Petroleum and Petrochemical Quiz PDF
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This document is a quiz on petroleum and petrochemical engineering. It contains multiple-choice questions covering topics such as the circular economy, crude oil, and refinery processes. It covers topics about petroleum and petrochemical.
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QUIZ IN PETROLEUM AND PETROCHEMICAL 1. It is a way in which the industry helps in maximizing resource efficiency while also promoting the reuse, recycling, and recovery of materials. a. Linear Economy b. Circular Economy c. Mixed Economy d. Traditional Economy 2...
QUIZ IN PETROLEUM AND PETROCHEMICAL 1. It is a way in which the industry helps in maximizing resource efficiency while also promoting the reuse, recycling, and recovery of materials. a. Linear Economy b. Circular Economy c. Mixed Economy d. Traditional Economy 2. It was converted to petroleum millions of years ago from the remains of extinct sea creatures subjected to high heat and compression throughout geological time. a. Organic Material b. Crude Oil c. Oleum d. Plants and algae 3. A synthetic material made from polymers. a. Paper b. Rubber c. Plastic d. Resins 4. Where is crude oil distilled into different fractions which produce naphtha and gas oil. a. Petroleum Refinery b. Petrochemical Refinery c. Crude Oil Refinery d. Natural Gas Refinery 5. Jet fuel and kerosene from the atmospheric distillation column are sent to the _____________ to remove sulfur compounds. a. Hydrotreater b. Merox Treater c. Steam cracker d. Atmospheric distillation 6. Third leading petroleum company. a. Caltex/Chevron b. Shell Pilipinas c. Chemrez Technologies d. NPC Alliance 7. Second leading petrochemical company. a. Caltex/Chevron b. Shell Pilipinas c. Chemrez Technologies d. NPC Alliance 8. What process do Butenes and Pentenes undergo a chemical reaction with isobutane in the presence of a strong acid catalyst to produce high-octane alkylate, which is an essential component for gasoline blending? a. Aromatization b. Hydrogenation c. Polymerization d. Alkylation 9. Resins In 1858, where did Williams drill Oil Springs, the first industrial oil well in North America which made exploration possible? a. Tulum, Mexico b. Ontario, Canada c. Kingston, Jamaica d. Florida, U.S.A. 10. An incident involving an oil tanker from Petron caused significant damage to marine ecosystems, affecting the biodiversity and livelihoods of coastal communities. Where did this happen? a. Bataan b. Palawan c. Batangas d. Mindoro 11. Light naphtha mixed with hydrogen gas is sent to _______ to evaporate gas and remove impurities: sulfur and nitrogen. a. Isomerization b. Coking c. Hydrotreater d. Claus Process 12. This is employed in various areas within the refinery to eliminate impurities like sulfur and nitrogen and can also damage naphthenic acid (NA) corrosions. a. Oleophobic Coating b. Hydrotreater c. Hydrophobic Coating d. Flue Gas Desulfurization 13. Integrating innovations into emerging technologies will help the petroleum and petrochemical industries promote production efficiencies and fine-tune equipment performances. Give me one example of emerging technologies. a. Artificial Intelligence b. Internet of Things c. Big Data Analytics d. Advanced Automation 14. These phenomena commonly occur because of the suspended particles in the fluid flow and biological growth in cooling systems, which are particularly prevalent in heat exchangers, pipes, and reactors. a. Corrosion and Leaks b. Fouling and Scaling c. Emission Control d. Production Bottlenecks 15. Raw materials for manufacturing petroleum products. a. Fossil Fuels b. Olefin c. Crude oil and Natural gas d. Synthesis Gas and Inorganics 16. It is one of the innovations that will center on the development of chemical processes and products that conserve resources and minimize environmental impact. a. White Chemistry b. Orange Chemistry c. Blue Chemistry d. Green Chemistry 17. How many % of the cases of bottlenecks in catalytic cracking – the heart of the refineries – reduce the plant’s capacity? a. 15% b. 20% c. 25% d. 30% 18. One of the purposes of using Advance Seismic Imaging is to characterize the structures of geological formations that can help in identifying ________________. a. Dense Aqueous Phase Soilds b. Dense Nonaqueous Phase Solids c. Dense Aqueous Phase Liquids d. Dense Nonaqueous Phase Liquids 19. One mitigation strategy in the fouling and scaling problem is __________, which works by reducing the adhesion of suspended particles that may build to equipment surfaces. a. Hydrophobic Coating b. Oleophobic Coating c. Hydrotreater d. Advance Process Control 20. Steam injection was able to be discovered which happened to be the foremost ____________________ method. a. Digital Oilfield Solution b. Advance Seismic Imaging c. Enhanced Oil Recovery d. Digital Transformation 1. What recent advancements have improved plant-based yogurt products? A) Improved fermentation techniques B) Higher sugar content C) Use of artificial flavors D) Reduction in dairy protein 2. What has been a significant challenge in creating plant-based cheeses? A) Flavor enhancement B) Nutritional content C) Cost of production D) Texture and meltability 3. What factor is increasingly driving innovation in the dairy and plant-based alternatives market? A) Decreasing dairy consumption B) Consumer preferences for health and sustainability C) Government regulations D) Decreased demand for plant-based products 4. What are synbiotics primarily known for? A) Providing essential vitamins B) Enhancing the flavor of dairy products C) Supporting digestive health D) Increasing protein content 5. An Act to strengthen the Food Safety Regulatory System in the Country to Protect Consumer Health and Facilitate Market Access of local foods and food products, and for other purposes. A) Code on Sanitation of the Philippines (Chapter 3) B) Food Safety Act 2013 (Republic Act No. 10611) C) Food Sanitation Act (Act No. 233 of 1947) D) Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) 6. ___________ sets regulations for the sanitation and hygiene of food establishments, focusing on preventing contamination and ensuring safe food handling practices. A) Food Safety Act 2013 (Republic Act No. 10611) B) Food Sanitation Act (Act No. 233 of 1947) C) Food Safety Modernization Act (FSMA) D) Code on Sanitation of the Philippines (Chapter 3) 7. These are a group of pathogenic microorganisms that are settled on surfaces known to be a major source of both spoilage and pathogenic microflora. A) Mycotoxins B) Salmonella enterica C) Biofilm D) Radionuclides 8. ______________ is an illegal practice of adding raw and other cheaper ingredients to excellent quality products to increase the quantity. A) Adulteration B) Pasteurization E) Homogenization F) Fortification 9. What is the primary purpose of pasteurization? A) To enhance the flavor of dairy product B) To eliminate harmful bacteria and improve food safety C) To increase the nutritional value of milk D) To reduce the cost of production 10. Who developed the pasteurization process? A) Franz von Soxhlet B) Louis Pasteur C) Alfred Nobel D) Selena Gomez 11. What percentage of disease outbreaks linked to milk today are associated with raw milk? A) 25% B) 50% C) 70% D) Less than 1% 12. What beverage was initially experimented with to develop the pasteurization process? A) Milk B) Beer C) Juice D) Wine 13. What significant public health initiative did Nathan Strauss implement in New York City in the 19th century to combat child mortality related to milk? A) He established a network of hospitals for children. B) He opened a Milk Depot to provide safe, pasteurized milk. C) He launched a campaign to ban raw milk. D) He created a nutrition program for impoverished families. 14. Which step involves adjusting the fat content of milk to produce different types like whole, skim, and low-fat milk? A. Homogenization B. Standardization C. Pasteurization D. Fortification 15. During pasteurization, what temperature is used in the HTST (High-Temperature Short-TIme) method to ensure milk safety? A. 60°C for 10 minutes B. 85°C for 30 minutes C. 72°C for 15 seconds D. 75°C for 5 minutes 16. Which of the following is the primary purpose of homogenization in milk processing? A. Kill Bacteria in the milk B. Adjust the fat content C. Improve the texture and prevent cream separation D. Add vitamins and minerals 17. Which of the following is used to enhance the nutritional value of milk during production? A. Homogenization B. Water C. Stabilizers D. Vitamins A and D 18. In which step of milk processing is milk held in refrigerated tanks before further processing? A. Transportation B. Storage C. Standardization D. Packaging 19. Which process ensures that milk is transported from farms to the processing plant without spoilage? A. Pasteurization B. Homogenization C. Cooling and refrigeration during transportation D. Standardization 20. What is the purpose of using stabilizers in milk processing? A. To heat the milk uniformly B. To improve texture and prevent separation of components C. To enhance the flavor D. To increase the milk’s fat content VEGETABLES & BIOFUELS - MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Which unit process typically occurs during transesterification if there is water present or if the feedstock has a high free fatty acid (FFA) content? a. Esterification b. Hydrogenation c. Saponification d. Ion Exchange 2. What is the ideal ratio between alcohol and oil during the transesterification process? a. 6:1, alcohol to oil b. 6:1, oil to alcohol c. 7:1, alcohol to oil d. 7:1, oil to alcohol 3. Which of the following statement(s) is/are not true about the final stage of the production of biodiesel? a. The drying of the biodiesel is essential to remove the remaining residual impurities after washing. b. The drying of the biodiesel product is essential to remove moisture which can lead to increased fuel quality. c. The excessive moisture of the biodiesel product can affect the shelf life, and may cause corrosion in the engine systems. d. All of the statements are incorrect. 4. What does the term ‘pitch’ in the production of biodiesel refer to? a. Pitch is the thick, viscous residue left behind after the removal of volatile compounds that is separated during the evaporation process. b. Pitch is the thick, viscous product produced after the removal of volatile compounds that is separated during the vacuum drying process. c. Pitch is the thick, viscous residue produced after the removal of volatile compounds that is separated during the batch drying process. d. Pitch is the thick, viscous residue left behind after the removal of volatile compounds that is separated during the vacuum drying process. 5. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the production of biodiesel? a. The reaction time during the transesterification reaction takes less than 1 hour especially if greater catalysts and higher temperatures were used. b. The crude biodiesel that comes after the separation process can be washed with warm water. c. The alcohol and water recovered from the whole process can be recycled and be used again for the transesterification process. d. None of the statements are true. 6. In which generation of raw feedstock for the bioethanol production does sugarcane, beet sugar, and sweet sorghum belong? a. First Generation b. Second Generation c. Third Generation d. Fourth Generation 7. The principal purpose of this unit operation in Bioethanol production is to increase the susceptibility of cellulose and lignocellulose parts of biomass at the next process in which acid and enzymatic hydrolysis occur. a. Pretreatment b. Saccharification c. Fermentation d. Distillation 8. The following are the waste or by-products generated during the fermentation and distillation processes in bioethanol production except: a. DDGS b. Glycerol c. Sugar d. CO2 9. Starch-based feedstocks are heated and treated with enzymes (alpha-amylase) to convert starch into a sugar solution. a. Grinding/Milling b. Pretreatment c. Fermentation d. Liquefaction 10. An Environmental Manufacturing Problem in which the sudden change of Land Utilization can lead to significant changes in biodiversity potentially its loss and could cause deforestation. A. Land Use Change B. Water Footprint C. Food Security D. Rural Development 11. How much is the forecasted amount of ethanol (in millions per liter) in terms of fuel export in the year 2021? a. 4 b. 6 c. 0 d. 2 12. Who pioneered the experiment of biofuels by using peanut oil to power an engine in the 19th century? a. G. Chavenne b. Rudolf Diesel c. Thomas Midgley Jr. d. Edwin Drake 13. Which of the following can be referred to as biodiesel in their pure form a. B20 b. B90 c. B5 d. B100 14. Which of the following is not included in the list of the top accredited companies in terms of biodiesel production in the Philippines? a. Chemrez Technologies b. Phil. Biochem Products c. Tantuco Enterprises, Inc. d. ZEG Power 15. Which of the following is not a product innovation for bioethanol and biodiesel? a. Hydrotreated Vegetable Oil b. Vegetable Oil made from Waste c. Advanced bioethanol with Higher Octane Ratings d. Microalgae-Derived Biodiesel 16. What is the advantage of a bioethanol with higher octane ratings? a. Better Sand Resistance b. Lower Metal Corrosion c. Better Combustion d. None of the above 17. Which of the following is a process innovation for the production of biodiesel and bioethanol? a. Pretreatment of Waste Feedstocks b. Integrated Biorefineries c. Algal Oil Extraction and Conversion d. All of the above 18. What is one characteristic of Hydrotreated Vegetable Oil (HVO) that requires adjustment for its use in heavy-duty transport? a. High viscosity b. Low cetane number c. Low lubricity d. Incompatibility with engine designs 19. What is the primary process used to convert algal oil into biodiesel? a. Mechanical pressing b. Solvent extraction c. Hydrogenation d. Transesterification 20. Which statement is true about the extraction and conversion of algal oil into biodiesel? a. Algal oil is converted to biodiesel through hydrogenation. b. Supercritical fluid extraction is one method used to extract oil from algae. c. Transesterification converts algal oil directly into glycerol. d. Algal oil has a lower oil content compared to traditional vegetable oils. SOAP AND DETERGENT MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. Reaction of ester with an inorganic base to produce glycerol and soap.It is usually conducted in hot and under agitation of fatty acid glyceride, forming soap and glycerine. a. Sulfonation b. Separation c. Soap Formation d. Saponification 2. Principal fatty material in soapmaking, where it is mixed with glycerides and coconut oil in the soap kettle. This solid fat is digested with steam in order to increase the solubility of the soap. a. Greases b. Tallow c. Coconut Oil d. Lard 3. Used to breakdown starch - based stains which are challenging to remove with regular surfactants. It is stable in washing time resulting in gentler skin and fabrics. a. Proteases b. Lipases c. Amylases d. Catalase 4. It is a brightener that is used to utilize synthetic fibers such as polyesters and has good light fastness. a. Napthalimides b. Coumarins c. Benzimidazoles d. Pyrazolines 5. It removes the moisture that produces dry detergent granules and the slurry where the high temperature of air evaporates the water to ensure the detergent is in powdered form. a. Blending b. Phase Separation c. Spray Drying d. Dilution 6. The oils and fats are converted into a reaction of an alkali. The reaction continues to controlled conditions that allow the product reactions to achieve the desired chemical reaction composition. Where the chemical reaction process is allowed to stabilize. a. Digestion b. Sulfonation c. Agglomeration d. Neutralization 7. Incompatible surfactants cause products to undergo phase separation.Moreover, if cationic and anionic surfactants mix, they will fall out of the solution, losing their effectiveness. What would be the possible solution? a. Improve and redesign the manufacturing process — implementation of strict recycling and reusing practices to lessen energy and water usage. b. Use antioxidants or chelating agents for stability enhancement. Proper storage of raw materials by reducing exposure to the environmental factors that trigger the materials. c. Strengthen research and development with exploring the possibility of using alternative natural materials or new found material. d. Establish a thorough outline of the materials to be used in production. Conduct a pre-formulation in small-scale experiments of trials to carry out a comprehensive compatibility test with each material. 8. A French chemist showed that soap formation was actually a chemical reaction. It is believed that the soap is a mechanical mixture of fat and alkali. a. Nicholas Leblanc b. Michel Chevreul c. Henry Perkin d. Hermann Staudinger 9. Have a positive charge on the hydrophilic end. It serves as antimicrobial agents, mainly used in fabric softeners and is often used in disinfectants. a. Cationic Surfactants b. Nonionic Surfactants c. Anionic Surfactants d. Amphoteric Surfactants 10. The Linear alkylbenzene (LAB) reacts with the sulfur trioxide (SO3) that is diluted in air and organic base. The mixture is transferred to a surge tank to absorb sudden rise of pressure. Afterwards, it goes to the cooler having a temperature of ____ to ____. a. 80℃ to 94℃ b. 60℃ to 74℃ c. 83℃ to 94℃ d. 63℃ to 74℃ 11. Soap and detergent manufacturing are temperature dependent. It can affect the product's quality and chemical reactions during manufacturing. During saponification at low temperatures, it will not reach the complete conversion between the reaction of the oils and alkali. What would be the possible solution? a. Use a moisture measurement device to measure the real-time moisture content of the product and maintain consistency in the drying and curing time. b. Use an auto temperature control and monitoring systems to automatically regulate temperature and to ensure complete saponification. c. Use oils with lower melting points or that are more reactive at lower temperatures, such as coconut oil or palm kernel oil, which saponify more readily than tallow or other solid fats. d. Perform the saponification process in a climate-controlled room where ambient temperature fluctuations are minimized. 12. This process involves melting, settling, filtering, and pumping the necessary fat and oil mixture into the kettle. Naturally, each soap has a different ratio of fats, oils, and other ingredients. a. Causticization Process b. Separation Process c. Neutralization Process d. Full - boiled Process 13. Soap is mainly made up of the __________ of fatty acids such as oleic, stearic, palmitic, lauric, and myristic acids. a. Sodium Carbonate b. Potassium Salts c. Surfactants d. Synthetic surface - active agents 14. These innovations reduce energy and water usage, and also eliminates emissions from ________________ allowing companies to recycle and reuse water as well as other resources during production. a. Volatile organic compounds (VOCs) b. Inorganic compounds c. Greenhouse gases d. Chemical Processing 15. Coconut oil has ____ of the total fats and oils consumed in this industry. This oil is almost always an important constituent of household soap, as the soap from coconut oil is firm and lathers well. a. 45% b. 25% c. 15% d. 5% 16. Sodium hydroxide is employed as the saponification alkali for most soap now produced. Soap may also be manufactured with potassium hydroxide (caustic potash) as the alkali. a. Alkaline b. Alkalis c. Acids d. Alkalinity 17. This procedure involves continuous splitting or hydrolyzing of the fat. After the separation of the glycerin, the fatty acids are neutralized with caustic soda. This method neutralizes with NaOH (sodium hydroxide) rather than Na2CO3 (soda ash). a. Saponification b. Hydrolysis c. Sulfonation d. Neutralization 18. Chemical species that act as wetting agents and active ingredients to lower the surface tension of a liquid and allow for increased spreadability. It provides alkalinity, which is useful in removing acidic soils. a. Surfactants b. Enzymes c. Builders d. Anti - redeposition agents 19. Hot melted fats and catalysts are introduced into the bottom of the _________. Splitting of fats takes place counter currently in the hydrolyzer at 250C and 4.1 MPa continuously, the fat globules rising against a descending aqueous phase. a. Spray Dryer b. Heat Exchangers c. Splitting Tower d. Distillation Tower 20. What are the advantages of using sodium hydroxide (NaOH) for the neutralization process in soap production compared to using sodium carbonate (Na₂CO₃)? a. It produces sulfonates with fewer impurities for extensive purification. b. It enhances the soap color to be achieved from the crude fath without the need for extensive pretreatment. c. It has a wider range of organic compounds, including alkylbenzenes. d. It uses NaOh to ensure accurate and efficient neutralization, which will result in the consistency of a final product. PHARMACEUTICALS MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. The fermentation broth contains: _________________________________ a. Microbial Culture b. Antibiotic c. Liquid Medium d. All of the above 2. It is a biological waste that reached its antibiotic production peak and is no longer active in producing the desired product. This is discarded during the filtration process. a. Spent Solvent b. Spent Mold c. Spent Fungus d. Spent Microorganism 3. The specific microorganism strain used in the production of Penicillin. a. Penicillin chrysogenum b. Penicillin mycelium c. Penicillium mycelium d. Penicillium chrysogenum 4. Anesthetic compounds are added to the crystallized antibiotic product to _________________________ for prolonged therapeutic effects. a. increase its solubility b. modify its pH level c. decrease its solubility d. none of the above 5. During the process of centrifugation, after the phase separation, the antibiotic will preferentially move towards the solvent phase if it is _________ and _________. a. Hydrophilic, polar b. Hydrophobic, polar c. Hydrophilic, non-polar d. Hydrophobic, non-polar 6. What are some of the key concerns highlighted by the WHO regarding antimicrobial resistance and antibiotic pollution? a. The rise of new bacteria reduces the efficacy of antibiotics. b. Drastic changes in aquatic ecosystems are caused by improper waste disposal. c. Limited public information on the disposal of expired or unused antibiotics. d. All of the above. 7. What is one primary reason for properly drying pharmaceuticals? a. To increase their shelf life by removing moisture. b. To reduce production costs during manufacturing. c. To enhance the aesthetic appearance of the drugs. d. To make them resistant to extreme temperatures. 8. What is a potential consequence of improper or incomplete sterilization in pharmaceutical production? a. Increased production efficiency. b. Spread of hazardous and infectious matter. c. Enhanced drug stability. d. Improved shelf life of medications. 9. What is one common defect that can occur during the film-coating process of solid pharmaceuticals? a. Enhanced drug solubility. b. Chipping of the coating. c. Degrading drug stability. d. Improper mixing. Correct Answer: B. Chipping of the coating. 10. Which among the following excipients help increase the volume of a tablet or capsule while ensuring uniformity in mixing and structure? a. Disintegrants a. Binders b. Fillers c. Lubricants d. Disintegrants 11. In order for a culture of microorganisms to proliferate, what must be included in the fermentation broth? a. Carbon Source b. Nitrogen Source c. Both A and B d. Neither of the two. 12. What is the purpose of evaporating the collected antibiotic in the fermentation process? a. To increase the volume of the antibiotic b. To remove excess water and concentrate the antibiotic c. To adjust the pH of the antibiotic d. To add more solvent to the antibiotic 13. When was penicillin discovered, and who is credited with its accidental discovery? a. 1928, by Alexander Fleming b. 1940s, by Howard Florey c. 1550 BC, by the Egyptians d. 1940s, by Selman Waksman 14. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an Active Pharmaceutical Ingredient (API)? A) It can be a product of biotechnological processes. B) It can only be synthesized chemically. C) It can be derived from natural sources such as plants or living organisms. D) Multiple APIs can be placed in one drug to serve multiple functions. 15. How did the discovery of penicillin contribute to the treatment of bacterial infections? a. It was the first antibiotic to treat viral infections b. It introduced the concept of antibiotic resistance c. It was the first antibiotic widely used to treat bacterial infections and reduced mortality rates significantly d. It was used as a vaccine against bacterial infections 16. What is the role of Selman Waksman in the history of antibiotics? a. He discovered penicillin b. He coined the term "antibiotic" and studied microbes that produce antimicrobial compounds c. He developed synthetic antibiotics for syphilis d. He created the first vaccine against bacterial infections 17. Solvents used in the manufacture of pharmaceutical products must be of high purity to: A) Neutralize excipients in the drug formulation B) Contribute directly to the therapeutic effect of the drug C) Ensure the safety and quality of the final product D) Increase significantly the volume of the API 18. What is one common side effect of oral antibiotics? a. Increased energy levels b. Nausea, diarrhea, and allergic reactions c. Enhanced immune response d. Weight gain 19. What is the estimated annual cost of antimicrobial resistance (AMR) projected through 2050, according to a 2023 report? a. $10 billion b. $29 billion c. $36.9 billion d. $50 billion 20. What is the top selling antibiotic in U.S? a. Zosyn b. Amoxiciliin c. Vancomycin d. Penicillin G SUGAR AND STARCH MCQ 1. A white, odorless powder used as a thickening agent in cooking. a. Corn starch b. Flour c. baking powder d. Baking soda 2. A unit operation used for separating germs from the endosperm a. Steeping b. Fine milling c. Germ separation d. Germ washing/drying 3. Which of the following is not a common manufacturing problem? a. Over-irrigation b. Production bottleneck c. High energy consumption during steeping d. Usage of gaseous SO2 4. ________________ Civilization where corn or maize first emerged? a. Mesopotamia b. Phoenicia c. Mesoamerican d. Mycenaean 5. He developed a method of extracting starch from corn. a. Brown & Polson b. Thomas Kingsford c. Louis Pasteur d. Carl Bosch 6. Which of the following is not a product innovation of starch a. Use of Biotechnology b. Starch for Food processing c. Starch based bioplastics d. Starch as thickening agent 7. The following is the application of corn starch except. a. Main ingredient for cooking b. Use of Biotechnology c. Additive in papermaking industry d. Used as laundry starch 8. It is a raw material that improves the fermentation state in the steeper. a. Water b. Corn c. Carbon Dioxide d. Sulphur Dioxide 9. Part of the unit process where the flow is finely ground to release starch and gluten from fibres. a. Fine milling b. Germ separation c. Fibre drying d. Steeping 10. It is fed by metering screw conveyor into a flash dryer and dried in hot air. a. Gluten Recovery b. Starch drying c. Starch Refining d. Starch dewatering 11. Mills release large amounts of waste, which is often discharged directly into the water streams a. Stabilization b. Over-irrigation and pollution c. High energy consumption and pollution d. Discharge of Mill effluents 12. In 2023, the global cornstarch market was valued at _____________. a. USD 46.01 Billion b. USD 22.45 BIllion c. USD 30.1 Billion d. USD 10.5 Billion 13. Which of the following is the one of the top producers of corn globally? a. Finland b. Sweden c. Brazil d. Philippines 14. The dewatered fibres are then mixed with concentrated steepwater and cakes from the oil press. a. Germ washing/drying b. Fibre drying c. Steeping d. Primary separation 15. What is the proposed solution for the stabilization problem in corn starch? a. Use of gaseous SO2 b. Use of Decanter centrifuges c. Use of monofunctional reagents d. Adapting irrigation system 16. Improvements in biotechnology allows the starch to be modified for food and non-food uses. a. Use of biotechnology b. Starch based bioplastics c. Starch for pharmaceutical use d. Starch for food processing 17. Proposed solution for Over-irrigation and pollution a. Use of gaseous SO2 b. Use of Decanter centrifuges c. Use of monofunctional reagents d. Adapting irrigation system that suits the soil type, climate, and farming practices 18. Process where a multi-stage hydrocyclone system is used to reduce fibre and solubles with the minimum amount of freshwater. a. Starch Refining b. Starch drying c. Gluten dewatering and drying d. Gluten recovery 19. Before the 1850’s, corn starch was mainly used as. a. Food processing b. Adhesive and laundry starch c. Pharmaceutical d. Food packaging 20. In a nozzle type continuous centrifugal separator, the gluten is thickened and then separated. a. Starch Refining b. Starch drying c. Gluten dewatering and drying d. Gluten recovery PULP AND PAPER Chemical Process Industries DE VILLA | GUINO | HIDALGO | MEJIA | SOLINA MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ANSWER KEY 1. Why are sizing elements like starch added to paper? a. To reduce lignin content b. To enhance water resistance and ink absorption control c. To increase fiber strength d. To improve paper transparency 2. What chemical is commonly used in kraft pulping? a. Hydrogen Peroxide b. Caustic Soda c. Sulfurous Acid d. Ozone 3. Which of the following explains why pigments in paper must chemically react with cellulose fibers? a. To improve recyclability and reduce processing costs b. To ensure uniform absorption and prevent color fading c. To increase tensile strength and reduce porosity d. To optimize brightness while maintaining fiber flexibility 4. Which process focuses on the removal of residual lignin to prevent yellowing and improve brightness, often involving environmentally friendly methods? a. Refining b. Bleaching c. Calendering d. Pressing 5. What is the primary function of the barking drum in the pulp and paper process? a. To chip the logs into small pieces b. To remove the bark from the logs c. To cook the wood chips with chemicals d. To wash the pulp 6. What is the main purpose of the Fourdrinier machine? a. To remove knots and impurities from the pulp b. To concentrate black liquor for chemical recovery c. To convert pulp slurry into a continuous paper sheet d. To regenerate white liquor from green liquor 7. What is the main purpose of the calender stack in the papermaking process? a. To remove excess water from the paper b. To smooth and finish the paper surface c. To refine the pulp fibers for bonding d. To distribute the pulp slurry evenly onto the wire mesh 8. Which chemical is primarily used in the digester to break down lignin in the wood chips? a. Sodium carbonate b. Calcium hydroxide c. Sodium hydroxide and sodium sulfide (white liquor) PULP AND PAPER Chemical Process Industries DE VILLA | GUINO | HIDALGO | MEJIA | SOLINA d. Sulfuric acid 9. He discovered the very first true paper a. Jing Yuan b. Tsai Lun c. Lee Sin d. Xian Yun 10. Involves collecting, sorting, and pulping used paper, followed by de-inking to remove contaminants a. Screening b. Packing c. Recycling d. Bleaching 11. What is “parchment,” used in Europe and the Middle East made out of? a. Wood Bark b. Papyrus c. Animal Skin d. Old Rags 12. A machine that uses a conveyor belt to continuously drain water from paper as it moves down a. Froudinier Machine b. Fourdrier Machine c. Fourdrinier Machine d. Frourdrinier Machine 13. What is a common challenge in recycling paper? a. Excessive use of fillers b. Contamination with other materials c. Insufficient calendering processes d. High energy consumption during forming 14. What is the main purpose of using bleaching methods like oxygen or peroxide bleaching? a. To improve the color of recycled paper b. To avoid harmful byproducts and minimize environmental impact c. To enhance pigment adhesion to the paper d. To strengthen the paper during drying 15. What is a primary challenge associated with variability in raw materials for paper production? a. Increased pigment costs b. Inconsistent strength and appearance of paper c. Lower recycling participation rates d. Inefficient drying processes 16. What is one drawback of using fillers like calcium carbonate in paper production? a. Reduced brightness and opacity b. Decreased binding capacity, leading to lower paper strength PULP AND PAPER Chemical Process Industries DE VILLA | GUINO | HIDALGO | MEJIA | SOLINA c. Increased costs and reduced recyclability d. Poor adhesion to cellulose fibers 17. Which of the following describes how paper production benefits from nanotechnology? a. Enhanced water solubility and chemical resistance b. Decrease in energy use and production costs c. Increased strength, durability, and versatility d. Food packaging that is edible 18. What is the main feature of water-soluble paper? a. It has smoother finishes and better printing quality. b. It may be disposed of sustainably by dissolving in water. c. For further strength, it offers nanocellulose reinforcement. d. Rice starches and seaweed are used to make it. 19. What is the role of advanced coating techniques in the manufacturing of specialized papers? a. To provide improved chemical resistance and printing quality. b. To improve paper's capacity to decompose c. To make enzyme-assisted pulping better d. To produce components for edible packaging 20. Which technique makes paper fibers stronger without adding chemicals? a. Reinforcement made of nanocellulose b. Utilizing biodegradable materials c. Advanced coating techniques d. Enzyme-assisted pulping CEMENT MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS 1. What is the primary purpose of gypsum in cement production? a. To increase the strength of cement b. To control the setting time of cement c. To reduce the heat of hydration of cement d. To improve the workability of cement 2. In which zone of the rotary kiln does the calcination process occur? a. Preheating zone b. Clinkering zone c. Calcining zone d. Cooling zone 3. What is one advantage of the dry process over the wet process in cement manufacturing? a. Easier to control the composition of materials b. Requires less maintenance for grinding equipment c. Produces higher-quality cement d. Lower energy consumption and fewer pollutants 4. In the dry process of cement manufacturing, how does the preheater contribute to energy efficiency? a. By fully calcining the raw materials before they enter the kiln b. By reducing the energy required in the kiln through partial calcination of raw meal using hot exhaust gases c. By cooling the clinker to lower temperatures before storage d. By grinding raw materials into a fine powder, minimizing heat losses 5. In cement production, why is the calcination temperature higher in the wet process compared to the dry process? a. The raw materials in the wet process require more energy to reach the clinkering stage due to their high water content. b. The presence of gypsum in the slurry raises the calcination temperature. c. The dry process benefits from a preheating stage, whereas the wet process bypasses it. d. The chemical reactions in the wet process require higher temperatures to achieve complete clinkering. 6. What is one major issue caused by variations in limestone and clay in cement manufacturing? a. Increased water consumption b. Compromised clinker quality c. Reduced dust emissions d. Overproduction of cement 7. Which of the following is a solution to minimize dust emissions in cement manufacturing? a. Use Carbon Capture Utilization and Storage (CCUS) b. Install advanced bag filters and electrostatic precipitators c. Lock in prices through long-term contracts d. Replace clinker with calcined clay 8. What contributes the most to high carbon dioxide emissions in cement manufacturing? a. Use of biodegradable packaging b. Combustion of fossil fuels and calcination of limestone c. Handling of clinker dust d. Water scarcity in kiln cooling 9. Which strategy helps address the price volatility of raw materials? a. Collaborating with waste firms b. Implementing dry processing techniques c. Locking in prices through long-term contracts d. Differentiating products with eco-friendly blends 10. What is a recommended solution to manage solid waste in cement manufacturing? a. Replacing clinker with fly ash b. Utilizing alternative fuels and raw materials like plastics and rubber c. Transitioning to geopolymer cements d. Investing in automated air quality monitoring systems 11. Which of the following is an example of a low-carbon cement? a. Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) b. Geopolymer Cement c. High-Alumina Cement d. Sulfate-Resistant Cement 12. What is the primary purpose of using waste heat recovery (WHR) in cement production? a. To reduce the use of clinker b. To capture and store carbon dioxide c. To improve energy efficiency by utilizing heat from kilns d. To manufacture blended cements 13. What role do digital technologies play in modern cement manufacturing? a. They replace the need for alternative fuels. b. They increase the physical strength of cement products. c. They optimize operations and reduce energy consumption. d. They eliminate the need for raw material extraction. 14. What is one significant challenge faced by the cement industry in adopting innovative processes? a. Lack of global demand for cement b. High implementation costs and regulatory constraints c. Decline in construction projects worldwide d. Insufficient supply of traditional raw materials 15. What is Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC) primarily used for? a. Marine structures b. General concrete construction c. Decorative works d. Prefabricated concrete construction 16. Which cement is used for constructing water structures like dams and spillways? a. Hydrographic Cement b. Expansive Cement c. Rapid Hardening Cement d. Colored Cement 17. What is mortar primarily used for? a. Creating structural beams b. Binding bricks and stones together c. Mixing aggregates d. Building roads 18. What percentage of cement by mass is typically found in concrete? a. 5%-10% b. 10%-15% c. 20%-25% d. 30%-35% 19. What is the main composition of cement? a. Sand, gravel, and limestone b. Gypsum, calcareous, and argillaceous materials c. Water, aggregates, and lime d. Stone chippings and marble powder 20. Which type of cement is used for construction exposed to severe sulfate action? a. Sulfates Resisting Cement b. Blast Furnace Slag Cement c. Expansive Cement d. White Cement GLASS AND CERAMICS: MCQ 1. What is the first-ever material recognized as glass? a. Obsidian b. Quartz Crystal c. Diamond d. Phoenician Glass 2. What significant glass-making breakthrough was discovered by Syrian artisans in the 1st century BC? a. Glass melting b. Glass recycling c. Glass blowing d. Glass molding 3. What is an example of an advanced application of glass? a. Glass bottles b. Window panes c. Photonic devices d. Glass jars 4. What type of bonding is commonly found in ceramics? a. Metallic bonding b. Covalent and ionic bonding c. Hydrogen bonding d. None of the above 5. What is one of the primary uses of bioceramics in the medical field? a. Creation of optical lenses b. Bone regeneration and tissue replacement c. Electricity conduction d. All of the following 6. Why are fire clays considered refractory materials? a. They contain a high concentration of siloxane surfaces. b. They have low absorbency and porosity. c. They resist deformation at high temperatures due to high Al₂O₃ content. d. They have a crystalline structure. 7. What property makes black shale significant as a resource? a. Its ability to split along laminations b. Its organic content, which can yield natural gas or oil c. Its high-temperature resistance d. Its hollow-tube-shaped particles 8. Why is it essential to store raw materials in a dry, dust-free, light-shielded area? a. To prevent discoloration b. To avoid foaming and brittleness c. To enhance plasticity d. To maintain uniform particle size 9. Which type of kiln is most commonly used for continuous firing of bricks? a. Tunnel Kiln b. Periodic Kiln c. Bull trench kiln d. Hoffman kiln 10. What type of mining is primarily used for extracting surface clays and shales? a. Underground mining b. In situ mining c. Placer mining d. Open surface Mining 11. What is one key method to improve energy efficiency in glass manufacturing? a. Increasing furnace temperature b. Replacing older equipment with energy-efficient alternatives c. Reducing batch size to reduce fuel d. Eliminating recycled glass from the process 12. What is the other term for “recycled glass”? a. Cullet b. Asphalt c. Float d. Scrap 13. What is a suggested solution to minimize production scheduling issues in the float glass industry? a. Implementing real-time computational scheduling methods b. Increasing the furnace set-up time c. Allowing unsynchronized production stages d. Reducing the use of optimization software 14. What is a commonly used method to improve the homogeneity of ceramic powders during production? a. Manual sorting of raw materials b. Use of chemical synthesis to produce high purity powders c. Direct application of high temperatures to raw materials d. Avoiding particle size control 15. What is one proposed solution to reduce energy consumption in ceramics sintering processes? a. Increasing furnace temperature to accelerate production b. Implementing low-temperature sintering methods like spark plasma sintering c. Eliminating the sintering stage altogether d. Relying solely on traditional kilns 16. Which type of ceramics generates electric charges when subjected to mechanical stress? a. Magnetic ceramics b. Piezoelectric ceramics c. Ferrite ceramics d. Non-oxide ceramics 17. In aerospace applications, ceramics are used in thermal protection systems because they can: a. Resist corrosion b. Endure extreme temperatures and thermal shocks c. Conduct electricity efficiently d. Absorb sound waves 18. In nuclear fusion, laser glass is used to: a. Reduce thermal emissions in experiments b. Replace traditional semiconductors c. Absorb radiation from the fusion reaction d. Amplify and focus light for energy production experiments 19. Thermochromic glass switches to a metallic rutile state when: a. Exposed to high mechanical stress b. Placed in a magnetic field c. Heated to higher temperatures d. Exposed to UV light 20. Polycarbonate and acrylic lenses are preferred in smart glasses for: a. Lightweight properties b. High scratch resistance c. Increased thermal insulation d. Improved sound transmission 1. What is the first synthetic pigment? 7. What are particulate solids of insoluble material that are combined with binders to give A. Egyptian Blue color and provide other physical properties to B. persian blue paint? C. Royal Blue D. Cerulean A. Solvents B. Fillers 2. Which of the following is not a use of paint? C. Plasticizers A. Original Equipment Manufacturing D. Pigments B. Industrial maintenance C. Automotive Refinish 8. What is the unit process in paint D. Fabric printing manufacturing that aids with cross-linking monomers through temperature manipulation? 3. Van der waal forces can cause pigment particles to agglomerate. A. Curing A. True B. Esterification B. False C. Polymerization D. Thinning Answer: true 9. These pigments are created by covering mica 4. It doesn't matter what type of dispersant is or silica flakes with titanium dioxide or iron used during dispersion. oxide, which produces iridescent effects. A. True A. Azo Pigments B. False B. Quinacridone Pigments C. Pearlescent Pigments 5. What is the main advantage of using D. Interference Pigments water-based dispersion systems in paint manufacturing? 10. What unit process in ultramarine blue pigment manufacturing results in the formation A. They improve the color intensity of the paint. of its blue color? B. They reduce reliance on harmful solvents. C. They make the paint more durable. A. Combustion D. They enhance the application precision of B. Oxidation paints. C. Reduction D. Double Decomposition 6. Which equipment is commonly used to ensure uniform dispersion of pigments in 11. Excessive Pigment loading does not have high-performance paints? any effect on the dispersion process. A. True A. Jet mills B. False B. High-shear mixers C. Spectrophotometers 12. Thickeners and Emulsifiers are examples of D. 3D printers anti-oxidants. A. True B. False 18. There are FOUR mixing techniques that are utilized in paint manufacturing process 13. Paints have a higher export and import value compared to pigments. Germany is the A. True Leading exporter of paints and pigments. B. False A. Both sentences are true 19. Derived from natural ores, minerals are an B. Both sentences are false important source of _______ pigments. C. Only the first sentence is true D. Only the second sentence is true A. Extender B. Organic 14. Which of the following is not a leading Paint C. Special function company in the Philippines? D. Inorganic A. Pacific Paints 20. What is agitated together with the raw blue B. Nippon paints slurry during the second stage of filtration? C. Clariant paint D. Davis Paint A. Aqueous liquid B. Non-aqueous liquid 15.Which equipment is used to grind pigments C. Water into fine particles for better color intensity? D. Resin A. Ball Mills B. Electrostatic spray guns C. UV curing systems D. High-shear mixers 16. What is the primary purpose of UV curing systems in paint production? A. To mix raw materials automatically B. To cure UV-reactive paints quickly C. To measure paint color D. To apply paint to complex surfaces 17. It is a type of pigment that are inexpensive natural materials such as clay, mica, talc, and limestone. A. Extender pigments B. Special Function pigments C. Prime pigments D. Anti-corrosive pigments