Biology Multiple Choice Questions - Undergraduate Admission Exam - Victor Babeș University 2024 PDF

Monica Adriana Vaida Daniela Puşcaşiu Adelina Jianu Loredana Stana Laura Haidar BIOLOGY Multiple-choice questions for the undergraduate admission exam (type 3) for the faculties of Medicine and Dental medicine of „Victor Babeş” University of Medicine and Pharmacy, Timișoara – 2024 – Coordinator: Marilena Motoc 1 CONTENTS CHAPTER 1  Introduction to anatomy and physiology.Cells and cell physiology..4 CHAPTER 2  The nervous tissue. Organisation of the nervous tissue……………11 CHAPTER 3  Sense organs..........................................................................................17 CHAPTER 4  The bone tissue………………………………………………………24 CHAPTER 5  The muscle system..............................................................................31 CHAPTER 6  The digestive system…………………………………………………38 CHAPTER 7  Blood and the cardiovascular system……………………………….45 CHAPTER 8  The respiratory system. The urinary system………………………52 CHAPTER 9  The reproductive system……………………………………………59 CHAPTER 10  The endocrine glands………………………………………………66 ANSWERS………………………………………………………………………………73 REFERENCES………………………………………………………………………....76 2 CHAPTER 1  Introduction to anatomy and physiology Cell and cell physiology 1. Select the correct associations referring to the subdivisions of anatomy: A. Cytology – the study of cells and their functions B. Developmental anatomy – the study of the structural changes of an individual from fertilization to adulthood C. Macroscopic anatomy – the study of the structures of the body visible without the use of a microscope D. Microscopic anatomy – the study of cells, tissues and organs visible under a microscope E. Reproduction physiology – the study of reproductive organs and methods of reproduction 2. Select the correct statements referring to cytology: A. It is one of the branches of physiology B. It is the science that studies the structures of the body visible without the use of a microscope C. It is the study of cells and their functions D. It is the study of the excretory system and its functions E. It studies of the functions of the nervous system and its involvement in human behaviour 3. Select the true statement(s) from the answers below: A. The function of the excretory system is studied by a branch of physiology called cytology B. The function of the excretory system is studied by a branch of physiology called renal physiology C. Reproductive physiology studies the excretory system and its functions D. Reproductive physiology studies the reproductive organs and the methods of reproduction E. The function of the nervous system is studied by a branch of physiology called neurophysiology 4. Select the true statement(s) from the answers below: A. Carbohydrates, proteins, lipids and water are typical examples for the level of structural organisation of the body where the main components are represented by molecules B. The cell contains subcellular structures such as mitochondria and ribosomes C. The atom is the fundamental structure of all living organisms D. Atoms are chemical units of chemical elements (oxygen, carbon, nitrogen, sodium) E. Carbohydrates, proteins and lipids do not belong to the important molecules of the body, representing just a small percentage of its components 5. Select the true statement(s) from the answers below: A. An organ consists of two or more types of tissues B. The stomach consists of all four main types of tissues: epithelial, connective, muscle and nervous C. A system consists of several organs with different structures but identical functions D. The muscle system includes striated muscles, smooth muscles and the cardiac muscle E. The urinary system consists of the kidneys, the bladder and the associated urinary tracts 6. Which of the following statements referring to metabolism is/are true? A. Metabolism represents the sum of all chemical processes in the body B. Metabolism consists of a single subcategory, called catabolism C. Metabolism consists of catabolism, which usually takes up energy in order to synthesize organic matter D. Metabolism is subdivided into two subcategories, catabolism and anabolism E. Catabolism represents the decomposition of organic matter resulting in the production of the energy required by cell functioning 7. Select the correct associations referring to body functions: A. Movement – voluntary or involuntary – is the result of muscle fibre contraction B. Conductivity – the property of a cell to send stimuli – is characteristic for bone and muscle cells C. Asexual reproduction – the production of a whole new individual – includes spermatogenesis and oogenesis 3 D. Sexual reproduction – the division of a single cell – is the generation of two identical daughter cells E. Conductivity – the property of cells to send stimuli – is a characteristic of nervous and muscle cells 8. Which of the following statements referring to homeostasis are true? A. All the processes that contribute to maintaining internal stability of the body within normal limits are called homeostasis B. Homeostasis is not compatible with meeting the nutritional and energetic demands of body cells C. The constant maintaining of temperature and atmospheric pressure are necessary conditions to maintain homeostasis D. All organ systems are involved in maintaining homeostasis E. Various disorders (diseases), excessive temperature, pain or lack of blood oxygen induce external imbalances without impairing the body’s internal environment 9. Which of the following statements are true? A. When the body is in anatomical position, it is in vertical position (orthostatism), with the upper limbs near the body and the palms facing forwards B. The anatomical position of the body refers to its horizontal position (orthostatism) with the upper limbs away from the body and the palms facing backwards C. In anatomical position, the body has two sides, an anterior one (ventral) and a posterior one (dorsal) D. In anatomical position, the body has two sides, a medial one (right) and a lateral one (left) E. The term „ventral” is the opposite of the term „dorsal” (when the body is viewed frontally) 10. Which of the following statements referring to direction are false? A. In anatomic terminology, the abdomen (the inferior part of the abdominopelvic cavity) is considered to be located inferior to the thorax B. The term “proximal” refers to a point nearer to where extremities are attached to the body C. The term “ipsilateral“ refers to structures situated on opposite sides of the body D. The term “contralateral” refers to structures situated on the same side of the body E. The term “lateral” refers to a position farther from the body’s median line 11. Select the correct associations regarding the body’s directional terms: A. The hand – proximal to the forearm – distal to the arm B. Left hand – right foot– ipsilateral C. Right hand – right foot – ipsilateral D. Left arm – right foot – contralateral E. Foot – distal to thigh – distal to calf 12. Select the true statements referring to the body’s anatomical planes: A. There are three important planes (surfaces): sagittal, frontal, coronal B. The midsagittal plane is a vertical plane that divides the body in two halves, left and right C. The frontal plane has a vertical direction and divides the body in an anterior and a ventral part D. The planes transect the human body and provide reference points for its organs E. The frontal plane forms a right angle with the coronal plane 13. Which of the following statements referring to body cavities and regions is/are true? A. The heart, the oesophagus, the trachea and the primary bronchi are located in the mediastinum B. The abdominopelvic cavity is separated by the thoracic cavity by a large quadrangular muscle (diaphragm) C. The abdominopelvic cavity is called the peritoneal cavity and contains the internal abdominal and pelvic organs D. The stomach is located in the abdominal subdivision of the abdominopelvic cavity E. The umbilical region is situated in the centre of the abdomen, and the epigastric region lies inferior to it 14. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to body cavities and regions: A. Organs such as the lungs, the heart, the thymus, the oesophagus are situated at the thoracic level B. The lungs (two in number) are located in the mediastinum C. The terms „quadrants” (upper – left and right, and lower – left and right) are commonly used in clinical practice 4 D. The intersection of two imaginary lines, a vertical one and a horizontal one, in the centre of the abdominopelvic cavity delimits four quadrants E. The spinal canal, delimited by the meninges, contains interstitial fluid 15. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the abdominopelvic cavity: A. It belongs to the ventral part of the body, together with the thoracic cavity and the spinal canal B. It is also called peritoneal cavity and contains the internal abdominal and pelvic organs C. Its abdominal subdivision contains the liver, the stomach, the rectum and the anal canal D. Is separated by the thoracic cavity by a dome-shaped large muscle – the diaphragm E. Its pelvic subdivision contains the gallbladder, the jejunum and the ileum 16. Choose the true statement(s) from below: A. The human body contains three serous membranes: the pleura, the pericardium and the peritoneum B. Each of the three serous membranes has a parietal and a visceral sheet C. The parietal sheet of the peritoneum lines the abdominal and the pelvic cavities D. The parietal sheet of the peritoneum lines only the abdominal cavity E. The space between the peritoneal sheets is called peritoneal cavity, the space between pericardial sheets is called pericardial cavity 17. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to prokaryote cells: A. They are devoid of nucleus B. They divide by mitosis C. Bacteria are prokaryotic cells D. They do not divide by mitosis E. Plants, animals and humans consist of prokaryotic cells 18. Choose the correct statement(s) from below: A. Prokaryotic cells divide by cytokinesis B. Eukaryotic cells have a nucleus and cell organelles and divide by mitosis C. Both prokaryotic and vegetal (plant) cells are devoid of nuclei D. All cells, including human ones, have two basic components: cytoplasm and plasma membrane E. Bacteria belong to prokaryotic cells, while animal and human cells are eukaryotic 19. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the plasma membrane: A. It mainly consists of proteins and phospholipids B. The lipids in the plasma membrane are arranged in two layers (bilayer structure) C. The proteins in the plasma membrane are arranged in two layers (bilayer structure) D. Has a solid mosaic structure due to the cholesterol which reduces its fluidity E. The proteins in the membrane carry out various functions (enzymatic, transmembrane transport) 20. Phospholipids in the plasma membrane have the following type(s) of end: A. Polarised, which contains phosphorus B. Polarised, consisting of fatty acid chains C. Unpolarised, which contains phosphorus D. Unpolarised, consisting of fatty acid chains E. Hydrophobic, consisting of fatty acid chains 21. Select the true statement(s) referring to plasma membrane proteins: A. Transmembrane proteins may act as transporters of certain organic molecules B. Can be classified into transmembrane and peripheral C. Cholesterol is an example of transmembrane membrane D. Haemoglobin is an example of peripheral protein E. Transmembrane proteins may serve as channels for membrane transport 22. Select the false statement(s) referring the permeability of the cell membrane: 5 A. Oxygen molecules pass from pulmonary alveolae to red blood cells by osmosis B. If one introduces red blood cells into a hypertonic solution, they will undergo the process of hemolysis C. Plasma membrane, being semipermeable, facilitates the passage of small molecules D. Active transport is achieved in the sense of the concentration gradient E. In order to coordinate active transport, energy is obtained by disassembling a compound that contains high-energy- potential phosphate chains (adenosine triphosphate) 23. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to cross-plasma-membrane transport: A. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a high-concentration area to a low-concentration area (in the sense of the gradient concentration) B. Diffusion is the movement of molecules from a low-concentration area to a high-concentration area (against the concentration gradient) C. Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules through a semipermeable membrane D. Osmosis is the diffusion of water molecules from a low-concentration area of the solute to high-concentration area of the solute E. The passing of oxygen from pulmonary alveolae to the capillaries is an example of osmosis 24. Choose the correct statement(s) from below: A. The solute is a chemical substance dissolved in a fluid called solvent B. The solvent is a chemical substance dissolved in a fluid called solute C. A solution that has a higher salt concentration than the cytoplasm is called hypertonic solution D. A solution that has a higher water concentration than the cytoplasm is called hypertonic solution E. A solution that has a higher sodium chloride concentration than the cytoplasm is called a hypertonic solution 25. The plasma membrane is a semipermeable membrane because: A. It allows the passing of water from a low-concentration-solute area to a high-concentration-solute area B. It allows just certain molecules to pass (e. g., O2, water, CO2) C. It contains proteins called histones D. Together with the ribosomes, it is the location of protein synthesis E. It does not facilitate the passage of large molecules to or from the cell 26. Which of the following are transport mechanisms across the cell membrane? A. Diffusion, osmosis, glycolysis B. Diffusion, facilitated diffusion, exocytosis C. Osmosis – water diffusion, for example, water reabsorption in the renal tubules D. Active transport – for example, reabsorption of salts in the renal tubules E. Karyokinesis, transport through the channels, osmosis 27. Choose the correct statement(s) from below: A. Phagocytosis represents the transportation of solid material by means of endocytosis B. Pinocytosis represents the transportation of fluid drops by means of exocytosis C. The release of neurotransmitters from the neuron presynaptic vesicles is achieved by exocytosis D. The release of certain hormones from exocrine cells is achieved by exocytosis E. Oxygen permeation of the erythrocyte membrane is achieved by diffusion 28. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to cytoplasm: A. It is the place where certain cellular metabolic processes take place B. It contains the cytoskeleton which consists of carbohydrate subunits C. It contains specialised structures called organelles (endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi apparatus, etc) D. It has a solid consistency, which is fundamental for a cell E. Several cellular functions are carried out in the cytoplasmic organelles 29. The endoplasmic reticulum can be described as being: A. A cytoplasmic organelle playing a specific role in protein synthesis (translation) B. A functional structure located in the cytoplasm, playing a role in Ca 2+ depositing C. A complex of membranes which extend into the cytoplasm 6 D. The site of cellular respiration, containing the electron transport system E. Of two types, smooth (site of lipid and membrane synthesis) and rough (with attached ribosomes) 30. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the rough endoplasmic reticulum: A. Is involved in protein synthesis (achieved by amino acid assembling in the attached ribosomes) B. Has certain structures attached, called lysosomes, which host the chemical combination of amino acids C. Is the site of lipid degradation D. Is an organelle consisting in a complex of membranes, which extend into the cytoplasm and have ribosomes attached in some of their areas E. Plays a role in protein synthesis through cellular respiration 31. The following statement(s) referring to lysosomes is/are true: A. They contain enzymes which play a role in the cell digestion processes B. They represent the site for the cell’s sodium and calcium deposits C. They contain enzymes which degrade the nutrient particles inside a cell and offers the final products to the cell D. They represent a source of salts such as sodium chloride E. They are vesicles which derive from the sacs of Golgi apparatus and contain enzymes for intracellular digestion 32. Which of the following structures do not belong to cell organelles? A. Golgi apparatus, the endoplasmic reticulum B. Kinetochore, chromosome C. Mitochondria, ribosomes D. Centrosome, lysosomes E. Nucleolus, chromatin 33. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the mitochondria: A. These organelles are the site of carbohydrate and lipid breakdown resulting in energy production B. Inside the mitochondria, cellular respiration is complete when oxygen combines with hydrogen and electrons and form water C. These organelles are the site of glucose synthesis resulting in energy production D. The energy produced by the mitochondria is stored as DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) E. They are cellular organelles involved in the cell’s energy processes 34. Which of the following are elements of the cell cytoskeleton? A. Intermediate filaments and microfilaments B. Fibres, filaments and combined molecules C. Macrofilaments and cilia D. Macrotubules and flagella E. Microtubules and microfilaments 35. Choose the true statement(s) referring to cilia and flagella: A. The flagellum is a part of the spermatozoa ensuring its movement B. The cilia are shorter structures than the flagella C. The flagellum is a prolongation present in some of the respiratory tract cells D. The cilia are present in the respiratory tract cells where they undulate synchronously E. Unlike the flagella, the cilia are immobile and much longer 36. Choose the correct statement(s) regarding the nucleus: A. The nucleus delimited by the membrane is present in eukaryote cells B. The nucleus is present in all the cells of the human body, with the exception of red blood cells (erythrocytes) C. The dense mass of the nucleus containing RNA (ribonucleic acid) is called nucleolus D. Inside the cell’s nucleus, RNA (ribonucleic acid) molecules fold around histone complexes in order to form chromatin E. During the interphase period, when chromosomes cannot be distinguished from one another, the dispersed DNA mass and its associated proteins from the cell nucleus are called chromatin 37. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the cell nucleus: 7 A. The shape and size of the nucleus differs from a cell type to another B. The position of the nucleus inside the cell is a central one in all cell types C. It is surrounded by a double membrane called nuclear membrane D. Includes nucleoli, which contain ribonucleic acid (RNA) E. The nucleoli are the site of lysosome synthesis 38. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the nuclear membrane: A. It is a porous membrane called cellular membrane B. As it consists of two layers of phospholipids, it contains twice the quantity of phospholipids compared to the cellular membrane C. It separates nuclear contents from the extracellular space D. It is a double porous membrane E. It controls the passage of substances between nucleus and cytoplasm 39. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the cell’s nuclear material: A. It consists of deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) and proteins B. The non-spiral structure of chromosomes is called chromatin C. The non-spiral structure of chromosomes is found in the metaphasic plate D. The spiral form of chromosomes is called chromatin E. The dispersed DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) and histone mass forms chromatin 40. The following statement(s) is/are true regarding the cellular cycle: A. In the gastrointestinal tract, cells divide often B. The cell cycle has two important phases: the interphase and mitosis C. The cell cycle is a repeating series of events including cellular growth and reproduction D. The cell cycle has an interphase consisting of four phases E. The contents of the nucleus is directly involved in cell reproduction 41. The interphase is a phase of the cell cycle in which: A. The cell does not divide, but DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) replication takes place B. Chromosomes are aligned along the equatorial plate, also called a metaphase plate C. Specific cell activity take place (e. g., secretion of substances in glandular cells) D. There are three distinct phases: prophase, metaphase and telophase E. Cell chromosomes are present as non-spiral chromatin 42. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to mitosis: A. It is one of the two phases of a cell cycle, together with the interphase B. It is one of the two phases of a cell cycle, together with the chromosome spiralisation C. It is the phase of the cell cycle in which the cell’s nuclear DNA is divided between the two daughter cells D. Mitosis is followed by the S phase, a stage of interphase E. It is the only period when the cell synthesises structural proteins 43. Choose the correct associations referring to the phases of the cell cycle: A. Phase S – interphase – DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) replication B. Phase G2 – mitosis – the cell grows C. Phase G1 – protein synthesis – non-spiral chromatin D. Phase G1 – enzyme synthesis – non-spiral chromatin E. Phase S – mitosis – RNA (ribonucleic acid) replication 44. Chromatids, chromosomes and chromatin have the following common characteristics: A. Are visible fibrillar structures B. Contain the genetic information required for protein synthesis C. Are associated with ATP (adenosine triphosphate) molecules, forming nucleosomes D. Contain DNA (deoxyribonucleic acid) but do not contain RNA (ribonucleic acid) E. Store genetic information 8 45. Choose the correct associations from the statements below: A. Cleavage furrow – a groove in the kinetochore B. Cytokinesis – takes place after the telophase C. Mitosis and cytokinesis – make possible the growth of the body through sexual reproduction D. Mitosis and cytokinesis – replacement of old and deteriorated cells by forming new cells E. Cellular cleavage – strangulation of the cytoplasm by the cell membrane resulting in the formation of daughter cells 46. The following statement(s) is/are true regarding proteins: A. They are inorganic compounds, used as enzymes in cellular chemical reactions B. They are organic compounds, used as structural material in the cells of the body C. They are present in the structure of microtubules and microfilaments D. They are absent from the structure of the cytoskeleton, consisting of microtubules, microfilaments and intermediate filaments E. They are specialised molecules which are exported by cells in order to be used in various extracellular activities 47. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to chromosomes: A. They represent linear units where DNA is organized inside the cell nucleus B. They contain functional segments called genes C. Each chromosome consists of millions of units called nucleosomes D. They develop by RNA condensation, the winding of RNA around histone complexes, forming nucleosomes, followed by the supra-spiralling of nucleosomes E. Chromosome condensation results from the supra-spiralling of nucleosomes 48. Choose the correct answers referring to enzymes: A. With a few exceptions, the name of the enzymes ends in the suffix „-ase” B. Most enzymes are polynucleotides C. At high temperatures, enzyme reactions are much faster D. The thermal activation energy of an endergonic or exergonic reaction is produced by enzymes E. The heat excess may trigger changes in an enzyme’s protein structure and its alteration 49. The following statement(s) is/are true about adenosine triphosphate (ATP): A. When it eliminates its terminal phosphate group, it releases an energy equivalent to 7.3 kcal/mol B. When it decomposes in order to produce energy, it releases ribose and adenosine C. It serves as an energy source during muscle contraction D. It contains a single phosphate group with a high energy level, which is released under the action of ATP-ase E. In the muscle fibre, it must be constantly regenerated from ADP and phosphate groups 50. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the relation cell - energy: A. Each chemical reaction of the body involves an energy exchange B. Any chemical reaction which releases energy is called endergonic C. The energy released during catabolic exergonic reactions is stored in ATP (adenosine triphosphate) molecules D. A metabolic pathway is a sequence of physical changes that take place exclusively outside the cell E. Triggering a chemical reaction requires an energy intake called activation energy 9 CHAPTER 2  The nervous tissue. Organisation of the nervous tissue 1. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the nervous system: A. It coordinates complex processes which take place outside the body B. It coordinates complex processes which take place inside the body C. It ensures the integration of tissues and organs in the external environment D. It responds to stimuli coming from the internal or external environment E. It facilitates the senses (visual, auditory, taste, tactile, olfactory) 2. What could happen if the nervous system would cease to function? A. The body’s activity wouldn’t change B. Organ systems would function chaotically C. The body’s demands couldn’t be met D. Body temperature would be regulated by independent systems E. Cognitive processes and emotions would cease 3. Referring to the central nervous system (CNS), the following statements are true: A. It consists of the encephalon (located in the cranial cavity) and the spinal cord (located in the spinal canal) B. It consists of 12 pairs of cranial nerves which connect the receptors and effectors with the encephalon C. It is the body’s central control centre D. Certain CNS components receive the incoming information and release the appropriate reactions E. It consists of 31 pairs of spinal nerves which connect the encephalon to the spinal cord 4. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the peripheral nervous system (PNS): A. It consists mainly of the axons and dendrites of sensory and motor neurons B. Neuronal cellular bodies are located in the central nervous system or close to it (lymph nodes) C. It consists of the spinal cord and 31 pairs of spinal nerves D. It consists exclusively of axons and dendrites which form the mixed nerves E. The PNS informs the CNS about the stimuli coming from the external environment 5. Select the components of the peripheral nervous system: A. The 21 pairs of spinal nerves apparently originating in the base of the encephalon B. The 21 pairs of cranial nerves which include 3 pairs of sensory nerves (I, II, VIII) C. The 31 pairs of spinal nerves which apparently originate in the spinal cord D. The 12 pairs of cranial nerves which include 5 pairs of motor nerves (III, IV, VI, XI, XII) E. The spinal nerves which contain dorsal (efferent, motor) and ventral (afferent, sensory) roots 6. The following statement(s) is/are true about the vegetative or autonomic nervous system: A. It regulates the activity of skeletal muscles and exocrine glands B. It regulates the activity of involuntary muscles and of glands (endocrine and exocrine) C. It regulates the activity of skeletal muscles and of salivary glands D. It contains two types of motor nerves: sympathetic and parasympathetic E. Parasympathetic nerves ensure the body’s relaxation capacity 7. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the cells of the nervous system: A. They are represented by two types of cells: neurons and glial cells B. Glial cells are supporting cells C. The number of glial cells is ten times less than that of neurons D. Neurons receive and transmit biochemical signals E. Neurons can be differentiated from one another due to their cellular organelles 8. Neuroglia have the following functions: A. Astrocytes – contribute to the formation of the blood-brain barrier 10 B. Microglia – form myelin sheaths by enveloping the projections of other cells in the nervous system C. Schwann cells – form the myelin sheath enveloping the neurons located outside the central nervous system D. Astrocytes help isolate the damaged nervous tissue E. Oligodendrocytes – form myelin sheaths enveloping the projections of the central nervous system neurons 9. According to their structure, neurons can be: A. Multipolar, when they have multiple axons and a single dendrite B. Multipolar, when they have multiple dendrites and a single axon C. Pseudounipolar, when they have a single projection which divides to form two dendrites D. Pseudounipolar, when they have a single projection which divides to form a dendrite and an axon E. Bipolar, when they nave a single axon and a single dendrite 10. According to their function, neurons can be classified into: A. Afferent neurons, efferent neurons and association neurons B. Multipolar neurons, bipolar neurons and pseudounipolar neurons C. Sensory neurons, motor neurons and interneurons D. Sensory neurons (efferent) and motor neurons (association neurons) E. Neurons which send information from receptors to the central nervous system, neurons which send messages from the central nervous system to the muscles, heart and lymph nodes, and interneurons also called association neurons 11. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the structure of the neuron: A. The cell body represents the major part of the cell’s total size B. The cell body represents a small part of the cell’s total size C. Dendrites are specialised in receiving nervous impulses and sending them from the cell body D. The surface of dendrites is covered with thousands of spines which help dendrites connect to other neurons E. The neuron’s cell body contains the nucleus, mitochondria, Golgi apparatus, lysosomes, Nissl bodies 12. Choose the true statement(s) referring to neurons and their projections: A. The length of the axon is microscopic and its diameter may exceed one meter B. Axons originating in the lower part of the spinal cord and extend to the foot may reach 1.2 meters C. Often, the axons of a single neuron join together and form nerves D. At their distal end, axons have axon terminals with swollen ends called synaptic boutons E. Dendrites are specialised in receiving nerve impulses and relaying them to the cell body 13. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the neuron’s myelin sheath: A. It is a stratified membrane produced by two types of cells – oligodendrocytes and Schwann cells B. In the peripheral nervous system, oligodendrocytes have projections that envelop the neuronal axons C. Schwann cells envelop the neuronal body D. Myelin is a major component of the oligodendrocyte membrane and of Schwann cells E. Myelin isolates electrochemical reactions which transmit nervous impulses along axons 14. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to nerves and lymph nodes: A. The nerve consists of several axon and/or dendrite bundles B. The nerve is enveloped on the outside by the perinerve, a fibrous connective tissue which strengthens the bundles C. In the structure of a nerve, each nerve bundle is surrounded by a sheath called perinerve D. Lymph nodes are structures which contain the cell bodies of neurons E. There are several lymph nodes located inside the spinal cord 15. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the physiology of nerves: A. Reception means getting information from the surrounding environment B. The activity of relaying information refers to information being transmitted to the central nervous system by motor neurons C. The activity of relaying information refers to information being transmitted to the central nervous system by sensory neurons D. Integration is subsequent to transmission and refers to the activity during which the proper response is being determined E. Motor neurons transmit the response to the effectors which will react contrary to the stimulus 11 16. In a reflex arc: A. The role of the receptor is to detect internal or external alterations B. Components are represented in the following order by receptors, interneurons, sensory neurons, motor neurons, effectors C. Components are represented in the following order by receptors, sensory neurons, interneurons, motor neurons, effectors (muscle or lymph node) D. The role of the effector is to respond to the stimulus received from the motor neuron and to produce a reflex action E. The receptor serves as a processing centre 17. Which of the following statements referring to the reflex act is/are true? A. It represents the anatomic base of certain neural circuits B. It can be automatic and unconscious when it involves the encephalon or a mental activity C. It can be automatic and unconscious without involving the encephalon or a mental activity D. A reflex occurs when a sensory neuron receives a stimulus E. A typical example of a reflex act is the patellar reflex 18. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to a resting neuron: A. It is polarised because the internal and external surface of its membrane have opposite electrical charges B. It is not polarised, as there is no potential difference between the internal and external surface of its membrane C. There are no electric charges on the internal and external surface of its membrane as these are present only in the cytoplasm and the nucleus D. Its cytoplasm has a negative electric charge E. The external surface of its membrane has a positive electric charge 19. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the nervous impulse: A. It originates in an electrochemical event triggered by the altered ion distribution in the glial cell B. It originates in an electrochemical event triggered by the altered ion distribution in the nerve cell C. It is transmitted by the resting neuron D. It is also called action potential E. When it is generated, a stimulus (electric, mechanical, chemical) changes the resting potential by opening sodium channels and allowing the passage of sodium ions into the nerve cell 20. A synapse is the junction between: A. A neuron and an effector (muscle) B. A neuron and a lymph node C. Two muscle cells D. Two neurons (a presynaptic one and a postsynaptic one) E. Two oligodendrocytes 21. The synapse between a neuron and a muscle cell is called: A. Motor plate B. Desmosome C. „Gap” junction D. Neuromuscular synapse E. Neuromuscular junction 22. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to neurotransmitters: A. They are chemical substances belonging to different classes of compounds (catecholamines, amino acids etc.) B. They are released from the terminal buttons of the presynaptic neuron axon and cross the synaptic gap C. They are released from the synaptic cleft (gap) towards the presynaptic membrane D. They are released from the glial cell adjoining the neuron E. Their connection to the postsynaptic membrane receptors generates an action potential in the postsynaptic neuron 23. Acetylcholine is released by: A. The neurons which innervate skeletal muscles at the point of their synapse with another neuron 12 B. The neurons which innervate skeletal muscles at the point of the neuromuscular junction C. Certain neurons from the vegetative component of the peripheral nervous system D. All the motor or efferent neurons in the encephalon E. Some of the neurons in the encephalon 24. The following statement(s) is/are true about serotonin: A. It is the single neurotransmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system B. It is not involved in sleep regulation C. It is a neurotransmitter present both in the encephalon and in the spinal cord D. It can be involved in certain mental functions or in the circadian rhythm E. It is the neurotransmitter specific to the motor plate 25. The activity of certain neurons can be inhibited by: A. Gamma aminobutyric acid – only in the encephalon B. Gamma aminobutyric acid – in the encephalon C. Certain neurotransmitters which keep sodium channels closed D. Glycine – mainly in the encephalon E. Glycine – mainly in the spinal cord 26. Which of the following neurotransmitters belong to the class of catecholamines? A. Acetylcholine, adrenaline and epinephrine B. Adrenaline and noradrenaline C. Dopamine, glycine and glutamate D. Noradrenaline and dopamine E. Serotonin and cholinesterase 27. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials are induced by the neurotransmitters which: A. Excite the postsynaptic neuron B. Induce postsynaptic-neuron-membrane depolarisation C. Maintain the sodium channels closed D. Open sodium channels, allowing sodium ions to penetrate the cell E. Inhibit the occurrence of nerve impulses in the postsynaptic neuron 28. Excitatory postsynaptic potentials (EPSP) are induced by neurotransmitters which: A. Inhibit the occurrence of nervous impulses in the postsynaptic neuron B. Stimulate the occurrence of nervous impulses in the postsynaptic neuron C. Keep sodium channels closed D. Open sodium channels E. Have no effect on ion sodium channels in the neural membrane 29. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the spinal cord: A. It is 45 cm long and it is located in the central canal B. It lies in the bony canal formed by the vertebrae C. It originates in the large opening (foramen magnum) of the occipital bone, extending downwards through the bony canal formed by the vertebrae D. It ends near the intervertebral disc which separates the first two sacral vertebrae E. The spinal cord’s external surface contains a white substance mainly consisting of neuronal bodies and unmyelinated neurons 30. A cross section of the spinal cord reveals: A. The nervous tissue enveloped by three meningeal layers B. The central canal also called ependymar canal C. A grey matter on the outside, consisting of horns (anterior, lateral and posterior) D. A grey matter on the inside consisting of horns E. A white mater on the outside consisting of myelinated nerve fibres 13 31. Which of the following membranes form the meninges? A. The dura mater, fibrous, resistant connective tissue B. The arachnoid, separated from the dura mater by the subarachnoid space C. The arachnoid, network-like thin layer D. The pia mater, richly vascularised external layer E. The pia mater, richly-vascularised very thin layer 32. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the cerebrospinal fluid: A. Cannot be found outside the dura mater B. Can be found in the space between the dura mater and the arachnoid C. It is collected by spinal tap (lumbar puncture) whenever a bacterial infection is suspected D. Whenever a disorder of the nervous system is suspected, a sample can be collected by spinal tap (lumbar puncture) for lab analysis E. Its function is to ensure the necessary nutrients required by the nerve cells of the central nervous system 33. Comparing spinal nerves and cranial nerves, one can state that: A. They differ in number, there being 12 pairs of cranial nerves and 33 – 34 pairs of spinal nerves B. Their apparent origin is the base of the encephalon (cranial nerves) and the spinal cord (spinal nerves) C. Spinal nerves and some of the cranial nerves contain both sensory fibres and motor fibres D. Some cranial nerves contain fibres belonging to the vegetative nervous system (the vagus nerve) E. The spinal nerves innervate several structures such as the skin, skeletal muscles, joints, blood vessels, mucosae, sweat glands (with the exception of the head and the neck) 34. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the specific structures which make up the cerebral trunk: A. The bulb hosts the centres which regulate cardiac activity and blood pressure B. The mesencephalon closes the cough reflex C. The bridge functions as a relay between the two cerebellar hemispheres D. The mesencephalon controls the reflex movements of the head and trunk as response to auditory stimuli E. The medulla oblongata sends signals to the cerebellum and the thalamus, but does not involve signals from the spinal cord 35. The following statement(s) is/are true about the cranial nerves: A. They belong to the peripheral nervous system, together with the spinal nerves B. They belong to the central nervous system, together with the cerebral trunk C. Some of them originate in the cerebellar hemispheres D. They are designated by numbers (I – XII) and a different name for each E. Their apparent origin is described – the place where the nerve becomes visible 36. Which of the following statements referring to the cranial nerves are false? A. Nerves I, II and VII are sensory nerves B. Nerves I, II and VIII are sensory nerves C. nerves III, IV, VI, VII and XI are motor nerves D. Nerves III, IV, VI, XI and XII are motor nerves E. Nerves I, II and VII are mixed nerves 37. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the cerebral hemispheres: A. They represent a small part of the encephalon and contain the motor and sensory nerve centres B. They represent most of the encephalon and control complex mental functions C. The insular lobe or insula is a deep area of the cerebral hemispheres D. Each hemisphere contains the frontal, parietal, temporal and occipital lobe E. They represent the centre of reasoning and memory and greatly determine the intelligence of an individual 38. Which of the following statements describe(s) correctly structural aspects of the cerebral hemispheres? A. They are joined by a bridge called corpus callosum, made of neuronal bodies and glial cells B. They are joined by a bridge called corpus callosum, made of nerve fibres 14 C. They control complex mental functions (reasoning, learning, creativity) D. The frontal lobe lies anterior to each cerebral hemisphere E. Their surface is crossed by several grooves and gyri 39. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the cerebral hemispheres: A. They contain neurons which interpret the nervous impulses coming from sense organs B. They contain neurons which initiate voluntary responses to stimuli C. Certain areas of the parietal lobe are associated with reasoning and learning D. Certain areas of the parietal lobes are responsible for understanding speech and expressing ideas E. Visual sensations are not interpreted in the occipital lobes 40. The following statement(s) about the cerebral hemisphere ventricles is/are correct: A. They are interconnected cavities, containing cerebral tissue B. They are cavities containing a fluid which serves as nutrient for nerve cells C. They contain cerebrospinal fluid, which is also located in the ependymal canal of the spinal cord D. Two of them (the lateral ventricles) lie inside the cerebral hemispheres E. The third ventricle lies between the cerebral trunk and the cerebellum 41. The following statement(s) referring to the lobes of the cerebral hemispheres is/are true: A. The frontal lobe is anterior to the central sulcus B. The parietal lobe is posterior to the frontal lobe and separated from it by the central sulcus C. The temporal lobe is posterior to the frontal lobe and separated from it by the lateral sulcus D. Below the frontal lobe and separated from it by the lateral sulcus, lies the temporal lobe E. Posterior to each hemisphere, lies the occipital lobe 42. Choose the correct associations between the components of the encephalon and their functions: A. The basal nuclei – control muscle tone B. The limbic system – centres if pleasure and of punishment C. The hypothalamus – enzyme production which control the hypophysis D. The cerebellum – coordinates the activity of endocrine glands E. The reticular formation (bulb, pons and mesencephalon) – stimulation of cognitive processes 43. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the sensory areas of the cerebral hemispheres: A. They are responsible for sensations, feelings and emotions B. The area responsible for the sense of smell is located deep inside the cerebral hemispheres C. The occipital lobe contains areas for the sense of sight (unilateral and ipsilateral vision) D. The sensory areas for hand, lips and tongue are located anterior to the central sulcus E. The areas for the sense of hearing are located in the temporal lobe, which is also responsible for the auditory and visual memory 44. The following is/are true about the main motor area: A. It is situated in the frontal lobe B. Contains large pyramidal neurons which generate impulses transmitted along the corticospinal tract C. The frontal lobe, in Broca’s area, is responsible for the motor activity connected to speech and language processing D. Broca’s area is not involved in the motor activity connected to language processing E. Due to the crossing over of the corticospinal tracts, the impulses received from the left hemisphere control the motor activity of the body’s right side 45. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the vegetative or autonomic nervous system: A. It regulates the activity of skeletal muscles and of exocrine glands B. It acts involuntarily without conscious control C. It regulates the activity of skeletal muscles of the trunk and limbs D. It coordinates the homeostatic functions of certain viscera, such as the heart E. Parasympathetic nerves relax the body after a situation of stress or danger 46. The sympathetic component of the autonomic (vegetative) nervous system: 15 A. Activate the body for fight or flight („fight or flight” reaction) B. Its neurotransmitter is represented by noradrenalin released from postganglionic fibres C. Releases acetylcholine from the postganglionic fibres D. Prepares the body for emergency situations E. Generates effects opposed to those triggered by adrenalin 47. The parasympathetic component of the autonomic (vegetative) nervous system: A. Activates the body for emergency situations B. Induces the relaxation of the body after a situation of stress or danger C. Contains cholinergic postganglionic fibres (which use acetylcholine as neurotransmitter) D. Its preganglionic neurons are located at cranio-sacral level (in the cerebral trunk, respectively in the sacral spinal cord) E. Has an effect that extends to the entire body 48. The following processes are effects of the sympathetic component of the autonomic (vegetative) nervous system: A. Acceleration of the heart rate B. Slowing down the heart rate C. Relaxation of the bronchi D. Decreased stimulation of salivation E. Constriction of the pupil 49. The following processes are effects of the parasympathetic component of the autonomic (vegetative) nervous system: A. Slowing down of the heart rate and dilatation of the arteries B. Constriction of the pupil C. Stimulation of the digestion D. Inhibition of the erection of sex organs E. Contraction of the urinary bladder 50. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to cerebral hemispheres: A. They contain more than 10 billion neurons B. They represent the largest part of the encephalon C. The shallow groove of the hemispheres is called fissure D. Each hemisphere is divided into five lobes E. Each hemisphere is divided into four lobes 16 CHAPTER 3  Sense organs 1. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to senses: A. Senses include vision, hearing and balance, excluding the sense of touch which belongs to the integumentary system B. They include the sense of touch, balance and vision C. Different sense organs have the same type of receptors D. Sense organs have highly specialised receptors E. They are tightly associated both functionally and structurally with the nervous system 2. In short, the following associations between sense organs and their anatomical location are true: A. The olfactory mucosa – inferior in the nasal cavity B. The olfactory mucosa – superior in the nasal cavity C. Taste buds – the dorsal part of the tongue D. The auditory apparatus – middle ear E. The vestibular system – internal ear 3. In short, the following associations between sense organs and the nature of the stimulus are false: A. Taste buds – chemical substances (solutions) B. The auditory apparatus – mechanical stimuli (luminous energy) C. The vestibular system – mechanical stimuli (deflection) D. The eye – light (luminous stimuli) E. The olfactory mucosa – chemical stimuli (vibrations) 4. The skin contains the following receptors of the sense of touch and related senses: A. Free nerve endings (for pain) B. Merkel discs (for pain) C. Meissner corpuscles (for light pressures) D. Meissner corpuscles (for strong vibrations) E. Pacinian corpuscles (for strong pressures and vibrations) 5. Different stimuli are received as follows: A. Strong vibrations – by the free nerve endings in the skin B. Molecules of odorous substances – by the cilia of the olfactory cells C. Pain – by the free nerve endings in the skin D. Pain – by the Pacinian corpuscles in muscles and joints E. Light stimuli – by the receptor cells in the retina 6. Choose the correct statement(s) from below: A. The sense of smell is also called olfactory B. The sense of balance is associated with canals and receptors located in the middle ear C. The sense of taste is not associated with canals and receptors located in the cochlea D. The intensity of sound waves is usually expressed in cycles/second or Hertz E. The receptors which detect stimuli are specialised structures 7. It is true that: A. The temporal lobe contains areas which control visual and auditory memory B. The occipital lobe does not interpret visual sensations C. The occipital lobe contains areas which control contralateral vision D. The area responsible for the sense of smell is located superficially in the cerebral hemispheres E. The cerebral hemispheres contain neurons which interpret the impulses received from the sense organs 8. As a sense organ, the eye: A. Contains receptors which detect light stimuli (photoreceptors) B. Reflects the light from the surrounding environment and forms an image in the retinal photoreceptors 17 C. Receives light from the surrounding environment and forms an image in the retinal nerve receptors D. Forms an image in the photoreceptors of the retinal pigment epithelium (layer) E. Sends the image to the brain under the form of nerve impulses 9. The following statement(s) is/are true about the eye as the organ of vision: A. It is stimulated by the light coming from the surrounding environment B. Its receptors belong to the class of chemoreceptors C. Its receptors belong to the class of photoreceptors D. The nervous impulses generated by light stimuli are interpreted in the brain E. The retina (a structure of the eye) detects light in its external layer, the retinal pigment epithelium 10. Select the correct statement(s) referring to the eyeball: A. It is an approximately spheroidal structure with an anterior part protruding outside the sphere B. It has a posterior part protruding outside the sphere C. It has a wall consisting of three layers (coats) D. Its longitudinal diameter is longer than the transversal one E. Its length is greater than its width 11. The accessory structures of the eye are: A. Refractory structures represented by the crystalline, cornea, aqueous humour and vitreous humour B. Eyebrows and lashes which protect the pupil from foreign bodies C. Lacrimal glands whose secretion washes the eyeball and maintains it wet D. Eyelids which protect the posterior part of the eye E. The conjunctiva which lines the internal part of the eyelids 12. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the compartments of the eye: A. Both the anterior and the posterior compartment are subdivided into two regions B. The anterior compartment has two regions: the aqueous chamber and the vitreous chamber C. The anterior compartment has two regions: the anterior chamber and the posterior chamber D. The anterior chamber of the anterior compartment contains the aqueous humour E. The posterior chamber of the anterior compartment contains a gelatinous substance 13. The following statements are true referring to the external wall of the eyeball: A. It is richly vascularized B. It contains the visual receptors C. It is resistant and fibrous D. It contains the cornea and sclera E. It contains the choroid and the ciliary bodies 14. Choose the true statements referring to the iris: A. It is a component of the eyeball’s middle layer B. It controls the quantity of light that passes through the pupil C. It contains pigments which are responsible for image formation D. It consists of two layers of striated muscles (a constrictive muscle and a dilator muscle) E. It belongs to the eyeball’s middle layer together with the choroid and the ciliary body 15. Choose the true statements referring to the choroid: A. It belongs to the eyeball’s middle layer together with the iris and ciliary body B. It contains the blood vessels of the eye structures C. It does not belong to the eyeball’s external layer D. It contains the ciliary muscle and the crystalline’s suspensory ligament E. It is joined to the iris in the middle of the latter 16. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the iris: A. It contains pigments which define eye colour B. It contains a peripheral aperture called pupil (optic disc) 18 C. It controls the amount of light passing through the pupil D. It consists of two layers of smooth muscle E. The dilator muscle of the iris contracts the pupil 17. Choose the false statement(s) referring to the aqueous humour: A. It is a fluid which fills exclusively the anterior chamber of the eyeball B. It is a gelatinous substance situated in the posterior chamber of the eyeball C. It maintains the retina attached to the choroid D. It maintains intraocular pressure E. It does not detect and it does not absorb light 18. The following statement(s) is/are true about the crystalline: A. It belongs to the refractory structures of the eye B. It consists of a concentric protein fibrous material C. It is transparent and elastic D. It focuses light onto the choroid E. It is the main structure responsible for image focalising 19. The following statement(s) is/are true about the retina: A. It is a part of the eye’s internal layer B. It consists of two layers, external – pigmented, and internal – consisting of nerve tissue C. Its internal layer consists of three layers of unipolar neurons D. It plays a role in accommodation E. It detects light and forms the images that will be sent to the encephalon 20. The following are structural elements of the retina: A. Bipolar neurons which receive nerve impulses B. Multipolar neurons which form the third layer of the retina proper C. Cone cells, about 6 – 7 million D. Rod cells, which do not contain rhodopsin E. Bipolar and multipolar receptor neurons 21. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the receptor cells of the retina: A. They are located in the retina proper, in the immediate vicinity of the cornea B. They are receptor neurons C. Rod cells play a role in detecting the contour of objects D. Cone cells are responsible for twilight and night vision E. Cone cells are concentrated in the central fovea 22. The cone cells of the retina: A. Are receptor neurons B. Are located predominantly at the periphery of the retina C. Are concentrated in the central fovea D. Are responsible for day vision and for perceiving details and colours E. Is responsible for twilight vision 23. A light ray follows the following trajectory in the eye: A. Conjunctiva – cornea – pupil – vitreous humour – crystalline – focusing in the central fovea B. Pupil – aqueous humour – cornea – crystalline – vitreous humour – focusing in the optic disc C. Cornea – crystalline – iris – aqueous humour – focusing on the retina D. Cornea – aqueous humour – pupil – crystalline – vitreous humour – focusing on the retina E. Cornea – aqueous humour – crystalline – pupil – vitreous humour – focusing in the central fovea 24. Nerve impulses in the retina are carried: A. Initially, through the optic tract, then through the optic nerve, to the cerebral visual cortex B. Initially, through the optic nerve, then through the optic tract, to the cerebral visual cortex 19 C. Initially, through the optic chiasm and eventually through the optic tract to the thalamus D. At the level of the cerebellar visual cortex E. To the cerebral visual cortex, where they are interpreted 25. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to taste: A. It is also called gustation B. It requires the contact between receptor connective cells and the molecules of substances C. Its receptors are situated in the taste buds D. It is involved in the stimulation of proprioceptors of the pharynx E. The receptors of the taste buds detect chemical substances after they have been dissolved 26. The taste buds: A. Are located at the basis of the taste papillae B. Contain receptor gustatory cells and supporting cells C. Have exclusively supporting cells and receptor nerve endings D. Have sensory nerve fibres which send impulses to the encephalon E. Have sensory, sympathetic and parasympathetic, nerve fibres 27. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to primary tastes: A. They are four in number: bittersweet, sourness, bitterness, saltiness B. They include the tastes of sweet and bitter C. The taste umami (savouriness) is connected to glutamate D. The taste bitter is perceived mainly at the back of the tongue E. The taste sour is mainly perceived by the receptors near the pharynx 28. The receptors for the perception of the 5 primary tastes are located as follows: A. For umami – near the larynx B. For umami – near the pharynx C. For sweetness – mainly at the tip of the tongue D. For sourness – at the back of the tongue E. For bitterness – at the back of the tongue 29. The primary tastes include: A. Sour, bitter, spicy B. Sour, bitter, umami C. Sour, bitter, sweet D. Umami, salty, spicy E. Sweet, salty, umami 30. Which of the following statements represent common characteristics of the olfactory and taste analysers: A. They are senses which require a contact between specific receptors and the molecules of the substances which are to be detected B. They contribute to the absorption of protein digestion products C. Their receptors are unspecific chemoreceptors belonging to proprioceptors D. Their receptors are specific chemoreceptors belonging to exteroceptors E. Their receptors are located in the central nervous system 31. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the sense of smell: A. It has specialised receptors (olfactory cells) B. It is a sense based on chemical insoluble and non-volatile substances C. It requires the contact between receptors and the molecules of the substances which are to be detected D. It is also called olfactory sense E. It is involved in the absorption of water in the gastrointestinal mucosa 32. Choose the correct statement(s) about the olfactory receptors: A. They are specialised olfactory cells B. They are represented by multipolar ciliary cells in the olfactory mucosa 20 C. They are chemoreceptors which suffer from olfactory fatigue D. They are located in the respiratory mucosa in the upper part of the oral cavity E. They are cells having olfactory cilia and a single nucleus 33. Choose the correct associations: A. Free nerve endings in the skin – exteroceptors - pain B. Pacinian corpuscles – skin – strong pressure and vibrations C. Meissner corpuscles – light pressure – strong vibrations D. Hearing – skin receptors – muscle and joint receptors E. Merkel discs – skin – tactile stimuli 34. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the sense of touch: A. It is related to the senses of pain and pressure, but not to vibration B. It is related to the senses of pressure, pain and vibration C. Its receptors are represented by the free nerve endings in the skin D. Together with its related senses, it uses receptors located in muscles and joints E. Tactile receptors are represented only by the pain receptors from the viscera 35. The following statement(s) is/are true about pressure and vibration (related to the sense of touch): A. Light pressures and vibrations on the skin are not detected by Meissner corpuscles B. Strong vibrations on the skin are detected by Meissner corpuscles C. Strong pressure to the skin is detected by the Pacinian corpuscles D. Pain is perceived by all tactile receptors, with the exception of free nerve endings E. The impulses gathered by the pressure and vibration receptors are sent to the encephalon, where they are interpreted 36. The following are components of the external ear: A. The external auditory orifice representing the entrance to the external auditory canal B. The auricle C. The external auditory canal which transmits sound vibrations D. The malleus, incus and stapes which transmit vibrations to the tympanic membrane E. The Eustachian tube which connects the pharynx to the middle ear 37. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the Eustachian tube: A. It is located between the middle ear and the inner ear B. It extends from the external ear to the cochlea C. It connects the cochlea to the semicircular canals D. It extends between the pharynx and the middle ear E. It helps maintain equal pressure on both sides of the tympanum 38. Choose the wrong associations from below: A. Malleus – hammer – in contact with the tympanum B. Stapes – incus – in contact with the round window C. Stirrup – stapes – in contact with the oval window D. Cochlea – cubic shape – middle ear - perilymph E. External auditory canal – external ear – generation of sound vibration 39. Select the true statement(s) referring to the external ear: A. It consists of the auricle and the inner auditory canal B. It is delimited from the middle ear by the tympanic membrane C. It communicates with the middle ear through the oval window D. It consists of the auricle and the external auditory canal E. It communicates with the pharynx through the Eustachian tube 40. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the Eustachian tube: A. It connects the middle ear to the anterior wall of the laryngopharynx B. It is a duct that ensures an equal pressure on both sides of the tympanum 21 C. It connects the middle ear to the lateral wall of the nasopharynx D. It is accessible to microorganisms from the nasopharynx E. Each tube opens in the part of the pharynx immediately inferior to the soft palate 41. The following statements are true referring to the bony labyrinth: A. It contains perilymph which surrounds the membranous labyrinth B. It contains endolymph, similar to the interstitial fluid C. It is located in the inner ear and houses the cochlea, the vestibule and the semicircular canals D. It is located in the middle ear and houses the cochlea, the vestibule and the semicircular canals E. It contains the membranous labyrinth 42. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the membranous semicircular canals: A. They are a part of the membranous labyrinth B. Each is connected to the utricle, located superior to the saccule C. Each is connected to the saccule, located inferior to the utricle D. The utricle and semicircular canals are associated to the sense of balance E. At the junction with the utricle, each canal has a dilated part called ampulla 43. Sound waves are characterised by: A. Intensity, which varies according to the amplitude of the sound wave B. Timbre (quality) of sound, which depends on tone harmonic C. Refraction, which is the return of the sound wave to its original environment D. Frequency, consisting of the number of air vibrations per unit of time E. Decibels, which determine the timbre or the quality of sound 44. Choose the correct statement(s) from below: A. Both the intensity and the frequency of sound are expressed in decibels B. The intensity of sound is expressed in decibels C. Sound waves are mechanical waves D. Sound waves do not propagate through air E. Sound waves, through their energy, produce the vibration of the tympanum 45. The following structures are involved in the hearing process: A. The tympanum, which vibrates under the action of sound waves coming through the external auditory canal B. The oval window, which is in contact with the stapes C. Corti’s organ in the middle ear D. The tectorial membrane which mobilises the connective receptor cells in the middle ear E. The temporal lobes in the cerebral hemispheres where sounds are interpreted 46. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the sense of balance: A. It derives from the activity of the middle ear, just like the sense of hearing B. It derives from the activity of the inner ear, which contains a series of canals crossing the temporal bone C. In the cochlea, there are structures which detect the dynamic and the static balance D. In the utricle, saccule and the semicircular canals, there are structures which detect dynamic and static balance E. The vestibular branch of nerve VIII sends to the encephalon the impulses from the ampulla and the macula 47. The following structures are associated with the sense of balance: A. The semicircular canals which belong to the membranous labyrinth and contain endolymph, with the same composition as plasma B. The utricle and saccule which contain endolymph, similar to the interstitial fluid C. The ampulla, the dilated portion of each semicircular canal near the junction with the saccule D. Ciliary sensory cells in the semicircular canal ampullae E. Ciliary sensory cells and the membrane with small calcium carbonate fragments (otoliths) in the maculae of the utricle and saccule 48. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the receptors of the vestibular apparatus: 22 A. They are mechanoreceptors situated in the inner ear B. They are exteroceptors situated in the middle ear C. They are located in Corti’s organ D. They are groups of ciliary sensory cells located in the ampullae of the semicircular (membranous) canals (ducts) E. They are located in small structures (maculae) in the utricle and saccule 49. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the fragments of calcium carbonate: A. They are also called uroliths and have an organic structure B. They are also called otoliths and have an inorganic structure C. They belong to the membrane which covers the ciliary cells in the utricular and saccular maculae D. They are a part of the tectorial membrane E. Otoliths change their position and influence the ciliary cells of the macula due to the pressure caused by changing the position of the head 50. Choose the correct statement(s) which characterise static and dynamic balance: A. The semicircular canals, through the ampullae, perceive the changes in the position of the head which help maintaining the body’s dynamic balance B. The utricle and saccule, through their macular receptors, are responsible for the nerve impulses which contribute to maintaining posture C. Nervous impulses responsible for maintaining static and dynamic balance are transmitted through the cochlear nerve (pair VII) to the encephalon D. The term „posture” characterises the body’s dynamic balance E. The receptors in the semicircular canals (ducts) transmit to the encephalon along the vestibular branch of the vestibulocochlear nerve (VIII) 23 CHAPTER 4  The bone tissue 1. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the skeletal system: A. It includes all the organs in the body (solid and resistant organs) B. It includes all the bones of the body and their connecting joints C. It consists of organs which are not supplied by their own nerves and vessels D. It is a system of organs which support locomotion and movement E. It contains bones which consist wholly in semi-rigid connective tissue 2. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to bones and joints: A. The skeleton is made up of bones connected to each other by joints B. Joints can be mobile (synarthroses), semi-mobile (amphiarthroses) and fixed joints (diarthroses) C. Diaphyses are the extremities of a bone and the epiphysis is the shaft or central part of a bone D. Long bones consist of epiphysis and diaphysis E. The skeleton supports the body and facilitates locomotion 3. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the location of bones: A. The axial skeleton includes the humerus, the femur and the patella B. The axial skeleton consists of the thoracic cavity (rib cage), the spinal column and the bones of the head C. The skeleton of the limbs includes the corresponding girdles which connect the limb to the axial skeleton D. The pelvic girdle connects the upper limb to the trunk E. The pectoral girdle connects the upper limb to the trunk 4. According to their shape, bones can be: A. Long bones, such as the femur, the humerus and the scapula B. Long bones, such as the femur, the humerus and the tibia C. Flat bones, such as the scapula, the sternum and the cranial bones D. Short bones, such as the carpal and the tarsal bones E. Flat bones, such as the vertebrae, the ribs and the metatarsals 5. The following bones are short bones: A. All the bones of the upper limb, without exception B. The bones of the wrist (carpal bones) C. The bones of the vertebral column D. The bones of the tarsus (tarsal bones) E. The bones of the skull 6. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the bone system: A. Blood cells are formed in the red bone marrow from the spongy bones B. Collagen makes bones flexible, while hydroxyapatite makes them hard C. Irregular bone epiphyses are covered by articular cartilage D. Osteoblasts are bone cells having a resorptive action E. The medullary cavity represents the bone’s central cavity 7. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the function of bones: A. Movement is carried out together with the skeletal muscles B. Flexibility is ensured by hydroxyapatite C. There are two types of ossification: intramembranous and extramembranous D. Their support function provides support to the body E. They ensure protection for vital organs (lungs) 8. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the red bone marrow: A. It has a role in haematopoiesis B. It can be found in the spongy bones C. It is absent in bones such as the vertebrae or the sternum 24 D. It has a role in the production of red blood cells, leukocytes and platelets E. It has a role in the production of erythrocytes, thrombocytes and osteocytes 9. Irregular bones include: A. The patellae and wormian bones B. The carpal and tarsal bones C. The vertebrae D. The scapula and the ribs E. The humerus and the femur 10. Select the flat bones from below: A. Some of the cranial bones (the parietal) B. The wrist bones C. The pelvic bones D. The cervical vertebrae E. The scapula (the shoulder blade) 11. Choose the correct statement(s) about bones: A. Long bones have a diaphysis delimited at each end by an epiphysis B. Irregular bones are represented by the clavicle and the scapula C. Wormian bones are the irregular bones of the cranial sutures D. Cranial bones, the bones of the vertebral column and of the thoracic cavity form together the axial skeleton E. Tarsal bones (short bones) form the wrist 12. The compact bone tissue: A. Can be found in flat and short bones and in the epiphyses B. Is absent from the diaphysis of long bones C. Contains cavities with red hematopoietic marrow D. Is a component of the diaphysis of long bones E. Is less dense than spongy tissue 13. According to shape, bones can be classified into: A. Flat bones (shoulder blades) B. Sesamoid bones (the trapezium bone) C. Irregular bones (sesamoid) D. Short bones (tarsals) E. Long bones (sternum) 14. It is true that long bones: A. Belong to the skeleton of the limbs B. Have extensive surfaces for the insertion of tendons C. Have a diaphysis or shaft D. Have two epiphyses and a diaphysis E. Have two diaphyses and an epiphysis 15. The following statement(s) is/are true about the bone tissue: A. In order to carry out their functions, bones must be hard and rigid B. In order to carry ut their functions, bones shouldn’t be flexible C. Bone flexibility is the ability of a bone to bend to a certain degree D. Short bones include the tarsals and carpals E. Characteristics such as hardness and flexibility are given by osteoclasts 16. Choose the false statement(s) from below: A. The axial skeleton includes all the bones of the body with the exception of the long bones of the limbs B. The sternum and the ribs are flat bones C. The carpals are wrist bones 25 D. The bones of the tarsus belong to the lower limb E. The vertebrae belong to the flat bones 17. Choose the correct associations between the shape of the bone and its location in the skeleton: A. Sternum – flat bone – bony pelvis B. Vertebra – irregular bone – vertebral column C. Patella – knee joint – irregular sesamoid bone D. Shoulder blade – flat bone – anterior wall of the thorax E. Short bones – tarsal bones – pelvic girdle skeleton 18. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the functions of the bones in the body: A. Protection – the bones of the skull protect the delicate tissues of the encephalon B. Protection – the sternum together with the ribs contribute to the protection of certain organs in the thorax C. Support – bones serve as points for the attachment of skeletal muscles D. Mineral deposits, with the exception of calcium and phosphates which can be found exclusively in the soft tissues E. The site where the figurative blood elements are formed through haemostasis 19. Choose the correct statement(s) from below: A. The diaphysis and the epiphysis are components of bones such as the femur, tibia, shoulder blade B. The periosteum is a cartilaginous tissue membrane which synthetises collagen in the bone mineral matrix C. The red bone marrow is the site where blood cells are created D. The diaphysis and epiphysis are not components of the scapula and of the vertebrae E. The periosteum covers the diaphysis of long bones 20. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the periosteum A. Ensures the growing in length of bones because it produces continually osteoclasts B. It is a connective tissue which partially covers a long bone C. The periosteum is absent from the articular surfaces of a long bone D. It covers entirely the epiphyses of limb bones E. It covers the long, straight part of certain bones such as the femur or the humerus 21. Which elements are part of the histological structure of the long human bone? A. Compact bone, spongy bone, endosteum, periosteum B. Compact bone, non-articular cartilage, metaphyseal plate C. Two diaphyses and two epiphyses D. A diaphysis, two epiphyses, two metaphyses E. Spongy bone in the epiphyses, compact bone in the diaphyses, articular cartilage at the epiphyseal extremities 22. The diaphysis and the epiphysis are components of: A. The ribs and sternum B. Carpal bones C. Bones of the pelvic girdle D. Humerus, femur, ulna E. Tibia, fibula, sternum 23. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the histological structure of the bone: A. The compact bone has concentric rings organised in systems called osteons B. The osteon has perforating canals which connect the central canals to the bone canals C. The lacunae are concentric lamellae of the osteon and they contain osteocytes D. The concentric bone lamellae contain lacunae which contain osteocytes E. Unlike the perforating canals, the central canal has no blood vessels 24. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the histological structure of the bone: A. The structural unit of the spongy tissue is the osteoclast, which reshapes the bone B. The osteon has a central canal which contains nerves and blood capillaries C. The haversian system is a characteristic of the compact bone 26 D. The osteon has a central canal called perforating canal E. Bones can have tuberosities and trochanters which serve as places for the insertion of skeletal muscles 25. The following is true about the osteon: A. Each osteon has a central canal which contains nerves but doesn’t contain blood capillaries B. The osteon’s central canal contains blood vessels (blood capillaries) and nerves C. It contains concentric rings (bone lamellae) surrounding each central canal D. It contains concentric rings (bone lamellae) surrounding each perforating canal E. It is separated from neighbouring osteons by areas containing interstitial lamellae 26. Bone cells are: A. Bone-forming cells – osteocytes, resorbing cells - osteoclasts B. Bone-forming cells – osteoblasts, resorbing cells - osteoclasts C. Trapped in the bone tissue which they secrete - osteocytes D. Osteoclasts which secrete bone-dissolving substances, providing sodium and chloride to the body E. Osteocytes in the areas called lacunae 27. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the spongy bone tissue: A. The epiphysis of a long bone contains spongy tissue inside B. Flat bones consist of spongy tissue inside, in the central region C. It consists of concentric plates (trabeculae) with cavities that contain haematogenic red bone marrow D. It contains interconnected bony lamellae called trabeculae (plates) E. The central canals of osteons are interconnected by perforating canals 28. Choose the true statement(s) referring to bone formation: A. It is the result of a process called ossification B. It is called intramembranous if it occurs in the connective membranes (in the case of long bones) C. All the bones are formed as a result of intramembranous ossification D. Isteoblasts are the main bone-forming cells E. There are two types of bone formation: intramembranous for flat bones and endochondral for long bones 29. The activity of osteoblasts and osteoclasts is influenced by: A. Parathormone (which stimulates osteoclast activity) B. Calcitonin (which rapidly increases bone calcium deposits) C. Thymosin (hormones secreted by the thyroid) D. Prostaglandins (enzymes secreted by the heart, lungs, etc) E. Sexual hormones (can affect osteoblast and osteoclast activity balance) 30. The perforating canals connect the central canals in the: A. Epiphyseal plate B. Periosteum C. Compact bone D. Osteon E. Spongy bone 31. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to bone formation: A. Intramembranous ossification takes place in the bones of the lower limbs B. Endochondral ossification takes place in the diaphyseal plate C. The growth in length of a bone ends when the epiphyseal plate turns into cartilage D. Osteoblasts secrete the bone matrix which will contain collagen E. Osteoclasts dissolve the bone and provide the body with phosphate and calcium 32. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to ossification: A. There are three types of ossification: intramembranous, endochondral and intra-cartilaginous B. There are two types of ossification: intramembranous and endochondral C. Intramembranous ossification takes place in the flat bones of the skull D. Intramembranous ossification takes place in the long bones of the skull and of the limbs 27 E. The ossification process starts approximately in the sixth week of embryonic development 33. Choose the true statement(s) from below referring to the histological structure of the bone: A. A central canal containing nerves and blood capillaries can be found only in certain osteons B. Each perforating canal is surrounded by concentric rings of the osteon C. The compact bone contains a number of cells and interconnected canals called haversian canals D. The spongy bone contains a lattice-like network of trabecullae E. Trabecullae are lattice-like bone structures which form the spongy bone 34. Choose the correct associations: A. Hydroxyapatite – crystalline structure – bone hardness B. Osteoporosis – calcium loss – high resistance to fractures C. High calcium intake – physical activity – prevention of osteoporosis D. Osteoblasts – highly active cells – bone-dissolving substances E. Physical activity – mechanical stress – bone formation by osteoblasts 35. The following statements are false: A. Osteoclasts are formative cells, osteoblasts are resorptive cells B. The compact bone is a dense bone which reveals osteons under the microscope C. Sexual hormones cannot influence the activity of osteoclasts and osteoblasts D. Bone remodelling takes places only in the sixth week of embryonic development E. The cavities between osteons contain interstitial lamellae (incomplete osteons) 36. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the function of bones: A. The long bone has an axis called epiphysis and two endings called diaphyses B. Haematopoiesis is the destruction of blood cells by lysis C. The bone deposits calcium and phosphates D. During bone remodelling, bones provide the body with calcium and phosphates E. Bones provide insertion points for the skeletal muscles 37. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the composition of bones: A. CaCO3 is found in the composition of hydroxyapatite B. Collagen is a substance belonging to carbohydrates found in the bone matrix C. Protein collagen fibres are responsible for bone flexibility D. In a normal bone, calcium phosphate does not contribute to the formation of hydroxyapatite E. Ca3(PO4)2 is an important component of hydroxyapatite 38. Immobile or semi mobile joints include: A. Syndesmosis between the diaphyses of the radius and the ulna B. Diarthroses (in the limbs) C. Synarthrosis (the suture between the frontal bone and the two parietal bones) D. Amphiarthrosis (sacroiliac joint) E. Gomphosis (where the tooth is anchored into the alveolus) 39. Diarthroses: A. Are also called synovial joints B. Have a relatively low or no mobility C. Consist of two bone ends contained in the synovial cavity D. Allow free movement E. Examples of diarthroses include the following joints: elbow, shoulder, vertebral and sacroiliac 40. Choose the correct type(s) of diarthroses: A. Pivotal (which ensure the movement of rotation) B. Spheroidal (allow the greatest diversity of movements of all joints) C. Semilunar (with spherical surfaces) D. Condyloid (ellipsoid) 28 E. Saddle (allow the same movements as condyloid joints but have a greater freedom) 41. Choose the correct associations from below: A. Hinge movement - trochlear joint B. Sliding – plane joint C. Movement in two parallel planes – ellipsoid joint D. Movement in two perpendicular planes – ellipsoid joint E. Rotation – plane joint 42. Synarthrosis is a joint found: A. Between the diaphyses of the radius and the ulna, where it’s called syndesmosis B. Between the flat bones of the skull, where it’s called suture C. At the junction between the radius and the humerus, where it’s called gomphosis D. Between the vertebral bodies, where it’s called intervertebral disc E. Between the parietal bones, where it’s called suture 43. The following statement(s) is/are true about the knee joint: A. It is a saddle diarthrosis B. It has a fibrous capsule and a synovial membrane, being a synovial joint C. It does not have menisci, only intervertebral discs D. It has two semilunar cartilaginous discs (menisci) E. It joins the femur to the tibia 44. The following statement(s) referring to joins is/are true: A. They are organs connecting bones and muscles B. The term joint refers to the connexion between two or more bones C. One of their classification criteria is the range of movement they allow D. The term joint refers to the connection between muscles and ligaments E. The term joint refers to the connection between muscles and tendons 45. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to a spheroid joint: A. A pulley-like surface fits into a concave surface B. It is formed by joining a round bone end with a concave surface C. It allows the greatest diversity and freedom of movement of all joint types D. It allows only movement in two perpendicular planes E. It includes the shoulder joint where the head of the humerus fits into the glenoid cavity 46. A synovial joint contains the following elements: A. Articular tendons B. Fibrous capsule C. Synovial cavity D. Tectorial membrane E. Synovial membrane 47. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the movements in a synovial joint: A. Flexion/extension are the movements of decreasing/increasing the angle between two bones of a joint B. In the knee joint, flexion means bending the joint and extension means straightening it C. Flexion/extension are movements which do not alter the angle between two bones of the joint D. Adduction/abduction are the movements of pulling a part towards/away from the midline of the body E. Pronation is the rotating movement of the hand, with the palm facing upwards 48. Choose the true statements from below: A. Abduction is the pulling of a limb away from the midline of the body B. Abduction, also called protraction, is the vertical raising of the arm C. Adduction is the rotation of a limb towards or away from the midline of the body D. In supine position, the palm lies in anatomical position facing forward 29 E. Raising the shoulders (shrugging) is an example of elevation 49. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the joints of the lower limb: A. The joint between the femur and the acetabulum is an example of trochlear joint B. The joint between the femur and the acetabulum is an example of spheroidal joint C. The pubic symphysis is an amphiarthrosis, also found in the bony pelvis D. A saddle joint is a joint between tarsal bones and metacarpal bones E. Menisci have a semilunar shape and there are two of them for each knee 50. Choose the correct statement(s) referring to the joints of the upper limb: A. Interphalangeal joints are a type of trochlear diarthrosis B. There is a special type of synarthrosis between the humerus and the ulna, called syndesmosis C. The saddle amphiarthrosis is formed between the first metacarpal and the trapezium D. A saddle diarthrosis is formed between the first metacarpal and the trapezium E. The elbow joint is formed exclusively between the radius and the humerus 30 CHAPTER 5  The muscular system 1. The following statement(s) is/are true about the muscular tissue: A. It is one of the body’s four main tissues (together with the epithelial, cartilaginous and fibrous tissues) B. It is one of the body’s four main tissues (together with the epithelial, connective and nervous tissues) C. Its structural unit is the sarcomere (for the smooth muscle fibre) D. Its structural unit is the muscle cell, also called muscle fibre E. Anatomically, the terms muscle cell and muscle fibre are considered as opposite structures 2. The muscle tissue will form: A. Skeletal striated muscles B. The organs responsible for body movements C. The organs which prevent the movement of body segments, but ensure the movement of the body as a whole D. Bones which provide insertion points for muscles E. Joints which mobilise bones and muscles 3. The following types of muscles form the muscular system: A. Striated (skeletal) muscles, under involuntary control B. Striated (skeletal) muscles, under voluntary control C. Smooth muscles which trigger spontaneous, involuntary contractions D. Visceral muscles responsible for voluntary contractions E. The myocardium (heart muscle) which has involuntary, rhythmical contractions 4. Choose the correct associations referring to the three types of muscle tissue: A. Skeletal striated muscle – blood vessels, some ducts – cardiac wall B. Multiple nuclei – skeletal striated tissue - myocardium C. Central single nucleus – smooth muscle tissue, myocardium D. Sarcomeres – skeletal striated muscle tissue – cardiac muscle tissue E. Intercalated discs – smooth muscle tissue 5. Choose the statements which describe accurately the differences between the striated skeletal muscle and the cardiac muscle: A. They have different locations, the striated skeletal muscle being inserted onto the bones B. They have different locations, the cardiac muscle being also located in the walls of the heart’s blood vessels C. The striated skeletal muscle fibre is multinucleated, while the cardiac muscle fibre has a single nucleus D. The striated skeletal muscle has a much slower contraction speed than the cardiac muscle E. The striated skeletal muscle has a much faster contraction speed than the cardiac muscle 6. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the muscle tissue: A. It is one of the four main tissues in the body B. It has the ability to contract C. It has the ability to perform mechanical work D. The muscle cell (fibre) is the structural unit of the muscle tissue E. The muscle cell can be cubical or cylindrical, being called muscle fibre 7. The shape of muscle fibres in the various types of muscles can be: A. Elongated, cylindrical with sharp ends in striated skeletal muscles B. Elongated, cylindrical with rounded ends in striated skeletal muscles C. Cylindrical, branched in smooth muscles D. Elongated with thinner ends in striated skeletal muscles E. Fusiform with sharp ends in smooth muscles 8. The following statement(s) is/are true referring to the smooth muscle: A. It can be unitary and multi-unit 31 B. The fibres of unitary smooth muscle have gap junctions C. The fibres of the multi-unit smooth muscle act in a coordinated, tightly interdependent fashion D. The smooth muscle fibre receives nerve impulses from the vegetative (autonomic) nerves E. It contains intermediate, contractile filaments, attached to the dense bodies in the entire cell 9. The following statement(s) is/are true about the cardiac muscle: A. It receives impulses generated by the cells of the excito-conductor system B. It is not under voluntary nervous control C. It has elongated and always unramified muscle fibres D. It has a striated microscopic aspect E. It has intercalated discs, common to all muscle tissue types 10. Choose the true statement(s) referring to the striated skeletal muscle: A. The striated aspect is given by the absence of sarcomeres B. Their tubular arrangement consists in two tubes/sarcomeres, located at the A – I junctions C. It is controlled by the vegetative nervous system D. It is controlled by the somatic nervous system E. It has intercalated discs with gap junctions and desmosomes 11. Which of the following statements characterize(s) the cardiac muscle? A. It is present in the structure of heart blood vessels (coronary vessels) B. It is present only in the structure of the heart (in the heart wall) C. Its fibres (often ramified) form a real network with adjacent fibres D. Intercalated discs tightly connect the central parts of myocardial fibres E. Intercalated discs facilitate the propagation of contractions from one cell to the other 12. The following statement(s) is/are true about the smooth muscle: A. It cytoplasm contains actin and myosin filaments, forming similar structures to that of microfibrils B. The contraction of the rectum wall muscle contributes to the elimination of the rectal content C. It has well-structured neuromuscular junctions D. It has diffuse junctions where neurotransmitters are released E. It can be classified into multi-unit and pluriunit smooth muscle 13. Which of the following statements is/are characteristic for the structure of the striated skeletal muscle fibre? A. Each fibre contains 4-20 myofibrils, with a diameter greater than 100µ B. Each fibre contains 4-20 filiform filaments with a length up to 100µ C. The cytoplasm of the striated muscle fibre is called sarcoplasm and has a low number of mitochondria D. In sarcomeres, myofibrils are organised along their longitudinal axis E. The repetitive distribution of sarcomeres gives them their characteristic striated aspect 14. The microscopic aspect of the sarcomere shows: A. The presence of two types of myofilaments (actin and myosin), arranged parallel to each other B. The arrangement of thin actin filaments perpendicular on myosin filaments C. The presence of Z-line – the area in which the actin filaments of two adjacent sarcomeres are interconnected D. The formation of the A-band by the superposition of actin filaments E. The clear band divided into two equal halves by the Z-line is called I-band 15. The following statement(s) is/are true about the microscopic structure of the sarcomere: A. There are two types of myofilaments, thick actin filaments and thin myosin filaments B. Thin actin myofilaments and thick myosin myofilaments are arranged parallel to each other C. Myofilaments are perpendicular on each other D. The A-band is divided into two equal halves by the H zone which contains only myosin filaments E. Thick filaments consist of myosin, a protein formed of two polypeptide chains twisted around each other 16. The actin filament: A. Is thin and consists of a helix-like glycoprotein substance 32 B. Is thin and looks like a helix formed of two polypeptide chains twisted around each other C. Contains another protein, tropomyosin, located at regular intervals along its length D. Is structured as a double helix consisting of three twisted protein chains E. Contains tropomyosin molecules in the groove of the helix 17. The red muscle: A. Contains a large quantity of myoglobin, an oxygen-storing protein B. Is a slow or oxidative muscle C. Is a glycolytic, fast muscle which contains a large quantity of glucose D. It can contract repeatedly but it can’t withstand muscle fatigue E. It can withstand muscle fatigue, due to the oxygen stored in the myoglobin, which will be used in cellular respiration 18. The white muscle: A. Contains a large quantity of reddish myoglobin B. Is a slow, oxidative muscle, which uses the oxygen in the haemoglobin stored in its fibres C. Is a fast, glycolytic muscle (so called due to its high glycogen content) D. Rapidly uses ATP (adenosine triphosphate acid) but it cannot replace it as fast as it uses it E. It has very little available oxygen necessary for cellular respiration 19. The following statement(s) is/are true about calcium ions (Ca 2+) in the muscle fibre: A. Normally, in a resting cell, their concentration is very low in the sarcoplasm B. They are constantly pumped out of or into the cell in the cell’s specialised smooth endoplasmic reticulum (sarcoplasmic reticulum) C. They are stored in the mitochondria and nucleoli reservoir D. They are stored in the sarcoplasm reticulum reservoir and on the transverse tubule system (T tubules) E. Once they get into the troponin microfilaments, they attach to the myosin molecule sites 20. During the greatest muscle contraction in skeletal muscles: A. The thin actin filaments are superposed B. The enzyme activity of adenosine triphosphate increases C. H-bands come closer to A-bands D. Sarcomeres reach their smallest size E. The H-zone disappeared and the I-band greatly decreased in size 21. Filament sliding cycles in striated muscles: A. Take place as long as adenosine triphosphate is available B. Take place very quickly, at millions of myosin ends C. Take place slowly, at both ends of the sarcomere D. Induce muscle relaxation by shortening sarcomeres E. Take place as long as there is a nerve stimulus 22. Myoglobin: A. Is present in large quantities in red muscle fibres B. Is present in large quantities in white muscle fibres C. Is the muscle pigment which stores oxygen necessary for cellular respiration D. Is the muscle molecule which stores adenosine triphosphate E. Is one of the muscle contractile proteins, together with adenosine 23. A neuromuscular junction consists of: A. A single muscle fibre, very close to the nerve ending, but without touching it B. The end of a single nerve cell which touches the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre C. The end of a single nerve cell which does not touch the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre D. The synaptic cleft – a fluid filled space E. A space filled with synovial fluid, called synaptic cleft 33 24. Acetylcholine: A. Is released in the synaptic cleft of the neuromuscular junction B. Is a neurotransmitter which can also be released by certain neurons in the encephalon C. Is bound to the receptors on the presynaptic membrane of the motor neuron D. Is released from the synaptic vesicles into the synaptic cleft by endocytosis E. Is bound to the receptors on the cellular membrane of the muscle fibre (sarcolemma) 25. Muscle contraction requires the following: A. Acetylcholine - neurotransmitter B. Adenosine triphosphate – a compound which does not have high energy phosphate lin

Biology Multiple Choice Questions - Undergraduate Admission Exam - Victor Babeș University 2024 PDF

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