Chapter 10 Questions PDF

**A newborn presents with jaundice, pallor, and generalized edema. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, elevated bilirubin, and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?** - a\) ABO incompatibility - b\) Immune hydrops fetalis - c\) Nonimmune hydrops fetalis - d\) G...

**A newborn presents with jaundice, pallor, and generalized edema. Laboratory tests reveal anemia, elevated bilirubin, and hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most likely cause?** - a\) ABO incompatibility - b\) Immune hydrops fetalis - c\) Nonimmune hydrops fetalis - d\) G6PD deficiency **Answer: b) Immune hydrops fetalis** 2. **A preterm infant born at 28 weeks develops respiratory distress shortly after birth. A chest X-ray shows a ground-glass appearance. Which factor contributes most to this condition?** - a\) Deficiency of surfactant - b\) Maternal diabetes - c\) Fetal anemia - d\) Oligohydramnios **Answer: a) Deficiency of surfactant** 3. **A 2-month-old infant with fair skin, a musty body odor, and developmental delay is diagnosed with phenylketonuria. What enzyme is most likely deficient?** - a\) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase - b\) Phenylalanine hydroxylase - c\) Hexosaminidase A - d\) Tyrosinase 4. **A preterm infant with a birth weight of 1500 g presents with abdominal distension, bloody stools, and pneumatosis intestinalis on X-ray. What is the most likely diagnosis?** - a\) Necrotizing enterocolitis - b\) Hirschsprung disease - c\) Meconium ileus - d\) Intussusception 5. **A fetus is found to have cystic hygroma and generalized edema on prenatal ultrasound. Which genetic condition is most commonly associated with these findings?** - a\) Turner syndrome - b\) Down syndrome - c\) Trisomy 13 - d\) Edwards syndrome 6. **Which of the following infections is most likely to cause hydrops fetalis through transplacental transmission?** - a\) Cytomegalovirus - b\) Parvovirus B19 - c\) Group B Streptococcus - d\) Escherichia coli 7. **A newborn develops respiratory distress immediately after birth. Which of the following is the primary defect in neonatal respiratory distress syndrome?** - a\) Inadequate surfactant production - b\) Pulmonary hypoplasia - c\) Persistent fetal circulation - d\) Alveolar capillary dysplasia 8. **Which of the following maternal factors is most commonly associated with fetal growth restriction?** - a\) Smoking - b\) Diabetes - c\) Obesity - d\) Hypertension 9. **A term neonate presents with vomiting, diarrhea, hepatomegaly, and cataracts after feeding. What enzyme deficiency is most likely responsible?** - a\) Galactose-1-phosphate uridyl transferase - b\) Aldolase B - c\) Phenylalanine hydroxylase - d\) Fructokinase 10. **A stillborn fetus has multiple anomalies, including polydactyly, cleft lip, and congenital heart defects. Which genetic syndrome is most likely?** - a\) Trisomy 13 - b\) Trisomy 21 - c\) Turner syndrome - d\) Klinefelter syndrome 11. **A premature neonate is at increased risk of developing necrotizing enterocolitis due to which of the following factors?** - a\) Enteral feeding - b\) Hypoxic-ischemic injury - c\) Fetal anemia - d\) Chromosomal abnormalities 12. **A fetus is diagnosed with oligohydramnios. Which of the following is a likely cause?** - a\) Bilateral renal agenesis - b\) Maternal diabetes - c\) TORCH infection - d\) Polyhydramnios 13. **Which of the following maternal infections is most strongly associated with fetal anomalies, including cataracts, deafness, and congenital heart defects?** - a\) Rubella - b\) Cytomegalovirus - c\) Toxoplasmosis - d\) Syphilis 14. **A neonate is diagnosed with sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). Which of the following is a significant risk factor for SIDS?** - a\) Sleeping in a prone position - b\) Breastfeeding - c\) Adequate prenatal care - d\) Maternal hyperglycemia 15. **A premature infant is treated with oxygen therapy for respiratory distress syndrome. The child later develops abnormal retinal vascular proliferation. What is the most likely complication?** - a\) Retinopathy of prematurity - b\) Retinal detachment - c\) Cataracts - d\) Glaucoma 16. **What is the most common congenital anomaly in live-born infants?** - a\) Congenital heart defects - b\) Neural tube defects - c\) Down syndrome - d\) Clubfoot 17. **A neonate is diagnosed with galactosemia. Which of the following symptoms would most likely be present?** - a\) Hypopigmentation - b\) Cataracts - c\) Macroglossia - d\) Splenomegaly 18. **A premature infant develops bronchopulmonary dysplasia. What is a major contributor to this condition?** - a\) Prolonged mechanical ventilation - b\) Congenital diaphragmatic hernia - c\) Pulmonary hypoplasia - d\) Chromosomal abnormalities 19. **A neonate develops unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia and kernicterus. Which of the following is a likely contributing factor?** - a\) Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase deficiency - b\) Hypoglycemia - c\) Iron deficiency - d\) ABO incompatibility 20. **A newborn with trisomy 21 is most at risk for which of the following conditions?** - a\) Congenital heart defects - b\) Spina bifida - c\) Hypothyroidism - d\) Diaphragmatic hernia 1. **Which of the following is a recognized risk factor for sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS)?** - a\) Prone sleeping position - b\) Breastfeeding - c\) High birth weight - d\) Genetic mutations\ **Answer: a) Prone sleeping position** 2. **Which of the following is the most common age range for SIDS?** - a\) 1--4 months - b\) 6--12 months - c\) Neonatal period - d\) 12--18 months\ **Answer: a) 1--4 months** 3. **Which of the following factors is protective against SIDS?** - a\) Co-sleeping - b\) Use of a pacifier - c\) Exposure to cigarette smoke - d\) Excessive bedding\ **Answer: b) Use of a pacifier** 4. **What finding is often noted in infants who die of SIDS during autopsy?** - a\) Brainstem abnormalities - b\) Enlarged spleen - c\) Cardiac hypertrophy - d\) Hepatic necrosis\ **Answer: a) Brainstem abnormalities** 5. **Which maternal factor increases the risk of SIDS?** - a\) Advanced maternal age - b\) Maternal smoking during pregnancy - c\) Vegetarian diet during pregnancy - d\) Maternal hypertension\ **Answer: b) Maternal smoking during pregnancy** 6. **What is the most common benign tumor in infants?** - a\) Fibrous hamartoma - b\) Hemangioma - c\) Teratoma - d\) Neurofibroma\ **Answer: b) Hemangioma** 7. **What is the most common malignant tumor of infancy?** - a\) Retinoblastoma - b\) Wilms tumor - c\) Neuroblastoma - d\) Hepatoblastoma\ **Answer: c) Neuroblastoma** 8. **Which tumor marker is associated with neuroblastoma?** - a\) Alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) - b\) Beta-human chorionic gonadotropin (β-hCG) - c\) Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) - d\) Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)\ **Answer: c) Vanillylmandelic acid (VMA)** 9. **Hemangiomas are most commonly found in which location?** - a\) Liver - b\) Skin - c\) Kidney - d\) Lung\ **Answer: b) Skin** 10. **What is the usual prognosis of hemangiomas?** - a\) Rapid progression to malignancy - b\) Spontaneous regression over time - c\) Chronic persistence without growth - d\) Increased growth during adolescence\ **Answer: b) Spontaneous regression over time** 11. **Fibrous hamartomas are most commonly found in which age group?** - a\) Adolescents - b\) Newborns - c\) Preschool children - d\) Adults\ **Answer: b) Newborns** 12. **Which feature is characteristic of congenital infantile fibrosarcoma?** - a\) Aggressive metastasis - b\) Balanced chromosomal translocation t(12;15) - c\) Slow growth and spontaneous regression - d\) Predominance in females\ **Answer: b) Balanced chromosomal translocation t(12;15)** 13. **What is the most common location for teratomas in infants?** - a\) Ovaries - b\) Sacrococcygeal region - c\) Brain - d\) Testes\ **Answer: b) Sacrococcygeal region** 14. **Which of the following is the usual histological finding in a mature teratoma?** - a\) Malignant cells - b\) Well-differentiated tissues from all three germ layers - c\) Undifferentiated embryonic cells - d\) Exclusively neural tissue\ **Answer: b) Well-differentiated tissues from all three germ layers** 15. **At what age are sacrococcygeal teratomas most commonly detected?** - a\) Neonatal period - b\) Late childhood - c\) Adolescence - d\) In utero\ **Answer: a) Neonatal period** 16. **Wilms tumor is most commonly associated with which syndrome?** - a\) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome - b\) Turner syndrome - c\) Down syndrome - d\) Edward syndrome\ **Answer: a) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome** 17. **Which histological feature is characteristic of Wilms tumor?** - a\) Small round blue cells - b\) Rosettes - c\) Schiller-Duval bodies - d\) Multinucleated giant cells\ **Answer: a) Small round blue cells** 18. **What is the most common clinical presentation of Wilms tumor?** - a\) Hematuria - b\) Abdominal mass - c\) Fever - d\) Jaundice\ **Answer: b) Abdominal mass** 19. **Neuroblastomas are derived from which tissue?** - a\) Neural crest cells - b\) Hepatocytes - c\) Renal tubules - d\) Pancreatic ducts\ **Answer: a) Neural crest cells** 20. **What genetic alteration is most commonly associated with neuroblastoma?** - a\) N-myc amplification - b\) Deletion of RB1 gene - c\) APC gene mutation - d\) p53 mutation\ **Answer: a) N-myc amplification**