Employee Selection Criteria and Testing Methods PDF

101) Why are tests and other screening tools an important aspect of employee selection? What rights do test takers have during the testing process? After reviewing résumés, the next step in selecting the best candidates is to use screening tools like tests, assessment centers, and background/referen...

101) Why are tests and other screening tools an important aspect of employee selection? What rights do test takers have during the testing process? After reviewing résumés, the next step in selecting the best candidates is to use screening tools like tests, assessment centers, and background/reference checks. These tools help narrow down applicants for interviews and final selection, which is crucial for performance, cost management, and legal compliance. Test takers have rights under the APA’s standards, though these aren’t legally binding. They include: Privacy and confidentiality of results Informed consent about test usage Qualified interpretation of scores, or information to ensure proper interpretation Fairness in testing—no prior access to questions These rights ensure a fair and respectful process for all test takers. 102) How can employers protect themselves against negligent hiring? How can employers protect themselves against defamation? Negligent hiring refers to hiring individuals with issues (e.g., criminal records) who might misuse access to commit crimes. To avoid this, employers must conduct thorough background checks by systematically gathering relevant information, verifying documentation, following up on gaps, and keeping records of all attempts to obtain information. To prevent defamation, only authorized managers should provide references, sharing minimal details like employment dates, salary, and position. Employers should avoid volunteering extra information, making vague statements, or answering "trap" questions (e.g., "Would you rehire this person?"). Many firms limit references to just employment basics. 103) What is test validity? How are selection tests validated? Test validity ensures a test measures what it’s intended to—meaning its results correctly predict job performance. For selection tests, validity indicates that the test is job-related and predictive of performance. Validation involves five steps: analyze the job, select appropriate tests, administer the tests, link scores to job success, and revalidate. 104) What is the difference between criterion validity and content validity? Which one is more difficult to demonstrate? Criterion validity shows that high test scores correlate with high job performance and low scores with poor performance. Content validity means the test covers essential job content, representing what the candidate needs to know. Proving content validity is challenging because it requires ensuring that test tasks truly represent job tasks and resemble work conditions. Thus, many employers rely on criterion validity for evidence of a test’s validity. 1 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. 105) In a brief essay, discuss the use and effectiveness of cognitive tests versus work sampling techniques for employee selection. Cognitive tests assess general intellectual abilities like memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical skills. They are often called aptitude tests and aim to measure job-related abilities (e.g., mechanical comprehension for engineering roles). Work sampling, on the other hand, predicts job performance by having candidates perform real job tasks. It’s harder to fake, fairer to minorities, and, when well-designed, has higher validity for predicting performance. 106) How would an employer benefit from using both personality tests and situational tests when screening job applicants? Cognitive and physical abilities don’t fully explain job performance—motivation and interpersonal skills also matter. Personality tests measure traits like introversion, stability, and motivation. Situational tests, such as work sampling, video-based tests, and miniature job training, present job-related situations. Miniature job training assumes that if candidates can learn and perform sample tasks, they can handle the actual job, making these tests content- relevant and valid. 107) Industrial psychologists often emphasize the "big five" personality dimensions in personnel testing. List and explain the meaning of the big five dimensions. How do personality traits correlate with job performance? The "Big Five" personality traits are: Neuroticism: emotional instability, anxiety, insecurity. Extroversion: sociable, assertive, active. Openness: imaginative, unconventional, independent. Agreeableness: trusting, caring, gentle. Conscientiousness: reliable, achievement-oriented. Extroversion links to sales success; extroversion, conscientiousness, and openness predict leadership. Neuroticism negatively affects motivation, while conscientiousness is the strongest predictor of job performance. 108) What is a management assessment center? What are some of the most common tasks conducted in management assessment centers? A management assessment center is a 2-3 day simulation where 10-12 candidates perform tasks observed by experts to evaluate leadership potential. Typical exercises include: 1. In-basket tasks 2. Leaderless group discussions 3. Management games 4. Individual presentations 5. Objective tests 6. Interviews These centers are used for selection, promotion, and development. 2 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. 109) Various federal and state laws govern how employers acquire and use applicants' and employees' background information. What four steps are necessary in order for an employer to be in compliance with these laws? The four compliance steps are: 1. Disclosure and Authorization: Inform the applicant of the report and obtain written consent. 2. Certification: Assure the reporting agency of compliance with laws. 3. Provision of Report Copies: Provide the report to the applicant if considering adverse action. 4. Notice After Adverse Action: If adverse action (e.g., job offer withdrawal) is taken, give notice to the applicant after allowing a reasonable period. 110) What are three arguments against the use of personality tests as predictors of job performance? Three arguments against personality tests are: 1. Difficult Interpretation: Projective tests require expert analysis, assuming a link between traits and job success. 2. Legal Risks: Some tests, like the MMPI, might be viewed as medical tests, potentially violating the ADA. 3. Questionable Predictive Value: Some experts doubt that self-report personality tests reliably predict job performance. 1) Which of the following terms refers to hiring workers who have criminal backgrounds without proper safeguards? Answer: B A) employment malpractice Explanation: B) Negligent hiring means B) negligent hiring hiring employees with criminal records or C) improper hiring other problems who then use access to D) invalid screening customers' homes (or similar opportunities) to commit crimes. Employers can be sued for negligent hiring. 2) A reliable employment test will most likely yield ________. A) consistent scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test Answer: A B) improved scores when a person takes the Explanation: A) Reliability is a test's first same test more than once in a single day requirement and refers to its consistency: A C) high scores when a person takes two reliable test is one that yields consistent alternate forms of the test on different scores when a person takes two alternate occasions forms of the test or when he or she takes the D) similar scores when two different people same test on two or more different occasions. are administered the test at different times 3 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. 3) If a person scores a 70 on an intelligence test on one day and scores 110 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________. Answer: D Explanation: D) Reliability is a test's first requirement and refers to its consistency: A A) valid reliable test is one that yields consistent B) invalid scores when a person takes two alternate C) reliable forms of the test or when he or she takes the D) unreliable same test on two or more different occasions. If a person scores 70 on an intelligence test on a Monday and 110 when retested on Tuesday, you probably wouldn't have much faith in the test. 4) If a person scores a 78 on a test on one day and scores a 79 when retested on another day, you would most likely conclude that this test is ________. A) valid Answer: C B) invalid Explanation: C) A reliable test is one that C) reliable yields consistent scores when a person takes D) unreliable two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. Scores of 78 and 79 on the same test suggest that the test is reliable because it is measuring with consistency. 5) Which of the following terms refers to the consistency of scores obtained by the same person when retested with alternate forms of the same test? Answer: B A) equivalency Explanation: B) Reliability is a test's first B) reliability requirement and refers to its consistency: A C) expectancy reliable test is one that yields consistent D) validity scores when a person takes two alternate forms of the test or when he or she takes the same test on two or more different occasions. 6) Which of the following best describes how to use a retest estimate to assess reliability? A) administer a test with content based on what a person actually needs to know to effectively perform the job in question B) administer the same test to different people Answer: D at two different points in time and compare Explanation: D) There are several ways to their test scores at time 2 with the scores at estimate consistency or reliability. You could time 1 administer the same test to the same people at C) administer different tests to a group of two different points in time, comparing their people and compare the range of collected test scores at time two with their scores at test scores time one; this would be a retest estimate. D) administer the same test to the same people at two different points in time and compare their test scores at time 2 with their 4 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. scores at time 1 7) Which of the following measures reliability by administering two different yet comparable tests and then comparing the two test scores? Answer: B A) retest estimate Explanation: B) An equivalent form estimate B) equivalent form estimate involves administering a test and then C) internal comparison estimate administering what experts believe to be an D) criterion validity measurement equivalent test later. 8) ________ is used as an estimate of reliability and involves administering a test with x number of items designed to assess a topic and then statistically analyzing the degree to which responses to the items vary together. Answer: D Explanation: D) A test's internal consistency is another reliability measure. For example, a psychologist includes 10 items on a test of A) Retest estimate vocational interests, believing that they all B) Equivalent form estimate measure, in various ways, the test taker's C) Content validity estimate interest in working outdoors. You administer D) Internal comparison estimate the test and then statistically analyze the degree to which responses to these 10 items vary together. This would provide a measure of the internal reliability of the test and is known as an internal comparison estimate. 9) All of the following are used for estimating reliability of a test EXCEPT ________. Answer: D Explanation: D) Validity indicates whether a test is measuring what it is supposed to be A) test-retest estimate measuring, while reliability indicates whether B) internal comparison estimate a test is measuring something consistently. C) equivalent form estimate Internal comparison estimates are used to D) content validity measurement measure the internal consistency of a test. Test-retest estimates and equivalent form estimates also measure reliability. 10) When repetitive questions appear on a questionnaire, which of the following is most likely being measured? 5 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Answer: C A) test validity Explanation: C) A test's internal consistency B) retest estimate is measured by making internal comparison C) internal consistency estimates. Internal consistency explains why D) criterion validity apparently repetitive questions are found on some test questionnaires. 11) The unreliability of a test is best explained by all of the following EXCEPT ________. Answer: D Explanation: D) Many things could cause a A) poor sampling of question material test to be unreliable. For example, the B) lack of equivalence between tests questions may do a poor job of sampling the C) inconsistent testing conditions material or there might be errors due to D) failure to predict job performance changes in the testing conditions. A lack of equivalence between tests would also explain a test's unreliability. 12) Which of the following terms refers to the accuracy with which a test fulfills the function for which it was designed? Answer: B Explanation: B) Test validity answers the A) reliability question "Does this test measure what it's B) validity supposed to measure?" Validity refers to the C) expectancy correctness of the inferences that we can D) consistency make based on the test and the accuracy with which a test or interview fulfills the function it was designed to fill. 13) Demonstrating the content validity of a test can be best accomplished by showing that ________. A) tasks performed on the test are general enough to apply to any type of job Answer: C B) higher test scores are statistically Explanation: C) Demonstrating content equivalent to proven, long-term job success validity can be accomplished by showing that C) conditions under which the test is the tasks the person performs on the test are administered resemble the work situation really a comprehensive and random sample of D) scores on the test are both internally and the tasks performed on the job. externally reliable 14) The first step in the test validation process is ________. A) creating a test battery Answer: C B) administering tests Explanation: C) The first step in validating a C) analyzing the job test is to analyze the job and write job D) cross-validating descriptions and job specifications. The point 6 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  is to specify the human traits and skills you believe are required for adequate job performance. 15) Which of the following is a graph that shows the relationship between test scores and job performance for a group of people? Answer: D Explanation: D) If there is a correlation A) performance standard between test and job performance, you can B) digital dashboard develop an expectancy chart during the C) competency model process of validating an employment test. An D) expectancy chart expectancy chart presents the relationship between test scores and job performance graphically. 16) What is the primary disadvantage of using concurrent validation? A) Current employees may not be Answer: A representative of new applicants. Explanation: A) With concurrent validation, B) New applicants are recent college the test scores of current employees are graduates with limited experience. compared with their current job performance. C) Limited correlation exists between high The disadvantage is that current employees test scores and job performance. may not be representative of new applicants D) Test batteries have not been administered because current employees have already had by professional industrial psychologists. on-the-job training. 17) ________ validation is considered the most dependable method of validating an employment test. Answer: B Explanation: B) Predictive validation is a more dependable way to validate a test than concurrent validation, which is the other method. With predictive validation, a test is A) Applicable administered to applicants before hiring. B) Predictive Applicants are hired using only existing C) Concurrent selection techniques, not the results of the D) Statistical new tests. After they have been on the job for some time, measure their performance and compare it to their earlier test scores. You can then determine whether you could have used their performance on the new test to predict their subsequent job performance. 18) The process of cross-validating a test involves all of the following EXCEPT ________. 7 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Answer: D A) using a new sample of employees Explanation: D) Cross-validating involves B) administering additional tests administering additional tests to a new sample C) evaluating the relationship between scores of employees. This final step also requires an and performance assessment of predictive validation and an D) developing and analyzing a scatter plot of evaluation of the relationship between scores scores versus performance and job performance. An expectancy chart might be developed but not a scatter plot. 19) According to the American Psychological Association, all of the following are rights of test takers EXCEPT the right to expect ________. Answer: C Explanation: C) Tests should be used as supplements and not be the only selection A) informed consent regarding the use of test tool. Under the American Psychological results Association's (APA) standard for educational B) scores to be interpreted by qualified and psychological tests, test takers have the individuals right to the confidentiality of test results, the C) tests to be the only selection tools for a job right to informed consent regarding use of D) fairness of the test for all who take it these results, the right to expect that only people qualified to interpret the scores will have access to them, and the right to expect the test is fair to all. 20) According to a survey conducted by the American Management Association, most employers who administer tests to applicants are measuring ________. Answer: A A) job skills Explanation: A) About 41% of companies B) psychological behaviors that the American Management Association C) interpersonal behaviors surveyed tested applicants for basic skills D) ethical opinions (defined as the ability to read instructions, write reports, and do arithmetic adequate to perform common workplace tasks). About 67% of the respondents required employees to take job skills tests, and 29% required some form of psychological measurement. 21) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for 8 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following best supports the argument that Golden Creamery should use a certified psychologist to develop preemployment tests? A) Golden Creamery needs to comply with all federal and state laws. B) Golden Creamery competitors use Answer: D psychologists for test development. Explanation: D) Using a psychologist to C) Golden Creamery strives to create a develop and validate tests will help Golden conscientious organizational culture. Creamery remain protected both legally and D) Golden Creamery needs to ensure that ethically. Firms are not required by law to use tests are legally and ethically appropriate. a psychologist for test development. 22) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following, if true, supports the argument that Golden Creamery should require franchise owners to use the firm's preemployment tests? A) Hourly employees at Golden Creamery stores typically remain with the company long enough to be promoted to management Answer: C positions. Explanation: C) High turnover rates suggest B) Golden Creamery franchise owners pay an that Golden Creamery has problems hiring the initial franchise fee and receive a percentage most appropriate employees, which supports of sales royalties in return. the implementation of a testing program. If C) Annual turnover rates for hourly hourly workers remained at the firm for a employees of Golden Creamery stores are long time, then that would suggest the firm's three times the rate of comparable businesses. current hiring practices do not need to be D) Individuals interested in working at a modified. Golden Creamery store can complete online applications on the firm's Web site. 23) For over 40 years, Golden Creamery has been mixing up fresh, gourmet ice cream for customers. The company originated in Dallas and now boasts stores in 35 states. The business has primarily expanded by selling franchises to qualified candidates. Golden Creamery 9 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. executives realize that the firm's success depends upon the success of each franchise. In the past, each individual franchise owner determined the best method for screening applicants. However, as the firm grows, Golden Creamery executives want to standardize the hiring process by requiring all franchisees to use the same preemployment tests. Which of the following questions is most relevant to Golden Creamery's decision to implement preemployment testing for all franchises? Answer: B Explanation: B) Test takers have the right to A) Should Golden Creamery use internal or the confidentiality of test results, so it is external sources for job candidates? important that Golden Creamery develops a B) How will Golden Creamery ensure the plan for maintaining privacy prior to confidentiality of an applicant's test results? administering tests. Determining whether to C) How does testing correlate with Golden hire internally or externally is a recruiting Creamery's mission and vision statements? issue rather than a testing concern. Although a D) What is the role of testing in Golden firm's mission and vision statements guide its Creamery's strategic performance general direction, such statements are not management system? directly relevant to testing. 24) ________ tests include assessments of general reasoning ability and of specific mental abilities like memory and inductive reasoning. Answer: D Explanation: D) Cognitive tests include tests of general reasoning ability (intelligence) and A) Motor ability tests of specific mental abilities like memory B) Personality and inductive reasoning. Employers may also C) Achievement use tests to measure an applicant's motor and D) Cognitive physical abilities. Achievement tests measure what someone has learned, and personality tests measure aspects of an applicant's personality, such as stability, motivation, and introversion. 25) Grafton Industries administers selection tests to job candidates. The tests measure a range of abilities including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability, so they are most likely ________ tests. Answer: B A) standardized Explanation: B) Intelligence (IQ) tests are B) intelligence tests of general intellectual abilities. They C) achievement measure not a single trait but rather a range of D) personality abilities, including memory, vocabulary, verbal fluency, and numerical ability. 26) All of the following are measured by aptitude tests EXCEPT ________. A) deductive reasoning Answer: C 10 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. B) numerical ability Explanation: C) Temperament and other C) temperament interpersonal skills are measured by D) memory personality tests. Aptitude tests measure deductive and inductive reasoning, verbal comprehension, numerical ability, and memory. 27) As part of the selection process for a position at UPS, Jack has been asked to lift weights and jump rope. Which of the following is most likely being measured by UPS? Answer: C A) interpersonal skills Explanation: C) Physical abilities are B) cognitive skills measured by testing an applicant's static C) physical abilities strength (lifting weights), dynamic strength, D) achievements body coordination (jumping rope), and stamina. A UPS worker needs to have such skills to perform the job. 28) Carl recently participated in a selection test for a position at Northern Aeronautics. The test measured Carl's finger dexterity and reaction time, so it was most likely a ________ test. Answer: A Explanation: A) Some jobs require applicants A) motor ability be tested for motor abilities, such as finger B) personality dexterity, manual dexterity, and (if hiring C) cognitive pilots) reaction time. For example, the D) interest Crawford Small Parts Dexterity Test measures the speed and accuracy of simple judgment as well as the speed of finger, hand, and arm movements. 29) All of the following are most likely assessed on personality tests EXCEPT ________. Answer: B A) introversion Explanation: B) Reasoning skills are tested B) reasoning with aptitude tests. Personality tests measure C) sensitivity introversion, sensitivity, motivation, and D) emotional stability emotional stability among other qualities. 30) According to experts, most people are hired for their qualifications and fired for their ________. 11 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Answer: C Explanation: C) A person's cognitive and A) physical limitations physical abilities alone seldom explain his or B) lack of aptitude her job performance. Most people are hired C) nonperformance based on qualifications, but most are fired for D) psychological issues nonperformance, which is usually the "result of personal characteristics, such as attitude, motivation, and especially, temperament." 31) Make a Picture Story and the Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test are examples of ________ tests. Answer: D Explanation: D) Projective techniques A) intelligence include Make a Picture Story (MAPS) and the B) apperception Forer Structured Sentence Completion Test. C) self-reported With projective tests, the psychologist D) projective presents an ambiguous stimulus (like an inkblot or clouded picture) to the person who then reacts to it. 32) All of the following are examples of self-reported personality tests EXCEPT ________. Answer: C Explanation: C) Make a Picture Story is a A) Minnesota Paper Form Board Test projective personality test. Guilford- B) Guilford-Zimmerman Survey Zimmerman Survey, MMPI, and Myers C) Make a Picture Story Briggs are self-reported personality tests D) Myers Briggs Test which are filled out by the applicants. 33) The Big Five personality dimensions include all of the following EXCEPT ________. Answer: B Explanation: B) Industrial psychologists A) neuroticism often focus on the "big five" personality B) optimism dimensions: extroversion, emotional C) extroversion stability/neuroticism, agreeableness, D) conscientiousness conscientiousness, and openness to experience. Optimism is not one of the big five. 34) Which of the following personality dimensions represents a tendency to exhibit poor emotional adjustment and experience negative effects such as anxiety, insecurity, and hostility? A) neuroticism B) extroversion Answer: A C) conscientiousness Explanation: A) Neuroticism relates to D) openness to experience anxiety and insecurity and hostility. 35) ________ represents a tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. 12 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. A) Extroversion Answer: A B) Conscientiousness Explanation: A) Extroversion represents a C) Agreeableness tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active. D) Openness to experience 36) Mike Simmons recently applied for a position with Pfizer Pharmaceuticals. Which personality trait most likely has the strongest correlation to Mike's success as a pharmaceutical sales representative? Answer: A Explanation: A) Extroversion represents a A) extroversion tendency to be sociable, assertive, and active, B) agreeableness which are necessary characteristics for sales C) conscientiousness reps. Studies have shown that extroversion D) openness to experience correlates to success in sales and management jobs. 37) Which personality characteristic refers to the disposition to be imaginative, nonconforming, and unconventional? Answer: D A) extroversion Explanation: D) Openness to experience is B) conscientiousness the disposition to be imaginative, C) neuroticism nonconforming, unconventional, and D) openness to experience autonomous. 38) The tendency for one to be trusting, compliant, caring, and gentle is the personality dimension known as ________. Answer: C Explanation: C) Agreeableness is the A) extroversion tendency to be trusting, compliant, caring, and B) conscientiousness gentle. Neuroticism, extroversion, C) agreeableness conscientiousness, and openness to D) openness to experience experience are the other personality traits known as the big five. 39) Which personality characteristic is comprised of both achievement and dependability? Answer: C Explanation: C) Conscientiousness is A) neuroticism comprised of two related facets: achievement B) extroversion and dependability. According to research, C) conscientiousness conscientiousness has been the most D) agreeableness consistent and universal predictor of job performance. 40) While some personality characteristics are associated with success in different types of jobs, which personality trait is most frequently associated with job performance in all jobs? 13 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Answer: B Explanation: B) According to research, A) openness to experience conscientiousness has been the most B) conscientiousness consistent and universal predictor of job C) extroversion performance. Conscientiousness is comprised D) agreeableness of two related facets: achievement and dependability. 41) Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employees that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values—honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge—serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would best support the argument that Red Robin should use personality tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin encourages employees to participate in the firm's environmental stewardship program to show community support. B) Red Robin seeks outgoing, motivated, and compassionate employees to enhance the Answer: B experience of its customers. Explanation: B) Personality traits, as C) Red Robin offers monetary incentives to uncovered by personality tests, often correlate managers who meet quarterly sales targets to job performance. Red Robin seeks and exceed performance expectations. employees that match the firm's core values of D) Red Robin desires employees with honor, integrity, having fun, and continually extensive knowledge of the restaurant seeking knowledge, and personality tests industry and at least two years of experience would indicate an applicant's level of serving customers. extroversion and openness to experiences. 42) Red Robin Gourmet Burgers is a national restaurant chain with nearly 36,000 employee that began as a small restaurant in Seattle. Over the years, Red Robin has attempted to develop a reputation as a fun, family restaurant that offers both excellent food and service. Red Robin's core values—honor, integrity, having fun, and continually seeking knowledge—serve as the basis for all of the firm's decisions and are even embroidered on the sleeves of every employee's uniform. As Red Robin continues to expand, executives are considering adding tests to the screening process. Which of the following, if true, would most likely undermine the argument that Red Robin 14 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. should use achievement tests in the employee selection process? A) Red Robin receives so many applications that it only considers individuals with previous job experience in the restaurant industry. Answer: B B) Red Robin provides a two-week training Explanation: B) Red Robin will train new session to all new hires, which are frequently hires and does not need to assess their job college students with little experience in the knowledge, so achievement tests are restaurant industry. unnecessary. If Red Robin expected C) Red Robin expects applicants for applicants to have a certain level of skill or management positions to understand current knowledge then achievement tests would be EEO laws and be aware of ADA appropriate. requirements. D) Red Robin requires applicants for cashier positions to take typing tests to assess their speed at the cash register. 43) An interest inventory compares an applicant's current interests with the interests of ________ Answer: C Explanation: C) Interest inventories compare A) retired workers an applicant's interests with those of people in B) other people in the same industry various occupations. Thus, a person who C) other people in various occupations takes the Strong-Campbell Interests Inventory D) managers and executives in the firm would receive a report comparing his or her interests to those of people already in occupations like accounting, engineering, or management. 44) Which of the following is used to measure job knowledge? A) aptitude tests Answer: C B) interest inventories Explanation: C) Achievement tests measure C) achievement tests what someone has learned. They measure D) projective tests your "job knowledge" in areas like economics, marketing, or human resources. 45) With the work sampling technique, applicants are ________. A) asked to submit examples of projects they Answer: B have completed for other employers Explanation: B) The work sampling B) tested on their ability to perform several technique tries to predict job performance by tasks crucial to performing the job of interest requiring job candidates to perform one or C) tested on their ability to perform a range of more samples of the job's basic tasks. An tasks related to several positions in a firm observer monitors performance on each task D) given video-based situational interviews to and rates the applicant's performance. assess their critical thinking skills 46) Which of the following is the primary advantage of the work sampling technique? A) Applicants find it difficult to fake answers. Answer: A B) Employers learn about an applicant's Explanation: A) Work sampling has several personality. advantages. It measures actual job tasks, so C) Applicants can evaluate their own it's harder to fake answers. Work sampling 15 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. performance. doesn't delve into the applicant's personality, D) Fine motor skills can be accurately so there's almost no chance of applicants assessed over time. viewing it as an invasion of privacy. 47) A(n) ________ is a multi-day simulation in which candidates perform realistic tasks in hypothetical situations and are scored on their performance. Answer: C Explanation: C) A management assessment A) work sampling event center is a 2- to 3-day simulation in which 10 B) situational judgment test to 12 candidates perform realistic C) management assessment center management tasks (like making presentations) D) applicant personality test under the observation of experts who appraise each candidate's leadership potential. 48) Typical simulated exercises used in management assessment centers include all of the following EXCEPT ________. Answer: C A) objective tests Explanation: C) Management assessment B) leaderless group discussions center tasks include the in-basket, leaderless C) motor skills assessments group discussion, management games, D) individual presentations individual presentations, testing, and interviews. Motor skills are not assessed. 49) Which of the following is the primary advantage of using management assessment centers in the selection process? Answer: D A) Development costs are very low. Explanation: D) Management assessment B) Minimal time is required for test centers are expensive to develop, take much administration. longer than conventional tests, require C) Industrial psychologists are involved in the managers acting as assessors, and often testing process. require psychologists. However, studies D) Peers are effectively able to predict the suggest they are worth it because peers' success of applicants. evaluations of candidates during the center are especially useful. 50) Work sampling, miniature job training, and video-based tests are examples of ________. Answer: C A) intelligence tests Explanation: C) Situational tests, such as B) personality tests work sampling, miniature job training, and C) situational tests video-based tests, require examinees to D) interests inventories respond to situations representative of the job. 51) Which of the following terms refers to training candidates to perform several of the job's tasks and then assessing the candidates' performance prior to hire? 16 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Answer: D Explanation: D) Miniature job training and evaluation means training candidates to A) achievement testing perform several of the job's tasks, and then B) work sampling technique evaluating the candidates' performance prior C) management assessment center to hire. The approach assumes that a person D) miniature job training who demonstrates that he or she can learn and perform the sample of tasks will be able to learn and perform the job itself. 52) Carter Vacuums needs to hire 20 new employees to fill positions at its manufacturing facility. The HR department wants to minimize the costs related to screening applicants but also wants the assessment method to be highly valid to the specific jobs. Which of the following would be the best choice for Carter Vacuums? Answer: B Explanation: B) Cognitive ability tests are A) structured interviews highly valid and the costs related to B) cognitive ability tests developing and administering the tests are C) assessment centers low and they measure mental ability, such as D) work samples deductive reasoning verbal comprehension, memory and numerical ability for jobs like machinists or engineers. 53) Blue Bay Hotels is in the process of modifying the assessment methods the company uses to hire new employees. In the past, the hotel chain has been accused by minority organizations of violating EEO laws in its hiring practices. Which of the following applicant assessment methods would most likely have the LEAST adverse impact on minorities? Answer: C A) aptitude tests Explanation: C) Work samples have a low B) cognitive ability tests adverse impact on applicants. Cognitive C) work sampling technique ability tests, also known as aptitude tests, and D) job knowledge tests job knowledge tests have a high adverse impact against minorities. 54) Employers most likely conduct background investigations and reference checks to verify a candidate's ________. Answer: C Explanation: C) Employers verify data A) age regarding military service, employment B) marital status history, education, and credit. An applicant's C) military service age, marital status, ethnicity, and medical D) disability history history or disabilities are considered irrelevant to hiring, and an employer may violate EEO laws by requesting such information. 55) According to surveys of HR managers, which of the following is most frequently verified during an employment background investigation? 17 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Answer: B A) age Explanation: B) Nearly 90% of HR managers B) references reported conducting reference checks. Credit C) credit ratings checks were performed by 35% of HR D) driving records managers, while 56% investigated an applicant's driving history. 56) Which of the following is the primary reason that firms conduct background investigations of job applicants? Answer: C Explanation: C) There are two main reasons A) adhere to legal hiring practices to check backgrounds—to verify the B) limit the number of applicants applicant's information (name and so forth) C) uncover false information and to uncover damaging information, such as D) report criminals to police criminal activities or falsified information about education and experience. 57) Elliot, a manager at Harwood Publishing, gave a bad reference to a former employee. Elliot could most likely be accused of ________ if the information is both false and harmful. Answer: D Explanation: D) A communication is defamatory if it is false and tends to harm the A) discrimination reputation of another by lowering the person B) adverse impact in the estimation of the community or by C) arbitration deterring other persons from associating or D) defamation dealing with him or her. Managers, supervisors, and employers can be sued for defamation if comments are found to be false and harmful. 58) Which of the following methods for gathering background information about a job applicant is NOT recommended because of potential legal violations? Answer: A A) searching social networking sites for Explanation: A) Using a search engine like posted information about the applicant Google is acceptable, but checking social B) using a database to access information networking sites raises legal issues, especially about the applicant's credit history when done without the candidate's prior C) locating references other than the ones approval. Using databases and contacting provided by the applicant references are recommended for finding D) using a search engine to find information useful information about an applicant. about the applicant 59) According to state and federal laws, which of the following actions is NOT required of employers who check background information on applicants? 18 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Answer: D A) disclosing to the applicant that a credit Explanation: D) Employers must disclose to report will be requested the applicant that a report will be requested B) certifying to the reporting agency of the and certify with the reporting agency that the employer's legal compliance employer has the consent of the applicant. If C) providing copies of reports to the applicant adverse action, such as withdrawing an if adverse action is considered employment offer, is being considered or D) providing a detailed rationale explaining occurs, then the employer must provide the the reason for any adverse action applicant with a copy of the report. 60) In which of the following situations is it NOT legal to require an applicant to take a polygraph test as part of the selection process? Answer: D Explanation: D) Local, state, and federal government employers can use polygraphs, A) electrical engineer at the Department of but state laws restrict many local and state Energy governments. Private employers can use B) pharmacist's assistant at Walgreen's polygraph testing, but only under strictly C) security guard at Wells Fargo Bank limited circumstances, such as for security D) cashier at J.C. Penney's personnel or for positions with access to drugs. Cashiers at retail stores should not be asked to take polygraph tests. 61) What type of screening device is designed to measure attitudes regarding tolerance of others who steal and other forms of counter productivity? Answer: A Explanation: A) Paper-and-pencil (or online) honesty tests are psychological tests designed A) paper-and-pencil honesty tests to predict job applicants' proneness to B) interest inventories dishonesty and other forms of counter C) personality tests productivity. Most measure attitudes D) graphology regarding things like tolerance of others who steal, acceptance of rationalizations for theft, and admission of theft-related activities. 62) For an employer to administer a polygraph exam during an ongoing investigation of theft, an employer must do all of the following EXCEPT ________. 19 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Answer: D Explanation: D) To administer a polygraph A) prove that the accused had access to the test for an ongoing investigation, an employer property must meet four standards. First, the employer B) document a reasonable suspicion prior to must show that it suffered an economic loss requesting a polygraph or injury. Second, it must show that the C) explain the details of the investigation and employee in question had access to the the questions to be asked during the property. Third, it must have a reasonable polygraph suspicion before asking the employee to take D) subject all employees with access to the the polygraph. Fourth, the employee must property in question to the same polygraph receive the details of the investigation before examination as the accused employee the test, as well as the questions to be asked on the polygraph test. All employees are not required to take a polygraph. 63) Graphology, a tool for assessing basic personality traits, is also called ________. Answer: C Explanation: C) Graphology refers to the use A) numerology of handwriting analysis to determine the B) reasoning analysis writer's basic personality traits. Graphology C) handwriting analysis thus has some resemblance to projective D) polygraph output assessment personality tests, although graphology's validity is highly suspect. 64) What type of screening is used to reduce absenteeism and establish a baseline for future insurance claims? Answer: A Explanation: A) Preemployment medical A) physical exams exams are used to verify that the applicant B) personality tests meets the position's physical requirements, to C) substance abuse screening discover any medical limitations you should D) fine motor skills assessments consider in placing him or her, and to establish a baseline for future insurance or compensation claims. 65) Which of the following is most likely true regarding substance abuse screening? Answer: B A) According to federal law, all employers Explanation: B) Some urine sample tests must test all employees for illegal drugs. cannot tell the difference between legal and B) Some urine sample tests cannot distinguish illegal substances, such as Advil and between legal and illegal substances. marijuana. Drug testing is not mandatory for C) Most employers test potential applicants all employers. Drug tests are typically given during the recruitment process. just before a candidate is formally hired. D) Most urine sample tests measure the Breathalyzers can measure impairment but degree of impairment. not drug tests. 66) E-Verify is primarily used by employers to ________. 20 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. A) review an applicant's employment records Answer: C B) file an applicant's income tax information Explanation: C) E-Verify is the federal C) determine if an applicant is eligible to government's voluntary electronic work in the U.S. employment verification program used by D) report an applicant's work status to the many employers. Federal contractors are U.S. government required to use E-Verify to determine if an applicant is eligible to work in the U.S. 67) Applicant tracking systems are mostly used by employers to ________. Answer: D A) develop work samples Explanation: D) Applicant tracking systems B) develop specific job descriptions are used for screening and tracking C) verify a candidate's U.S. citizenship candidates, compiling resumes, and assisting D) screen and rank candidates based on skills with applicant testing. Online testing can be handled by an ATS but not situational tests like work sampling. 68) Tina is applying for a job as an assembly worker at Honda. As part of the selection procedure, Tina received classroom instruction and was asked to practice assembling windshield wipers onto cars. Tina most likely participated in ________. Answer: A A) miniature job training and evaluation Explanation: A) Miniature job training and B) situational judgment tests evaluation means training candidates to C) assessment centers perform several of the job's tasks, and then D) management games evaluating the candidates' performance prior to hire. 69) As the HR manager at Johnson Manufacturing, Derek is responsible for deciding which selection tools are most appropriate. When deciding on a specific selection tool, Derek should most likely consider all of the following factors EXCEPT the tool's ________. Answer: C Explanation: C) The employer needs to consider several things before deciding to use A) return on investment a particular selection tool. These include the B) adverse impact tool's reliability and validity; its return on C) persistence investment (in terms of utility analysis); D) usability applicant reactions; usability (in terms of your managers' and employees' willingness and ability to use it); adverse impact; and the tool's selection ratio. 70) According to experts known as human lie detectors, which of the following characteristics 21 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. most likely indicates that a job candidate is being deceptive? Answer: B Explanation: B) Human lie detectors are experts who may (or may not) be able to identify lying just by watching candidates. A) uncrossed legs Signs include pupils changing size (which B) irregular breathing often corresponds to emotions, such as fear); C) unchanging pupils irregular breathing (may flag nervousness); D) slow verbal responses micro-expressions (quick transitory facial expressions that may portray emotions such as fear); crossing legs ("liars typically try to distance themselves from an untruth"); and quick verbal responses (possibly reflecting scripted statements). 22 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. 101) What is the purpose of employee orientation? What role does training play in employee orientation? The purpose of employee orientation is to help new employees feel welcomed, understand the organization’s background, culture, and future vision, and clarify job expectations and behaviors. Orientation also initiates the socialization process. Training follows orientation to equip employees with the necessary skills to perform their jobs effectively. 102) In a brief essay, discuss how mobile devices, such as iPhones, are used by firms to facilitate both employee orientation and employee training. Answer: Firms use mobile devices to enhance orientation and training by providing new employees with resources like preloaded personal digital assistants containing key contacts and team information. Apps like Workday allow easy access to directories with names, images, and contacts, enabling quick communication. Mobile learning, or "on-demand learning," delivers content through devices like iPhones or laptops, allowing employees to access training anytime. Platforms like dominKnow offer full online courses for skills such as sales techniques and change management, making training flexible and accessible. 103) What are the four steps involved in the training process? After a training program has been established, how can managers make the training material more meaningful for employees? 23 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. The four steps in the training process are: 1. Needs Analysis: Identify required knowledge and skills, comparing them to trainees’ current abilities. 2. Instructional Design: Set measurable objectives, choose content (workbooks, activities), and budget the program. 3. Implementation: Deliver training through methods like on-the-job or online training. 4. Evaluation: Assess the program's effectiveness. To make training more meaningful, managers should: 1. Give an overview at the start. 2. Use familiar examples. 3. Organize and present information logically. 4. Use familiar vocabulary. 5. Include visual aids. 104) What is the difference between a task analysis and a performance analysis? What is the purpose of each in regards to training? Answer: Task Analysis involves a detailed study of a job to identify specific skills it requires (e.g., Java for a web developer). Job descriptions and specifications help determine the necessary training based on these duties and skills. Performance Analysis checks if a current employee’s performance deficiency is due to lack of training or other factors (e.g., needing a transfer). It starts by comparing actual performance with expected performance to confirm deficiencies and identify causes. Both analyses help in deciding whether training is needed and what type of training would be beneficial. 105) What is on-the-job training? What types of on-the-job training methods are most frequently used by employers? 24 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. Answer: On-the-job training (OJT) involves learning a job by doing it. Common methods include: 1. Coaching/Understudy: An experienced worker or supervisor trains the employee, suitable at both lower and higher levels. 2. Job Rotation: The employee moves between jobs at set intervals, often used in management training. 3. Special Assignments: Employees work on real problems to gain firsthand experience. OJT is widely used, from entry-level to executive positions. 106) What is audiovisual-based training? Under what circumstances is audiovisual-based training especially effective? Answer: Audiovisual-based training, like DVDs, films, PowerPoint, and audiotapes, is widely used despite the rise in internet training. Ford, for example, uses videos in dealer training to simulate handling customer complaints. Audiovisual training is ideal when: 1. Demonstrating sequences over time (e.g., machine repair) with features like stop-action and replay. 2. Showing events hard to present live (e.g., factory tours or surgeries). 3. Conducting organization-wide training where moving trainers would be too costly. 107) What is programmed learning? What methods make it easier for trainees to transfer the skills they gain through programmed learning from the training site to the work site? Answer: Programmed learning is a self-paced, step-by-step method using tools like textbooks or computers, involving three steps: presenting material, responding, and feedback. To help trainees transfer skills to the job, managers should: 1. Make the training and work settings similar. 2. Provide ample practice. 3. Label each part of equipment or process steps. 4. Highlight critical job aspects. 5. Give “heads-up” information. 6. Allow trainees to learn at their own pace when possible. 25 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. 108) Both action learning and management games require trainees to work in groups. In a brief essay, explain the similarities and differences between the two management development techniques. Answer: Action Learning involves managers taking time to solve real problems in other departments. Teams of 5-25 members work on complex, real-world issues outside their expertise, receiving coaching and feedback. Senior managers choose the projects and may implement the teams' solutions. Management Games use a simulated marketplace where 5-6 person teams make business decisions (e.g., advertising budget, production levels, inventory). The game compresses years into a short period, and teams compete without knowing the choices of other teams, though these affect their results. Similarities: Both involve group work, decision-making, and real-world problem-solving. Differences: Action learning addresses actual organizational issues, while management games simulate a competitive business environment. 109) In a brief essay, discuss the theory behind Kurt Lewin's model of change. According to Lewin, what is the process that should be followed to implement organizational change? Answer: Kurt Lewin’s model of change suggests that organizational behavior is shaped by forces maintaining the status quo and forces pushing for change. To implement change, either reduce the forces maintaining the status quo or strengthen those promoting change. Lewin’s three-step process involves: 1. Unfreezing: Loosen the status quo by creating awareness of the need for change. 2. Moving: Develop new behaviors and attitudes to replace old ones. 3. Refreezing: Solidify the new behaviors to prevent a return to old patterns. 110) What is meant by the idea of organizational change? How does organizational development facilitate organizational change? 26 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. Organizational change involves altering a company’s strategy, culture, structure, technology, or employees' skills and attitudes. Often starting with strategic changes (mission, vision), it requires employee support to succeed. Changes fail without employees' active backing or compliance, and managers must address resistance. Organizational development (OD) supports change by involving employees in formulating and implementing the required changes, often with guidance from consultants. OD helps employees accept and integrate changes smoothly. 1) On Alicia's first day of work at a software firm, she attended a meeting with the HR manager and other new employees. Alicia learned about employee benefits packages, personnel policies, and the structure of the company. In which of the following did Alicia most likely participate? A) recruitment Answer: C B) selection Explanation: C) Employee orientation is the C) orientation process of providing new employees with D) development basic background information about the firm. Orientation should help new employees start getting emotionally attached to the firm as well. 2) Which of the following terms refers to helping new employees appreciate the values and culture of a firm? A) onboarding Answer: A B) outsourcing Explanation: A) Onboarding is C) organizing synonymous with employee orientation, D) offshoring which involves providing new employees with the information they need to function. However, onboarding also tries to help new employees understand a firm's values and culture. 3) Which of the following is most likely NOT one of the goals of a firm's employee orientation program? A) making new employees feel like part of Answer: C a team Explanation: C) During employee orientation, B) helping new employees become firms try to make the new employee feel socialized into the firm welcome and at home and part of the team, C) assisting new employees in selecting the make sure the new employee has the basic best labor union information to function effectively, help the D) teaching new employees about the firm's new employee understand the organization in a history and strategies broad sense, and start the person on the process E) providing basic information to new of becoming socialized into the firm's culture, employees to help them work values, and ways of doing things. It is less likely that the firm would help employees join a labor union. 4) All of the following topics are typically addressed during employee orientation EXCEPT ________. A) employee benefits Answer: D 27 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. B) personnel policies Explanation: D) A wage curve is the graphic C) daily routine relationship between the value of the job and D) wage curves the average wage paid for the job. It is unlikely that wage curves would be addressed during orientation, which usually covers benefits, policies, routines, and safety measures. 5) The methods used to give new or present employees the skills they need to perform their jobs are called ________. A) orientation Answer: B B) training Explanation: B) Directly after orientation, C) development training should begin. Training means giving D) management new or current employees the skills they need to perform their jobs. Training is essential to good management. 6) MTR Enterprises failed to provide adequate safety training to one of its employees. As a result, the employee harmed a customer. A court would most likely find MTR liable for ________. A) discrimination Answer: B B) negligent training Explanation: B) Inadequate training can also C) occupational fraud expose employers to negligent training D) hazardous training liability. If an employer fails to train adequately and an employee harms a third party, it is likely that the court will find the employer liable. 7) Which of the following steps will most likely NOT help employers protect themselves against charges of negligent training? A) confirming an employee's claims of skill Answer: D and experience Explanation: D) Employers should confirm B) providing extensive and appropriate the applicant/employee's claims of skill and training experience, provide adequate training C) evaluating the effectiveness of the (particularly where employees use dangerous training equipment), and evaluate the training to ensure D) paying employees for their training time that it's actually reducing risks. Paying employees for training will not necessarily protect an employer. 8) Surveys have found that ________ has the greatest influence on organizational performance and employee productivity. A) appraisals Answer: C B) training Explanation: C) Training has an impressive C) goal-setting record of influencing performance, scoring D) screening higher than appraisal and feedback and just below goal setting in its effect on productivity. 28 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  Screening and hiring the right people is important, but goal-setting and training are essential. 9) What is the first step in the ADDIE training process? A) assessing the program's successes Answer: C B) appraising the program's budget Explanation: C) The gold standard of training C) analyzing the training need programs is the basic analysis-design-develop- D) acquiring training materials implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training process model that training experts have used for years. The first step is to analyze the training need. 10) What is the second step in the ADDIE training process? A) developing training aids Answer: C B) defining the training objectives Explanation: C) The basic analysis-design- C) designing the overall training program develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training D) designating employees who need training process model has been used by training experts for years. The second step of the process is designing the overall training program. 11) Which of the following will most likely occur during the third step of the ADDIE training process? A) training a targeted group Answer: B B) creating training materials Explanation: B) The basic analysis-design- C) evaluating the success of the program develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training D) estimating a budget for the training program process model has been used by training experts for years. The third step, developing the course, involves assembling and creating the training materials. 12) Which of the following would most likely occur during the fourth step of the ADDIE training process? A) holding on-the-job training sessions Answer: A B) selecting employees for training Explanation: A) The basic analysis-design- C) preparing online training materials develop-implement-evaluate (ADDIE) training D) asking participants for feedback process model has been used by training experts for years. The fourth step involves providing the training to a targeted employee group. Training methods vary but may include on-the-job training or online training. 13) What is the final step in the ADDIE training process? A) evaluating the program's successes or Answer: A failures Explanation: A) Evaluating the program is the B) rewarding employees for program final step in the training process. After training 29 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. participation is complete, employees are often rewarded for C) conducting a budget and needs analysis using new skills, but not during the training D) training the targeted group of employees process. 14) James, an HR manager, is currently identifying the specific knowledge and skills required for a telemarketing position at Newman Enterprises. James is most likely involved in which of the following? A) task analysis Answer: A B) program evaluation Explanation: A) Task analysis is a detailed C) strategic training needs analysis study of the job to determine what specific D) current training needs analysis skills—like Java (in the case of a Web developer) or interviewing (in the case of a supervisor)—the job requires. 15) Amy, an accounting supervisor, has been asked to provide training for her subordinates about new tax laws. In order to motivate the individuals who attend her training session, Amy should most likely do all of the following EXCEPT ________. A) use as many visual aids as possible Answer: C during the session Explanation: C) Using visual aids, providing B) provide an overview of the material to an overview at the beginning of the session, be covered and organizing information in logical, C) teach new terminology and technical meaningful units will likely motivate concepts employees. Terms and concepts used during a D) give information in logical, meaningful training session should be familiar to trainees sections rather than unfamiliar. 16) Trainees should be provided adequate practice and be allowed to work at their own pace during a training session in order to ________. A) screen applicants based on ability Answer: B B) transfer skills more easily to the job Explanation: B) Allowing trainees to work at C) provide employers with feedback their own pace, providing adequate practice, D) determine appropriate pay scales and maximizing the similarity between the training situation and the work situation are all techniques that enable trainees to transfer new skills from the training site to the work site. 17) ________ is a detailed study of the job to determine what specific skills the job requires. A) Needs analysis Answer: B B) Task analysis Explanation: B) Task analysis is a detailed C) Training strategy study of the job to determine what specific D) Development planning skills the job requires. Job descriptions and job specifications are important here because they list the job's specific duties and skills, which 30 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc.  are the basic reference points in determining the training required. 18) Which of the following consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a format that is helpful for determining training requirements? A) training assessment form Answer: B B) task analysis record form Explanation: B) Some managers supplement C) organizational skills sheet the job description and specification with a D) work function analysis task analysis record form. This consolidates information regarding required tasks and skills in a form that's especially helpful for determining training requirements. 19) Employers will most likely use all of the following methods to identify training needs for new employees EXCEPT ________. A) analyzing job descriptions Answer: D B) reviewing performance standards Explanation: D) Work sampling is a method C) questioning current job holders used for screening job applicants and will not D) conducting a work sampling likely be used to identify training needs. Managers can uncover training needs by reviewing performance standards, assessing job descriptions, performing the job, and questioning current job holders and their supervisors. 20) A graphic model that presents a precise overview of the knowledge, skills, and behaviors someone would need to perform a job well is known as a ________. A) scatter plot Answer: B B) competency model Explanation: B) The competency model C) classification table consolidates, usually in one diagram, a precise D) organizational chart overview of the competencies (for example, in terms of knowledge, skills, and behaviors) someone would need to do a job well. 21) The process of verifying that there is a performance deficiency and determining if such deficiencies should be corrected through training or through some other means is called ________. A) needs analysis Answer: C B) training assessment Explanation: C) Performance analysis is the C) performance analysis process of verifying that there is a performance D) performance appraisal deficiency and determining whether the employer should correct such deficiencies through training or some other means (like transferring the employee). 22) Mark Caffrey, vice president of sales at Samson Pharmaceuticals, manages a sales team of ten employees. Members of Mark's sales force vary in experience level. Four 31 Copyright © 2015 Pearson Education, Inc. members of the sales team have