalline salt or substance is termed as………. (a) Exsiccation (b) Hydrations (c) Both A and B (d) Ignition Ans: (a) Exsiccation 169. Solvent used for extraction process are termed as…. (a) Menstruum (b) Marc (c) Filtrate (d) All Answer: (a) Menstruum 170. Extraction is a process of …………. of pharmaceutical active ingredients from plant or animal drugs with the help of suitable solvent. (a) Separation (b) Isolation (c) Mixing (d) Both A and B Ans: (d) Both A and B 171. Pharmacy is derived from Greek word that is.............. which means drug, medicine or remedy and it is life saving profession. (a) Pharmacognosy (b) Pharmakon (c) Pharmacology (d) Both A and B Ans: (b) Pharmakon 172. As the particle size is reduced, the surface area is increased which ……. the solubility of solid. (a) No effect (b) Decrease (c) Increase (d) Both A and B Ans: (c) Increase 173. The solubility of weakly acidic drugs is increased by increasing the pHof the media and solubility of weakly basic drugs is increased by ………. the pH of media. (a) No effect (b) Decrease (c) Increase 26 (d) Both A and B Ans: (b) Decrease 174. A department in the hospital run under the direction and supervision of a legally qualified and professionally competent pharmacist, is termed as………. (a) Clinical pharmacy (b) Retail pharmacy (c) Hospital pharmacy (d) Both A and B Ans: (c) Hospital pharmacy 175. Extraction is a process of ………….. of pharmaceutical active ingredients from plant or animal drugs with the help of suitable solvent. (a) Separation (b) Isolation (c) Mixing (d) Both A and B Ans: (d) Both A and B 176. The ….…. are concentrated preparations of vegetables or animal drugs obtained by removal of the active constituents of the respective drug with suitable menstrum, evaporation of all or nearly all solvent. (a) Menstrum (b) Extractive (c) Filtrate (d) All Ans: (b) Extractive 177. The process of reducing the particle size by continuous grinding the powders in the pestle and mortar by the use of small amount of liquid in which solid is not soluble is known as….. (a) Levigation (b) Trituration (c) Both A and B (d) Pulverization Ans: (a) Levigation 178. The process of diffusion in which particles moves from area of higher concentration to the lower concentration through semi permeable membrane is called. (a) Dialysis (b) Osmosis (c) Infusion (d) All Ans: (b) Osmosis 179. The chemical substances which are used to reduce the interfacial tension to increase thesolubility of liquids is known as ……. (a) Surfactant (b) Polymer 27 (c) Dispersing agent (d) All Ans: (a) Surfactant 180. To identify the emulsion type, which of the following tests are conducted? (a) Dilution test (b) Dye test (c) Conductivity test (d) All Ans: (d) All 181. Which of the following is not used as an emulsifying agent? (a) Surfactant (b) Hydrophilic colloid (c) Electrolytes (d) Finely divided solids Ans: (c) Electrolytes 182. Which of the following is not a semisolid dosage form? (a) Paste (b) Creams (c) Ointments (d) Suspensions Ans: (d) Suspensions 183. Generally pastes contain (a) High percentage of insoluble solids (b) Low percentage of insoluble solids (c) Both (d) None Ans: (a) High percentage of insoluble solids 184. Which of the following hydrocarbon waxes are employed in the manufacture of creams and ointments? (a) Paraffin wax (b) Ceresin (c) Both (d) None Ans: (b) Ceresin 185. Which of the following polyols used as humectants in creams? (a) Glycerine (b) Propylene glycol (c) Sorbitol 70% (d) All the above Ans: (d) All the above 186. In the preparation of vanishing creams, which types of bases are used generally? (a) Absorption bases (b) Water removable bases 28 (c) Hydrocarbon bases (d) None Ans: (b) Water removable bases 187. In the preparation of cold creams, which types of bases are used generally? (a) Absorption bases (b) Water removable bases (c) Hydrocarbon bases (d) None Ans: (a) Absorption bases 188. Water soluble bases are also known as (a) Greasy ointment bases (b) Greaseless ointment bases (c) Both (d) None Ans: (b) Greaseless ointment bases 189. A suppository is generally intended for use in (a) Rectum (b) Vagina (c) Urethra (d) All the above Ans: (d) All the above 190. Vaginal suppositories also called as (a) Pessaries (b) Simple suppositories (c) Bougies (d) None Ans: (a) Pessaries 191. Which of the following method is used to manufacture suppositories (a) Hand molding (b) Compression molding (c) Pour molding (d) All the above Ans: (d) All the above 192. Who is the father of medicine? (a) Ebers (b) Hippocrates (c) Egyptian (d) Pontus Ans: (b) Hippocrates 193. The first edition of I.P. was published in……… (a) 1965 (b) 1975 (c) 1955 (d) 1985 29 Ans: (c) 1955 194. The “Pharmacy Act” came in force in …………. (a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1949 (d) 1950 Ans: (b) 1948 195. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) was established in ………… (a) 1947 (b) 1948 (c) 1949 (d) 1950 Ans: (c) 1949 196. Suspending agents imparts ………….. (a) Solubility (b) Viscosity (c) Absorption (d) Wetting Ans: (b) Viscosity 197. Enemas are administered ………….. (a) Rectally (b) Orally (c) Parenteral (d) Externally Ans: (a) Rectally 198. Powders are more stable than ………….. (a) Syrup (b) Tablet (c) Capsule (d) Elixirs Ans: (a) Syrup 199. Bulk powders are ………………. (a) Potent (b) Non-potent (c) Both a and b (d) None Ans: (b) non-potent 200. Drugs converted to suitable forms are known as …………. (a) Excipient (b) Dosage forms (c) Source of drug (d) API Ans: (b) Dosage forms 30 Section- B (Pharmacy Law and Ethics) 31 1. of pharmacist is essential for maintain the standards of pharmacy profession. a) License b) Qualification c) Registration d) None Ans: c) Registration 2. members are nominated by state government in state pharmacy council. a) Three to five b) Two c) Six d) Five Ans: d) Five 3. Education Registration is published in a) Parliament b) Official Gazette c) Loksabha assembly d) None Ans: b) Official Gazette 4. Joint state pharmacy council is constituted under section of pharmacy act a) 19 b) 20 c) 21 d) 42 Ans: b) 20 5. For registration of pharmacist in state, the pharmacy act provides for constitution of a) Registrar of co-operative society b) None c) Registrar of central pharmacy council d) Registrar of state pharmacy council Ans: d) Registrar of state pharmacy council 6. is the father of medicine a) Aristotle 32 b) Gallon c) Hippocrates d) None Ans: c) Hippocrates 7. was founded by Dr. Khwaja Abdul Hamied. a) Ranbaxy industries b) Lupin c) Aurobindo Pharma d) Cipla Ans: d) Cipla 8. The first pharmacy class was started in a) Sagar University b) Banaras University c) Rajputana University d) Madras Medical College Ans: d) Madras Medical college 9. First register is prepared by a) Central Government b) Registrar of State Pharmacy Council c) State Government d) Registration Tribunal Ans: d) Registration Tribunal 10. For registration of pharmacist in state was done by a) Register of co-operative b) Register of Central Pharmacy c) Register of State Pharmacy Council d) None Ans: c) Register of state pharmacy council 11. Central register of pharmacist is maintained by a) Central government b) AICTE c) State government d) PCI Ans: d) PCI 33 12. PCI was constituted in a) 1951 b) 1950 c) 1949 d) 1955 Ans: c) 1949 13. The Penalty for offence “Dispensing by unregistered persons” are- a) Imprisonment for a term which may extent to 6 months, or with fine not exceeding one thousand rupees or with both b) Life time imprisonment c) Fine up to fifty rupees d) None Ans: a) Imprisonment for a term which may extent to 6 months, or with fine not exceeding one thousand rupees or with both 14. The pharmacist should keep in mind the following point while dealing with his trade a) Price structure b) Fair trade practice c) Purchase of drug d) All Ans: d) All 15. Drug enquiry committee constituted in a) 1948 b) 1950 c) 1931 d) None Ans: c) 1931 16. Minimum hrs of training required to be a registered pharmacist. a) 100hrs b) 300hrs c) 400hrs d) 500hrs Ans: d) 500 hrs 17. Drug Import Bill was passed in the year a) 1935 b) 1937 34 c) 1939 d) 1941 Ans: b) 1937 18. Jurisprudence is the study of a) Public health b) Fundamental legal principles c) Maternity health d) Health education Ans: b) Fundamental legal principles 19. The instruments of legislation are a) Act b) Section c) Orders d) All of above Ans: d) All of the above 20. PCI is reconstituted at every a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 4 years d) 5 years Ans: d) 5 years 21. The main object of Pharmacy Act, 1948 is a) To regulate import, distribution of drug b) To regulate the profession & practice of pharmacy c) To raise the status of profession of pharmacy d) Both b &c Ans: d) Both b &c 22. means Pharmacy Council of India a) Central Council b) Pharmacy Council c) State Council d) None of the above Ans: a) Central Council 23. is responsible for evolving educational standards and regulations for the course in pharmacy through education regulations. a) Pharmacy Act b) d & c Act c) Education Act d) Indian Patent Act Ans: a) Pharmacy Act 35 24. Following are the ex-officio member of PCI expect- a) Drug Inspector b) Drug Controller of India c) Director general of health services d) Director of Central Drug Laboratory Ans: a) Drug Inspector 25. : A person registered or eligible for registration in a medical register of the state meant for the registration of a person practicing a modern scientific system of medicine. a) Registered Pharmacist b) Displaced person c) Medical Practitioner d) None of the above Ans: c) Medical Practitioner 26. University grants commission established under section of UGC Act, 1956. a) Section 3 b) Section 4 c) Section 10 d) Section 3A Ans: b) Section 4 27. Pharmacy Act, 1948 provides for the constitution of central council under by Central Government. a) Section 3 b) Section 4 c) Section 3 of Chapter 1 d) Section 4 of Chapter 1 Ans: c) Section 3 of Chapter 1 28. The function of Pharmacy Council of India. a) To prescriber minimum standard of education b) To regulate minimum educational standard c) To compile and maintain central register for pharmacist d) All of the above Ans: d) All of the above 29. Qualification in pharmacy granted outside India can be recognized by a) Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) b) University Grant Commission (UGC) c) Drugs Advisory Board (DTAB) d) Drug controller of India Ans: a) Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) 30. Pharmacy acts extends to the role of India except the state a) Rajasthan b) Assam 36 c) Jammu & Kashmir d) Himachal Pradesh Ans: c) Jammu & Kashmir 31. Who was the first chemist in India? a) Bathgate b) Aristotle c) Galen d) Ramanuja Ans: a) Bathgate 32. When did the Pharmacy Act 1948, come into force? a) 01 April 1949 b) 04 March 1948 c) 01 May 1949 d) 23 April 1948 Ans: b) 04 March 1948 33. Section 25 of the pharmacy Act 1948 deals with a) Withdrawal of approval b) Term of office and casual vacancies c) Education regulations d) The Executive Committee Ans: b) Term of office and casual vacancies 34. Pharmacy Council of India (PCI) is reconstituted a) Every 2year b) Every 3year c) Every 5year d) Every 7year Ans: c) Every 5year 35. Section 10 of Pharmacy Act deals with a) Responsibility for payment of wages. b) Education regulations. c) Incorporation of Central Council. d) Fixation of cuage periods. Ans: b) Education regulation 36. Total nominated member in state Pharmacy Council includes a) 5 members b) 7 members c) 8 members d) 9 members Ans: a) 5 members 37. First register is published by a) State govt. b) Central govt. c) Judicial body 37 Ans: a) State govt. 38. Total no of elected members in PCI is a) 7 members b) 6 members c) 8 members d) 5 members Ans: c) 8 members 39. The Education Regulation (ER) is published in the official gazette by a) Ministry of Education b) Central government c) President, d) Pharmacy Council of India Ans: b) Central government 40. The Penalty for falsely claiming to be a registered pharmacist is a) Rs 200 b) Rs 500 c) Rs 500 for the first conviction and RS 1000/6 month of second conviction Ans: c) Rs 500 for the first conviction and RS 1000/6 month of second conviction 41. The penalty for dispensing by an unregistered person is a) Rs 500/6 months b) Rs 1000/6 months c) Rs 2000/6 months d) Rs 1000/6 months Ans: b) Rs 1000/6 months 42. Course of study is covered in which section of the pharmacy act? a) Section 3 b) Section 9 c) Section 12 d) Section 18 Ans: b) Section 12 43. The current president of PCI (2022) is a) Dr. Promod Yale b) Dr. B Suresh c) Dr. Montu Kumar Patel d) Dr. Joseph Bhore Ans: c) Dr. Montu Kumar Patel 44. The approval of course study and examination include which section of pthe harmacy act? a) Section 10 b) Section 12 c) Section 13 d) Section 19 Ans: b) Section 12 38 45. Section 17 of the pharmacy act 1948 provides a) Information to be furnished. b) The central register. c) Renewal fees. Ans: a) Information to be furnished. 46. The Pharmacy Act constituted in a) 1940 b) 1949 c) 1945 d) 1948 Ans: d) 1948 47. When did the Pharmacy Act 1948 come into force? a) 01 April 1949 b) 04 March 1948 c) 01 May 1949 d) 23 April 1948 Ans: b) 04 March 1948 48. Which section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals wthe Inter-State agreements? a) Section 12 of the pharmacy act 1948 b) Section 9 of the pharmacy act 1948 c) Section14 of the pharmacy act 1948 d) Section 20 of the pharmacy act 1948 Ans: d) Section 20 of the pharmacy act 1948 49. Which section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with inspection? a) Section 16 of the pharmacy act 1948 b) Section 14 of the pharmacy act 1948 c) Section 13 of the pharmacy act 1948 d) Section 18 of the pharmacy act 1948 Ans: a) Section 16 of the pharmacy act 1948 50. Section 25 of pharmacy act 1948 deals with ? a) Withdrawal of approval b) Term of office and casual vacancies c) Education Regulations d) The Executive committee Ans: b) Term of office and casual vacancies 51. Composition of joint state councils, is provided in a section of the pharmacy act of 1948 a) Section 24 of the pharmacy act 1948 b) Section 22 of the pharmacy act 1948 c) Section 21 of the pharmacy act 1948 d) Section 23 of the pharmacy act 1948 Ans: c) Section 21 of the pharmacy act 1948 39 52. Section 17 of the pharmacy act 1948 provides_ ? a) Information to be furnished b) Approved courses of study and examinations c) The Central Register d) Renewal fees Ans: a) Information to be furnished 53. Which section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with the president and vice-president of the central council? a) Section 7 of the pharmacy act 1948 b) Section 4 of the pharmacy act 1948 c) Section 5 of the pharmacy act 1948 d) Section 9 of the pharmacy act 1948 Ans: c) Section 5 of the pharmacy act 1948 54. Section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with ? a) Preparation and maintenance of the register b) Removal from the register c) Scrutiny of applications for registration d) Appointment of commission of enquiry Ans: a) Preparation and maintenance of the register 55. Which section of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with the incorporation of the central council? a) Section 7 of the pharmacy act 1948 b) Section 90 of the pharmacy act 1948 c) Section 4 of the pharmacy act 1948 d) Section 5 of the pharmacy act 1948 Ans: c) Section 4 of the pharmacy act 1948 56. Section 16 of the pharmacy act 1948 deals with a) Responsibility for payment of wages. b) Fixation of wage periods c) Inspection process d) Incorporation of central council Ans: c) Inspection process 57. One of the following is not correct in the main objectives of pharmacy act 1948 of India a) Restoration of pharmacy profession in its due place in the health service. b) Raising the status of pharmacy profession. c) To regulate the profession of pharmacy. d) To have common syllabus of pharmacy throughout India. Ans: a) Restoration of pharmacy profession in its due place in the health service 58. Penalty for failure to surrender certificate of registration 40 a) Rs 1000 b) Rs 100 c) Rs 500 d) Rs50 Ans: d) Rs 50 59. Penalty for dispensing by unregistered pharmacists a) Rs 1000 fine b) 6 months of imprisonment c) Both A and B d) Rs 500 fine only Ans: c) Both A and B 60. Joint state pharmacy council constituted for how many years a) 2 years b) 3years c) years as per agreed by participating states d) 10years Ans: c) Years as per agreed by participating states. 61. What is the total no of members of state pharmacy council of PCI? a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) None of the above Ans: a) 15 62. All the members of the PCI are eligible for a) Re-nomination b) Re-election c) Both a & b d) None of the above Ans: c) Both a & b 63. Removal of name from the register in condition a) If his name is entered by an error b) If he has been convicted of an offence in any professional c) If he doesn’t renew his registration d) All of the above Ans: d) All of the above 64. Which of the following is the sample of magic remedies? 41 a) Talisman b) Mantra c) Kavacha d) All of the above Ans: d) All of the above 65. Advertisement of drug claiming cure of disease mentioned in schedule is a) Granted b) Prohibited c) Exempted d) None of the above Ans: b) Prohibited 66. Display of signboard or notice by registered medical practitioner on his premises fall under. a) Regular advertisement b) Permitted advertisement c) Exempted advertisement d) Prohibited advertisement Ans: d) Permitted advertisement 67. Identify the class of advertisement related to drugs that is prohibited. a) Printed or published by the government. b) Sent confidentially to Rp. c) For the correction of menstrual disorders in women. d) Including any book or treatise. Ans: c) For the correction of menstrual disorders in women. 68. The drug and magic remedies act come in to force in? a) 1930 b) 1937 c) 1944 d) 1955 Ans: d) 1955 69. Advertisement means: a) Any notice, circular label, wrapper or other document. b) Any announcement made orally or by one means of producing or transmitting light, sound or smoke. c) Both a & b d) None of the above Ans: b) Any announcement made orally or by one means of producing or transmitting light, sound or smoke. 42 70. The objective of drug and magic remedies act is: a) To promote certain type of advertisements related to drug which mislead public b) To prohibit ads related to magic remedies with false claims. c) To provide uniform education and training to the pharmacists. d) To regulate profession of pharmacy. Ans: b) To prohibit ads related to magic remedies with false claims. 71. The drug and magic remedies (objectionable advertisement). Rules were introduced in which year? a) 1954 b) 1953 c) 1955 d) 1948 Ans: a) 1954 72. Any substance intended to be used for or in the diagnosis, cure, mitigation, treatment, or prevention of disease in human beings or animal is called: a) Magic remedies b) Drug c) Kauacha d) Both b &c Ans: b) Drug 73. Which of the following schedule of drugs and cosmetic rules in 1945 deals with objectionable advertisements? a) Schedule F b) Schedule H c) Schedule J d) Schedule C Ans: b) Schedule H 74. Whoever contravenes any of the provisions of this act (First conviction) shall be punished with a) Imprisonment up to 1 year or with a fine or both. b) Imprisonment up to 6 months or with a fine or both. c) Only a fine of Rs 1000/- d) None of the above. Ans: b) Imprisonment up to 6 months or with fine or both. 75. According to the act exempted advertisement is- a) For the maintenance or improvement of the capacity of human beings for sexual pleasure. 43 b) Any advertisement relating to any drug sent confidentially in the manner prescribed under section 16 only to a registered medical practice. c) Both a & b d) Advertisement published by state government. Ans: b) Any advertisement relating to any drug sent confidentially in the manner prescribed under section 16 only to a registered medical practice. 76. What is the definition of a “Magic Remedy”? a) Talisman, mantra, kavacha or any other charm or any substance alleged to possess miraculous powers to diagnose, cure mitigate, treat or prevent a disease in human or animals. b) Any substance natural or synthetic or any salt or preparation of such substance or material include in the list of psychotropic substance specified. c) Any substance, weather processed, partially processed or unprocessed, which is intended for human consumption. d) Ethyl alcohol of any strength and purity having the chemical composition C2H5OH. Ans: a) Talisman, mantra, kavacha or any other charm or any substance alleged to possess miraculous powers to diagnose, cure mitigate, treat or prevent a disease in human or animals. 77. Which of the following is example of prohibited advertisement? a) For the procurement of, is carriage in women or prevention of contraception in women. b) Directly or indirectly gives a false impression regarding the true character of the drug. c) Both a& b d) Advertisement published by state governments. Ans: c) Both a & b 78. The sea custom act was passed in the year_ a) 1868 b) 1858 c) 1877 d) 1878 Ans: d) 1878 79. According to the provisions of this act, any Gazzetted officer appointed by processing the powers of entry, search etc, within the local limits of the area. a) State Government b) Central Government c) Self-government 44 d) None of the above Ans: a) State Government 80. Any substances intended to be used for or in the diagnosis disease in human beings or animal is called- a) Lepa b) Churans c) Kavachas d) Bhasmas Ans: c) Kavachas 81. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported? a) Toilet preparations b) Ayurvedic drugs c) Schedule C, G drugs. d) Misbranded drugs Ans: d) Misbranded drug 82. In 1954 of the following acts is passed – a) Narcotic and psychotropic substance act. b) Drug and remedies act. c) The medical termination of pregnancy act. d) Poisonous act. Ans: d) Poisonous act. 83. “Registered medical practitioner” means any person- a) Who had qualification granted by an authority specified in, or notified under section 30 the Indian Medical Degrees Act 1916(7 of 1916). b) Who hold a qualification granted by an authority specified in the schedules to the Indian Medical Council Act, 1956(102 of 1956). c) Both a&b. d) None of the above. Ans: c) Both a&b. 84. Any announcement made orally or by means of producing or transmitting light, sound or smoke known as- a) Order b) Commitment c) Resolution d) Advertisement Ans: d) Advertisement 85. The drug and magic remedies act 1954 extend to the whole of India except the state of- a) Mumbai b) Jammu & Kashmir c) Kolkata 45 d) Tamil Nadu Ans: b) Jammu & Kashmir 86. CAMO of state comes under composition of a) Elected member b) Ex- officio member c) Nominated member d) None of the above Ans: b) Ex- officio member 87. Function of central council is – a) Design of the educational pattern. b) Education Regulation. c) Giving practical training. d) All of the above. Ans: d) All of the above. 88. The pharmacy council of India is required to maintain a register containing the name of- a) All registered pharmacists. b) Elected member of state. c) Nominated member of Central Council. d) Offences of pharmacy. Ans: a) All registered pharmacist. 89. Hatch Waxman act also known as a) Spurious drugs Act b) Over the counter drugs c) Dangerous drugs Act d) Banned drugs Ans: a) Spurious drugs Act 90. Upon entry of the name of the person in the register, the “Register” is required to issue to him a a) Prize b) Application form c) Receipt d) Certificate Ans: d) Certificate 91. Poison act was implemented in the year- a) 1911 b) 1919 c) 1986 d) 1929 Ans: b) 1919 92. The main objective of poison act was- a) To achieve adequate supply. b) To achieve equitable distribution. 46 c) To import poison. d) To regulate and control, import, possession and sale of poison. Ans: d) To regulate and control, import, possession and sale of poison. 93. According to poison act Central Government is authorized to – a) Regulate possession and sale of poison. b) Regulate import of poison. c) Both a & b. d) None of the above. Ans: b) Regulate import of poison 94. According to poison act state government are authorized to- a) Regulate import poison. b) Regulate possession of poison. c) Regulate possession for sale and sale of poison. d) Both b & c. Ans: d) Both b & c. 95. Following are the powers of state government- a) Granting license. b) Deciding on whom to give the license. c) Fixing the maximum quantity of poison to be sold to a person. d) All of the above. Ans: d) All of the above. 96. Penalty for unlawful importation, possession for sale and sale of poison for the first conviction is- a) Imprisonment up to 5 months and fine up to Rs 1000. b) Imprisonment up to 3 months and fine up to Rs 500. c) Imprisonment up to 5 months and fine up to Rs 1000 or both. d) Imprisonment up to 3 months and fine up to Rs 500 or both. Ans: d) Imprisonment up to 3 months and fine up to Rs 500 or both. 97. Penalty for unlawful importation, possession for sale and sale of poison for the second conviction is- a) Imprisonment up to 10 months and fine up to 2000 Rs. b) Imprisonment up to 6 months and fine up to 1000 Rs. c) Imprisonment up to 10 months and fine up to 2000 Rs or both. d) Imprisonment up to 6 months and fine up to 1000 Rs or both. Ans: d) Imprisonment up to 6 months and fine up to 1000 Rs or both. 98. List of poisons are- a) Aconite. b) Belladonna. c) Cantharide. d) All of the above. Ans: d) All of the above. 47 99. List of poisons are- a) Carbolic acids. b) Zinc chlorides. c) Chloroform. d) All of the above. Ans: d) All of the above. 100. This act, do not with anything done in good faith in the exercise by medical veterinary practitioner. a) Mix b) Support c) Interferes d) Protect Ans: c) Interferes 101. The objective of poisons act, 1919 is to regulate and control- a) Display of poison. b) Effect of poison. c) Sale of poison. d) All of the above Ans: c) Sale of poison. 102. The state government has power to make rules for specified poisons in case of a) The maximum quantity of poison may be sold. b) Safe custody of poison. c) Inspection and examination. d) All of the above. Ans: d) All of the above. 103. The state government has power to make rules for specified poison in case of a) Adverse effects of poison. b) Publicity of poison. c) Maintenance of register. d) All of the above. Ans: c) Maintenance of register 104. The punishment for breaking the rule for specified poison under this act is a) Imprisonment up to 1 year. b) Fine up to Rs 1000/-. c) Confiscation of the poison. d) All of the above. Ans: d) All of the above. 105. The poisonous substances from the list are exempted from certain provisions of the act a) A 48 b) B c) Both A& B d) C Ans: b) B 106. Identify the offence as per poisons act, 1919. a) Sale of poison as per license conditions. b) Granted possession of poison. c) Unlawful sale of poison. d) None of the above. Ans: c) Unlawful sale of poison. 107. Identify the poison specified in list as per poison act 1919. a) Aconite b) Arsenic c) Atropine d) All of the above Ans: d) All of the above 108. When did the Narcotic drugs and Psychotropic substances act, 1985, come into force a) 01 April 1986 b) 01 March 1986 c) 14 November 1985 d) 23 April 1985 Ans: c) 14 November 1985 109. The dangerous drugs act was passed in the year a) 1830 b) 1930 c) 1530 d) 1830 Ans: b) 1930 110. Who regulates possession, transport, interstate import and export, warehousing, sale, purchase, consumption, and use of poppy straw? a) State government b) District officer c) Central government d) President Ans: b) District office 111. means a person who has dependence on any narcotic drug or psychotropic substance. a) Metho b) Addict c) Druggy 49 d) Abuser Ans: a) Metho 112. The penalty for illegal importer export or external dealings in narcotic drugs or psychotropic substance is a) Fine between Rs 10,000 and more. b) Rigorous imprisonment for up to 6 months or fine. c) Fine between Rs 1 to 2 lacks or more. d) Rigorous imprisonment for up to 1 year. Ans: c) Fine between Rs 1 to 2 lacks or more. 113. The narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances consultative committee may constitute by a) District officer b) Central government c) President d) State government Ans: b) Central government 114. Section 25 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 deals with a) Punishment for embezzlement of opium by cultivator b) Punishment for allowing premises, etc., to be used for commission of an offence c) Punishment for contravention in relation to psychotropic substance d) Punishment for contravention in relation to poppy straw Ans: b) Punishment for allowing premises, etc., to be used for commission of an offense 115. Which section of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 deals with the power of the central government to permit control and regulate? a) Section 12 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. b) Section 9 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. c) Section 14 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. d) Section 20 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. Ans: b) Section 9 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. 116. Punishment for contravention in relation to manufactured drugs andpreparations is provided in section of the Narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. a) Section 24 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. b) Section 22 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. c) Section 21 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. d) Section 23 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. Ans: c) Section 21 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. 117. Coca, opium and hemp are under a) Insecticide Act 50 b) Poisons Act c) Dangerous Drug Act d) Spurious drug Act Ans: c) Dangerous Drug Act 118. Which section of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 deals with central government to take measures for preventing and combating abuse of and illicit traffic in narcotic drugs, etc.? a) Section 7 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 b) Section 4 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 c) Section 5 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 d) Section 9 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 Ans: c) Section 5 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 119. Section 12 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 deals with ? a) Restriction over external dealings in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances. b) Prohibition of certain operations. c) Punishment for contravention in relation to prepared opium. d) Punishment for certain acts by the license or his servants. Ans: a) Restriction over external dealings in narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances. 120. Which Section of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 deals with the enhanced punishment for offences after a previous conviction? a) Section 37 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. b) Section 31 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. c) Section 34 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. d) Section 35 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985. Ans: b) Section 31 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 121. Section 10 of the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act 1985 deals with ? a) Power to stop and search conveyance. b) Report of arrest and seizure c) Power of the state government to permit, control and regulate d) Power to call for nation, etc. Ans: c) Power of the state government to permit, control and regulate 122. According to provisions given under NDPS act 1985 Opium and Coca cultivation and 51 a) Opium and Coca cultivation and gathering can be permitted and regulated only by Central government. b) Opium and Coca cultivation and gathering can be regulated and permitted both by Central and State governments. c) Cannabis consumption can be regulated only by Central government. d) Manufacture of medicinal opium is to be done only by State government. Ans: b) Opium and Coca cultivation and gathering can be permitted and regulated only by Central government. 123. Which of the following are psychotropic substances under the narcotic drugs and psychotropic substances act? a) Barbital (barbiturate) b) Ampicillin (antibiotic) c) Albendazole (anti parasitic) d) Chloroquine (anti malaria) Ans: a) Barbital (barbiturate) 124. Opium act was introduced in which year? a) 1857 b) 1878 c) 1934 d) 1940 Ans: a) 1857 125. Opium is obtained from a) Dubosia plant. b) Poppy plant c) Cinchona d) Nux vomica Ans: b) Poppy plant 126. In which yeardangerous drugs act came in force a) 1919 b) 1925 c) 1930 d) 1940 Ans: a) 1919 127. Narcotics and dangerous drugs act came in force on a) 14th November 1920. b) 14th November 1930. c) 14th November 1940. d) 14th November 1985. Ans: d) 14th November 1985. 52 128. Minimum percentage of morphine in any pharmaceutical preparation must be a) Not more than 0.2%. b) Not more than 0.5%. c) Not more than 1%. d) Not more than 1.5%. Ans: a) Not more than 0.2%. 129. Poppy straw indicates a) All parts of poppy plant except the seeds. b) All parts of poppy plant including the seeds. c) All parts of poppy plant except the leaves. d) None of the above. Ans: c) All parts of poppy plant except the seeds. 130. Central government opium factories are located in a) Ghazipur b) Telangana c) Chhattisgarh d) Aurangabad Ans: a) Ghazipur 131. Psychotropic substances that are not allowed to be which of the schedules a) Schedule 1. b) Schedule 2. c) Schedule 3. d) None. Ans: b) Schedule 2. 132. The dangerous drugs act was implemented into the indications of a) Opium b) Narcotic drugs. c) CNS stimulant drugs. d) None of these. Ans: c) CNS stimulant drugs. 133. Match the following A Kurchi 1 Murexide Test 2 Anti –cholinergic activity B Marquis Test 3 Barley C Caffeine 4 D Dubosia Opium Ans. A 3, B 4, C 1, D 2 134. Which of the state includes opium factories? a) Himachal Pradesh 53 b) Maharashtra c) Andhra Pradesh d) Madhya Pradesh Ans: d) Madhya Pradesh 135. Schedule X drugs and Cosmetics act comprises a) List of incurable diseases b) Guidelines for clinical trails c) List of generic drugs d) None of the above Ans: d) None of the above 136. As per D and C act “Schedule N” is related with a) List of maximum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy b) Area for opening retail pharmacy c) List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy d) Area required to open a Wholesale drug Ans: c) List of minimum equipments for efficiently running pharmacy 137. As per D and C act “Schedule FF” is related with a) Parenteral preparation b) Ointment formulation c) Skin cosmetic preparation d) Ophthalmic preparation Ans: c) Skin cosmetic preparation 138. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under schedule …….. as per Drug and Cosmetic act. a) R b) R1 c) S d) O Ans: a) R 139. Pack size of the drug is covered under a) Schedule P b) Schedule P1 c) Schedule R d) Schedule O Ans: b) Schedule P1 140. For license granted to sellretail drugs, specified in schedule C and C (1) drugs from no. required is…. a) 20 b) 20B c) 21 d) 21B Ans: a) 20 141. In Phase -2 trial following number of patients should be studied a) 10-12 patient 54 b) 1-10 patient c) 100 patients d) 500 patients Ans: 10-12 patients 142. DTAB has ---- Ex officio members. a) Five b) Six c) Four d) Eight Ans: d) Eight 143. For schedule X drug use of Human beings special labeling requirement require is a) Symbol X given in red. b) Symbol N is red displayed on left top corner of the label. c) Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label. d) Symbol H displayed on right corner of the label. Ans: a) Symbol X given in red. 144. Aspirin sodium comes under a) Schedule G b) Schedule H c) Schedule J d) Schedule W Ans: Schedule H 145. The patent Act is established in a) 1948 b) 1940 c) 1970 d) 1919 Ans: c) 1970 146. Scheduled..........If drugs and cosmetics act include requirements and guidelines on clinical trials for import and manufacturing of new drugs. a) W b) X c) Y d) V Ans: c) Y 147. As per D and C act schedule T stated about a) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Medical device b) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Homeopathy drugs c) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs d) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Allopathy drugs 55 Ans: c) Requirements of factory premises for the manufacture of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs 148. List of drugs which should be used by patient under medical supervision is covered under a) Schedule G b) Schedule H c) Schedule I d) Schedule J Ans: b) Schedule H 149. Grant of license to manufacture a drug requires……. a) Form 24 b) Form 25 c) Form 26 d) Form 27 Ans: b) Form 25 150. Penalties for violating poisons act a) Lifetime imprisonment b) Fine of 1000 rupees c) Imprisonment of 1 year d) Both b and c Ans: d) Both b and c 151. List of coal tar colors permitted to be used in cosmetics is covered under a) Schedule O b) Schedule P c) Schedule Q d) Schedule R Ans: c) Schedule Q 152. Schedule J is related to a) GMP b) Curable disease c) List of disease and aliments which drug cannot claim. d) Pack sizes of drugs. Ans: c) List of disease and aliments which drug cannot claim 153. Schedule N states… a) List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy b) List of minimum equipment required for manufacturing of drug. c) Requirement of factory premises and hygienic condition to complied d) Standard for cosmetics Ans: b) List of minimum equipment for efficient running of pharmacy 154. Schedule C is related to……. a) List of Biological and Immunological product b) List of Homeopathy product 56 c) List of Ayurvedic product d) List of Allopathic product Ans: a) List of Biological and Immunological product 155. Pro-forma for sending a memorandum a) D b) A c) FF d) Q Ans: c) FF 156. Dettol comes under a) Schedule N b) Schedule O c) Schedule P d) Schedule Q Ans: b) Schedule O 157. Schedule D as per D and C Act is concerned with a) List of drugs exempted from the provision of import of drugs b) Disease or aliments which a drug may not purport to prevent or cure c) Requirements of factory premises d) List of prescription drugs Ans: List of drugs exempted from the provision of import of drugs 158. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, labeling and packaging are governed by special provisions included in schedule. a) X b) K c) H d) G Ans: c) Schedule H 159. The drug and cosmetic act has been divided into………parts. a) 15 b) 16 c) 18 d) 24 Ans: c) 18 160. Biologicals are tested at which of the following centre? a) Mumbai b) Hyderabad c) Delhi d) Kasauli Ans: (d) Kasauli 161. Match the applications to be made to obtain license for the manufacturing. 57 I. Drugs other than schedule i. 24 C and C1. II. Drugs specified in ii. 24A schedule C, C1 and X. III. Loan license iii. 27B IV. Repacking license iv. 24B a) a-iii, b-ii, c-iv, d-i b) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii c) a-i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv d) a-iv, b-ii, c-I, d-iii Ans: a) i, b-iii, c-ii, d-iv 162. Drugs and cosmetic rules 1945 objectionable advertisements deal with which schedule? a) Schedule F b) Schedule H c) Schedule J d) Schedule C Ans: c) Schedule J 163. Ophthalmic ointment must contain printed label of 1) It is dangerous to take this preparation except under medical supervision 2) Consult to physician if irritation persist, discontinue the use 3) Use within 1 month of opening 4) Store in cool place a) 1 b) 2 and 3 c) 1 and 3 d) 3 and 4 Ans: b) 2 and 3 164. Drugs and cosmetics are analyzed by a) State drug laboratory b) Central drug laboratory c) Control laboratory d) Both (a)and(b) Ans: Both (a) and (b) 165. In relation to Ayurveda, a Siddha or Unani drug inspector appointed by the central or state government in accordance with Article a) Section 33-G b) Section 33-F 58 c) Section 33-H d) Section 33-E Ans: a) Section 33-G 166. In connection to any other drugs and cosmetics act, an inspector is appointment by central or state government under section a) Section 10 b) Section 21 c) Section 22 d) Section 23 Ans: b) Section 21 167. In connection to ayurvedic, siddha or unani drug government analyst appointed under section a) Section 33-G b) Section 33-F c) Section 33-H d) Section 33-E Ans: b) Section 33-F 168. The first Schedule to the Drugs and Cosmetics Act, 1940 prescribes a) Standards for cosmetics b) Standards for medical devices c) Authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Sidhha and Unani Tibb System d) Standards of the drugs to be complied with by imported drugs Ans: c) Authoritative books of Ayurvedic, Sidhha and Unani Tibb System 169. What is the minimum area of the shop to obtain a wholesale licence to sell and stock drugs shall be a) Five square meters b) Ten square metres c) fifteen square metres d) twenty square metres Ans: c) Fifteen square meters 170. Who is the Chairman of Drug Technical Advisory Board? a) The Drugs Controller of India b) The President of Pharmacy Council of India c) The President of the Medical Council of India d) The Director General of Health Services Ans: d) the Director General of Health Services 171. Who has the power to fix the selling price of scheduled formulation? a) State Government b) Central Government c) Lok Sabha d) Rajya Sabha Ans: b) Central Government 172. The Drugs and Cosmetics Act Are……schedules 59 a) A to Y b) First and Second c) 1 to 25 d) (a) and (b) only Ans: b) First and Second 173. Which of the following is a ‘Patent r Proprietary Ayurvedic/Sidhha/Unani Medicine’ according to Drugs and Cosmetics Act? a) Parachute coconut oil b) Amrutanjan Balm c) Odomos insect repellent cream d) Arnica hair oil Ans: b) Amrutanjan Balm 174. Which of the words/particulars are necessary to be included in the labeling of Schedule G drugs for oral use? a) NOT FOR INJECTION b) Warning: If irritation persists or increases, discontinue use and consult physician. c) For External Use Only d) A Vertical redline on the left side of the label Ans: d) A Vertical redline on the left side of the label 175. Which of the following drug product will have NR on its label? a) Antihypertensive drug (B-blocker) b) Antimicrobial drug (Chloroquine) c) Narcotic analgesic (Morphine) d) Antidiabetic (Glibenclamide) Ans: c) Narcotic analgesic (Morphine) 176. Schedule K pertains to ……………. a) List of drugs that can be used with caution under medical supervision b) List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing import of drugs c) List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing manufacture and sale of drugs d) List of diseases that a drug cannot claim to cure Ans: c) List of drugs exempted from certain provisions governing manufacture and sale of drugs 177. According to the judgment of the Supreme Court, the drug and Cosmetics Act as the law of ………… a) Social b) Moral c) Economic d) Life Saving Ans: d) Life Saving 178. As Per Drugs and Cosmetic Act, standard drug is one 60 a) That Compiles with standard of official pharmacopoeia b) That compiles with international standards c) That compiles with the standard of nation and international. d) That compiles with the standard of Drug and Cosmetics Act. Ans: d) That compiles with the standard of Drug and Cosmetics Act. 179. Analysis and test of sample of vaccines are carried out at a) Central Indian pharmacopeia laboratory Ghaziabad b) Pasteur institute of India coonoor c) Central drug testing laboratories thana d) Central research institute, kaushali Ans: d) Central research institute, kaushali 180. The list of medicines exempt from import regulations is a) Schedule K b) Schedule D c) Schedule P d) Schedule y Ans: b) Schedule D 181. According to schedule M, the permissible solids limit value for water for injection purposes is… a) 10 ppm b) 100 ppm c) 0.1 ppm d) 1 ppm Ans: a) 10 ppm 182. The drugs consultative committee serves the following functions a) To secure uniformity in the act throughout India b) It advice government and various DTAB c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of the above Ans: c) Both (a) and (b) 183. Function of DCC is to a) Make to implement the drug and cosmetic act. b) Give consultation to Pharmaceutical Companies c) Advice the government in issues related to the drugs and Cosmetic Act. d) All the above Ans: c) Advice the government in issues related to the drugs and Cosmetic Act. 184. Standard of quality for drugs are prescribed in which schedule…… a) The first schedule to D and C act 1940 b) The second schedule to the D and C act 1940 c) The schedule D to the Drugs and cosmetic rules, 1945 d) The schedule J to the D and C rules, 1945. 61 Ans: b) The second schedule to the D and C act 1940 185. Cosmetics means any article intended to a) Affect the structure of the human body b) Destruct vermin of insects c) Alter the appearance of human body d) All of the above Ans: c) Alter the appearance of human body 186. Biological and microbiological analyses are conducted a) Central Research Institution, Kasauli b) National Institution of Biological, Noida c) Central drugs Research institute, Lucknow d) Central Drugs Laboratory, Kolkata. Ans: a) Central Research Institution, Kasauli 187. The particular to be shows in manufacturing raw materials and analytical of drugs is death under…. a) Schedule M b) Schedule U c) Schedule U1 d) Schedule W Ans: b) Schedule U 188. The words “For prophylactic use” or “For therapeutic use should be displayed on the label of a) Schedule X drugs b) Ophthalmic Ointment c) Paitent and proprietary preparations of vitamins d) Preparations for external use only Ans: a) Schedule X drugs 189. Cosmetic manufactures submitted an application to the licensing body in a) Form 31 b) Form 31 A c) Form 12 d) Form 32 A Ans: a) Form 31 190. The factories required for manufacturing of medical devices is dealt under…… a) Schedule M1 b) Schedule M2 c) Schedule M3 d) Schedule R1 Ans: c) Schedule M3 191. Barbiturates are ………Drug. a) Schedule X b) Schedule C 62 c) Schedule H d) Schedule Y Ans: a) Schedule X 192. The test report or analysis is approved by an institution such as CDL is submitted in a) Schedule 36 b) Schedule 37 c) Schedule 38 d) Schedule 39 Ans: d) Schedule 39 193. Under section 21 of the Indian penal code all Drugs Inspectors are a) Qualified person b) Competent person c) Public servants d) Officer in charge drug control Ans: c) Public servants 194. Form I, According to D and C Act and rules is a) Memorandum to government and under section 334. b) Memorandum to government and under section 23. c) Memorandum to CDL. d) Certificated of test by CDL. Ans: c) Memorandum to CDL 195. A cosmetic preparation having hexachlorophene or mercury compounds are a) Exempted b) Allowed c) Prohibited d) Provided special provision Ans: c) Prohibited 196. D and C are divided into……. Schedules a) 26 b) 23 c) 18 d) 28 Ans: c) 18 197. A drug that is imported under a mane which belongs to another drug is……… a) Misbranded drug b) Psychotropic c) Adulterated drug d) Spurious drug Ans: d) Spurious drug 198. A drug sample taken by a drug inspector for analysis is sent to? a) Government Analysis 63 b) Drug Controller c) Drug Inspector d) Spurious Drug Ans: a) Government Analysis 199. Drug for examination test of analysis can be imported under the license in form? a) 11 b) 10 c) 12 d) 13 Ans: a) 11 200. Aliments and disease that drug should not clam to cure to given as schedule. a) A b) J c) F d) P Ans: b) J 201. The symbol of left top cornering red on the label XRx denotes a) Schedule X b) Schedule X/Bulk form c) Schedule G d) Schedule J Ans: b) Schedule X/Bulk form 202. What indication must be prescribed on the label of ophthalmic ointment? a) Use within one month of opening b) It is dangerous to take this preparation except under medical supervision c) Consult to physician if imitation persists discontinues the use. d) Not for human use. Ans: a) Use within one month of opening 203. The coulter color permitted to be used in cosmetic come under the schedule. a) J b) K c) N d) Q Ans: d) Q 204. Medical stores are inspected by drug inspector for at least a) Once and year b) Twice a year c) Thrice about year d) Quarterly in a year Ans: b) Twice a year 64 205. Central drug laboratory is located at a) Mumbai b) Lucknow c) Kolkata d) Hyderabad Ans: c) Kolkata 206. The form number required for license for retail sale of schedule C and C1 is a) 22 b) 21 c) 19 d) 18 Ans: b) 21 207. The schedule in D and C Act deals with the standard for disinfection fluid is... a) Schedule b) Schedule F c) Schedule O d) Schedule M Ans: b) Schedule B 208. Schedule as per D and C Act deals with the following... a. Standard for cosmetics b. Biological and special product C. Patent and proprietary medicines d. Clinical trial Ans: c) Patent and proprietary medicines 209. Amlodipin is under which schedule a. Schedule G b. Schedule H c. Schedule P d. Schedule P1 Ans: a) Schedule G 210. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in schedule C1? a) Toxin b) Sera c) Antigen d) Capsule Ans: d) Capsule 211. The drugs which shall be marketed under generic name only come under a) Schedule W b) Schedule x c) Schedule Y d) Schedule U Ans: a) Schedule U 65 212. Schedule which cover blood bank premises? a) Schedule B b) Schedule D c) Schedule F d) Schedule G Ans: c) Schedule F 213. Crocin is sale under…. a) Schedule H b) Schedule G c) Schedule W d) None of these Ans: c) Schedule W 214. Ergot and its preparation belong to…… a) Schedule C b) ScheduleC1 c) Schedule X d) Schedule E1 Ans: d) Schedule E1 215. General convection was held on …in a) Narcotic drugs March 1961 b) Psychotropic substance March 1970. c) Narcotic drugs, March 1972 d) Psychotropic substance February 1971 Ans: a) Narcotic drugs March 1961 216. Schedule M2 states the…… a) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of medical devices b) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of homeopathy c) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of cosmetics d) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of allopathy Ans: c) Requirement of factory premises for the manufacture of cosmetics 217. Manufacturing and analytical record of cosmetics are include in which schedule? a) Y b) U c) U1 d) V Ans: c) U1 218. Schedule F3” is related with….. a) Standard for surgical dressing b) Standard for sterilize umbilical tapes c) Standard for ophthalmic preparation d) Standard for production of area 66 Ans: a) Standard for surgical dressing 219. Form 20 states that... a) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C,C1 b) Licenses to sell stock or offer for or distribute by wholesale other than specific C, C1 and X c) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1. d) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or distribute by wholesale other than specified C,C1 and X.S Ans: a) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 220. The grant application of a license to manufacture siddha or unani drugs requires…. a) Form 24D b) Form 25E c) Form 20 d) Form 21 Ans: a) Form 24D 221. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on drug requires…. a) Form 32 b) Form31 c) Form 30 d) Form 36 Ans: d) Form 36 222. Schedule M is related to …… a) GMP b) Curable c) List diseases and aliments which drug cannot claim d) Pack size of drug Ans: a) GMP 223. Injection syringes and needle are covered under a) Schedule A b) Schedule B c) Schedule C d) Schedule D Ans: c) Schedule C 224. “Dettol" comes under a) Schedule R b) Schedule O c) Schedule N d) Schedule Q Ans: b) Schedule O 225. Schedule S stands for 67 a) List of minimum equipment for efficient of pharmacy b) List of minimum equipment for manufacturing of drug. c) Requirements of factory premises and hygiene condition to be complied d) Standard for cosmetics Ans: d) Standard for cosmetics 226. Schedule C is related to a) List of Biological and Immunological product. b) List of Homeopathy product c) List of Ayurvedic product. d) List of Allopathic product Ans: a) List of Biological and Immunological product 226. The total nos of ex officio member in Drug technical advisory board a) Five b) Six c) Four d) Eight Ans: d) Eight 227. Drug price Act is established in a) 1948 b) 1940 c) 1995 d) 1915 Ans: c) 1995 228. Example of Schedule G drug is a) Metformin b) Enalapril c) Cefuroxime d) Barbital Ans: a) Metformin 229. Standard for disinfectant fluids comes under a) Schedule O b) Schedule R c) Schedule S d) Schedule E Ans: a) Schedule O 230. Blood bank comes under...... a) Schedule D b) Schedule F c) Schedule B d) Schedule G Ans: b) Schedule F 231. The schedule in drug and cosmetics act that d

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