Pathology Lab Exam 2023-2024 PDF

Committee 5 | 2023-2024 | PHASE 3 From the River to the Sea Palestine Will be Free....YA PATHOLOGY LAB 1. Which one of the following is true for lesion seen in 5. Which one of the following is true for the lesion the picture?...

Committee 5 | 2023-2024 | PHASE 3 From the River to the Sea Palestine Will be Free....YA PATHOLOGY LAB 1. Which one of the following is true for lesion seen in 5. Which one of the following is true for the lesion the picture? seen in the picture? A. Lesion is situated in endometrium. A. Lesion is situated in endometrium. B. It is a malignant lesion. B. It is a benign lesion. C. It represents normal tissue, there is no lesion. C..Papillary structures including fibrovascular cores D. It represents secretory endometrium. are lined by malignant epithelial cells. E. It has necrosis and consists of structures including D. It consists of different structures composed of fibrovascular cores. different cell types ANSWER: A E. It consists of villous strucutures ANSWER: C 2. Which one of the following is true for the lesion seen in the picture? 6. Which organ is shown in these figures and A. Lesion is situated in endometrium. according to these figures what is the name of this B. It is a benign lesion. pathology? C. Papillary structures including fibrovascular cores are A. Thyroid, follicular carcinoma lined by malignant epithelial cells. B. Ovary, serous papillary carcinoma D. It consists of different structures composed of C. Thyroid, papillary carcinoma different cell types D. Kidney, papillary carcinoma E. It consists of villous structures E. Kidney, clear cell carcinoma ANSWER: C ANSWER: C 3. Which of the following is true about the pictures? 7. Which of the following is true regarding the A. Central stellate scar in the tumor provides a thyroid lesion shown above? characteristic appearance in radiological imaging A. Fibrosis extends into perithyroidal soft tissues studies. B. Increased risk of follicular thyroid carcinoma B. The tumor is located in the medulla. C. Increased risk of medullary thyroid carcinoma C. The findings are compatible with collecting duct D. Increased risk of primary thyroid lymphoma carcinoma. E. Shows nuclear features of papillary thyroid D. There is overexpression of the TFE3 transcription carcinoma factor. ANSWER: D E. It is often multifocal and bilateral. ANSWER: E 8. Which of the following is wrong about the breast pathology observed in the pictures? 4. Which one of the following is true for lesion seen in A. There is no increased mitotic activity or necrosis the picture? in the lesion. A. Lesion is situated in endometrium. B. It is a benign breast lesion. B. It is a malignant lesion. C. The lesion is characterized by proliferation of C. It represents normal tissue, there is no lesion. both epithelial and stromal cells.! D. It represents secretory endometrium. D. There is a myoepithelial cell layer surrounding E. It has necrosis and consists of structures including the ductus. fibrovascular cores. E. Lesion infiltrate the surrounding breast ANSWER: A paranchyma radially. ANSWER: E PATHOLOGY 9. Which of the following is true of pituitary tumors? 13. A 45 year old woman presents recurrent episodes of A. Diabetes insipidus is often associated with anterior dizziness, confusion, palpitations andsweating, which she pituitary tumors. reports usually resolve with drinking orange juice. She is found B. Majority of pituitary adenomas are familial in nature. to have a 2.0cm solid mass in the body of the pancreas. C. GNAS mutations have been described in pituitary tumors Resection specimen showed a tumor looks remarkablylike D. The diagnosis of metastatic behavior can be predicted by giant islets, withpreservation of the regular cords of morphological features monotonous cells with deposition of amyloid in the stroma. E. The functional status of the adenoma can be predicted What is the most ikely diag nosis? from its histologic appearance A. Acinar cell carcinoma ANSWER: C B. Insulinoma C. Gastrinoma 10. Which statement is not true for medullary thyroid D. Pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma carcinoma (MTC) ? E. Well differentiated pancreatic neuroendocrine tumor, A. MTC can be monitored for recurrence with serum nonfunctional calcitonin levels ANSWER: B B. MTC has a wide variety of morphology C. C cell hyperplasia present in familial buk not sporadic 14. Caused primarily by immune elfector cells reacting agaiest cases endogenous beta cell andigens. Itmost commonly develops in D. Stroma has amyloid deposits from calcitonin childhood....which of the following should fill the space? E. Majority of MTC have translocation involving RET proto­ A. Type 1 diabetes mellitus oncogene B. Type 2 diabetes mellitus ANSWER: E C. Autoimmune pancreatitis D. Neuroencorine tumors 11. Which of the histological features is seen in nodular E. Hypertension goiter? ANSWER: A A. Variably sized follicles with flattened hyperplastic epithelium, cysts, hemorrhage, fibrosis 15. Which one of the following features is not characteristic of B. Papillary projections of the epithelium with nuclear a vulvar tumor? features of papillary thyroid arcinoma A. Condyloma acuminata are strongly associated with HPV C. Nodules with distinct thick capsule subtypes 6 &11 and carry a low riskof malignant D. Psammoma bodies transformation E. Vascular invasion B. Vulvar Paget disease have demonstrable underlying ANSWER: A invasive tumor. C. HPV-positive vulvar cancers tend to be poorly differentiated 12. Which of the following features differentiates a PTC squamous cell carcinomas. froma NIFTP? □.Characteristic cellular feature of condyloma is koilocytosis. A. Follicular growth pattern E,Vulvar cancer are mostly seen in women older than 60. B. True papillae ANSWER: B C. Thick colloid D. Nuclear elongation 16. Which of the following statements regarding high grade E. Nuclear grooves squamous intrapithelial lesion (HSIL) is correct? ANSWER: B A. HSIL characterized with dysplasia extends to at least the middle third of the spithelium. B. lt has a low likelihood of progressing to invasive carcinoma C. lt is associated with low risk HPV infection. D. HSIL is managed conservatively with careful observation E. When untreated HSII most commonly progress in to an adenocardinoma. ANSWER: A 17. Which of the following is not a characteristic feature 21. Which of the following is wrong for glomerular of endometoid type endometrial carcinoma? diseases? A. Arising in association with estrogen excess and A. Immune mechanisms underlie most types of endometrial hyperplasia in perimenopausalwomen primary glomerular diseases. B. Mutations in mismatch repair genes and the tumor B. The presence of immunoglobulins and complement suppresfor gene PTEN in the glomerular deposits can be C. Closely resemblance to normal endometrium demonstrated by light microscopy. D. High levels of p53 mutation as an early gent C. Most of the planted antigens induce a granular E. Infiltration into the myometrium pattern of in munoglobulin deposition in immuno ANSWER: D fluoresence. microscopy. D. Anti-glomerular basement membrane.antibody- 18. Which of the following is a feature for a diagnosis of mediated crescentic, glomerulonephritis endometrial hyperplasia? characterized by. very severe glomerular damage with A. Crowded glands with minimal residual intervening necrosis and crescents stroma E. Goodpasture syndrome results from the cross­ B. Diffuse nuclear staining for p53 reaction of anti-GBM antibodies with basement C. Metastases to regional lymph nodes membranes, of lung alveoli. D. Infiltration of myometrium ANSWER: B E. Vascular invasion ANSWER: A 22. Which of the following is wrong for ovarian tumors? 19. Which one of the following is wrong about polcystic A. Serous tumors are the most common of the ovarian ovarian disease? epithe ipltumors. A. lt is a disorder in which multiple cystic follicles in the B. Most of the familial ovarian cancers are ass-ociated ovaries produce excess androgens andestrogens with mutations in BRCA1 and BRCA2 tumorsuppressor B. The ovaries are usually twice the normal size, with a. genes smooth outer cortex C. Low-grade serous tumors have mutations in TPS3 in C. lt usualy manifest with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, all cases. infertility and obesity. D. 5% of primary mucinous cystadenomes and ANSWER: A mucinous carcinomas are bilateral. E. Endometrioid tumors usually are malignant. 20. Which one of the following is wrong about polcystic ANSWER: C ovarian disease? A. lt is a disorder in which multiple cystic follicles in the 23. Which one of the following is wrong for kidney ovaries produce excess androgens andestrogens diseases? B. The ovaries are usually twice the normal size, with a A. Autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease is smooth outer cortex characterized by multiple expanding cysts of C. lt usualy manifest with oligomenorrhea, hirsutism, both Kidneys. infertility and obesity. B. In autosomal dominant polyctstic kidney disease, D. lt is formerly called as Stein-Leventhal syndrome patients with PKD1 mutations tend to have anoIder E. The principal biochemical abnormality is excessive age at onset and later development of renal failure. production of progesterones. C. In autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease, ANSWER: E cut section of a kidney have a spongelike app-earance due to numerous cysts in the cortex and medulla. D. Hepatic disease is the predominant clinical concern in juvenile form of the autosomal recessive polycystic kidney disease E. Nephronophthisis complex is the most common genetic cause of end stage renal disease in children. ANSWER: B 24. Which one is histologic alterations characterize 28. Which of the following information about renal cell blood vessels in malignant hypertension? carcinoma is inaccurate? A. Hyaline arteriolosclerosis A. The most important macroscopic feature of papillary B. Unilateral renal artery stenosis renal cell carcinomas is their vibrant orange-yellow color C. Fibromuscular dysplasia of the renal artery D. Fibrinoid necrosis of arterioles and hyperplastic B. Renal cell carcinoma are derived from the renal arteriolitis tubular epithelium and hence they are E. Widespread thrombosis in the arteries of kidney locatedpredominantly in the cortex. ANSWER: D C. The risk of developing RCC is high in smokers. D. Clear cell carcinomas are the most common type, 25. Which of the following is most common cause 31 accounting for 65% of renal cell cancers. nephrotic sendrome in adults? E. Wilms tumors are characterized by recognizable A. lg. A nephropathy attempts to recapitulate different stages of B. Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis nephrogenesis. C. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis ANSWER: A D. Minimal-Change Disease E. Poststreptococcal Glomerulonephritis 29. Which of the following statements about syphilis is ANSWER: B most accurate? A. Syphilis is a chronic venereal infection caused by the 26. Which one of the following is the characteristic spirochete Trichomonas vaginalis. lesion of the minimal change disease? B. The anogenital region, inner thighs, and axillae, broad A. lt begins as an episode of gross hematuria. -based, elevated lesions termed condylomata accumi- B. lmmunofluorescent stain demonstrates mesangial nata may appear. deposits of igA containing immune complexes C. The pathognomonic microscopic lesions of syphilis C. Glomeruli show diffuse effacement of podocyte foot are intrappithelial vesicles accompanied bynecrotic procesies. cellular debris, neutrophils, and cells harboring D. Glomerular hypercellularity is seen by light characteristic intranuclear viral inclusions. microscopy. D. The chancre begins as a small, painfull, firm papule 2 E. Anti-GBM antibodies are present in the serum. to 4 weeks after sexual exposure. ANSWER: C E. Gummas occur most commonly in bone, skin, and the mucous membranes of the upper airway 27. Examination of the testicular mass of a 35-year- and mouth, but any organ may be affected. old male patient reveals a germ cell tumourconsisting ANSWER: E of large uniform cells with clear cell borders,clear glycogen rich cytoplasm, prominentnucleolus and 30. Of the following, which is not a proliferative breast round nuclei, and prominent lymphocytic infiltration change without atypia? with interspersed fibrous septa. A. Papilloma What is the most accurate diagnosis for this tumor? B. Complex sclerosing lesion A. Embryonal carcinoma C. Sclerosing adenos B. Yolk sac tumor D. Epithelial hyperplasia C. Seminoma E. Fibrocystic Changes D. Choriocarcinoma ANSWER: E E. Immature teratoma ANSWER: C 31. Which of the following contains an inappropriate for nipple discharges? A. Milky discharge (galactorrheA, is associated with elevated prolactin levels. B. Galactorrhea is a feature of malignancy. C. Bloody or serous discharges are most commonly due to large duct papillomas and cysts. D. Discharge associated with malignancy is most commonly due to ductal carcinoma in situ (OCIS). E. Discharge in older women that is spontaneous, unilateral, and bloody is likely to have a malignant origin. ANSWER: B 32. Which of the following is not correct about 37. A 36 year-old female was presented with extreme invasive breast carcinoma, no special type? bouts of nausea and vomiting and pelvicpain.She A. These tumors arise from the terminal duct lobular said an operation for hydatidiform mole one year unit of breast tissue. ago.Trans-vaginal ultrasound revaled amass B. E-cadherin expression was frequently lost in these enlarging the uterus. Which one of the following is tumors. false for this patient? C. Hormone receptor positive breast tumors are A. Her previous diesease was probably a complete assoc-iated with a better prognosis than triple mole negative tumors B. She has an elevated bHCG level D. Ductal carcinoma in situ (DCIS) may be present C. She has a lesion which contains no villus formation around the invasive tumor. D. Lesion is originated from intermediate E. BRCA1 mutation associated tumors are commonly trophoblastic cells. hormone receptor and HER2 negative E. She is under risk of metastasis to the lung. ANSWER: B ANSWER: D 33. Which of the following is not correct about 38. A 44-year-old female complaining of joint pain, fibroadenomas of the breast? polyuria, polydipsia, and generalized fatigue. A. Fibroadenomas may have MED12 mutations The patient reports a history of recurrent kidney B. Fibroadenoma is a biphasic tumor containing stones and depression. Technetium-99 radyonuclide stromal and epithelial components. scan enlargement of left inferior parathyroid gland. C. Fibroadenomas recur more frequently than Which of the followin ptatement isfalse for this Phyllodes tumors patient and disease? D. They arise from intralobular stroma of breast A. There is probably an overexpression of CylinDl in E. They present as well circumscribed mass with her lesion. rubbery consistency B. Lesion may contain isolated clusters of large ANSWER: C bizarre, hyperchromatic nuclei with smudgedchromatin. 34. Which one of the following is not a morphological C. This lesion is the most common cause of finding of chronic pyelonephritis? hyperparathyroidism. A. Chronic inflammation D. Adipose tissue is inconspicious in the lesion B. Tubular atrophy E. Lesion shows invasion to the adjacent fibroadipose C. Thyroidization tissue. D. Periglomerular fibrosis ANSWER: E E. Liquefactive necrosis and collection of neutrophils ANSWER: E 39. Which of the following diseases does not cause Cushing disease? 35. Which one of the following mutations has not a A. Pituitary adenoma role in pathogenesis of urotehlial carcinoma? B. Paraneoplastic ACTH secretion A. TP53 C. Long-term use of corticosteroids B. RB D. Conn Syndrome C. FGFR3 E. Multinodular hyperplasia of the adrenal gland D. RAS ANSWER: D E. RAF ANSWER: E UROLOGY 36. Which one of the following is true for prostatic carcinomas? 40. Which of the following is the most sensitive and A. They usually arise in inner transition zone of specific imaging method for the dagnosis of urinary prostate. stone disease? B. Tumoral glands lack of basal cell layers. A. Intravenous pyelography C. There is proliferation of glandular and stromal cells. B. Non-contrast computed tomography D. Neoplastik nodules contain small to large to C. Direct urinary system radiography cystically dilated glands that are separated by bland D. Ultrasonography spindie-shaped stromal cells. E. Magnetic resonance imaging E. DHT is an important molecule for initiation of ANSWER: B carcinogenesis. ANSWER: B internal medicine 41. Which one is the correct definition of mean arterial 45. Which one of the following is not a clinical or pressure? laboratory sign in chronic kidney disease? A. Diastiolic blood pressure + pulse pressure (PP)/3 A. Hypertension B. Diastiolic blood pressure + pulse pressure (PP)/2 B. Metabolic alkalosis C. Diastiolic blood pressure - pulse pressure (PP)/2 C. Dyslipidemia D. Systolic blood pressure - pulse pressure (PP)/3 D. Malnutrition E. Systolic blood pressure + pulse pressure (PP)/3 E. Decrease in renal clearance of insulin ANSWER: A ANSWER: B 42. Which one of the following does not have primary 46. Which one of the following does not cause role in acid base regulation? anemia in chronic kidney disease? A. Proximal tuble A. Deficiency of vitamin B12 B. Descending loop of henle B. Deficiency of erythropoietin C. Thick ascending loop of henle C. Deficiency of iron D. Distal Tubule D. Increased life span of erythrocytes E. Collecting tubule E. hyperparathyroidism ANSWER: B ANSWER: D 43. Which one of the following is related with 47. Which of the following statements is not correct? increased anion gap metabolic acidosis? A. If gonadotrophs are deficient, clinical findings are A. lactic acidosis similar to primary hypogonadism. B. renal tubular acidosis B. Hyponatremia with increased sodium excretion in C. hyperalimentation urine is typical for the syndrome ofinappropriate ADH. D. diarrhea C. If pituitary stalk excision happens, GH, ACTH, TSH, E. carbonic anhydrase inhibitors FSH and ADH deficiencies develop ANSWER: A D. Antipsychotics and antidepressants may cause hyperprolacgnemia. 44. Which one of the following defines masked E. There is no need for mineralocorticoid therapy in hypertension? patients with secondary adrenal insufficiency. A. Both office (hospital) and home blood pressure ANSWER: C measurements are increased B. Home blood pressure measurements are high, but 48. Which of the following is incorrect about calcium office blood pressure measurements are in normal metabolism and calcium disorders? leveis. A. The Trousseau and Chostek signs are accurate C. Office blood pressure measurements are high, but predictors of hypocakemis. home blood pressure measurements are innormal B. It is necessary to correct the measured calcium levels. value according to albumin. D. AIthough triple anti hypertensive treatment, blood C. Primary hyperparathyroidism, hyperthyroidism, and perssure remains high levels. familiat hypocalciuric hypercalcemis are essential E. Systolic blood pressure is normal, however diastolic causes of PTH-related hypercalcemia. blood pressure is in normal levels. D. In hospitalized patients, malignancy is the most ANSWER: B frequent cause of hypercalcemis. E. Pseudohypoparathyroidism is a group of heterogeneous disorders defined by the target organ unresponsi-veness to PTH. ANSWER: C 49. Which of the following statements is inaccurate 52. Which of the following is a central regulator of regarding hypoglycemia? enery homeostasis and acts as an orexigenic A. Hypoglycemia can occur both in the fasting state (increase appetitE. peptide? and after meals in adrenal insufficiency. A. Neuropeptide Y B. In hypoglycemic patients, the concentration of B. Serotonin cortisol and epinephrine quickly increases, C. GIucagon like peptide-1 (GLP-1) typically within minutes, while that of growth D. Cocaine and amphetamin regulated transcript hormone increases more slowly over hours, in a E. Leptin prolonged state. ANSWER: A C. The 72hour fasting test is performed to stimulate hypoglycemia and diagnose hypoplycemia. 53. Which one of the following statements is not true D. When blood glucose is less than 50 mg/dL, plasma regarding with cortisol? insulin is greater than 3 microU/mL, C- A. Cortisol secretion has a circadien rhythm peptide is greater than 0.6 ng/mL, and Beta­ B. Cortisol release normally reaches its highest levels hydroxybutyrate is less than 2.7 mmol/L, all are at midnight associated with endogenous hyperin-sulinemia. C. Free cortisol is the biologically active form of E. Postprandial hypoglycemia is induced by high cortisol carbohydrate intake. D. Cortisol level increases in situations such as fever, Answer :B infection, stress. E. The major enzyme involved in cortisol metabolism is 50. Which statement regarding Diabetes mellitus is 11-beta-hydroxysteroid dehydrogenase (ll-[3 - false? OHSDH). A. Gestational diabetes poses a risk factor for type 2 ANSWER: B diabetes.] B. Genetic penetrance is high in Type 2 Diabetes 54. In which of the following situations TSH level is Mellitus. expected to be low ? C. Acromegaly and hyperthyroidism may induce A. Primary hypothyroidism hyperglycemia. B. Subclinical hypothyroidism D. Fasting and chronic anemias do not affect HbAIC C. Subclinical hyperthyroidism levels. D. TSH secreting pituitary adenoma E. In patients with early-onset diabetes, without insulin E. Thyroid hormone resistance resistance, and treatable with sulfonylurea ANSWER: C type oral antidiabetic drugs; MODY must be considered. 55. Which of the following urinalysis test findings is ANSWER: D most likely to have been consistently present in nephrotic syndrome? 51. Which of the following statement about functional A. Nitrite positive hypothalamic amenorrhea is wrong? B. Proteinuria >3.5 gr/24 hours A. It is characterized by anovulation and absence of C. Hematuria with >10 RBC/hpf normal follicular development. D. Calcium oxalate crystals B. Follicle stimulating hormone (ESH) and lutei-nizing E. Renal tubular epithelial cells and cast hormone (LH) levels are high, estrogen level ANSWER: B is low C. Strenuous exercise and psychological stress are common capses D. It is a diagnosis of exclusion, & other important causes of amenorthoes must be ruled out E. Ovulatory ovarian dysfunction is usually reversible with correction of the underlying cause ANSWER: B  56. A 36-year-old woman has urinary frequency with 61. Which choice is wrong concerning hypothalamo- dysuria for the past 4 days. On physical examination hypophyseal-thyroid axis? she has no flank pain or tenderness. A urinalysis A. It is an example of negative feed -back mechanism reveals gravity. 1.014, pH 7.5, no glucose; no pro-tein, B. TSH is secreted from the hypophysis via TRH no blood, nitrite positive, and many WBC's. She has a C. Serum TSH is increased in primary hypothyroidism serum creatinine of 0.9 mg/dL. Which of the following D. TSH decreases iodine uptake by the thyroid gland is the most likely diagnosis? E. TRH and TSH are suppressed in thyrotoxicosis A. Lupus nephritis ANSWER: D B. Urinary lithiasis C. Acute cystitis 62. Which one of the following matches is wrong D. Malakoplakia about endocrinological disease and its assoc ted E. Urothelial carcinoma etiological mechanism? ANSWER: C A. type 1 diabetes-autoimmunity B. Congenital adrenal hyperplasia-enzyme deficiency 57. All the following would cause edema EXCEPT? C. Nephrogenic diabetes insipidus-receptor A. hypoproteinemia abnormality B. hypotension D. Thyroid hormone resistance-receptor abnormality C. incompetent venous valves E. Addison's disease-receptor abnormality D. liver disease ANSWER: E E. Increase plasma colloid pressure ANSWER: B INFECTIOS DISEASES 58. Which one is the only cation exerting significant osmotic pressure in the ECF? 63. Which of the following is wrong about urinary tract A. K+ infections? B. Na + A. The common route of nearly all forms of urinary tract C. Fe+2 infection is ascending route. D. Mg+2 B. E. coli is the most causative agent. E. Ca+2 C. Previous history of urinary tract infection is one of the ANSWER: B risk factors. D. Urine culture is necessary for all urinary tract infections 59. The largest percentage of body water is in what.1 compartment? E. Bacteriuria and pyuria does not always mean infection. A. intracellular fluid ANSWER: D B. extracellular fluid C. blood plasma D. interstitial fluid E. ntravascular+interstitial general surgery ANSWER: A 64. The proliferation of the glandular tissue of the breast seen in men is called gynecomastia : Which 60. Which of the followings is a major stimulus for the stage does moderate breast enlargement with excess release of antidiuretic hormone? skin indicate? A. stimulation of the baroreceptors A. Grade 1 B. inhibition of the osmoreceptors B. Grade 2a C. a rise in plasma osmolality C. Grade 2b D. an increase in potassium levels in the ICF D. Grade 3 E. an increase in ECF water concentration E. Grade 4 ANSWER: C ANSWER: C 65. Many changes occur in the breast during 69. Which one is wrong for antenatal care? pregnancy. Which of the following is not a change du­ A. To prevent neural tube defects folic acid and cholin ring pregnancy? supplementation A. Enlargement of superficial veins B. To prevent maternal anemia iron supplementation in B. Increase in pigmentation in the nipple and areola Fe2+ form C. Breast size increases C. To prevent preeclampsia in patient with positive D. Fat tissue replaces glandular tissue history, start aspirin at 12th week of gestation E. Lobule structures continues to develop D. To diagnose Rh alloimmunisation in Rh- women with ANSWER: D Rh + husband add indirect coombs test to the lab work E. In patients with positive HIV test no need to start any 66. Which of the following is false regarding breast medication during pregnancy cancer? ANSWER: E A. Breast cancer is the most common cancer in women.Its incidence increases with age. 70. Which of the following is wrong about pregnancy B. 75-80% of breast cancers are sporadic, 15% are complications? familial, 5-10% are genetic. A.Neural tube defects are the second most common C. The diagnosis of breast cancer is made with a fetal anomaly after cardiac anomalies. painless mass in the majority of patients. The mass Bin pregnancy, anemia is very common and defined as feels hard inFM due to intense stromal reaction. haemoglobin level less than 11 g/dI D. The mass is commonly localized in the lower outer, CHyperemesis gravidarum can be differentiated from central, upper inner, lower inner and upper outer quad morning sickness by detection of ketones in urine -rants, respectively. D. It is important to differentiate ectopic and molar E. A woman who develops cancer in one breast pregnancy during very early weeks of pregnancy and increases the risk of developing cancer in the other this, differentiation is made by simple urinary, breast. pregnancy tests ANSWER: D E. The definition of hypertension in pregnancy is absolute blood pressure values systolic > 140mmHg mmlg or diastolic > 90 mmHg. ANSWER: D Obs & Gyn 71.1.Lichen sclerosus II. Cigarette III. ObesityWhich of the following is a risk factor for vulvar cancer? 67. Which of the following is the most frequent single A. Only 1 chromosomal abnormality seen in abortions? B. Only II A. Triploidy C. Only IIII B. Monosomy X D. I and II C. Trisomy 13 E. I,II and III D. Trisomy 21 ANSWER: E E. Trisomy 18. ANSWER: B 72. Which of the following is not associated with vulvar cancer? A. basaloid condyloma 68. Which of the following is not a risk factor for B. vulvar dystrophy ectopic pregnancy? C. lichen sclerosus A. Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) D. seborrheic keratosis B. Prior tubal surgery E. squamous hyperplasia C. Tubal infections ANSWER: D D. Fetal chromosomal anomaly E. Previous ectopic pregnancy 73. Which of the following are not protective factrs for ANSWER: D ovarian cancer? A. multiple birth B. lactation C. oral contraseptive drugs E.smoking D. salpingectomy ANSWER: D 74. In a patient surgically staged with ovarian cancer, 78. A 47 year old woman complains of postcoital malignant pleural effusion is detected, and no paren­ bleeding, nearly as heavy as menses. The most likely chymal metastases are observed in intra-abdominal origin of her bleeding would be cervical organs. What is the stage of the disease? polyps A. IIIA ectropion B. HIB carcinoma C. IIIC nabothian cysts D. IVA infection E. IVB ANSWER: C ANSWER: D Radiology 75. Which one of the following is correct about 79. Which of the following is false according to sexually transmitted diseases? imaging of parathyroid adenomas? A. Treponemal tests are used for population screening A. First line imaging modality is ultrasound with lineer for syphilis B. Granuloma inguinale is caused by Haemophilus high frequency transducers. B. Parathyroid glands are placed beneath the superior ducreyi and inferior poles of thyroid gland. C. HPV is a DNA virus which causes condyloma C. In case of negative radiological evaluation, nucleer acuminata lesigns medicing study is required for ectopic parathyroid D. Donovan bodies are diagnostic for Chacroid. tissue pathologies. E. Genital Herpes infections are primarily caused by D. The cortex along the radial and ulnar aspects of the HSV-Type 1 middle phalanges has hyperostosis appearance ANSWER: C E. Brown tumors can accompany the parathyroid adenomas. 76. In which gynecologic infection the vaginal pH is in ANSWER: D the normal range? A. Bacterial vaginosis 80. What is the best imaging method in the Fournier B. Mycoplasma hominis infection Gangrene? C. Candidal vaginitis A. UItrasonography D. Trichomonas Vaginalis B. Magnetic Resonance Imaging E. Prevotella infection ANSWER: C C. Computed Tomography D. Intravenous Pyelography E. Color Doppler ultrasonography 77. The primary mechanism by which OCs prevent ANSWER: C pregnancy is by A. inhibiting serum follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) 81. Which of the followings is not an advantag of IVP? levels A. Overview of entire urinary tract B. inhibiting serum luteinizing hormone (LH) levels C. inducing endometrial atrophy B. Depends on kidney function C. Sensitive for obstruction D. inducing lymphocytic endometritis D. Low cost E. increasing cervical mucus viscosity E. Detailed anatomy of collecting system ANSWER: A ANSWER: B 78. Which of the following causes for infertility may 82. Which of the following is not among the breast MR be treatable by assisted reproductive technology indications? A. Fallopian tube obstruction A. After neoadjuvant chemotherapy B. low sperm count B. Evaluation of Silicone Implant C. cervical mucus abnormalities C. Unexplained mammographic findings D. unexplained infertility D. Metastatic axillary lymph nodes of unknown primary E. all of the above E. Pain in the breast ANSWER: E ANSWER: E Pharmacology 83. Which of the following is the effective treatment 87. A 34-year-old man presents with pain and for congenital adrenal hyperplasia? stiffness in his wrists and knees. The stiffness isworse A. Administering an androgen antagonist first thing in the morning. A blood test confirms B. Administering adrenocorticotropic hormone. rheumatoid arthritis. You advise a short course of C. Removing the adrenal gland. stero-ids. Which one of the following is the most □.Administering ketoconazole to decrease cortisol potent anti-inflammatory steroid? synthesis. A. FIudrocortisone E.Administering a glucocorticoid. B. Triamcinolone ANSWER: E C. Dexamethasone D. Cortisol 84. Which of the following is the mechanism of E. Prednisone osteoporosis caused by the glucocorticoids? ANSWER: C A. Decreasing production of prostaglandins. B. Stimulation of hypothalamic-pituitary-adrenal axis. 88. Finasteride has efficacy in the prevention of male­ C. Decreasing collagen synthesis. pattern baldness by virtue of its ability to do which of □.Inhibition of absorption of calcium. the following? E.Increasing excretion of calcium. A. Inhibit the synthesis of testosterone ANSWER: D B. Competitively antagonize androgen receptors C. Reduce the production of dihydrotestosterone 85. The active metabolites of vitamin D act through a D. Decrease the release of gonadotropins nuclear receptor to produce which of the following E. Increase the serum concentration of sex hormone- effects? binding globulin A. Increase renal production of erythropoietin ANSWER: C B. Lower the serum phosphate concentration C. Increase PTH formation 89. Which of the following is one of the GRH D. Decrease the absorption of calcium from bone anologues that suppress FSH and LH secretion when E. Increase the absorption of calcium from the used continuously? gastrointestinal tract A. Ganirelix ANSWER: E B. Setrorelix C. Atosiban 86. A 62-year-old man is found to have a prostate D. Bromocriptine lump and an elevated prostate-specific antigen (PSA. E. Goserelin blood test. Magnetic resonance imaging suggests ANSWER: E several enlarged lymph nodes in the lower abdo-men, and an x-ray reveals 2 radiolucent lesions in the bony 90. Which of the following is incorrect about growth pelvis. This patient is likely to be treated with which of hormone? the following drugs? Lit has catabolic effects in muscles and anabolic A. Desogestrel effects in adipose cells. B. Oxandrolone II. Growth-promoting effects are mediated by IGF1 C. Methyltestosterone III. An early sign of GH deficiency is hyperglycaemia. D. Leuprolide IV. It can be used for weight loss therapy in patients E. Anastrozole with AIDS. ANSWER: D V. Growth hormone therapy is generally not tolerated by children. A. I and V B. l,ll and III C. I, III ve V D. II and IV E. III and V ANSWER: C 91. Which of the following vitamins is given in acute 95. Which of the following classes of diabetes alcoholic intoxication? medications is most appopriately paired with A. Thiamine (B1) anadverse effect associated with its use? B. Vitamin A A. Biguanides-urinary tract infections C. Vitamin C B. SGLT2 inhibitors-heart failure D. Biotin (87) C. Increatin mimetics-pancreatitis E. Vitamin D D. GIinides-lactic acidosis ANSWER: A E. Sulphonylureas-weight lost ANSWER: C 92. Which of the following is wrong about drugs that affects throid function? 96. Which of the following antidiabetic drugs would A. Amiodarone, iodinated contrast media and fl be least likely to cause weight gain? blockers can decrease 13 levels. A. Pioglitazone B. Rifampin can increase the metabolism of 13 and T4 B. Insulin glulisine by inducing hepatic microsomal enzymes. C. Liraglutide C. Liothyronine (T3) is the drug of choice for thyroid D. GIimepride replacement because it is more potent than E. Repaglinide levothyrosine. ANSWER: C D. Methimazole is used for treatment of thyrotoxicosis. E. B-adrenoceptor-blockers without intrinsic sympathomimetic activity can be used to reverse 97. Which of the classes of diabetes medicactions is symptoms of thyrotoxicosis. paired most appropriately with its primary, ANSWER: C mechanism of action? A. Thiazolidinediones-decrease hepatic gluconeogenesis 93. Which of the following is not a suitable B. Sulphonylurea-increases insulin secretion combination for oral contraseption? C. DPP-4 inhibitors- inhibit breakdown of complex A. Ethinyl estradiol (0.02 mg) + L-Norgestrel (0.1 mg) carbohydrates B. Ethinyl estradiol (0.03 mg) + Norethindrone (1.5 mg D. Biguanides-increase hepate production of glucose ) E. GIinides-increase insulin sensitivity C. Estradiol valerate (3, 2, 2, 1 mg- 4-phasiC. + ANSWER: B Dienogest (0, 2, 3, 0 mg - 4-phasic D. Ethinyl estradiol (0.035 mg) + Danazol (1, 2, 3 mg- 3-phasiC. 98. Which of the following drugs is most useful for E. Ethinyl estradiol (0.035 mg) + Norethindrone (0.5, 0 the treatment of hypercalcemia in Paget's disease?.75, 1 mi- 3-phasic. A. Pamidronate ANSWER: D B. Teriparatide C. FIuoride 94. Which of the following drugs inhibits estrogen D. Hydrochlorothiazide synthesis by blocking aromatase enzyme? R. Raloxifene A. Tamoxifen ANSWER: A B. Anastrozol C. CIomiphene D. Ganirelix E. Mifepristone ANSWER: B Genetics 99. Which of the followings is a dysplasia? A. Congenital hip deformation B. Hemangioma C. Torticollis D. CIeft palate E. Polydactyly ANSWER: B 100. Which of the followings is not correct for teratolsy? A. Human congenital malformations are related with genetic and/or enviromental factors. B. The law of "all or nothing" is valid in the first 8 days of embriyonic life C. Teratological problems mostly occur in preimplantation period. D. Retinoic acid is a teratological agent E. The effect of teratogens is not permanent. ANSWER: C 101. Which of the followings is a screening test for prenatal period? A. Chorionic villus sampling B. Amniocentesis C. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis D. Analysis of fetal cells in maternal blood E. Cordocentesis ANSWER: D