CNET202 Test 1 & Test Preparation PDF

This document covers all taught lectures and should be used to prepare for Test1 and Test2. Test2, being comprehensive, covers the entire course. The material from Weeks 1-6 should be used to prepare for Test1. Both tests will have 50 MC questions selected randomly from all relevant week’s lots. The...

This document covers all taught lectures and should be used to prepare for Test1 and Test2. Test2, being comprehensive, covers the entire course. The material from Weeks 1-6 should be used to prepare for Test1. Both tests will have 50 MC questions selected randomly from all relevant week’s lots. The number of questions per week is not proportional to the number that will be selected. Both tests will be composed of 60% questions from this document. The remaining 40% of the test questions will be similar and fully documented in the lecture/lab material. W1 1. What are the two basic classes of Active Directory objects? a. Container and leaf objects b. Domain and user objects c. Security and distribution d. Active and passive Answer: a 2. What defines what objects exist as well as what attributes are associated with any object in the Active Directory? a. Active Directory administrator b. Active Directory global directory c. Active Directory root user d. Active Directory schema Answer: d 3. What is the next level of Active Directory container object within a domain? a. Organizational unit b. Group c. Subdomain d. Forest 1 Answer: a 4. Active Directory keeps a naming convention for the domain that mirrors ______. a. DHCP b. WINS c. DNS d. files and folders Answer: c 5. What allows administrators to grant users in one domain access to resources of another domain within the same domain tree? a. Bidirectional trust relationship between domains b. Permission inheritance between domains c. Permission inheritance between OUs d. User objects in each domain Answer: a 6. If an administrator creates a domain tree in an Active Directory forest, and then creates a separate and different domain tree, what is the relationship between the two domain trees? a. Completely different security entities, creating two Active Directory forests b. Different security entities, within one Active Directory forest c. Same security entity as one Active Directory forest, bidirectional trust between domain trees d. No trust between domain trees in an Active Directory forest Answer: c 7. What determines the functional level of an Active Directory forest? a. How many domains are in the forest b. How many domain controllers are in each domain c. The functional level as specified in the Active Directory Users and Computers console d. The lowest version of Windows Server on a domain controller Answer: d 8. What is the global catalog? a. The schema that lists what objects and attributes exist in the AD DS forest b. An index of all AD DS objects in a forest c. A list of all domain controllers currently available d. A matrix of all domains, sites, and domain controllers 2 Answer: b 9. What is an important difference between groups and OUs? a. An OU can represent the various divisions of your organization. b. Group membership can be a subset of an OU. c. OUs are a security entity. d. Group memberships are independent of the domain’s tree structure. Answer: d 10. What is the method for removing a domain controller in Windows Server 2019? a. Using the Dcpromo.exe command b. Using the Add Roles and Features Wizard c. Using the Adprep.exe command d. Using the Remove Roles and Features Wizard Answer: d 11. How far into the lease period does a DHCP client begin requesting renewal of the IP address? a. 50 percent, or about 2 days into the lease b. 75 percent, or about 2 days into the lease c. 50 percent, or at 4 days into the lease d. 87.5 percent, or about 7 days into the lease Answer: c 12. What are the advantages of using a distributed DHCP infrastructure? a. Large convergence of network traffic b. All the client/server network traffic is local, so minimal DHCP traffic on routers c. Reduced administrative burden with fewer DHCP servers d. Clients have ready access to DHCP servers Answer: b, d 13. Before a DHCP server can hand out addresses, which of the following steps must be completed? (Choose two answers.) a. A DHCP scope must be created and activated. b. The DHCP server must be created and authorized. c. The DHCP server must be put in the trusted list on the client computers. d. The DHCP server must be installed by an Enterprise Administrator. 3 Answer: a and b 14. Which of the following steps must be completed in order to do ensure a network printer is assigned the same address through the DHCP server? a. Create a reservation in the DHCP scope. b. Create an exclusion in the DHCP scope. c. Create a special scope on the DHCP server. d. Define the DHCP server on the client in the Advanced TCP/IP Advanced Settings. Answer: a 15. What are the servers at the top of the DNS hierarchy called? a. Down-level servers b. Authoritative sources c. Root servers d. Forwarders Answer: c 16. The typical query one DNS server sends to a root name server is called a(n) _______. a. recursive query b. iterative query c. referral d. forwarded query Answer: a 17. The domain name part of a DNS name is _______ and consists of two or more words, separated by ______. a. peer-based; periods b. hierarchical; commas c. unranked; commas d. hierarchical; periods Answer: d 18. What do you call the source responsible for maintaining a domain’s resource records? a. Authenticate source 4 b. Authoritative source c. Root server d. Down-level server Answer: b 19. When using DNS for name resolution only, why should a company consider using DNS servers outside the network perimeter? a. Less administration b. Less internal traffic c. Fewer servers in the communications server rack d. Less traffic crossing the network perimeter Answer: d 20. At what level of the DNS hierarchy are actual hosts, apart from the root servers? a. At the root servers level b. At the top-level domain level c. At the second-level domain level d. At the third-level domain level Answer: c 21. Concerning DNS, what is negative caching? a. When a DNS server receives incorrect information about a host b. When a DNS server receives obsolete information about a host c. When a DNS server receives information about a non-existent host d. When a DNS server forwards incorrect information about a host Answer: c 22. A DNS server receives updated information. Other DNS servers have outdated information cached. What determines the amount of time that the old DNS data remains cached on a server and an update might occur? a. The distance (number of network hops) between the new information and queried DNS server b. Network congestion between DNS servers c. Time To Live (TTL) specified by each DNS server's administrator d. The version of Windows Server on the DNS server Answer: c 5 23. What is the default TTL for a Windows Server 2019 DNS server? a. 1 hour b. 12 hours c. 5 minutes d. 36 hours Answer: a 24. Why is the DNS service included in Windows Server 2019 integrated with DHCP service? a. To allow a DNS server to inform DHCP clients with updated information. b. To update both DNS and DHCP clients with information from the Active Directory. c. To allow a DHCP server to request a DNS server to update or create a record. d. DNS and DHCP services are not integrated in Windows Server 2019. Answer: c 25. You registered the domain name contoso.com. The FQDNs seattle.contoso.com and halifax.contoso.com are examples of different _____. a. subdomains of contoso.com b. second-level domains c. top-level domains d. IP addresses Answer: a 26. When a DNS server communicates a name resolution query to another DNS server, what type of datagram is used, and over what port? a. UDP; 35 b. TCP; 35 c. UDP; 53 d. TCP; 53 Answer: c 27. Concerning DNS domain hierarchy, what are examples of global top-level domains? a..com,.net,.org b..mil,.gov,.edu c..aero,.name,.pro 6 d..ca,.cz,.kr Answer: a W2 1. Resource access for individuals takes place through their ______. a. computer accounts b. user accounts c. authentication d. shared folders Answer: b 2. What are the two built-in user accounts are created on a computer running Windows Server 2019? a. system and guest b. default and guest c. domain administrator and local administrator d. administrator and guest Answer: d 3. What are the two types of user accounts in Windows Server 2019? a. local and domain b. domain and group c. authenticated and unauthorized d. shared and unique Answer: a 4. What you call the process of confirming a user's identity by using a known value such as a password, a smart card, or a fingerprint? a. authorization b. permission c. delegation d. authentication Answer: d 7 5. Can a domain user, who does not possess explicit object creation permissions, create computer objects? a. No, not without the object creation permission b. Yes, an authenticated user can create a server object, after authenticating to a different domain server c. Yes, authenticated users can create workstation, but not server objects d. Can create workstation and server objects Answer: c 6. What you call the process of confirming that a user has the correct permissions to access one or more network resources? a. permission b. authorization c. delegation d. authentication Answer: b 7. Which of the following guidelines are NOT best practice for securing the Administrator account? a. Renaming the Administrator account name so as not to distinguish it from non-administrative accounts b. At least seven characters length and strong complexity for the account password c. Using the Administrator account for daily, non-administrative tasks d. Share the administrator account with only a few, necessary individuals Answer: c 8. When would administrators choose to use a User Template? a. When an administrator wants to save time while creating single users with many attributes b. When an administrator wants to save task steps while delegating user creation to other users c. When an administrator wants to ensure quality assurance in creating new objects d. When an administrator is accustomed to using User Templates Answer: a 9. What would be the distinguished name (DN) for a user named Ella Parker, whose user account resides in the Marketing OU of the adatum.com domain? a. cn=Ella Parker,dc=adatum,dc=com 8 b. cn=Ella Parker,ou=Marketing,dc=adatum,dc=com c. dn=Ella Parker,dc=adatum,dc=com d. dn=Ella Parker,ou=Marketing,dc=adatum,dc=com Answer: b 10. Which of the following is NOT a group scope? a. Universal groups b. Global groups c. Domain local groups d. Security groups Answer: d 11. Of the key reasons for creating organizational units, which of the following is NOT one of them? a. Delegating administration b. Assigning Group Policy settings c. Duplicating organizational divisions d. Assigning permissions to network resources Answer: d 12. What is the only OU created by default after installing Active Directory? a. Users OU b. Domain Controllers OU c. Global OU d. Computers OU Answer: b 13. Within a domain, the primary hierarchical building block is the _________. a. forest b. group c. organizational unit d. user Answer: c 9 14. Members of a universal group can come ______. a. from different organizational units b. from different domains c. from trusted forests d. only from within the domain Answer: c 15. Of the default groups created when Active Directory is installed, what are the types of those groups? a. Distribution groups b. Security groups c. Domain groups d. All the above Answer: b 16. What is the group scope for Domain Admins, Domain Controllers, and Domain Users default groups? a. Distribution b. Universal c. Global d. Domain local Answer: c 17. Which of the following default groups is a universal group? a. Certificate Publishers b. Enterprise Admins c. Domain Users d. Domain Admins Answer: b 18. Which of the following is NOT an example of a special identity? a. Dialup Service b. Creator Owner c. Authenticated Users d. Anonymous Logon 10 Answer: a 19. What is the proper term for associating a Group Policy to a set of AD DS objects? a. Linking b. Connecting c. Implementing d. Granting Answer: a 20. When multiple GPOs are linked to a container, which GPO in the list has the highest priority? a. the first b. the last c. the most permissive d. the most restrictive Answer: a 21. What is the Microsoft Management Console (MMC) snap-in that you use to create GPOs and manage their deployment to AD DS objects? a. Group Policy Management console b. Active Directory Administrative Center c. Server Manager d. Disk Management Answer: a 22. Can an administrator launch the Group Policy Management console from a workstation? a. No, the Group Policy Management console cannot be launched from a workstation b. Yes, if the administrator previously installed the Group Policy Management feature c. Yes, if the workstation is running the Remote Server Administration Tools package d. Yes, with no Answer: c 23. Group Policy settings are divided into two subcategories: User Configuration and Computer Configuration. Each of those two are further organized into three subnodes. What are the three? 11 a. Software settings, Windows settings, and Delegation Templates b. Software settings, Windows settings, and Administrative Templates c. Security settings, Windows settings, and Delegation Templates d. Security settings, Windows settings, and Administrative Templates Answer: b 24. What do you call the process that after you link a GPO to a site with multiple domains, the Group Policy settings are applied to all the domains and the child objects beneath them? a. inheritance b. linking c. downward application d. relevance Answer: a 25. What application or interface allows you to configure security filtering? a. Active Directory Administrative Center b. Server Manager c. Group Policy Management console d. Active Directory Users and Computers Answer: c 26. Local GPOs contain fewer options than domain GPOs. Local GPOs do not support ______. a. Scripts, including logon, logoff, startup, and shutdown commands b. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) c. folder redirection or Group Policy software installation d. Registry-based policies, such as user desktop settings and environment variables Answer: c W3 1. Which of the following is the maximum disk size supported when using GPT partitioning? a. 18 terabytes (TB) for each partition b. 18 petabytes (PB) for each partition c. 18 exabytes (EB) for each partition d. There is no maximum size limit. 12 Answer: C 4. How many primary partitions are supported on a GPT partitioned disk? a. 3 b. 4 c. 64 d. 128 Answer: D 2. Which of the following is an enhanced NTFS file system that offers larger volume sizes and files? a. FAT b. FAT32 c. FAT64 d. NTFS64 e. ReFS Answer: E 3. How many active partitions can a hard disk hold? a. 1 b. 3 c. 4 d. No limit Answer: A 4. Which of the following statements identifies the difference between striped and spanned volumes? a. With striped volumes, you can lose one disk without losing the whole volume. b. With spanned volumes, the system spans the data across all disks in the volume one block at a time. c. With spanned volumes, you gain performance boost. d. With striped volumes, the system writes data one strip at a time to each successive disk in the volume. Answer: D 5. Regarding both striped and spanned volumes, which of the following is the maximum number of physical disks permitted to create a volume? a. 16 13 b. 12 c. 32 d. 256 Answer: C 6. After you create a new VHD, it appears as a(n) _________ in the Disk Management snap-in and in Server Manager. a. uninitialized disk b. formatted disk c. initialized disk d. storage pool Answer: A 7. Which of the following is the net effect of the following combination of share and NTFS permissions when the share is accessed over the network? Share permission (Share tab)—Sales group: Full Control NTFS permission (Security tab)—Sales group: Read & Execute, Modify, Write a. Members of the Sales group will be able to take ownership of files and edit content, but not delete files. b. Members of the Sales group will be able to edit content and delete files. c. Members of the Sales group will be able to take ownership of files, edit content, and change NTFS permissions. d. Members of the Sales group will be able to edit content, delete files, and change NTFS permissions. Answer: B 8. Which of the following permissions are assigned directly to a file or folder? a. explicit b. inherited c. encompassing d. overriding Answer: A 9. Which of the following is the minimum permission level needed to change the attributes of a file? 14 a. Full Control b. Modify c. Read & Execute d. Write Answer: D 10. Which of the following is the minimum permission level needed to take ownership of a file or folder? a. Full Control b. Modify c. Read & Execute d. Write Answer: A 11. Which of the following permission levels always overrides the other permission levels? a. Explicit Allow Full Control b. Explicit Deny Full Control c. Inherited Allow Full Control d. Inherited Deny Full Control Answer: B 12. Windows Server 2019 supports which of the following two types of folder shares? a. Redirected and Network File System b. Server Message Blocks and Redirected c. Server Message Blocks and Network folders d. Network File System and Server Message Blocks Answer: D 13. Which of the following is a distributed file system protocol that accesses files over the network and is used with UNIX and Linux file server clients? a. DFS b. NFS c. SMB d. DNS Answer: B 15 14. Which of the following RAID levels, implemented in Windows Server 2019, is a striped set with distributed parity? a. RAID 0 b. RAID 1 c. RAID 3 d. RAID 5 Answer: D 15. After installing physical disks and concatenating their spaces together, virtual disks of any size can be created. Which of the following terms refers to the total combined space? a. Storage pool b. Storage spaces c. Storage volume d. Virtual pool Answer: A 16. Which graphical tool in Windows Server 2019 can be used to manage storage pools and create virtual disks? a. Disk Management for MMC b. Server Manager c. DiskPart.exe d. The VHD wizard Answer: B 17. Which of the following is not an available task after completing the setup of a storage space? a. Adding more drives to the pool b. Removing drives from the pool c. Renaming the pool d. Changing the size of storage spaces Answer: B 18. Which storage space resiliency type can be used to protect against two simultaneous drive failures? a. Parity b. Simple c. Three-way mirror 16 d. Two-way mirror Answer: C 19. Which storage space resiliency type offers no data protection when a drive fails? a. Parity b. Simple c. Three-way mirror d. Two-way mirror Answer: B 20. Which storage space resiliency type can be used to protect up to a single drive failure and requires at least two drives? a. Parity b. Simple c. Three-way mirror d. Two-way mirror Answer: D 21. Which storage space resiliency type can be used to protect up to a single drive failure and requires at least three drives? a. Parity b. Simple c. Three-way mirror d. Two-way mirror Answer: A 22. How are network attached storage (NAS) devices typically accessed over a network? (Choose all that apply.) a. Using Fibre Channel b. Using SMB c. Using iSCSI d. Using NFS Answer: B, D 23. Which of the following protocols does a storage area network (SAN) typically use for communication between servers and storage arrays? 17 a. SMB b. iSCSI c. Fibre Channel d. SCSI Answer: D 24. How are storage area network (SAN) devices typically accessed over the network? (Choose all that apply.) a. Using Fibre Channel b. Using SMB c. Using iSCSI d. Using NFS Answer: A, C 25. Which term corresponds to an entity that sends SCSI commands to iSCSI storage devices? a. Logical Unit Number b. iSCSI Qualified Name c. iSCSI Initiator d. iSCSI Target Answer: C 26. Which term corresponds to a portion of a storage subsystem? a. Logical Unit Number b. iSCSI Qualified Name c. iSCSI Initiator d. iSCSI Target Answer: A 27. Which term corresponds to an entity that receives SCSI commands? a. Logical Unit Number b. iSCSI Qualified Name c. iSCSI Initiator d. iSCSI Target Answer: D 18 28. Which of the following refers to a Hyper-V cluster with nodes and storage in two locations? a. iSCSI replication b. Server-to-server replication c. Stretch cluster d. Data Center Bridging Answer: C W4 1. The hardware that actually produces your hard-copy documents is called a _______. a. Printer b. Print device c. Print server d. Print driver Answer: b 2. In Windows, a ______ is the software interface through which a computer communicates with a print device. a. Printer b. Printing device c. Print device d. Print driver Answer: a 3. What are the differences, physically and logically, between the two printing configurations: Network-attached Printing and Network-attached Printer Sharing? a. They are essentially the same, both logically and physically. b. They are essentially the same logically. Physically, the printers are made available differently. c. They are essentially the same physically. Logically, the print jobs are handled differently. d. These two printing configurations are not alike physically, nor logically. Answer: c 4. You have an executive who needs her print jobs handled above those of others. How would you accomplish this advanced printing configuration? a. Connect multiple users to a single print server 19 b. Connect a single printer to multiple print devices c. Connect multiple print devices to a single print server d. Connect multiple print servers to a single print device Answer: d 5. Your environment includes many users who print documents often. A single print device isn't sufficient. You need a "printer pool" to accommodate all the concurrent print jobs. How would you accomplish this advanced printing configuration? a. Connect multiple users to a single print server b. Connect a single printer to multiple print devices c. Connect multiple print devices to a single print server d. Connect multiple print servers to a single print device Answer: b 6. Which of the following is NOT a basic printer permission? a. Print b. Take ownership c. Manage this printer d. Manage documents Answer: b 7. When managing printers, what is a method of giving certain users in your organization priority access to a print device? How to assure their print jobs are handled above others? a. Purchase extra print devices for those certain users b. Tell the certain users to send their print jobs to a lesser-used printer c. With the Manage This Printer permission, configure Printer Properties of a printer and set priority to a higher number than others, up to 99 d. With the Manage This Printer permission, configure Printer Properties of a printer and set priority to a lower number than others, down to 1 Answer: c 8. What basic printer permission do you grant a user to be able to pause, resume, restart and cancel their own print jobs, as well as the print jobs of others? a. Print b. Manage this printer c. Manage documents d. Manage print jobs 20 Answer: c 9. Which of the following can be used to save significant disk space by finding small chunks that are used multiple times on a disk and then maintaining a single copy of each chunk? a. NTFS compression b. tiered storage c. SMB 3.0 d. deduplication Answer: D 10. When using Windows Server 2019 data deduplication, which optimization ratio can be delivered for general file servers? a. 2:1 b. 3:1 c. 5:1 d. 10:1 e. 20:1 Answer: A W5 1. Server virtualization in Windows Server 2019 is based on a module called _________. a. Virtual architecture b. Hyper-V c. Hypervisor d. Virtual machine Answer: C 2. In Windows Server 2019, the hypervisor ________ the host operating system. a. loads first, then loads b. loads after c. runs on top of d. runs within 21 Answer: A 3. When the Hyper-V role is added to a Windows Server 2019 server, the hypervisor creates the individual environments, each of which has its own operating system installed and accesses the computer’s hardware via the hypervisor. Which term refers to those individual environments? a. Servers b. Partitions c. Processors d. Machines Answer: B 4. Which of the following is the primary graphical tool for creating and managing virtual machines? a. Server Manager b. Hyper-V Manager c. Add Roles and Features Wizard d. PowerShell Answer: B 5. Which of the following requirements must be met to use the Client Hyper-V feature in Windows Server 2019? (Choose all that apply.) a. The computer must be joined to a domain running at the Windows Server 2019 domain functional level. b. The computer must have a 64-bit processor that incorporates second level address translation (SLAT) technology. c. The computer must have a minimum of 4 GB of memory. d. The computer must be using two or more SAS disk drives on separate storage buses. Answer: B, C 66. Which of the following operating systems can be used in Hyper-V virtual machines for Windows Server 2019? (Choose all that apply.) a. Windows 10 b. Windows Server 2019 c. Windows Server 2003 d. SUSE Linux e. FreeBSD Answer: A, B, D, E 22 7. Which of the following best describes the Resource Metering tool? a. Resource Metering documents virtual machine usage regarding a variety of criteria. b. Resource Metering documents resource usage of host systems that run virtual machines. c. Resource Metering documents user traffic on virtual machines. d. Resource Metering can be used to redistribute virtual machine resources. Answer: A 8. Which of the following best describes the statistics gathered by the Resource Metering tool? a. Statistics show the user logons specific to the host operating system. b. Statistics are specific to groups of VMs for a particular operating system. c. Statistics show the total memory and traffic of the network adapter. d. Statistics are specific to each VM, even if VMs are transferred between host systems. Answer: D 9. In some cases, certain Hyper-V guest operating system features do not function properly using the operating system’s own device drivers. Which Hyper-V software package can help remedy compatibility issues? a. Resource Metering b. Smart paging c. Guest integration services d. Hyper-V server Answer: C 10. Which of the following provides these services: heartbeat, time synchronization, and data exchange between parent and child partitions? a. Guest integration services b. Smart paging c. Resource Metering d. Hyper-V server Answer: A 11. In Windows Server 2019, which type of VM allows for UEFI boot and SCSI disks to boot the system? a. Generation 1 VM b. Generation 2 VM 23 c. Generation 3 VM d. Native VM Answer: B 12. Which of the following states the primary purpose of the Hyper-V software package called guest integration services? a. Guest integration services improves communications between the parent partition and child partitions. b. Guest integration services resolves compatibility issues of certain guest operating systems experiencing non-functioning features. c. Guest integration services improves data exchange between the parent partition and child partitions. d. Guest integration services improves time synchronization between the parent partition and child partitions. Answer: B 13. Which of the following refers to the amount of memory that should be allocated to the VM when it starts? a. Startup RAM b. Minimum RAM c. Memory weight d. Memory buffer Answer: A 14. Which of the following refers to the smallest amount of memory the VM can use at any time? a. Startup RAM b. Minimum RAM c. Memory weight d. Memory buffer Answer: B 15. Which of the following is needed for Windows and Linux virtual machines to support Secure Boot? a. The virtual machine must be Generation 1. b. The virtual machine must be Generation 2. 24 c. The virtual machine must have an isolated memory. d. Hyper-V Resource Metering must be enabled. Answer: B 16. Which of the following methods can be used to modify a virtual hard disk? a. In Server Manager, in Hyper-V Manager, use the Edit Virtual Hard Disk Wizard. b. In Hyper-V File Server, open the Edit VHD dialog box. c. In Add Users and Computers, use the Edit Virtual Hard Disk Wizard. d. In Hyper-V Manager, in the Actions pane, select Checkpoint. Answer: A 17. In Windows Server 2019, which virtual image file provides for the largest size? a. VHD files, up to 2 TB b. VHD files, up to 64 TB c. VHDX files, up to 2 TB d. VHDX files, up to 64 TB Answer: D 18. If a company uses Hyper-V on Windows Server 2019 and the older Virtual Server, which virtual image file format can be used on both hypervisor products? a. VHDX b. VHS c. VHD d. DIVX Answer: C 19. When choosing between disk types in the New Virtual Hard Disk Wizard, which disk type permits an image size up to 2 TB? a. VHDX b. VHS c. VHD d. DIVX Answer: C 20. Which of the following benefits does a differencing disk offer administrators? a. An opportunity to experiment with no changes committed to the differencing disk 25 b. A better security option for the data on the differencing disk c. A faster load time than a full VM d. An opportunity to experiment with no changes committed to the parent image Answer: D 21. Can virtual machines (VMs) ever directly access a physical hard disk? a. No. VMs access only virtual hard disks, areas of space on the physical hard disk. b. Yes. VMs access a physical hard disk by way of a “pass-through disk,” a special virtual disk that directly accesses the physical disk if it is made exclusively available to the VM. c. No. VMs access physical hardware only through the hypervisor. d. Yes. Virtual hard disks associate directly to the physical hard disks. Answer: B 22. Which Server Manager tool can be used to create a new virtual hard disk? a. Hyper-V Server b. Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS), and then Manageability c. Hyper-V Manager d. File and Storage Services Answer: C 23. Can an existing virtual hard disk (VHD) file be modified? a. No. Once created, a VHD file is fixed. b. Yes. However, it can be modified only through Windows PowerShell. c. No. However, it can be changed into a VHDX file. d. Yes. It can even be modified without mounting it to a VM. Answer: D 24. Which of the following methods are typically used to access SAN devices over the network? (Choose all that apply.) a. Using Fibre Channel b. Using SMB c. Using iSCSI d. Using NFS Answer: A, C 26 25. In Windows Server 2019, how many virtual ports can be used for each virtual machine? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 Answer: D 26. Which type of disk is simply part of the space on a physical disk and appears to the VM as a physical hard disk drive? a. Virtual hard disk b. Checkpoint c. Differencing disk d. Pass-through disk Answer: A 27. Which of the following refers to the captured image of the state, data, and hardware configuration of a VM at a particular moment in time? a. Virtual hard disk b. Checkpoint c. Differencing disk d. Pass-through disk Answer: B 28. Which type of virtual disk points to a physical disk drive, rather than an area of space on a physical disk? a. Virtual hard disk b. Checkpoint c. Differencing disk d. Pass-through disk Answer: D 29. In Hyper-V terminology, which of the following refers to a virtual switch configured to provide connections external to the Hyper-V environment? a. External virtual network b. External network switch 27 c. External switch d. Networked virtual switch Answer: B 30. By default, how many MAC addresses are available for virtual network adapters in Hyper-V? a. 256 b. 64 c. 1024 d. 16 Answer: A 31. Which of the two types of virtual network adapters—synthetic or emulated—is called the legacy adapter, and why? a. Synthetic is called the legacy adapter, because of its use of the VMBus. b. Emulated is called the legacy adapter, because it is a standard network adapter driver and communicates more slowly. c. Synthetic is called the legacy adapter, because it does not correspond to a real-world product. d. Emulated is called the legacy adapter, because it bypasses the hypervisor as if it does not exist. Answer: B 32. Which of the following describes the difference between a private virtual switch and an internal virtual switch? a. A private virtual switch allows communication between child and parent partition VMs, but an internal virtual switch includes the external network. b. A private virtual switch allows communication between child partition VMs only, whereas an internal virtual switch includes the parent partition. c. There is no essential difference between the default configurations, but setup options are different. d. An internal virtual switch allows communication between child partition VMs only, whereas a private virtual switch includes the parent partition. Answer: B 33. Which of the following describes the difference between an external virtual switch and an internal virtual switch? a. An internal virtual switch doesn't allow child partition VMs to access the external network, but they can on an external virtual switch. b. An external virtual switch doesn't allow child partition VMs to communicate together, but they 28 can on an internal virtual switch. c. An internal virtual switch doesn't allow the parent partition VMs to access the external network, but they can on an external virtual switch. d. Internal virtual switches and external virtual switches are the same regarding the external network, but an internal virtual switched network is faster. Answer: A 34. How many virtual network adapters can be created on a Hyper-V server? a. Up to 12 network adapters—8 synthetic and 4 emulated b. Up to 12 network adapters—4 synthetic and 8 emulated c. Up to 8 network adapters—4 synthetic and 4 emulated d. Up to 8 network adapters—4 synthetic and 4 emulated Answer: A 35. How should an administrator set up a new virtual network adapter to communicate on a network VLAN? a. Select Tunneling LAN in Hyper-V Server network settings. b. Select Enable VLAN in the Hyper-V Manager network settings. c. Select Enable virtual LAN identification and enter a VLAN identifier to associate the network adapter to the VLAN. d. Virtual network adapters cannot communicate on a LAN. Answer: C 36. Which of the following hardware acceleration features is not supported by virtual network adapters in Windows Server 2019? a. Enable virtual machine queue b. Enable IPsec task offloading c. MAC address caching d. Single-root I/O virtualization Answer: C 37. What is the common name for a network adapter’s hardware address and how long is it? a. IP address, 6 bytes b. Media Access Control (MAC) address, 6 bytes c. IP address, 4 bytes d. Media Access Control (MAC) address, 8 bytes 29 Answer: B 38. How do virtual network adapters running on a child partition communicate with the parent partition? a. Synthetic adapters communicate by using the VMBus; emulated adapters communicate by making calls to the hypervisor. b. Emulated adapters communicate by using the VMBus; synthetic adapters communicate by making calls to the hypervisor. c. Both synthetic and emulated adapters communicate by using the VMBus. d. Both synthetic and emulated adapters communicate by making calls to the hypervisor. Answer: A 39. How many virtualized ports are available when using Hyper-V to create a virtual switch? a. 16 b. 256 c. 1,024 d. Unlimited Answer: D 40. How many virtual adapters are included, by default, after creating a VM? a. 0 b. 1 c. 4 d. Unlimited Answer: B 41. Which of the following is a device that functions at layer 2 of the Open Systems Interconnect (OSI) reference model, like its physical counterpart? a. Virtual router b. Virtual network adapter c. Virtual switch d. Virtual LAN Answer: C 42. Which of the following tasks must be completed when using NIC teaming with Windows Server 30 2019 virtual machines? (Choose two answers.) a. Configure a NIC team virtual network adapter. b. Bind the two NICs together by using the Windows PowerShell set-Bind cmdlet. c. Connect two virtual cables to the VM. d. Create a team virtual switch. Answer: A, D 43. Which of the following features are supported by the NIC team with Hyper-V virtual machines running in Windows Server 2019? (Choose all that apply.) a. MAC and IP spoofing b. Redundancy c. Aggregated bandwidth d. Error correction Answer: B, C 44. Which of the following, sometimes called a legacy adapter, is a standard network adapter driver that communicates with the parent partition by making calls directly to the hypervisor? a. Emulated network adapter b. Virtualization Service Provider (VSP) c. Synthetic network adapter d. Virtualization Service Client (VSC) Answer: A W6 1. Which type of image contains the operating system and all applications, and is available immediately to the end user? a. Thick image b. Thin image c. Hybrid image d. Consolidated image Answer: A 2. When deploying a computer, which type of image deploys the quickest? a. Thick image b. Thin image c. Hybrid image 31 d. Consolidated image Answer: A 3. Which type of file is a WIM file? a. A sector-based image b. A file-based disk image c. A hybrid image d. A thin image Answer: B 4. Which type of image should be used when deploying three types of computers? a. A WIM file b. A VHD file c. An XML file d. A sector-based image Answer: A 5. Which of the following is the name of the Windows Server 2019 installation DVD boot image file? a. boot.img b. boot.exe c. boot.iso d. boot.wim Answer: D 6. Windows Deployment Services (WDS) is a software platform and technology that can be used to perform which of the following functions? a. Automated staging setup for bootable images b. Automated network-based installations based on network-based boot and installation media c. Downloadable installations based on staged image files d. Automated configuration and installation via ISO images and an FTP service Answer: B 7. Which two role services does the WDS role include? a. Active Directory and Systems Management Server b. Deployment Server and Active Directory 32 c. Transport Server and Systems Management Server d. Transport Server and Deployment Server Answer: D 8. What role does Preboot eXecution Environment (PXE) play in WDS? a. PXE is used to boot to a WDS Server to install a preinstallation environment. b. PXE is used to install WDS services onto a domain controller. c. PXE is enabled only in an interdomain trust environment. d. PXE is a prerequisite for installing WDS services onto a deployment server system. Answer: A 9. Which function does the System Preparation Utility (sysprep.exe) perform on a system? a. It removes a system from the Active Directory domain. b. It removes a system’s name and security identifier (SID). c. It reboots the system and places it into capture mode. d. It starts the Snapshot Wizard in Windows Server 2019 Enterprise. Answer: B 10. Which type of XML files are used to streamline the Windows installation process when performing an unattended operating system installation via WDS? a. Answer files b. Question files c. Sysprep files d. Install files Answer: A 11. The initial configuration of WDS includes the setup of which other type of server? a. DHCP b. DISM c. World Wide Web d. Image store Answer: A 12. Which Microsoft tool is used to create and manage Windows setup answer files? a. System Image Manager (SIM) b. System Preparation Utility (sysprep.exe) c. Deployment Image Servicing and Managing (dism.exe) 33 d. Windows Preinstallation Environment (Windows PE) Answer: A 13. Which of the following statements describes the WDS boot.wim image file? a. It installs a standard Windows Server 2019 image to the client computer. b. It contains the file resources for all the images in an image group. c. It loads Windows PE 10 on the client computer. d. It’s used to create a bootable ISO file for WDS deployment. Answer: C 14. Windows PE 10 is based on which of the following operating systems? a. Windows XP b. Windows 7 c. Windows 8 d. Windows Mobile e. Windows 10 Answer: E Questions for Test1 End Here W7 is supposed to be the last teaching week before RW with Test1 and lab6 performed. Thus, no teaching material. W8 1. Which of the following is the minimum number of nodes that a production-ready failover cluster requires? a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 34 d. 5 Answer: A 2. Which of the following items is not an actual requirement that must be met in order to build a failover cluster using Windows Server 2019? a. All servers must use identical hardware components. b. All servers must use the same version of Windows Server 2019. c. All servers should have the exact same updates and service packs installed. d. All servers must be joined to an Active Directory domain. Answer: D 3. Which storage technology is a low-cost option that typically requires the cluster nodes to be physically close to the drives? a. iSCSI b. Fibre Channel c. Fibre Channel over Ethernet d. SAS Answer: D 4. Which of the following describes how a storage device is typically assigned to a single cluster on the network? a. By using the SCSI Primary Commands-3 standard b. By using the NTFS file system c. By using dynamic disks d. By using LUN masking or zoning Answer: D 5. In Windows Server 2019, Cluster Shared Volume (CSV) offers faster throughput when integrated with which of the following? a. Server Message Block (SMB) Multichannel b. Remote Direct Memory Access (RDMA) c. BitLocker volume encryption d. Storage Spaces Answer: A 35 6. Which of the following must be used to break ties during node failure in a cluster with an even number of nodes? a. A quorum b. A witness c. A multiport adapter d. A LUN mask Answer: B 7. Which of the following items is not a requirement when configuring the shared storage for a cluster? a. The disks must be only GPT, not MBR. b. The miniport driver used for the storage must work with the Storport storage driver. c. The storage device must support Persistent Reservations. d. The file system must be formatted as NTFS. Answer: A 8. Which of the following quorum types is recommended for clusters with an odd number of nodes? a. Node Majority (no witness) b. Node Majority with Witness c. Failover Witness d. No Majority (disk witness only) Answer: A 9. Which of the following is the result of combining CSV with Storage Spaces? a. A fast disk solution b. An expandable disk system c. A self-recovering disk system d. A resilient, highly available, cost-efficient solution Answer: D 10. Which of the following options are available in the High Availability Wizard, which is used to configure several pre-selected high availability roles in a cluster? (Choose all that apply.) 36 a. Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC) b. SQL Server c. Exchange Server d. WINS Server Answer: A, D 11. Which permission must be granted to an account used to add nodes to a cluster if that account is not a domain administrator? a. Create Computer Objects b. Manage Cluster Nodes c. DNS Dynamic Update d. Reset Password Answer: A 12. Which method is used to change the value of the preferred node in a cluster? a. Assign each node a priority numeric value. b. Assign each node a weight numeric value. c. List the servers in the preferred order. d. Select the Preferred node check box. Answer: C 13. Which of the following describes what the priority value for the cluster role specifies? a. How critical it is to keep that role operational b. The order in which roles are started up c. The order in which roles are shut down d. The percentage of resources that should be allocated to the role Answer: B 14. Which of the following describes how the selection of the preferred node affects failover of the cluster resources? a. Controls the node on which the resources come online after a failure b. Controls whether or not the Cluster service attempts a restart c. Controls whether or not the Cluster service attempts a failover d. Controls the node on which the resources come online after the preferred node fails Answer: A 37 15. When setting the failure threshold on the Failover tab, which two options can be configured to leave the cluster in a failed state? (Choose two answers.) a. The maximum number of failures that can occur b. The minimum number of failures that can occur c. The length of time in hours d. The length of time in minutes Answer: A, C 16. When using VM Monitoring for Hyper-V VMs, into which log will events be added when a monitored service is deemed to be unhealthy? a. Application b. System c. Hyper-V d. Clustering Answer: B 17. Which of the following will VM Monitoring attempt if a monitored VM is gracefully restarted on its current Hyper-V host and it subsequently fails again? a. Move the VM to another cluster node and restart it again. b. Leave the VM in a failed state and send an SNMP alert. c. Move the VM to another cluster node and leave it in a failed state. d. Restart the VM again, using Last Known Good Boot. Answer: A 18. Which of the following is used to provide highly available virtual machines? a. SMB cluster b. Dynamic cluster c. Auto-adjusting cluster d. Guest cluster Answer: D W9 38 1. Which of the following technologies transparently distributes traffic across multiple servers by using virtual IP addresses and a shared name? a. Redundant network cards b. Network Load Balancing c. Failover cluster d. RAID array Answer: B 2. Which of the following statements about Network Load Balancing is not true? a. Windows Server 2019 NLB clusters can have between 2 and 32 nodes. b. All hosts in the NLB cluster receive the incoming traffic. c. NLB detects the failure of a cluster node using a heartbeat. d. Network adapters in the NLB cluster can use both multicast and unicast simultaneously. Answer: D 3. Which of the following can be used to add Network Load Balancing (NLB) to a Windows Server 2019 computer? a. Programs and Features b. Server Manager c. Add/Remove Programs d. Computer Management Answer: B 4. Which of the following is not one of the three types of parameters used to configure an NLB cluster after installing NLB on a Windows Server 2019 computer? a. Host parameters b. Port rules c. Firewall rules d. Cluster parameters Answer: C 5. Which of the following options is not used when configuring port rules for NLB clusters? a. The node IP address to which the rule should apply b. The TCP or UDP port(s) to which the rule should apply c. The filtering mode d. The protocols to which the rule should apply 39 Answer: A 6. In which NLB cluster operation mode is the MAC address of every node’s network adapter replaced with a single shared MAC address? a. Unicast b. Multicast c. Class C d. Single Answer: A 7. Which cluster operation mode is designed to prevent the network switch from flooding with traffic? a. Unicast b. IGMP multicast c. BGP simulcast d. Multicast Answer: B 8. Which NLB control command would be the correct one to use to gracefully prepare a node for a planned maintenance activity? a. Stop b. Suspend c. Resume d. Drainstop Answer: D 9. Which NLB control command would most likely be the best option to use to immediately prepare a node for emergency maintenance? a. Stop b. Suspend c. Resume d. Drainstop Answer: A 40 10. When a service is set to start automatically with a delayed start, approximately how long is the delay? a. One minute b. Two minutes c. Five minutes d. Delayed until all other services start Answer: B 11. When creating service accounts, the account with which type of rights and permissions should be used? a. Simple b. Domain c. Minimum d. Privileged Answer: C 12. Which of the following tasks can be performed with the Event Viewer MMC snap-in? a. Save useful event filters as custom views that can be reused. b. Alter or edit events, such as changing the date or time. c. Create custom events from the Event Template. d. Resolve events directly from the Event Console. Answer: A 13. Which kind of tool is the Event Viewer? a. Registry cleanup b. Conflict resolver c. Log viewer d. Performance Monitor Answer: C 14. When should the task of establishing a performance baseline be done in order to correctly examine a system’s performance? a. During lowest usage b. During normal usage c. During peak usage d. During weekend usage 41 Answer: B 15. Task Manager is not a definitive performance tool because it provides which kind of look at computer performance? a. In-depth analysis b. High-level overview c. Quick glance d. Performance history Answer: C 16. Which term describes an instance of a program that is being executed? a. Program b. Event c. Process d. Procedure Answer: C 17. Resource Monitor is a powerful tool for understanding how system resources are used by which of the following system consumers? a. Processes and handles b. Files and processes c. Handles and services d. Services and processes Answer: D 18. A computer that is running Windows Server 2019 has scheduled backups every night. However, reports show that some of the computer’s services are failing during this time. Which method can be used to determine if it is a performance problem without actually sitting at the computer at night? a. Configure a scheduled task to start Performance Monitor. b. Schedule Performance Monitor from a DCS Properties Schedule tab. c. Schedule Task Manager to start at night. d. Schedule the Event Viewer to start Performance Monitor when the first error occurs. Answer: B W10 42 1. Which critical step should be performed before applying patches or updates? a. Select all critical updates for installation. b. Be sure that there is a good backup of system and data files. c. Decrease bandwidth requirements by applying patches one at a time. d. Apply service packs first. Answer: B 2. Windows updates, especially the Automatic Updates feature of Windows updates, are best for which kind of environments? a. Small b. Large c. Enterprise d. Internet service provider Answer: A 3. Windows Server Update Service (WSUS) can be configured in one of two modes: Autonomous or Replica. Autonomous provides one type of management and Replica provides another. What are the two management types? a. Upstream and Approval b. Distributed and Upstream c. Distributed and Central d. Central and Downstream Answer: C 4. Which of the following is the default port number for WSUS synchronization? a. 8510 b. 8530 c. 8550 d. 8830 Answer: B 5. Which two ways can computers be assigned to groups in WSUS? a. Client-side targeting and Server-side targeting b. Upstream targeting and Downstream targeting c. Client-side targeting and Upstream targeting d. Downstream targeting and Distributed targeting 43 Answer: A 6. With WSUS, every update can be automatically approved, but this isn’t necessarily recommended. Which of the following should be done before approving Windows updates to be installed? a. Check with Microsoft about which updates to apply. b. Move the updates into quarantine and wait for others to report problems. c. Approve all updates after the normal installation date. d. Test the updates on your own systems before approving for rollout. Answer: D 7. Which of the following is the definition of a service pack? a. It is a tested, cumulative set of hotfixes, security updates, critical updates, and updates, as well as additional fixes for problems found internally since the release of the product. b. It is a control that updates itself and redistributes the updates. c. It is a collection of generally accepted but largely untested hotfixes and patches bundled to be applied at will to systems across a network. d. It is a new software suite distributed by Microsoft to bring a system up to the latest Windows revision level. For example, Windows Server 2012 would be updated to Windows Server 2012 R2. Answer: A 8. Which factors, in addition to the number of sites, determines the number of WSUS servers that are needed? a. Speed and load between sites and the distance from Microsoft b. Download speed and update frequency c. Number of clients divided by 52 d. Speed and load between sites and the number of clients Answer: D 9. WSUS can retrieve updates directly from Microsoft or from which other source? a. A secondary Microsoft Windows Update location b. The original Windows installation media c. Another WSUS server on the network d. A public FTP site Answer: C 10. By default, to which computer group are computers assigned in WSUS? 44 a. All Computers b. All Clients c. All Systems d. Default Answer: A 11. Other than the default All Computers group, how many other groups can a computer be assigned to in WSUS? a. 1 b. 2 c. 4 d. 16 Answer: A 12. An organization that has a mix of Windows 7, Windows 8.1, and Windows 10, computers will be using WSUS to deploy Microsoft updates. Which of the following is the minimum number of WSUS computer groups required for the updates? a. 0 b. 1 c. 2 d. 3 Answer: B 13. Which type of Windows Defender scan checks all files on the disks and running programs? a. Full scan b. Quick scan c. Real-time scan d. Custom scan Answer: A 14. Which type of Windows Defender scan checks only specified locations? a. Full scan b. Quick scan c. Real-time scan d. Custom scan Answer: D 45 15. Which type of Windows Defender scan checks only the areas that most likely contain malware? a. Full scan b. Quick scan c. Real-time scan d. Custom scan Answer: B 16. Which of the following is the limitation of backing up system state using Windows Server Backup? a. It cannot be backed up to a remote disk. b. It cannot be backed up to a disk. c. It can only be backed up using Data Protection Manager. d. It cannot be backed up to a DVD drive. Answer: D 17. Which of the following would not be a good usage of manual backups? a. Backing up a volume that is not included in the regularly scheduled backup routine b. Making a special backup outside of the current backup schedule c. Making normal backups without a schedule d. Making a backup to store in a different location than the scheduled backups Answer: C 18. Which advantage is offered by using block-level backup in Windows Server Backup? a. The blocks are read in the order they appear in files. b. The blocks are read in the order they appear on the disk. c. The blocks are read in the order they were allocated. d. The blocks are read in the order they were released to slack space. Answer: B 19. When selecting the “Faster backup performance” option for backups, what is the net result of this configuration? (Choose all that apply.) a. Full backups are performed. b. Incremental backups are performed. c. Windows keeps a shadow copy of the source volume. d. Each volume is backed up separately. 46 Answer: B, C 20. Which Windows feature captures and stores copies of folders and files at specific points in time, allowing users or administrators to recover accidentally deleted or overwritten files as well as compare different versions of the same file? a. Version Management Copies b. Shadow Copy Version Control c. Shadow Copies for Shared Volumes d. Version Control Shadow Copy Provider Answer: C 21. Which type of backup allows an administrator to recover all volumes of the failed server, including critical data required for recovery? a. Bare Metal Recovery b. Full server c. System state d. System Reserved Answer: B 22. Which type of backup allows an administrator to recover all of the files needed to recover Active Directory? a. Bare Metal Recovery b. Full server c. System state d. System Reserved Answer: C W11 1. Firewall rules function in two ways: admit all traffic, except that which conforms to the applied rules, and secondly, block all traffic, except that which conforms to the applied rules. How does the Windows Firewall work for inbound traffic and for outbound traffic? a. Inbound—permit all. Outbound—block all b. Inbound—block all. Outbound—block all c. Inbound—block all. Outbound—permit all 47 d. Inbound—permit all. Outbound—permit all Answer: c 2. What does a firewall protect your company against? a. Network intrusion attempts, such as a denial of service attack b. Physical intrusion attempts, such as a broken front door c. Personnel intrusion attempts, such as social engineering d. Natural acts, such as an electrical surge caused by a lightning strike Answer: a 3. Windows Firewall uses three profiles to represent the type of network to which the server is connected. What are the three profiles? a. Private, temporary, and authenticated b. Public, DMZ, and private c. Internet, secure, and private d. Domain, private, and public Answer: d 4. For the Windows Firewall private profile, what type of network is expected? a. An unsecure network where unauthenticated users are probable b. An unsecure network where users must authenticate to the server c. An internal network that is not accessible by unauthorized users d. No network—private means no network connection allowed Answer: c 5. What does the term “filter” refer to in the Windows Firewall With Advanced Security console? a. The ability to screen traffic segments or packets b. The ability to display inbound or outbound rules according to a profile c. The ability to filter Group Policy settings per firewall d. The ability to filter Group Policy settings per traffic type Answer: b 6. If a user attempts to use an Internet-based e-mail account, how will Windows Firewall respond? a. The firewall permits the user to visit a non-corporate website. b. The firewall does not block client-initiated network traffic by default. c. The firewall blocks the webmail account unless the user is already authenticated. d. The firewall blocks all outbound traffic. 48 Answer: b 7. What tool offers more flexibility in creating rules compared with the Windows Firewall interface under Control Panel? a. Active Directory Users and Computers b. Windows Firewall With Advanced Security snap-in for the Microsoft Management console c. Windows Firewall With Advanced Settings in the Server Manager Tools menu d. Run > Windows Firewall Answer: b 8. In the Windows Firewall With Advanced Security console, while creating a new rule, the Program page specifies whether the ______. a. rule applies to all programs, or to one specific program b. rule applies to all users, or to one specific user c. rule applies to all systems, or to one specific system d. rule applies to all programs, to one specific program, or to a specific service Answer: d 9. By exporting the Windows Firewall policy, you have a file with a.wfw extension that contains _____. a. all its rules, including the preconfigured rules and the ones you have created or modified b. all the rules you have created or modified c. preconfigured rules to be applied to another firewall d. firewall settings as specified by the Group Policy settings Answer: a 10. If an administrator wants to enable the "Block all incoming connections, including those in the list of allowed apps" setting, to which of the firewall profiles does it apply? a. Public b. Public and private c. Public, private, and domain d. If a firewall profile is configured, this setting does not apply. Answer: c 11. Windows Firewall allows an administrator to import and export firewall rules. What are the rules' 49 file extension? a..wfw b..inf c..wfr d..inr Answer: a 12. What is the typical incoming port number for a web server? a. 53 b. 25 c. 118 d. 80 Answer: d 13. You can configure the Windows Firewall to allow or block specific _________. a. ports and protocols b. applications and users c. ports, protocols, and applications, but not users d. ports, protocols, applications, users, and IP address ranges Answer: d 14. When a service is set to start automatically with a delayed start, approximately how long is the delay? a. One minute b. Two minutes c. Five minutes d. Delayed until all other services start Answer: B 15. When creating service accounts, the account with which type of rights and permissions should be used? a. Simple b. Domain c. Minimum d. Privileged 50 Answer: C 16. Which of the following tasks can be performed with the Event Viewer MMC snap-in? a. Save useful event filters as custom views that can be reused. b. Alter or edit events, such as changing the date or time. c. Create custom events from the Event Template. d. Resolve events directly from the Event Console. Answer: A 17. Which kind of tool is the Event Viewer? a. Registry cleanup b. Conflict resolver c. Log viewer d. Performance Monitor Answer: C 18. When should the task of establishing a performance baseline be done in order to correctly examine a system’s performance? a. During lowest usage b. During normal usage c. During peak usage d. During weekend usage Answer: B 19. Task Manager is not a definitive performance tool because it provides which kind of look at computer performance? a. In-depth analysis b. High-level overview c. Quick glance d. Performance history Answer: C 20. Which term describes an instance of a program that is being executed? a. Program b. Event c. Process 51 d. Procedure Answer: C 21. Resource Monitor is a powerful tool for understanding how system resources are used by which of the following system consumers? a. Processes and handles b. Files and processes c. Handles and services d. Services and processes Answer: D 22. A computer that is running Windows Server 2019 has scheduled backups every night. However, reports show that some of the computer’s services are failing during this time. Which method can be used to determine if it is a performance problem without actually sitting at the computer at night? a. Configure a scheduled task to start Performance Monitor. b. Schedule Performance Monitor from a DCS Properties Schedule tab. c. Schedule Task Manager to start at night. d. Schedule the Event Viewer to start Performance Monitor when the first error occurs. Answer: B 52