CompTIA A+ 220-1101 Q&A 346.pdf

CompTIA.Premium.220-1101.679q Exam Code: 220-1101 Exam Name: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Website: www.VCEplus.io Number: 220-1101 Passing Score: 800.0 Time Limit: 120.0 File Version: 23.4 Exam A QUESTION 1 Which of the following would an administrator use to migrate virtual machines from on premises to the cloud? A. B. C. D. laaS SaaS DBaaS DRaaS Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: An administrator would use Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) to migrate virtual machines from onpremises to the cloud. IaaS is a cloud computing service that provides virtualized computing resources, such as servers, storage, and networking, that can be used to deploy and run applications in the cloud. By using IaaS, an administrator can create a virtual machine in the cloud and migrate the existing virtual machine from on-premises to the cloud. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Objective 3.3 QUESTION 2 A user, who is attempting to give a presentation via a projector in a conference room, reports the projector has video but no audio. Which of the following will MOST likely resolve the issue? A. B. C. D. Changing the input on the projector to VGA Changing the output on the PC to DVI Modifying the projector's refresh rate Utilizing an HDMI connection Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The issue of video but no audio on a projector in a conference room can be resolved by utilizing an HDMI connection between the PC and the projector. HDMI supports both video and audio signals and is commonly used to connect a PC to a projector for presentations. Changing the input on the projector to VGA, changing the output on the PC to DVI, or modifying the projector's refresh rate will not resolve the issue. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Objective 2.5 QUESTION 3 Which of the following standards supports MIMO technology? A. 802.11a B. 802.11b C. 802.11g D. 802.11n Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The 802.11n wireless networking standard supports Multiple Input Multiple Output (MIMO) technology. MIMO technology uses multiple antennas on both the transmitting and receiving devices to improve wireless performance by increasing the amount of data that can be transmitted simultaneously. 802.11a, 802.11b, and 802.11g do not support MIMO technology. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Objective 3.3 QUESTION 4 A user requested upgrades to a company-Issued laptop to increase its performance while working with a large database stored on drive C. Which of the following tasks should a systems administrator complete to BEST meet this goal? (Select TWO). A. B. C. D. E. F. Configure RAID 1. Install a hybrid drive. Upgrade to 1GB NIC. Increase the RAM. Migrate to a SSD. Upgrade the power supply. Correct Answer: D, E Section: Explanation: To increase the performance of a laptop working with a large database stored on drive C, a systems administrator should increase the RAM and migrate to an SSD. Increasing the RAM will help the laptop to better handle the large database, while migrating to an SSD will improve the speed at which the laptop can access the database. Configuring RAID 1, installing a hybrid drive, upgrading to a 1GB NIC, and upgrading the power supply will not directly improve the laptop's performance when working with a large database. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Objective 3.1 QUESTION 5 Which of the following technologies can allow multiple networks to traverse a switch? A. B. C. D. VLAN VRRP VPN DHCP Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The technology that allows multiple networks to traverse a switch is VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) which is a logical grouping of devices on the same network regardless of their physical location12.Virtual Local Area Network (VLAN) technology can allow multiple networks to traverse a switch. A VLAN is a logical network created within a physical network that can separate traffic and allow multiple networks to coexist on the same physical network infrastructure. VRRP (Virtual Router Redundancy Protocol), VPN (Virtual Private Network), and DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) do not allow multiple networks to traverse a switch. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Objective 3.2 QUESTION 6 A company just bought a printer capable of automatically printing on both sides of the paper After installation, however, the technician can only print on both sides of the paper manually. Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue? A. B. C. D. Install the most recent firmware upgrade available for the printer. Contact the vendor for a hardware replacement. Reinstall the printer software and drivers, and then restart the printer. Read the installation manual and configure duplex settings. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The issue described in the Qis most likely due to an incorrect configuration of the printer's duplex settings. To enable automatic duplex printing, the technician needs to read the printer's installation manual to understand how to configure the printer's duplex settings correctly. Once the settings are configured, the printer should be able to print on both sides of the paper automatically.To fix the issue of a newly installed printer capable of automatically printing on both sides of the paper but only printing on both sides manually, the technician should read the installation manual and configure duplex settings. Duplex printing settings can be configured in the printer driver software, which can be accessed through the printer settings in the Control Panel. Installing the most recent firmware upgrade available for the printer, contacting the vendor for a hardware replacement, or reinstalling the printer software and drivers and restarting the printer will not resolve the issue. QUESTION 7 An online retailer would like to add capacity to support increased sales. Additional servers have been installed. Which of the following should be used to ensure each new server is being properly utilized? A. B. C. D. Virtualization Clustering Load balancer Round-robin DNS Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: https://www.resonatenetworks.com/2020/04/29/clustering-vs-load-balancing-whats-thedifference/A load balancer distributes network traffic evenly across multiple servers, ensuring each server is being properly utilized. This helps to prevent overloading of any individual server, which can cause downtime or slow response times for users. In this scenario, adding a load balancer would be the best way to ensure the new servers are being properly utilized. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 181 QUESTION 8 Which of the following utilizes TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext? A. B. C. D. SNMP SSH FTP Telnet Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: FTP (File Transfer Protocol) uses TCP ports 20/21 and transfers data in cleartext, which means the data is not encrypted and can be read by anyone who intercepts it. This makes FTP insecure for transferring sensitive information. SSH (Secure Shell), on the other hand, uses port 22 and encrypts data, making it more secure. SNMP (Simple Network Management Protocol) uses ports 161/162 and is used to monitor network devices. Telnet uses port 23 and transfers data in cleartext, making it insecure. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 199 QUESTION 9 A customer is using a satellite internet connection that is experiencing slowness. A technician notices high latency while pinging, but the download test is performing perfectly with very good download speeds. Which of the following represents the NEXT action the technician should perform? A. Restart the modem and run an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool. B. Guide the customer on how to upgrade the internet plan with the provider in order to improve latency. C. Explain to the customer this is not an issue; this situation is normal for this type of internet connection. D. Replace the modem because it is not working correctly based on the test result. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The technician should restart the modem and run an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool1. High latency is a common issue with satellite internet connections, and it can cause slow internet speeds2. Restarting the modem can help to resolve the issue1. The technician should also run an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool to check the connection and speed1. Guiding the customer on how to upgrade the internet plan with the provider in order to improve latency is not likely to be the correct option2.High latency while pinging can indicate a problem with the modem or the connection between the modem and the satellite. Restarting the modem can often resolve connectivity issues. Running an online internet connection and speed diagnostic tool can help identify any other issues with the connection. Upgrading the internet plan may not resolve latency issues and may not be necessary if the download test is performing perfectly with very good download speeds. High latency is not normal for satellite internet connections, so replacing the modem based on this one test result is premature. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 102 QUESTION 10 An organization maintains various record types, including health and criminal justice records. Which of the following cloud environments is the organization MOST likely to use to limit the attack surface? A. B. C. D. Public Hybrid Community Private Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Private cloud environments are designed for use by a single organization and offer the greatest control over security and access to data. They are typically used for sensitive or confidential data, such as health and criminal justice records. Public cloud environments are shared by multiple organizations and offer less control over security and access to data. Hybrid cloud environments combine public and private clouds, while community clouds are shared by multiple organizations with similar needs. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 234 QUESTION 11 Which of the following components enables the input on a mobile device's touch screen? A. B. C. D. OLED Digitizer Inverter CMOS sensor Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The digitizer is the component that enables input on a mobile device's touch screen. It is a transparent layer that sits over the screen and detects the location of touch inputs. OLED (Organic Light Emitting Diode) is a type of display technology. Inverter is a component used in older LCD displays to provide power to the backlight. CMOS (Complementary Metal-Oxide-Semiconductor) sensor is a type of image sensor used in digital cameras and smartphones to capture images.Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 177 QUESTION 12 Which of the following should the data center hardware technician implement to ensure maximum uptime for customers' virtual machines? A. B. C. D. Line conditioner AC voltage regulator Uninterruptible power supply Cloud storage backup Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: An uninterruptible power supply (UPS) can help ensure maximum uptime for customers' virtual machines by providing a backup power source in case of a power outage or other power-related issues. A line conditioner and AC voltage regulator are designed to stabilize the power supply, but do not provide backup power. Cloud storage backup is a way to backup data, but does not directly impact uptime. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 159 QUESTION 13 A field technician has been dispatched to a site with an internet outage. Upon arriving, the technician discovers that the POTS lines are not working as well. Which of the following technologies is the site MOST likely using? A. B. C. D. Fiber Cable DSL Satellite Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: DSL (Digital Subscriber Line) uses POTS (Plain Old Telephone Service) lines to provide high-speed internet access. If the POTS lines are not working, it could cause an internet outage for DSL customers. Fiber and cable internet typically use different types of infrastructure, while satellite internet is not reliant on POTS lines. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 231 QUESTION 14 A customer reports that a computer is never able to reach more than a 100Mbps transfer data rate, even when using a Gigabit LAN card. While troubleshooting, the technician notices the network cable needs to be replaced. Which of the following cable categories is limiting the transfer speed? A. B. C. D. Cat 5 Cat 5e Cat 6 Cat 6a Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Cat 5 cable is limited to a maximum data transfer rate of 100Mbps, while Cat 5e, Cat 6, and Cat 6a cables support Gigabit Ethernet (1000Mbps) and higher speeds. Even though the LAN card is capable of Gigabit speeds, it cannot achieve that speed when using a Cat 5 cable. Upgrading to a Cat 5e or higher cable would allow the computer to achieve Gigabit speeds. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1 - Page 196 QUESTION 15 A user on a SOHO network is unable to watch online videos, even at 240 pixels. The technician runs ipconfig from the user's computer and records the following: The technician then connects a test laptop to the router via the user's Cat 5 cable and records the following information: Which of the following is MOST likely causing the user's issue? A. B. C. D. Incorrect IP address Faulty NIC Misconfigured default gateway Bad network cable Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Based on the information recorded by the technician, the network connection appears to be functioning normally. The user's computer is properly configured with an IPv4 address, subnet mask, and default gateway, which should allow the user to access the internet and online videos. The high download and upload speeds and low ping time recorded from the test laptop also indicate that the network is working well. However, the user's inability to watch online videos suggests that there might be an issue with the network card (NIC) on the user's computer. The NIC might be faulty or malfunctioning, which is preventing the computer from receiving and processing the video data. The technician should try replacing the NIC to resolve the issue. QUESTION 16 A technician needs to recommend an internet connection for a customer who travels around the world and wants to have connectivity while visiting remote camping locations. Some of the locations the customer visits have limited or unreliable cellular service. Which of the following connection types should the technician recommend? A. B. C. D. Satellite DSL Fiber Hotspot Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The connection type that the technician should recommend is Satellite. Satellite internet is a good option for people who travel around the world and want to have connectivity while visiting remote camping locations. It works by using terminals which can give you internet access in remote locations as long as they have a line of sight to the satellite in orbit above12.Since the customer travels to remote camping locations with limited or unreliable cellular service, the best recommendation is satellite internet connection. Satellite internet uses a dish to connect to satellites orbiting the earth, which can provide coverage anywhere in the world as long as there is a clear line of sight to the satellite. This is especially useful in remote areas where traditional terrestrial connections are not available. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1001: 1.6 Given a scenario, evaluate connection type and bandwidth. QUESTION 17 While implementing a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul, a technician notices the current channel selection is extremely polluted with various RF signals. Upon performing a spectral analysis, the technician discovers a channel containing almost no RF pollution. Unfortunately, the technician is unable to select that channel. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue? A. B. C. D. The channel is reserved for licensed band use. The channel selection is defective; contact the manufacturer. The channel must be unlocked by the vendor. The device requires a firmware update to unlock the channel. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The most likely reason that the technician is unable to select the channel with almost no RF pollution is that it is reserved for licensed band use. Some channels are reserved for specific purposes and require a license to use. These licensed bands are typically used for critical infrastructure, public safety, or military operations, and unlicensed devices are not allowed to use them. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1001: 3.3 Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices. QUESTION 18 A user connects a smartphone to a laptop. Which of the following types of networks has the user created? A. B. C. D. PAN MAN WLAN LAN Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: When a user connects a smartphone to a laptop, they create a Personal Area Network (PAN). A PAN is a type of network used for communication between devices in close proximity to each other, typically within a range of a few meters or less. This type of network is commonly used for wireless communication between personal devices, such as connecting a smartphone to a laptop for file sharing or internet access. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1001: 1.1 Explain common connectors and their uses. QUESTION 19 A user reports that printed receipts have black smudges over the entire image. The text is still present but is very dark and sometimes illegible. Which of the following are the MOST likely cause and solution for the printer issue? A. The ribbon is jammed and is rubbing on the paper. Clear the bad ribbon and feed it through properly. B. The printhead is too hot. Adjust the temperature down and retry printing. C. The printer is loaded with the wrong type of paper. Replace the receipt paper with carbon paper. D. The blue ink cartridge was loaded with black ink. Put in the correct ink and clean the printhead. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The black smudges over the entire image on a printed receipt are most likely caused by a jammed ribbon that is rubbing on the paper. The solution is to clear the bad ribbon and feed it through the printer properly. Ribbon jams can be caused by various issues, such as incorrect installation or a damaged ribbon. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1001: 4.5 Given a scenario, troubleshoot common printer problems. QUESTION 20 A technician is configuring a workstation to be used as a VM host. After installing the necessary software, the technician is unable to create any VMs. Which of the following actions should be performed? A. B. C. D. Disable the BIOS password. Enable TPM. Enable multithreading. Enable Fast Startup. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: If you want to install Windows 11 on a virtual machine using Hyper-V, you will have to use a “Generation 2” VM and enable the “trusted platform module” (TPM) and Secure Boot options.Otherwise, the OS won’t install.Starting with Windows 11, Microsoft is changing the system requirement and making TPM 2.0 and Secure Boot a prerequisite to perform an in-place upgrade or clean install the new version on any device. This is in addition to the new 4GB of RAM and at least 64GB of storage. :quoted from here: https://pureinfotech.com/enable-tpm-secure-boot-hyperv-install-windows-11/ Furthermore, Multithreading is not a requirement for hyper-v hosting. To create virtual machines on a workstation, the technician needs to enable Trusted Platform Module (TPM) in the system BIOS. TPM is a hardware-based security feature that helps protect the system from unauthorized access and tampering. It is required for many virtualization technologies, including Hyper-V, VirtualBox, and VMware. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives - 220-1002: 2.7 Explain the basics of virtualization. QUESTION 21 Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer. Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue? A. Replace the printer paper with a new ream. B. Clear the print spooler on each computer. C. Reinstall the printer driver on each computer D. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Thin, vertical lines on every printed page are usually caused by a dirty drum or toner cartridge.Performing the drum-cleaning procedure will likely resolve the issue. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 18 QUESTION 22 A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing? A. B. C. D. Thunderbolt eSATA M.2 SCSI Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: M.2 is a form factor for solid-state drives (SSDs) that enables direct attachment to the motherboard without the need for cables. Thunderbolt is a high-speed interface that supports data transfer, video output, and charging. eSATA is an external interface for connecting SATA devices. SCSI is an older interface standard for connecting hard drives, printers, and other peripherals.Installing a hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables is usually done with an M.2 slot. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 5 QUESTION 23 An organization has some computers running macOS and some computers running Windows. The computers running macOS also need to run a piece of software that is only available on Windows. Which of the following BEST describes the solution for running Windows software on a computer running macOS? A. B. C. D. Operating system spoofing Remote software provisioning Indirect software implementation Cross-platform virtualization Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Cross-platform virtualization would be the best solution for running Windows software on a computer running macOS. This involves running a virtual machine (VM) on the macOS computer, which emulates a Windows environment and allows the Windows software to be installed and run within the VM.Cross-platform virtualization allows a computer running macOS to run Windows software. It involves creating a virtual machine on the macOS computer and installing a Windows operating system on it.Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 1 QUESTION 24 A technician replaced a motherboard on a server, and now the 64-bit hypervisor is not loading correctly. Which of the following needs to be enabled for the hypervisor to run? A. B. C. D. Hardware prefetcher Hyperthreading vPro VT-d Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: https://techlibrary.hpe.com/docs/iss/proliant-gen10-uefi/s_enabling_VT-d.htmlEnabling VT-d (Virtualization Technology for Directed I/O) in the server's BIOS settings is required for the hypervisor to run properly. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 11 QUESTION 25 A Microsoft Windows user is preparing to work in another country and needs to comply with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable medi a. Which of the following solutions would MOST likely satisfy this requirement? A. B. C. D. A USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed An SD memory card with NTFS An xD memory card with ext3 A portable hard drive with FAT32 Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Using a USB 3.1 flash drive with BitLocker to Go installed is the best option for complying with corporate policy for data protection when copying files to portable media. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 12 QUESTION 26 A technician installed a Cat 5 UTP cable approximately 275ft (84m) from a network switch in an office to a workstation located on a factory floor The technician sees both a flashing green LED and a flashing orange LED on the workstation's NIC. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. B. C. D. Check for loose connections, pinched bends, and physical damage. Install a powered hub as close as possible to the halfway point in the Cat 5 UTP cable run. Replace the entire run of Cat 5 UTP cable with Cat 5 STP cable. Upgrade the entire cable run to multimode fiber. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The flashing green and orange LEDs on the NIC indicate connection issues. The technician should first check for loose connections, pinched bends, and physical damage, which are the most common causes of connection problems. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 14 QUESTION 27 A user acquired a new workstation and is attempting to open multiple targe Excel files simultaneously. The user is not experiencing the expected performance when executing such large requests. Which of the following should a technician do FIRST? A. B. C. D. Increase the swap partition. Upgrade the CPU in the workstation. Upgrade the power supply in the workstation. Upgrade the RAM in the workstation. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Opening multiple large Excel files simultaneously requires a large amount of RAM. Upgrading the RAM in the workstation should improve performance. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 9 QUESTION 28 An engineer is experiencing unexpected reboots on a graphics workstation when rendering complex 3-D models. The workstation is configured with a 115V power supply that is rated at 200W and connected to a UPS. The central processing unit contains 16 hyperthreaded cores, and a discrete graphics solution utilizing an 8-pin power connector is installed in a PCI Express x16 slot. Which of the following indicates where the technician should begin troubleshooting? A. B. C. D. The UPS, as 115V is insufficient for the configuration and should be increased to 220V The power supply, as 200W is insufficient when the GPU is heavily tasked The graphics card, as it is the component that triggers the unexpected reboots The motherboard, as only standard PCI slots should be used for high-end graphics cards, not PCI Express slots Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The unexpected reboots on a graphics workstation when rendering complex 3-D models may be caused by insufficient power supply. The workstation is configured with a 115V power supply that is rated at 200W, which may not be enough when the GPU is heavily tasked. The technician should begin troubleshooting by checking the power supply. QUESTION 29 A user submitted a ticket to report an issue with a new printer that is no longer accepting new print jobs. The technician verifies the printer is on and notices the printer LCD screen has the following error message: Paper Jam, Jam in fuser. Which of the following is the MOST efficient next step the technician should complete? A. B. C. D. Apply a maintenance kit to the printer Check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions. Turn the printer on and off to see if the error clears. Replace the fuser. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The MOST efficient next step the technician should complete is to check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions1. The error message “Paper Jam, Jam in fuser” indicates that there is a paper jam in the fuser2. The fuser is one of the parts of a laser printer most likely to fail without giving any explicit message2. The printer LCD screen indicates a paper jam in the fuser. The most efficient next step the technician should complete is to check the printer paper path to locate any obstructions. Applying a maintenance kit or replacing the fuser may not be necessary if the issue is caused by a paper jam. QUESTION 30 A technician needs to fix a Cat 5 cable issue. The cable, which is connected to a network jack, fails when it is moved around. Which of the following items must the technician use to fix the issue? (Select TWO). A. B. C. D. E. F. Scissors Network tap Magnetized screwdriver Tone generator RJ45 connector Crimper Correct Answer: E, F Section: Explanation: To fix a Cat 5 cable issue where the cable fails when it is moved around, the technician would need to use an RJ45 connector (option E) and a crimper (option F). The technician can use the crimper to attach a new RJ45 connector to the end of the cable, which should resolve the issue.An RJ45 connector (option E) is a type of connector commonly used for Ethernet networking. It is an 8position, 8-contact (8P8C) modular plug and jack that is used to terminate Cat 5 and other types of twisted pair cables. A crimper (option F) is a tool used to attach connectors to the ends of cables. In this case, the technician would use the crimper to attach a new RJ45 connector to the end of the Cat 5 cable.When a cable fails when it is moved around, it often indicates that there is a problem with the connector at the end of the cable. By attaching a new RJ45 connector using a crimper, the technician can ensure that the cable has a secure and reliable connection QUESTION 31 A remote user called the help desk to report a notification indicating there is limited or no connectivity. The user can access local file folders and other local machines but none of the organization's servers or network items. Web pages do not appear to function either. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? A. B. C. D. The user's internet connection is down. The user's domain account is locked out. The user's switch has stopped working. The user's IP address needs to be renewed. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Based on the information provided in the scenario, the most likely cause of the issue is that the user’s internet connection is down (option A). This would explain why the user is unable to access any of the organization’s servers or network items and why web pages are not functioning. However, since the user can still access local file folders and other local machines, it suggests that their local network is still functioning.The user can access local file folders and other local machines but none of the organization's servers or network items, indicating that the issue is with the user's internet connection, not with the user's domain account, switch, or IP address.When a user receives a notification indicating that there is limited or no connectivity, it means that their device is unable to establish a connection to the network. In this scenario, the user can access local file folders and other local machines but is unable to access any of the organization’s servers or network items and web pages are not functioning. This suggests that the issue is with the user’s internet connection.An internet connection allows a device to communicate with other devices and servers outside of its local network. If the internet connection is down or not functioning properly, the device will be unable to access any resources outside of its local network. This would explain why the user in this scenario can still access local resources but is unable to access any of the organization’s servers or network items. QUESTION 32 A company wants to use client-side visualization for application testing. Which of the following configurations would BEST support this goal? A. B. C. D. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: QUESTION 33 A user's computer is not receiving a network connection. The technician confirms that the connection seems to be down and looks for the user's port on the patch panel. The port and patch panel are not labeled. Which of the following network tools should the technician use to identify the port? A. B. C. D. Network tap Punchdown tool Toner probe Crimper Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Toner Probe Many cable testers also incorporate the function of a toner probe, which is used to identify a cable from within a bundle. This may be necessary when the cables have not been labeled properly. The tone generator is connected to the cable using an RJ45 jack and applies a continuous audio signal on the cable. The probe is used to detect the signal and follow the cable over ceilings and through ducts or identify it from within the rest of the bundle. QUESTION 34 Which of the following network devices is used to separate broadcast domains? A. B. C. D. Switch Wireless access point Router Hub Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: A router (option C) is a network device that is used to separate broadcast domains. A broadcast domain is a logical division of a computer network in which all nodes can reach each other by broadcast at the data link layer. Routers operate at the network layer of the OSI model and use routing tables to determine the best path for forwarding packets between different networks.By separating broadcast domains, routers can help to reduce network congestion and improve performance. When a router receives a broadcast packet on one of its interfaces, it does not forward the packet to any other interfaces. This means that only devices within the same broadcast domain as the sender will receive the broadcast packet. QUESTION 35 A customer reports that access to the network fileshare has become much slower than usual, but local applications do not seem to have trouble. The technician checks the download bandwidth and finds no issues. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT? A. B. C. D. Level of network utilization Customer use of two-factor authentication Amount of local drive space RAID array drive health Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The technician should check the level of network utilization to determine if there is an excessive amount of traffic that may be causing the slow access to the network fileshare. This can be done using network monitoring tools to track the amount of data being transmitted on the network.Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 2.9 QUESTION 36 Which of the following is a valid use for PaaS? A. B. C. D. Off-site backups An application development environment A virtual server installation and configuration model A web application for asset management Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: PaaS (Platform as a Service) is a cloud computing model in which a provider offers a platform that allows developers to create, run, and manage applications without the complexity of building and maintaining the infrastructure. An application development environment is a valid use for PaaS.Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 1.7 QUESTION 37 An IT manager discovered that hundreds of pages of printed materials are being recycled each day because the materials are left on the printer tray instead of being picked up by users. Which of the following would BEST prevent this waste? A. B. C. D. Send friendly reminders to not print unnecessarily. Enable duplex printing to reduce paper utilization. Bill each department for the excess material cost. Require a code or badge before releasing a print job. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: By requiring a code or badge before releasing a print job, it ensures that only authorized personnel can collect the printouts. This method is effective in preventing waste and in keeping sensitive documents confidential. Sending reminders, enabling duplex printing, and billing departments are useful strategies for reducing paper utilization but may not necessarily prevent waste caused by uncollected printouts.Requiring a code or badge before releasing a print job is the best solution to prevent the waste of printed materials, as it ensures that only the user who initiated the print job is able to pick up the printed materials. This can be achieved by implementing print release software or requiring users to enter a PIN code at the printer. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 2.10 QUESTION 38 A technician unboxed a new computer, plugged it in to a UPS. and connected the requested peripherals. The computer lights and fans turn on, but the technician hears three loud, consecutive beeps during boot. Which of the following actions will remediate the issue? A. B. C. D. Replacing the power supply Replacing the UPS Changing the CMOS battery Reseating the RAM Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Three beeps indicate a "base memory read/write test error". Check out "beep codes" for more information.https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Power-on_selftest#POST_beep_codes_on_CompTIA_A.2B_certification_exam QUESTION 39 A remote user reports connectivity issues with the local internet provider. Even after a technician reboots the modem supplied by the ISP. the issue persists. Which of the following would BEST establish the connection in minimal time? A. B. C. D. Radio frequency ISP Neighbor's Wi-Fi Mobile hotspot Fiber optic Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Using a mobile hotspot is the best way to establish an internet connection in minimal time for a remote user who is experiencing connectivity issues with the local internet provider. A mobile hotspot can be set up quickly and provides a reliable connection using cellular data. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 3.4 QUESTION 40 A user's mobile phone gets really hot to the touch and does not retain a charge. The user also reports that the phone is very slow, especially while charging. Which of the following is MOST likely causing these symptoms? A. B. C. D. Broken charging port Digitizer failure CPU overheating Defective battery Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: A defective battery is the most likely cause of a mobile phone that gets really hot to the touch, does not retain a charge, and is slow while charging. A defective battery can cause the phone to overheat and may also cause performance issues. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 2.14 QUESTION 41 A technician powers on a PC and its monitor and sees the following error message: No input signal detected The display lights on the computer are on. Which of the following is a possible solution? A. B. C. D. Changing the BIOS settings Changing the connector setting on the monitor Checking the power plug on the monitor Checking the power plug on the PC Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Changing the connector setting on the monitor is a possible solution for a PC and its monitor that display the error message "No input signal detected". This error can be caused by an incorrect input selected on the monitor, so changing the connector setting to the correct input should resolve the issue. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 1001, 1.10 Top of Form Regenerate response Bottom of Form QUESTION 42 A technician needs to add storage to a workstation. The workstation does not have room to add any internal storage, so the technician plans to add an external storage device. Which of the following connection types should the technician MOST likely use? A. B. C. D. SCSI eSATA PCIe NVMe Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: eSATA is the best choice for adding external storage as it offers a fast transfer rate and is specifically designed for external storage devices. SCSI is an older interface that is rarely used today, PCIe is typically used to add expansion cards to a computer, and NVMe is a newer interface for high-speed solid-state storage, but it is typically used for internal storage devices. QUESTION 43 Upon booting a workstation, a technician hears a distinct clicking sound after power is applied to the motherboard. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause? A. B. C. D. RAID SSD S.M.A.R.T HDD Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The clicking sound is the sound of a damaged disk in the HDD A clicking sound from a hard disk drive typically indicates a mechanical failure, such as the read/write head hitting a physical obstruction or a problem with the disk motor. This can cause the drive to fail to initialize or not be recognized by the system during booting. QUESTION 44 A user failed to gain access to a building's entrance after security measures at the entrance were upgraded last week. The company implemented the 13.56MHz frequency short band, and users can now utilize their mobile devices to authenticate. Which of the following has to be enabled for the mobile device to authenticate? A. B. C. D. Bluetooth Biometrics NFC PIN Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: NFC (Near Field Communication) is a technology used for short-range wireless communication between devices, typically used for contactless payments and authentication. In this scenario, the 13.56MHz frequency short band was implemented, and users can authenticate using their mobile devices, which requires NFC to be enabled on the device. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1001 - Mobile device network and device synchronization - 4.4 QUESTION 45 A user brings an older laptop to the help desk and reports issues with the keyboard. Upon inspection, the technician does not see any external damage but notices that many keystrokes da not register in a word processor. The laptop works fine when the technician tests it with an external keyboard. Which of the following actions would MOST likely resolve the issue? A. B. C. D. Disable the sticky keys feature. Clean the keyboard. Reset the BIOS settings to default. Charge the laptop. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The most likely action that would resolve the issue is to clean the keyboard. Sometimes dust, hair, and other debris can affect keyboard functionality. The technician can try to clean the keyboard asmuch as possible, which may be enough to get the keyboard back in working order QUESTION 46 An administrator is configuring a corporate-owned smartphone for a new manager. The company requires the ability to wipe the phone's data remotely in the event of loss or theft and the capability to approve applications installed on the phone. Which of the following tools would BEST meet this need? A. B. C. D. Tethering to a corporate-owned laptop WPA2-Enterpise wireless Corporate enterprise email Mobile device management Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Mobile Device Management (MDM) is a software solution that allows companies to manage and secure mobile devices used in the corporate environment. MDM provides features such as remote data wipe, application management, and device security policies to ensure data protection and compliance with company policies. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1001 Mobile device hardware and operating systems - 2.8 QUESTION 47 A technician identified an issue on a workstation, obtained details from the user, and made a backup of the system. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. B. C. D. Determine the next steps to resolve the issue and document it. Design a plan of action to resolve the issue and implement the solution. Document the findings, actions, and outcomes. Establish a theory of probable cause, researching internally or externally as needed. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: After the issue has been identified and the backup of the system has been made, the next step is to establish a theory of probable cause. This involves researching the issue to determine the root cause of the problem. This can involve researching internally (e.g. referring to the system logs) or externally (e.g. searching online). Once the probable cause has been identified, the technician can then move on to the next step of designing a plan of action to resolve the issue and implementing the solution. QUESTION 48 A user contacts the help desk in reference to a failing thumbprint scanner. The user states the scanner was functioning correctly yesterday. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be performed FIRST after the ticket has been filed? A. B. C. D. Inquire about possible changes. File a damage report. Requisition a new scanner. Attempt to clean the scanner. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: QUESTION 49 A user submitted a support ticket that states all of the printouts from a laser printer appear to have double images imposed on them. A review of past printer support tickets shows that maintenance kit has not been installed in more than a year. Which of the following printer consumables is MOST likely causing the issue? A. B. C. D. Separation pad Transfer roller Ink cartridge Fuser Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: QUESTION 50 An end user reports that the time and date on a desktop resets after shutdown, and subsequently, the device reboots. The next day, the desktop does not load the OS and is stuck at a black screen with the following message: Which of the following would be the BEST action to take next? A. B. C. D. Change the motherboard. Reseat the motherboard power connections. Replace the CMOS battery. Restore the BIOS to factory default settings. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: QUESTION 51 An organization is looking to upgrade the processing ability for its computers. Most users report that whenever multiple applications are being utilized, the system's response time slows down drastically. When only one application is open, the response time is acceptable. Which of the following should be upgraded FIRST? A. B. C. D. SSD CPU HDD RAM Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The component that should be upgraded first is the RAM. When multiple applications are being utilized, the system’s response time slows down drastically. This is because the computer is runningout of memory. Upgrading the RAM will allow the computer to store more data in memory, which will improve performance when multiple applications are being used123. QUESTION 52 Which of the following BEST describes the main function of a web server? A. B. C. D. Storing files and controlling user access Setting up personal mailboxes and calendars Providing IP addresses and printing services Hosting home pages and business portals Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: A web server is a software application that serves HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol) requests by delivering web pages and other files to users' web browsers. The main function of a web server is to host home pages and business portals, making them accessible to users via the internet. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1001 - Networking - 1.6 QUESTION 53 Client-side virtualization guest machines have security requirements similar to physical machines, but they also need to ensure separation from other guest machines. Which of the following BEST describes this client-side guest security requirement? A. B. C. D. Isolation Authentication Hardening Authorization Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Client-side virtualization guest machines require isolation from other guest machines to maintain their security. Isolation ensures that each virtual machine is separated from others and runs its own operating system and applications, making it less vulnerable to attacks from other guest machines.Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Objectives 220-1002 - Virtualization and cloud computing- 4.1 QUESTION 54 A technician goes to a classroom to troubleshoot a projector that occasionally powers off. The technician recreates the issue and notices the projector will not power back on until approximately 15 minutes have passed. After 15 minutes of being powered on. the projector shuts off again. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT to resolve the issue? A. B. C. D. Clean the filter. Adjust the standby timeout. Check the power cable connection. Replace the bulb. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Based on the given information, it seems that the projector is experiencing issues with overheating or a faulty power supply. The fact that it shuts off and cannot be turned back on until it has cooled down for 15 minutes suggests that the projector is overheating or there is a problem with the power supply. Therefore, the next logical step would be to clean the filter to ensure proper ventilation and airflow, as a dirty filter can cause overheating. QUESTION 55 A user in a medical office contacts a technician regarding a printer that is used to print A4-sized labels. After the labels are printed, they mistakenly contain white space in the middle of the page. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause? A. B. C. D. Contaminated fuser Worn rollers A misfeed Page orientation Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The most likely cause of the issue is that the page orientation is incorrect. The printer may be set toprint labels in a different orientation than the orientation of the label sheet1. QUESTION 56 A technician needs to improve a workstation's overall response time for frequently used applications and data without removing the current hard drive. Which of the following storage devices should the technician install to BEST accomplish the objective? A. B. C. D. M.2 SAS HDD SCSI Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Installing an M.2 SSD will improve a workstation's overall response time for frequently used applications and data without removing the current hard drive. M.2 drives are faster and more efficient than traditional hard drives, making them a good option for increasing overall performance.Questions and Answers PDF 27/111https://www.validexamdumps.com/220-1101.html Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 1.5 Given a scenario, configure storage devices and use appropriate media QUESTION 57 A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. B. C. D. Digitizer issues Overheating Broken screen Malware Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Dropping a smartphone can damage the digitizer, which is the component responsible for sensing touch input. This can cause issues with tapping and swiping on the screen, as well as other touchscreen-related issues. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues QUESTION 58 While using a popular videoconferencing program, the user selects a webcam, but the software is unable to open the webcam. The webcam was working the previous day. Which of the following should be done to address this issue? A. B. C. D. Close other video software and retry. Adjust the conference software to a compatible resolution. Switch the video from the webcam to "conference" mode. Reseat or replace the webcam. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: One possible solution to address the issue of a webcam not working with a videoconferencing program is to close other video software and retry (option A). It’s possible that another video software program is currently using the webcam and preventing the videoconferencing program from accessing it. By closing any other video software that may be running on the computer, the user can ensure that the webcam is available for use by the videoconferencing program. QUESTION 59 A small office has a wireless network with several access points for roaming laptop use. Users occasionally report that the wireless connection drops or becomes very slow. Users have confirmed that this issue only happens when connected to the office wireless network. Which of the following would MOST likely be the cause? A. Hidden SSID B. Device interference C. Ethernet port flapping D. High ISP latency Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Device interference is the most likely cause of the wireless connection dropping or becoming slow.Interference can come from other wireless devices, microwave ovens, or physical barriers like walls and metal objects. Hidden SSID, Ethernet port flapping, and high ISP latency are not likely to cause this issue.Wireless interference from other devices can cause a drop in wireless connection speed and stability.In a small office environment, there may be several wireless devices competing for the same bandwidth, causing the issues described. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.7 Given a scenario, troubleshoot wired and wireless networks with appropriate tools QUESTION 60 A developer is requesting permission to utilize client-side visualization. The developer would like to write code in a setting isolated from other infrastructure to avoid negative impacts of experimental code. Which of the following provides the BEST solution for the developer? A. B. C. D. Cross-platform functionality Software compatibility Test case development Sandbox environment Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: A sandbox environment is an isolated testing environment where code can be written and tested without impacting other infrastructure. This provides a safe and controlled environment for experimentation and development. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 2 Exam Objectives - 5.5 Compare and contrast common workstation security best practices QUESTION 61 A laptop PC user is reporting issues with the hard drive. A filesystem check shows that all files are accessible and the filesystem is clean. After the check, the PC still issues a hard drive error message. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error? A. B. C. D. S.M.A.R.T failure IOPS failure DIMM failure RAID failure Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: If the filesystem check shows that all files are accessible and the filesystem is clean, but a hard drive error message persists, it's possible that the hard drive is experiencing S.M.A.R.T. (Self-Monitoring, Analysis, and Reporting Technology) failure. This is a warning system built into hard drives to alert users of potential issues before they become critical. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues QUESTION 62 A user takes a tablet to a technician because the cursor on it keeps drifting. The technician notices the screen does not appear to be damaged. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the cursor issue? A. B. C. D. The screen is physically damaged. The screen rotation is incorrect. The touch-pen battery is depleted. The screen needs to be recalibrated. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The most likely cause of the cursor issue is that the screen needs to be recalibrated. This can happen when the tablet is used for a long time or when the tablet is dropped or bumped. Recalibrating thescreen will help the tablet recognize the touch input more accurately12. QUESTION 63 A laptop's external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video. Which of the following should a technician perform FIRST? A. B. C. D. Research new webcam firmware. Restart the computer and run system diagnostics. Reseat the webcam. Reinstall the webcam software and drivers. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: https://www.lifewire.com/fix-it-when-webcam-is-not-working-4588517If a laptop's external webcam software is running, but it shows no image or video, the first step the technician should perform is to reseat the webcam. Reseating the webcam involves disconnecting it from the motherboard and then reconnecting it. If this doesn't work, the technician should then check the webcam drivers or software. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 502) QUESTION 64 Which of the following describes the main difference between T568Aand T568B cabling standards? A. B. C. D. The T568B data transfer rate is higher than T568A. The green and the orange cables are interchanged. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables. The standards use different cable connectors. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The main difference between T568A and T568B cabling standards is that the green and orange cables are interchanged12. T568A is designed for backward compatibility with older telephone wires, while T568B is designed for better signal isolation and noise protection for newer networking systems and products3. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables1. The standards use the same cable connectors3. QUESTION 65 A user reboots a machine. On rebooting, the user hears one beep, and then an error message is displayed. Which of the following are MOST likely causing this issue? (Select TWO). A. B. C. D. E. F. RAM module Graphics card CPU Boot order USB flash drive Power supply Correct Answer: A, D Section: Explanation: When a user hears one beep on rebooting a machine, and then an error message is displayed, it could indicate that there is a problem with the RAM module or the boot order. The beep sound indicates that the POST process was successful, and the error message indicates that the boot process was unsuccessful. The boot order determines the sequence in which the computer looks for bootable devices. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 693 QUESTION 66 Which of the following describes metered utilization of cloud resources? A. B. C. D. Resources provisioned instantly Payments made only for resources that are used Resources pooled to increase computing power Implementation of rapid elasticity Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Metered utilization of cloud resources refers to payments made only for resources that are used.Cloud providers offer a pay-as-you-go model where customers are charged based on their usage of resources. Customers can easily scale up or down their usage of resources as per their needs and only pay for what they use. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 642) QUESTION 67 A technician is receiving reports that the entire office sporadically loses network connectivity throughout the day. The technician determines the root cause to be EMI. Which of the cable mediums would be the MOST cost effective without sacrificing system performance? A. B. C. D. Coaxial Shielded Cat 6 Plenum Cat 5e Multimode fiber Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Electromagnetic interference (EMI) is unwanted noise or interference in an electrical path or circuit caused by an outside source. Hence shielded Cat 6 is better If a technician determines that the root cause of sporadic network connectivity issues is EMI, the most cost-effective cable medium that can be used without sacrificing system performance is shielded Cat 6 cable. Shielded cables protect against electromagnetic interference (EMI) and radio frequency interference (RFI). Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition by Mike Meyers (Page 548) QUESTION 68 A user reports that a PC occasionally falls to boot. The user reboots the PC. but the performance is degrading. The technician hears a strange, repetitive, ticking noise coming from the PC. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. B. C. D. Try to extract data. Reseat the RAM modules. Inspect the fan. Check the CD tray. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: This is a safe and sensible option if you value your data more than anything else. You don’t want to risk losing your data by trying other methods that may worsen the situation. You can use a software tool or a service provider to recover your data before attempting any repairs. QUESTION 69 A technician is setting up a device to use two-factor authentication. Which of the following meets this requirement? A. B. C. D. Thumbprint/retinal scan Password/password Password/thumbprint Password/PIN Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Two-factor authentication (2FA) is a security process that requires users to provide two different authentication factors to verify their identity. This means that in addition to providing something they know (such as a password or PIN), they must also provide something they have (such as a smart card or token) or something they are (such as a fingerprint or retinal scan).In this case, the correct answer would be C. Password/thumbprint. This option meets the requirement for two-factor authentication because it combines two different types of authentication factors: something the user knows (the password) and something the user is (the thumbprint). The other options do not meet the requirement for 2FA because they either use only one type of authentication factor (A and D) or use two instances of the same type of factor (B). QUESTION 70 A laptop has been returned for a screen repair. The owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on the desktop. Which of the following steps should the repair technician take FIRST? A. B. C. D. Replace the graphics card. Replace the screen, as the customer insists. Recommend the usage of an external display instead. Ensure the backlight is functioning as expected. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: If a laptop has been returned for a screen repair and the owner insists the screen is broken, but occasionally a faded image is able to be seen in very bright settings on the desktop, the first step the repair technician should take is to ensure the backlight is functioning as expected. If the backlight is faulty, the screen may appear to be broken, but it may only be dim or too dark to be visible QUESTION 71 An online retailer wants to save money and is considering migrating to the public cloud so peak is over. Which of the following BEST describes this aspect of cloud computing? A. B. C. D. Rapid elasticity Metered utilization Shared resources High availability Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Rapid elasticity is only suitable for a domain whose resource requirements suddenly up and down for a specific time interval. Referring to the Qthe online retailer wants to migrate to public cloud services during peak season, then wants it to be removed "automatically" when the peak is over. QUESTION 72 A colleague has a laptop that has been working as expected for several years wall outlet. The MOST likely component that needs to be replaced is the: A. power adapter. B. battery. C. system fan. D. hard drive. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: QUESTION 73 A technician is commissioning a workstation that is required to have mirrored storage, utilizing two 4TB drives that support one failure. Which of the following BEST meets these requirements? A. B. C. D. RAID 0 RAID 1 RAID 5 RAID 10 Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: RAID 1 is a mirrored configuration that utilizes two drives and provides redundancy by allowing one drive to fail without data loss. This configuration meets the requirement of mirrored storage with two 4TB drives that support one failure. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 8 QUESTION 74 A technician is tasked with installing additional RAM in a desktop computer. Which of the following types of RAM is MOST likely to be used? A. B. C. D. SODIMM DDR3 ECC VRAM Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: DDR3 is the most commonly used RAM type in modern desktop computers. It is faster and more energy efficient than its predecessors, and offers larger capacity modules. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Ninth Edition, Chapter 5 QUESTION 75 A technician is upgrading a faulty motherboard that was ordered by an end user for an old, high-end desktop computer. However, the technician is unable to install the CPU into the socket. Upon closer inspection, the technician notices the pins on the CPU do not line up with the socket. Which of the following would be the best course of action for the technician to take NEXT? A. Try to set as many pins as possible. B. Install an adaptor to create a universal socket. C. Verify the socket type and manufacturer. D. Find a compatible motherboard for the CPU. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: In this situation, the best course of action for the technician to take NEXT would be C. Verify the socket type and manufacturer. If the pins on the CPU do not line up with the socket on the motherboard, it is likely that there is a compatibility issue between the two components. The technician should verify that the socket type and manufacturer of the motherboard match those of the CPU to ensure that they are compatible. QUESTION 76 Laura, a customer, has instructed you to configure her home office wireless access point. She plans to use the wireless network for finances and has requested that the network be setup with the highest encryption possible. Additionally, Laura knows that her neighbors have wireless networks and wants to ensure that her network is not being interfered with by the other networks. She requests that the default settings be changed to the following. Wireless Name: HomeWiFi Shared Key: CompTIA Router Password: Secure$1 Finally, Laura wants to ensure that only her laptop and Smartphone can connect to the network. Laptop: IP Address 192.168.1.100 Hardware Address: 00:0A:BF:03:C4:54 Smartphone: IP Address 192.168.1.101 Hardware Address: 09:2C:D0:22:3F:11 INSTRUCTIONS Configure Laura’s wireless network using the network adapter window. If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the situation, please click the Reset All button. A. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Answer: A Explanation: solution as QUESTION 77 A small ISP has hired a new technician Joe, the new technician, is being trained to configure customers* home networks The trailing instructor gives me technician a starter kit with cables, cable ends, and other network equipment and asks mm to build a working network. The computer should be connected to have internet connectivity and the phone should be connected to have a dial tone. INSTRUCTIONS Use the appropriate cables. cable ends, tools and equipment to configure the network ana connect an components accordingly There are 3 steps and the simulation starts on step 1. A. Answer of both steps below Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Answer of both steps below. QUESTION 78 Which of the following would MOST likely be used to obtain electronic images of a large number of printed documents? A. B. C. D. NFC device ADF/flatbed scanner Camera/webcam QR scanner Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Explanation: ADF/flatbed scanner would most likely be used to obtain electronic images of a large number of printed documents. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 351 QUESTION 79 A technician is upgrading a legacy wireless router for a home user. After installing the new router and configuring the SSID to be the same, none of the devices will connect to the network. Which of the following should the technician check NEXT? A. B. C. D. OHCP pool configuration MAC filtering list Wireless protocol settings ONS servers Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The technician should check the MAC filtering list next as the new router may have a different MAC address than the old router. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 332 QUESTION 80 DRAG DROP An office manager reports that a printer is experiencing performance issues. Printouts are smudging when they are handled, and. recently, whenever the manager tries to print oversized documents, the paper jams before anything is printed on it. Select and Place: Correct Answer: Section: Explanation: QUESTION 81 Which of the following concepts would be used by an online retailer to quickly add more web servers during peak sales times? A. B. C. D. Community cloud Rapid elasticity High availability Metered service Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Rapid elasticity would be used by an online retailer to quickly add more web servers during peak sales times. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 405 QUESTION 82 A company has a dot matrix printer that uses carbon paper. The company reports that the first page is printing too light, although the following pages are still legible. Which of the following MOST likely needs to be fixed? A. B. C. D. E. The print drum is worn and loose causing the printing to be light in places The ribbon is low on ink or missing and must be replaced to get proper output The heating element has failed, and a new one needs to be installed for proper transfer The wrong type of filement is loaded, preventing it from sticking correctly The fuser assembly is not calibrated properly, causing it to impact the paper too hard Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Dot Matrix printers do not use heat, they use a pin striking an inked ribbon (for the first copy, the subsequent copies are handled by the carbon paper) The ribbon is low on ink or missing and must be replaced to get proper output in a dot matrix printer that uses carbon paper. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 361 QUESTION 83 A technician needs to install a cost-effective storage device into a rackmount server that will be used as a VM host. This storage will be used for all VMs that run from the server. Which of the following should be used? A. B. C. D. Optical disk drive eMMC storage device 15,000rpm drive RAID 10 array Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: RAID 10 array is often used for server virtualization as it provides both redundancy and performance benefits. It uses a combination of mirroring and striping to provide both fault tolerance and improved I/O performance. An optical disk drive or eMMC storage device would not provide enough storage or performance for a VM host server, while a 15,000rpm drive may provide good performance but would not provide redundancy for fault tolerance. Therefore, a RAID 10 array is the best option for cost-effective storage that will be used for all VMs that run from the server. QUESTION 84 A technician installed new firmware on the company's laser printers and has since been receiving multiple calls that information is garbled and looks like code. Only printers with the new firmware are having this issue. Which of the following steps should the technician complete NEXT? A. B. C. D. Change the language settings on the printers Reboot all the machines having the issues Reboot all the printers. Install an updated printer driver on the print server Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The MOST efficient next step the technician should complete is to install an updated printer driver on the print server12. The issue of information being garbled and looking like code could be related to a compatibility issue with the new firmware and the existing printer driver1. The printer driver is responsible for converting the print job data into a format that the printer can understand and print2. QUESTION 85 Which of the following describes the operational difference between hubs and switches when transmitting data to a specific computer inside the network? A. Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network. B. Switches compress data while hubs send uncompressed data C. Switches receive data and route it to all computers inside the network while hubs receive data and do not route D. Switches scramble data, while hubs send data in the original form. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: Switches only send data to the specific computer, while hubs send data to all computers inside the network. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 323 QUESTION 86 A user working in the field reported the GPS stopped working on a phone. The user’s older, in-car GPS continued to function. Later, the user reported that the phone’s GPS started working again. Which of the following MOST likely caused the phone’s GPS to fail? A. B. C. D. The cell phone was in conservation mode The cell phone had lost service to the earner The eel phone received a firmware update The cell phone had overheated Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The phone's GPS may fail due to a loss of service from the carrier, which provides the phone with GPS location data. The fact that the in-car GPS continued to function suggests that the issue was related to the phone, not the GPS satellites. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 372 QUESTION 87 A system administrator has been tasked with allowing SMTP traffic through the system’s host-based firewall. Which of the following ports should the administrator enabled? A. B. C. D. 23 25 80 161 Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: SMTP (Simple Mail Transfer Protocol) uses port 25 to send email messages between servers12.SMTP uses port 25 to send email messages between mail servers. Therefore, the system administrator should enable port 25 to allow SMTP traffic through the host-based firewall. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 282 QUESTION 88 A Wi-Fi mesh network has been optimized to eliminate poor coverage areas, yet users still experience decreased bandwidth and connectivity issues. Which of the following actions should the technician take NEXT? A. Relocate any large, dense, solid, and metal objects, such as mirrors and file cabinets, in the mesh network coverage area to the perimeter so that wireless reflections, absorptions, and occlusions are minimized. B. Use a Wi-Fi analyzer to determine whether the channel in use is overcrowded and to identify which channel the mesh network should use for best performance. C. Use the signal strength indicator on a mobile device to roam the coverage area and generate a heat map to isolate zones with weak signals. D. Turn off broadcasting of the SSID on the mesh network so that other networks cannot see it. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: If users are experiencing decreased bandwidth and connectivity issues in a Wi-Fi mesh network, the technician should use a Wi-Fi analyzer to determine whether the channel in use is overcrowded and to identify which channel the mesh network should use for best performance. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 308 QUESTION 89 A technician logs on to a PC and inserts an encrypted USB drive. When opening File Explorer, the technician cannot see the USB drive. Which of the following tools should the technician use to see all drives? A. B. C. D. DiskPart Diskmgml Disk Cleanup BitLocker Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: he tool that the technician should use to see all drives is Diskmgmt. Diskmgmt is a Windows utility that allows you to manage disk drives and partitions on your computer. It can be used to view alldrives, including USB drives, that are connected to the computer12. QUESTION 90 A computer that contains critical data has not been backed up and will not boot past a S. M.A.R. T, error that indicates imminent hard disk failure. Which of the following actions should the technician take FIRST? A. B. C. D. Run diagnostics on the faulty hard drive using a boot disk immediately replace the hard drive generating the SMART error Turn off S. M. A. R. T, monitoring in the computer's BIOS settings Attempt to boot the operating system in safe mode Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The technician should run diagnostics on the faulty hard drive using a boot disk first when a computer that contains critical data has not been backed up and will not boot past a S.M.A.R.T. error that indicates imminent hard disk failure. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Guide, Exam 220-1001, Page 376 QUESTION 91 A technician receives several error alerts on a server after an unexpected reboot. A message states that one or more disks are in a degraded state. When the technician advances to the next error message, it indicates the OS is missing. Which of the following are the MOST likely causes of these errors? (Choose two.) A. B. C. D. E. F. G. Missing drives in the OS RAID failure Bootable device not found Data loss Controller failure CMOS corruption TPM malfunction Correct Answer: B, C Section: Explanation: The message stating that one or more disks are in a degraded state is a clear indication of a RAID failure. RAID stands for Redundant Array of Independent Disks, and it is a technology used to provide fault tolerance and improve performance by combining multiple hard drives into a single logical unit.The message indicating that the OS is missing is most likely caused by a bootable device not found.This means that the server is unable to boot from the designated boot device, which could be the hard drive, a CD/DVD drive, or a USB flash drive. This could be caused by a faulty boot device, a loose cable, or a misconfiguration in the BIOS or UEFI settings. QUESTION 92 A technician is receiving reports that the entire office sporadically loses network connectivity throughout the day. The technician determines the root cause to be EMI. Which of the following cable mediums would be the MOST cost effective without sacrificing system performance? A. B. C. D. Coaxial Shielded Cat 6 Plenum Cat 5e Multimode fiber Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: In this situation, the MOST cost-effective cable medium that would not sacrifice system performance would be B. Shielded Cat 6. Electromagnetic interference (EMI) can disrupt network connectivity by interfering with the signals transmitted over network cables. Shielded Cat 6 cables are designed to provide protection against EMI by incorporating a layer of shielding material around the cable’s conductors. This shielding helps to prevent EMI from interfering with the signals transmitted over the cable. QUESTION 93 Which of the following would be BEST reason to use a virtual machine as a sandbox? A. B. C. D. To test new software in a safe environment To increase the efficient use of computing resources To run multiple machines on the same hardware To have dedicated hardware for a single system Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The main reason to use a virtual machine as a sandbox is to test new software in a safe environment without risking the integrity of the host operating system. Using a virtual machine enables the testing of software and allows for the isolation of the software from the host system. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification Study Guide, Tenth Edition, pg. 409 QUESTION 94 A user visits the desk to report that a smartphone takes more than a day to fully charge. The user has already tested multiple wall outlets and swapped the charging cable, but the results are the same. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST? A. B. C. D. Verify the power rating of the charger. Ensure all unnecessary connectivity features are disabled. Check that all missing smartphone OS updates are applied. Complete a factory reset of the phone Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: A smartphone that takes more than a day to fully charge may be due to a charger that is not powerfulenough. The technician should verify that the charger is rated for the smartphone’s battery capacity and that it is providing the correct voltage and amperage123. QUESTION 95 In which of the following places is a laptop's wireless antenna MOST likely located? A. B. C. D. Near the network interface card Underneath the battery Integrated into the motherboard In the bezel of the lid Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: According to Dell Community, the Wi-Fi antenna is located in the top of the LCD display housing. It consists of two elements, fed by two cables, a white main designated on the Wi-Fi card by a white triangle, and a black auxiliary designated on the Wi-Fi card by a black triangle1. QUESTION 96 A network administrator was notified that laptop users are unable to access or ping any network resources on the corporate network. Which of the following should the network administrator check FIRST? A. B. C. D. DHCP AAA DNS ARP Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: Domain Name System (DNS) is an Internet service that translates domain names (e.g., its.umich.edu) into IP addresses. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is a protocol for automatically assigning IP addresses and other configurations to devices when they connect to a network. QUESTION 97 Recently, an organization received a number of spam emails that passed through the spam gateway. The emails contained generally the same information, but the sending domains were different. Which of the following solutions would BEST help mitigate the issue? A. B. C. D. Updating the keyword filtering Editing the sender policy framework Contacting the gateway vendor Verifying DMARC is enabled Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: DMARC (Domain-based Message Authentication, Reporting and Conformance) is an email authentication protocol. It is designed to give email domain owners the ability to protect their domain from unauthorized use, commonly known as email spoofing. QUESTION 98 A technician is monitoring all outbound traffic in a SOHO. Which of the following is the MOST costeffective solution to monitor the traffic? A. B. C. D. Spectrum analyzer Network tap Lookback plug Toner probe Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: A network tap is used to intercept the signals passing over a cable and send them to a packet or protocol analyzer. Taps are either powered or unpowered: QUESTION 99 While implementing a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul, a technician notices the current channel selection is externally polluted with various RF signals. Upon performing a spectral analysis, the technician discovers a channel containing almost no RF pollution. Unfortunately, the technician is unable to select that channel. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue? A. B. C. D. The channel is reserved for licensed band use. The channel selection is defective, contact the manufacturer. The channel must be unblocked by the vendor. The device requires a firmware update to unlock the channel. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The 2. band is subdivided into up to 14 channels, spaced at 5 MHz intervals from 2412 MHz up to 2484 MHz. Wi-Fi requires bandwidth of approximately 20 MHz, not 5 MHz. Consequently, a site designer needs to choose the channels that do not overlap. On a WLAN where only the first 11 channels are available, channels 1, 6, and 11 can be selected as non-overlapping. Note: In the Americas, regulations permit the use of channels 1-11 only, while in Europe, channels 1-13 are permitted. In Japan, all 14 channels are permitted QUESTION 100 A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transport the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue? A. B. C. D. The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint. The phone’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port. The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charring. Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The symptoms suggest that the charging cable falls out of the phone, indicating that the charge port may contain foreign objects such as lint, which can interfere with the connection between the charging cable and the phone. QUESTION 101 A user is trying to play a DVD on a projector. The user can hear the audio; however, the projector is showing an error message that states: HDMI Blocked due to Copy Protection Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the error? A. B. C. D. The HDMI cannot carry the signal from the DVD to the projector. The user needs to switch from HDMI to a cable standard such as DisplayPort. The projector does not support the necessary HDCP protocol. The user needs to enable cony-protected sources in the projector's settings. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: The Official CompTIA® A+® Core 1 and Core 2 Student Guide (Exams 220-1001 and 220-1002) | 193 Protected content. If you encounter an error that indicates unauthorized content or an HDCP error: DVI, HDMI, DisplayPort, and Thunderbolt all provide support for the Digital Rights Management (DRM) mechanism High-bandwidth Digital Content Protection (HDCP). HDCP allows a content source (such as a Blu-ray disc) to disable itself if the display adapter and monitor and/or speaker system do not support HDCP and fail to authenticate themselves with the playback source. There have been various iterations of HDCP (at time of writing the current version is 2.2) and backward-compatibility can be problematic as authentication may fail between devices that support different versions of the standard. QUESTION 102 Vertical streaks are appearing on the output of a laser printer. Which of the following items is the MOST likely cause? A. B. C. D. Roller Drum Transfer belt Ribbon Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: Vertical or horizontal lines—Marks that appear in the same place (referred to as repetitive defects) are often due to dirty feed rollers (note that there are rollers in the toner cartridge and fuser unit too) or a damaged or dirty photosensitive drum. too) or a damaged or dirty photosensitive drum.Vertical streaks on a laser printer output are usually caused by a damaged or worn-out drum, which is responsible for transferring toner to the paper. If the drum is damaged, toner may accumulate on certain parts of the drum, leading to streaks on the printed output. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 15 QUESTION 103 A university student was able to boot from a live Linux CD on a computer in a shared space on campus. Which of the following will BEST prevent this type of action from occurring in the future? A. Require TPM security features. B. Set a boot password. C. Disable all media options. D. Enable secure boot. Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: Enabling secure boot will verify the digital signature of the bootloader and operating system, ensuring that the system only boots from trusted and authorised sources. This can prevent booting from an unauthorised live CD or other external media.The best way to prevent booting from a live Linux CD on a computer in a shared space on campus is to enable secure boot. Secure boot is a feature that ensures that the system only runs software that is signed by an authorized party. This means that the system will not boot from any unauthorized media, including live Linux CDs.Secure Boot is a feature that ensures that the system only runs software that is signed by an authorized party. This means that the system will not boot from any unauthorized media, includinglive Linux CDs. Secure Boot is an important security feature designed to prevent malicious software from loading when your PC starts up (boots)1.Booting from a live Linux CD is a process that allows you to run a Linux operating system from a CD or DVD without installing it on your hard drive. This can be useful for testing or troubleshooting purposes. To boot from a live Linux CD, you need to insert the CD or DVD into your computer’sCD/DVD drive and restart your computer. Most systems are set up to automatically boot from the CD/DVD drive, but if your system is not set up this way, you may need to change a system setting to boot from a Linux CD/DVD23. QUESTION 104 A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing. The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT? A. Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents. B. Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the Issue. C. Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type. D. Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process: 1. Identify the problem. 2. Establish a theory of probably cause. (Qthe obvious) 3. Test the theory to determine cause. 4. Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution. 5. Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures. 6. Document findings, actions, and outcomes. Writing a knowledge base article in the ticketing software would help document the root cause of the application error and the steps taken to resolve it, which can help other technicians resolve similar issues in the future. This is an example of knowledge management best practices. Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 6 QUESTION 105 A thermal punier that is used 10 print order buckets in a factory has been experiencing Issues following the failure of the alt conditioner during the summer. Each ticket has blank spots or is missing text. Which of the following would MOST likely solve these Issues? A. B. C. D. Restore function to the air conditioner. Clean the heating element. Replace the paper rolls. Install new toner. Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: it appears that option A, restoring function to the air conditioner, would most likely solve the thermal printer issue in the described scenario. The failure of the air conditioner during the summer could likely have caused high humidity or heat in the factory, which can affect the printing quality of thermal printers by causing blank spots or missing text. By restoring function to the air conditioner, the temperature and humidity in the factory can be controlled, which can help eliminate these printing issues. However, it is still possible that any of the other options listed could also potentially solve the issue, so it is best to assess the situation further and try different solutions if necessary. QUESTION 106 A technician is troubleshooting a projector that will not display any Images. The technician has verified the computer output and cable are providing a good video signal. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT? A. B. C. D. Calibrate the image. Replace the bulb. Test the output resolution. Clean the fans. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: The MOST efficient next step the technician should do is to test the output resolution1. The issue of a projector that will not display any images could be related to the output resolution1. If the output resolution is not compatible with the projector, the projector will not display any images1. Calibrating the image, replacing the bulb, or cleaning the fans may not be effective1.If a projector is not displaying any images despite verifying that the computer output and cable are providing a good video signal, the technician should test the output resolution. The output resolution of the computer may not be compatible with the projector, which can cause the projector to not display any images. QUESTION 107 A technician installed a new router at a small office. After the Installation, the technician notices that all devices have a I69.254.x.x IP address. Printers and fileshares are still working, but PCs cannot access the Internet. Which of the following should the technician configure on the router to enable devices to connect to the internet? A. B. C. D. APIPA DNS DHCP SMB Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: o enable devices to connect to the internet after installing a new router at a small office, the technician should configure DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) on the router. DHCP is a network protocol that automatically assigns IP addresses and other network configuration parameters to devices on a network. By configuring DHCP on the router, the technician can ensure that all devices on the network are assigned a valid IP address that allows them to connect to the internet.If all devices have a 169.254.x.x IP address, this suggests that the router is not assigning IP addresses to the devices using DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol). Configuring the DHCP settings on the router can enable the devices to receive IP addresses automatically and access the internet.Reference: CompTIA A+ Certification All-in-One Exam Guide, Tenth Edition, Chapter 14 QUESTION 108 A technician is installing new power supplies for the application engineering team's workstations. The management team has not yet made a decision about installing dual graphics cards, but they want to proceed with the project anyway. Which of the following power supplies would provide the BEST solution? A. B. C. D. 1000W 24-pin modular power supply 220VAC 9000J surge protector 500W redundant power supply 2000VA uninterruptible power supply Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: A 1000W 24-pin modular power supply provides enough power to support a dual graphics card configuration, which requires a significant amount of power. A modular power supply allows the technician to connect only the cables that are necessary for the current configuration, reducing cable clutter and improving airflow inside the case. This makes it easier to install and maintain the power supply. QUESTION 109 The help desk received a ticket regarding Issues with a laser printer. The printer has had repairs previously for scanning Issues. Currently, the printed text is not adhering properly to the paper. Which of the following should be replaced lo resolve this Issue? A. B. C. D. Fuser Waste container Roller Toner Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: If the printed text is not adhering properly to the paper on a laser printer that has had repairs previously for scanning issues, the fuser should be replaced to resolve this issue. The fuser is a component of the printer that uses heat and pressure to fuse the toner onto the paper. If the fuser is not functioning properly, the toner may not adhere properly to the paper. QUESTION 110 Which of the following allows all VMs in a virtual environment to have RAM allocated for use? A. B. C. D. Measured service Containerization Synchronization Resource pooling Correct Answer: D Section: Explanation: The concept described in the Qis related to virtualization and resource management in a virtual environment. The approach that allows all virtual machines (VMs) to have memory (RAM) allocated for use is known as resource pooling. Therefore, the correct answer is D: "Resource pooling." This approach allows resources to be allocated dynamically to VMs based on their current needs, and ensures that resources are used efficiently in the virtual environment.Resource pooling is a technique used in virtualization to share resources among multiple virtual machines (VMs). With resource pooling, RAM can be allocated dynamically to VMs as needed, allowing all VMs in a virtual environment to have RAM allocated for use.Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Resource_pooling QUESTION 111 A technician is replacing a computer with a connected point-of-sale system using a 9-pin serial adapter. The new computer does not have a 9-pin serial port. Which of the following ports can an adapter be installed on in order to connect to the point-of-sale system? A. B. C. D. HDMI Bluetooth USB Lightning Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: A USB to 9-pin serial adapter can be used to connect the new computer to the point-of-sale system using a USB port. USB is a common and versatile port type found on most computers.If a technician is replacing a computer with a connected point-of-sale system using a 9-pin serial adapter and the new computer does not have a 9-pin serial port, an adapter can be installed on the USB port in order to connect to the point-of-sale system. A USB-to-serial adapter can be used to connect a serial device to a USB port on a computer. QUESTION 112 A technician installs a new printer for a workstation and tries to print a test page, but the page does not print. The technician looks at the print queue and notices that the printer is called 'Generic Printer." Which of the following BEST describes what the technician should do to fix this issue? A. B. C. D. Connect the printer with a USB cable rather than over the network. Install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS. Install the correct toner in the printer. Set the printer trays to allow duplex printing Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: The technician should install the appropriate printer drivers for the OS to enable the computer to communicate with the printer. The generic printer name suggests that the drivers are missing or not installed correctly. QUESTION 113 A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone does not boot. Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue? A. B. C. D. Upgrade the Ethernet cable to the latest specification. Replace the phone. Install a PoE injector. Change ports on the switch. Correct Answer: C Section: Explanation: https://intellinetnetwork.eu/pages/what-is-a-poe-injectorThe quickest way to resolve the issue is to install a Power over Ethernet (PoE) injector to provide power to the IP phone. An unmanaged switch does not provide PoE, so an injector is needed to power the phone. QUESTION 114 A desktop support technician is tasked with upgrading a laptop so that it has the fastest data access possible. Which of the following BEST satisfies this requirement? A. B. C. D. mSATASSD M.2NVMeSSD 2.5SATASSD 2.5SASHHD Correct Answer: B Section: Explanation: M.2 NVMe SSD provides the fastest data access possible for a laptop. It is a high-performance solidstate drive that connects directly to the motherboard through an M.2 slot. QUESTION 115 Which of the following commonly uses NFC? A. B. C. D. Contactless payments loT devices Inventory tracking Tethering Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: NFC (Near Field Communication) is a wireless communication technology that is commonly used for contactless payments, mobile payments, and other mobile transactions. It allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are placed in close proximity.Contactless payments commonly use NFC (Near Field Communication). NFC is a wireless communication technology that allows two devices to communicate with each other when they are in close proximity. Contactless payments use NFC to enable customers to make payments by simply tapping their contactless card or mobile device on a payment terminal. QUESTION 116 A user on the marketing team uses various multimedia applications that consume a lot of memory. The user needs to install more RAM to run these applications effectively. When the user opens the computer case, the user sees four slots in two sets of colors. Which of the following memory types is MOST likely required? A. B. C. D. E. Dual-channel Triple-channel Single-channel Quad-channel Error correction code RAM Correct Answer: A Section: Explanation: The two sets of colors on the motherboard indicate that it supports dual-channel memory, which doubles the bandwidth available to the memory controller. Dual-channel memory requires two identical memory modules to be installed in pairs in the correct slots to work effectively. In this case, the user can install two identical RAM modules to enable dual-channel

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