Block 11 PDF.pdf

block 11 practice Name:____________________________________________________________ 1. What does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not operating? A. Zero pressure. B. The differential between the manifold pressure and the atmospheric pressure. C. The exi...

block 11 practice Name:____________________________________________________________ 1. What does a reciprocating engine manifold pressure gauge indicate when the engine is not operating? A. Zero pressure. B. The differential between the manifold pressure and the atmospheric pressure. C. The existing atmospheric pressure. 2. The method of mounting aircraft instruments in their respective panels depends on the A. instrument manufacturer. B. design of the instrument case. C. design of the instrument panel. 3. The primary purpose of a takeoff warning system is to alert the crew that a monitored flight control is not properly set prior to takeoff. The system is activated by A. an 80 knot airspeed sensor. B. an ignition system switch not set for takeoff. C. a thrust lever. 4. What must be done to an instrument panel that is supported by shock mounts? A. Bonding straps must be installed across the instrument mounts as a current path. B. The instrument mounts must be grounded to the aircraft structure as a current path. C. The instrument mounts must be tightened to the specified torque required by the maintenance manual. 5. When installing an instrument in an aircraft, who is responsible for making sure it is properly marked? A. The aircraft owner or pilot. B. The mechanic installing the instrument. C. The manufacturer of the instrument. 6. What marking color is used to indicate if a cover glass has slipped? A. Red. B. White. C. Yellow. 7. A synchro transmitter is connected to a synchro receiver A. mechanically through linkage. B. electromagnetically without wires. C. electrically with wires. 8. Data transmitted between components in an EFIS are converted into A. digital signals. B. analog signals. C. carrier wave signals. 9. Turbine engine exhaust gas temperatures are measured by using  iron/constantan thermocouples. B. chromel/alumel thermocouples. C. ratiometer electrical resistance thermometers. 10. A Bourdon tube instrument may be used to indicate A. pressure and temperature. B. temperature and position. C. position and pressure. 11. A barometric altimeter indicates pressure altitude when the barometric scale is set at A. 29.92 "Hg. B. 14.7 "Hg. C. field elevation. 12. Which of the following operating mechanisms would be found in a hydraulic pressure gauge? A. Bourdon tube. B. Pressure diaphragm. C. Evacuated bellows. 13. The maximum altitude loss permitted during an unpressurized aircraft instrument static pressure system integrity check is A. 50 feet in 1 minute. B. 200 feet in 1 minute. C. 100 feet in 1 minute. 14. When selecting hardware for attaching bonding connections to an aircraft structure, which of the following should be considered? A. Mechanical strength, ease of installation, amount of current to be carried. B. Permissible voltage drop, amount of current to be carried, type of load. C. Mechanical strength, allowable power loss, ease of installation. 15. When performing the static system leakage check required by 14 CFR 91.411, the technician utilizes A. static pressure. B. positive pressure. C. negative pressure. 16. A turn coordinator instrument indicates A. the longitudinal attitude of the aircraft during climb and descent. B. the need for corrections in pitch and bank. C. both roll and yaw. 17. Aircraft instrument value should be marked and graduated in accordance with A. the instrument manufacturer's specifications. B. both the aircraft and engine manufacturers' specifications. C. the specific aircraft maintenance or flight manual.  What is the fixed line mark attached to the compass bowl of a magnetic compass called? A. Reeder line. B. Lubber line. C. Reference line. 19. Which instrument condition is acceptable and would not require correction? A. Red line missing. B. Case paint chipped. C. Fogged. 20. The operation of an angle of attack indicating system is based on detection of differential pressure at a point where the airstream flows in a direction A. not parallel to the true angle of attack of the aircraft. B. parallel to the angle of attack of the aircraft. C. parallel to the longitudinal axis of the aircraft. 21. The lubber line on a directional gyro is used to A. represent the nose of the aircraft. B. align the instrument glass in the case. C. represent the wings of the aircraft. 22. If a static pressure system check reveals excessive leakage, the leak(s) may be located by A. pressurizing the system and adding leak detection dye. B. isolating portions of the line and testing each portion systematically starting at the instrument connections. C. removing and visually inspecting the line segments. 23. How is a flangeless instrument case mounted in an instrument panel? A. By four machine screws which extend through the instrument panel. B. By an expanding-type clamp secured to the back of the panel and tightened by a screw from the front of the instrument panel. C. By a metal shelf separate from and located behind the instrument panel. 24. Magnetic compass bowls are filled with a liquid to A. retard precession of the float. B. reduce deviation errors. C. dampen the oscillation of the float. 25. Which of the following instrument discrepancies would require replacement of the instrument? A. Case leaking, glass cracked, instrument will not zero out, or fogged. B. Red line missing, case leaking, or glass cracked. C. Instrument will not zero out, leaking at line B nut, or mounting screws loose. 26. How would an airspeed indicator be marked to show the best rate-of-climb speed (one engine inoperative)? A. A red radial line. B. A blue radial line.  A green arc. 27. Stall warning systems are generally designed to begin warning the pilot when a stall A. is imminent. B. is starting to occur. C. first affects the outboard portions of the wings. 28. The pneumatic (reed) type stall warning system installed in some light aircraft is activated by A. static air pressure. B. positive air pressure. C. negative air pressure. 29. Bonding connections should be tested for A. resistance value. B. amperage value. C. reactance. 30. The function of a display controller in an EFIS is to A. display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments. B. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation. C. receive and process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display. 31. Which procedure should you use if you find a vacuum-operated instrument glass loose? A. Mark the case and glass with a slippage mark. B. Replace the glass. C. Install another instrument. 32. The green arc on an aircraft temperature gauge indicates A. the instrument is not calibrated. B. the desirable temperature range. C. a low, unsafe temperature range. 33. The function of a symbol generator (SG) in an EFIS is to A. display alphanumeric data and representations of aircraft instruments. B. allow the pilot to select the appropriate system configuration for the current flight situation. C. receive and process input signals from aircraft and engine sensors and send the data to the appropriate display. 34. Instrument static system leakage can be detected by observing the rate of change in indication of the A. airspeed indicator after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed equivalent airspeed to be indicated. B. altimeter after pressure has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed equivalent altitude to be indicated. C. altimeter after suction has been applied to the static system to cause a prescribed  equivalent altitude to be indicated. 35. Select one means of controlling the fuel temperature on turbine-powered aircraft. A. Engine bleed air to the fuel filter. B. Engine bleed air to the fuel tank. C. Engine bleed air to a heat exchanger. 36. What is the primary purpose of the crossfeed system? A. It allows any tank to supply fuel to any engine. B. It bypasses the engine shutoff valve if it fails. C. It divides the fuel and sends it to the injectors. 37. Flapper valves are used in fuel tanks to A. reduce pressure. B. prevent a negative pressure. C. act as check valves. 38. The purpose of a diaphragm in a vane-type fuel pump is to A. equalize fuel pressure at all speeds. B. vary fuel pressure according to throttle setting. C. compensate fuel pressures to altitude changes. 39. Some turbine powered aircraft have a fuel temperature indicator located in the flight deck to A. monitor the fuel flow in the event that ice crystals form in the fuel system. B. monitor the fuel temperature during high altitude flight. C. ascertain the amount of fuel onboard the aircraft when ice starts to form in the fuel tanks. 40. Why is it necessary to vent all aircraft fuel tanks? A. To ensure a positive head pressure for a submerged boost pump. B. To exhaust fuel vapors. C. To limit pressure differential between the tank and atmosphere. 41. A probe or a series of probes is used in what kind of fuel quantity indicating system? A. Selsyn. B. Capacitor. C. Synchro. 42. What is used in many aircraft to prevent bubbles in the fuel after it leaves the tank when atmospheric pressure is lower than fuel vapor pressure? A. Air-fuel separators. B. Anti-foaming additives. C. Boost pumps. 43. Why is the capacitance fluid quantity indicating system more accurate in measuring fuel level than a mechanical type? A. Only one probe and one indicator are necessary for multiple tank configurations.  It measures in gallons and converts to pounds. C. It measures by weight instead of volume. 44. The primary purpose of a fuel tank sump is to provide a A. way to shut off fuel flow or to route the fuel to a desired location. B. place for contaminants and water to settle, with a drain valve to remove the impurities. C. way to manually operate valves on a fuel tank to isolate or direct fuel to a pump. 45. What is the purpose of flapper-type check valves in integral fuel tanks? A. To allow defueling of the tanks by suction. B. To prevent fuel from flowing away from the boost pumps. C. To allow the engine-driven pumps to draw fuel directly from the tank if the boost pump fails. 46. A fuel jettison system is required under certain conditions if the maximum takeoff weight exceeds the maximum landing weight. What regulations cover the requirements of fuel jettisoning? A. 14 CFR Parts 43 and 91. B. 14 CFR Parts 23 and 25 and CAM 4b. C. 14 CFR Parts 21 and 43 and CAM 8. 47. (1) Gas-turbine-engine fuel systems are very susceptible to the formation of ice in the fuel filters. (2) A fuel heater operates as a heat exchanger to warm the fuel. Regarding the above statements, A. only 1 is true. B. only 2 is true. C. both 1 and 2 are true. 48. What type of fuel-booster pump requires a pressure relief valve? A. Concentric. B. Sliding vane. C. Centrifugal. 49. Which statement concerning an electronic capacitance-type fuel quantity indicating system is true? A. It has no moving parts in the tank. B. It has two tubes separated by an electronic field in the tank. C. It utilizes a variable capacitor to indicate the fuel tank capacity. 50. A transducer in a fuel pressure system serves what function? A. Transmits an electrical signal to the transmitter for fluid pressure. B. Transmits electrical signal proportional to the fluid pressure. C. Converts fluid pressure directly through a transmitter to the indicator. 51. An aircraft's integral fuel tank is A. usually located in the bottom of the fuselage. B. a part of the aircraft structure.  a self-sealing tank. 52. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that A. the indicators are calibrated in gallons; therefore, no conversion is necessary. B. only one transmitter and one indicator are needed regardless of the number of tanks. C. several fuel tank levels can be read on one indicator. 53. Fuel jettisoning is usually accomplished A. through a common manifold and outlet in each wing. B. by gravity flow into the outboard wing tanks and overboard through a common outlet in each wing. C. through individual outlets for each tank. 54. When fuel quantity is measured in pounds instead of gallons, the measurement will be more accurate because fuel volume A. varies with temperature change. B. increases when temperature decreases. C. varies with changes in atmospheric pressure. 55. When moving the mixture control on a normally operating engine into the idle cutoff position, engine RPM should A. slightly increase before the engine starts to die. B. slightly decrease and then drop rapidly. C. remain the same until the cutoff is effected, then drop rapidly. 56. When inspecting a fuel system, you should check all valves located downstream of boost pumps with the pumps A. at idle. B. dormant. C. operating. 57. Integral fuel tanks on transport aircraft are A. easily removed for service or inspection. B. constructed of plastic or fiberglass. C. supported by the aircraft structure. 58. Normal fuel crossfeed system operation in multiengine aircraft A. calls for jettisoning of fuel overboard to correct lateral instability. B. reduces contamination and/or fire hazards during fueling or defueling operations. C. provides a means to maintain a balanced fuel load condition. 59. How many engine driven fuel pumps per engine are required for engines requiring fuel pumps? A. Two engines can share one fuel pump. B. One fuel pump for each engine. C. Two fuel pumps for each engine. 60. The presence of fuel stains around a fuel nozzle would indicate  too much fuel pressure. B. excessive airflow across the venturi. C. clogged fuel nozzle. 61. Which of the following would be most useful to locate and troubleshoot an internal fuel leak in an aircraft fuel system? A. Structural repair manual. B. Orthographic projection troubleshooting tree. C. Maintenance manual diagrams and descriptions. 62. The fuel jettison valve must be designed to allow flight personnel A. to close the valve at any time and the fuel must discharge clear of the aircraft. B. to discharge fuel clear of the aircraft. C. to close the valve at anytime. 63. What method would be used to check for internal leakage of a fuel valve without removing the valve from the aircraft? A. Place the valve in the OFF position, drain the strainer bowl, and with boost pump on, watch to see if fuel flows to the strainer bowl. B. Remove fuel cap(s), turn boost pump(s) on, and watch for bubbling in the tanks. C. Apply regulated air pressure on the downstream side of the fuel pump and listen for air passing through the valve. 64. Which of the following may be used for the repair of fuel leaks on most integral fuel tanks? A. Welding and resealing. B. Brazing and resealing. C. Riveting and resealing. 65. Why is the main fuel strainer located at the lowest point in the fuel system? A. It traps any small amount of water that may be present in the fuel system. B. It is near the fuel tank heater to help prevent vapor lock in the system. C. It filters and traps all micro-organisms that may be present in the fuel system. 66. Fuel system components must be bonded and grounded in order to A. drain off static charges. B. prevent stray currents. C. retard galvanic corrosion. 67. One advantage of electrical and electronic fuel quantity indicating systems is that the indicator A. can be located any distance from the tank(s). B. has no movable devices. C. always measures volume instead of mass. 68. What unit is generally used to actuate the fuel pressure warning system? A. Fuel flowmeter. B. Pressure-sensitive mechanism. C. Fuel pressure gauge.  What occurs when a visual smoke detector is activated? A. A warning bell within the indicator alarms automatically. B. A lamp within the indicator illuminates automatically. C. The test lamp illuminates and an alarm is provided automatically. 70. A carbon dioxide (CO(2)) hand-held fire extinguisher may be used on an electrical fire if the A. horn is nonmetallic. B. handle is insulated. C. horn is nonmagnetic. 71. Smoke detectors that use a measurement of light transmissibility in the air are called A. thermocouple devices. B. photoelectrical devices. C. ultraviolet optical devices. 72. In some fire-extinguishing systems, evidence that the system has been intentionally discharged is indicated by the absence of a A. red disk on the side of the fuselage. B. green disk on the side of the fuselage. C. yellow disk on the side of the fuselage. 73. (Refer to Figure 21.) Using the chart, determine the temperature range for a fire- extinguishing agent storage container with a pressure of 330 psig. (Consider 330 psig for both minimum and maximum pressure.) A. 47 to 73°F. B. 47 to 71°F. C. 45 to 73°F. 74. A thermocouple in a fire-detection system causes the warning system to operate because A. it generates a small current when heated. B. heat decreases its electrical resistance. C. it expands when heated and forms a ground for the warning system. 75. The proper fire-extinguishing agent to use on an aircraft brake fire is A. water. B. carbon dioxide. C. dry powder chemical. 76. The thermocouple fire-warning system is activated by a A. certain temperature. B. core resistance drop. C. rate-of-temperature rise. 77. Maintenance of fire-detection systems includes the A. repair of damaged sensing elements. B. servicing pressure type responder system. C. replacement of damaged sensing elements.  In what areas of aircraft would you find a carbon monoxide detector? A. Cargo and baggage compartment. B. Cabin and cockpit. C. Lavatory and engine nacelle. 79. The types of fire-extinguishing agents for aircraft interior fires are A. water, carbon dioxide, dry chemical, and halogenated hydrocarbons. B. water, dry chemical, methyl bromide, and chlorobromomethane. C. water, carbon tetrachloride, carbon dioxide, and dry chemical. 80. When air samples contain carbon monoxide, portable carbon monoxide detectors containing yellow silica gel will turn which color? A. Blue. B. Green. C. Red. 81. Why does the Fenwal fire-detection system use spot detectors wired parallel between two separate circuits? A. A control unit is used to isolate the bad system in case of malfunction. B. This installation is equal to two systems: a main system and a reserve system. C. A short may exist in either circuit without causing a false fire warning. 82. Which fire-detection system measures temperature rise compared to a reference temperature? A. Fenwal continuous loop. B. Lindberg continuous element. C. Thermocouple. 83. The thermal switches of a bimetallic thermal-switch type fire-detection (single- loop) system are heat-sensitive units that complete circuits at a certain temperature. They are connected in A. parallel with each other, and in parallel with the indicator lights. B. parallel with each other, but in series with the indicator lights. C. series with each other, but in parallel with the indicator lights. 84. What is the color code for fire extinguisher lines? A. Brown. B. Yellow. C. Red and green. 85. (Refer to Figure 21.) Determine what pressure is acceptable for a fire extinguisher when the surrounding area temperature is 33°F. (Rounded to the nearest whole number.) A. 215 to 302 psig. B. 214 to 301 psig. C. 215 to 301 psig. 86. Light refraction smoke detectors are activated when the detector A. measures a reduction in the amount of visible or infrared light in the surrounding area.  senses light reflected from smoke particles passing through a chamber. C. uses radiation induced ionization to detect the presence of smoke. 87. Which fire-extinguishing agent is considered to be the least toxic? A. Carbon dioxide. B. Bromotrifluoromethane (Halon 1301). C. Bromochloromethane (Halon 1011). 88. If a fire extinguisher cartridge is removed from a discharge valve, it should be A. pressure checked. B. used only on the original discharge valve assembly. C. replaced with a new cartridge. 89. The most common cause of false fire warnings in continuous-loop fire-detection systems is A. improper routing or clamping of loops. B. moisture. C. dents, kinks, or crushed sensor sections. 90. A fire extinguisher container can be checked to determine its charge by A. attaching a remote pressure gauge. B. weighing the container and its contents. C. a hydrostatic test. 91. Built-in aircraft fire-extinguishing systems are ordinarily charged with A. carbon dioxide and nitrogen. B. halogenated hydrocarbons and nitrogen C. sodium bicarbonate and nitrogen. 92. Smoke in the cargo and/or baggage compartment of an aircraft is commonly detected by which instrument? A. Chemical reactor. B. Photoelectric cell. C. Sniffer. 93. What method is used to detect the thermal discharge of a built-in fire- extinguisher system? A. A discoloring of the yellow plastic disk in the thermal discharge line. B. A rupture of the red plastic disk in the thermal discharge line. C. The thermal plug missing from the side of the bottle. 94. When used in fire-detection systems having a single indicator light, thermal switches are wired in A. parallel with each other and in series with the light. B. series with each other and the light. C. series with each other and parallel with the light. 95. On a periodic check of fire extinguisher containers, the pressure was not between  minimum and maximum limits. What procedure should be followed? A. Release pressure if above limits. B. Replace the extinguisher container. C. Increase pressure if below limits. 96. Smoke detection instruments are classified by their method of A. construction. B. maintenance. C. detection. 97. A squib, as used in a fire-protection system, is a A. temperature-sensing device. B. device for causing the fire-extinguishing agent to be released. C. probe used for installing frangible disks in extinguisher bottles. 98. In reference to aircraft fire-extinguishing systems, (1) during removal or installation, the terminals of discharge cartridges should be grounded or shorted. (2) before connecting cartridge terminals to the electrical system, the system should be checked with a voltmeter to see that no voltage exists at the terminal connections. Regarding the above statements, A. only 2 is true. B. both 1 and 2 are true. C. neither 1 nor 2 is true. 99. A contaminated carbon monoxide portable test unit may be returned to service by A. cleaning the indicating element with soap and water. B. removing the indicating element and installing a new indicating element. C. removing the indicating element from the exposed area for 24 hours. 100.Which of the following are fire precautions which must be observed when working on an oxygen system? A. Display 'No Smoking' placards and keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease. B. Display 'No Smoking' placards and provide adequate fire-fighting equipment. C. Display 'No Smoking' placards, provide adequate fire-fighting equipment, keep all tools and oxygen servicing equipment free from oil or grease, and avoid checking aircraft radio or electrical systems.