BIO152 Fall 2024_Term Test 1 Study Guide.pdf

Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide Term Test 1 is 45 minutes long and consists of 20 multiple choice questions, 1 short answer question and 1 long answer question. You should plan to spend ~30 minutes on the multiple choice questions, 5 minutes...

Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide Term Test 1 is 45 minutes long and consists of 20 multiple choice questions, 1 short answer question and 1 long answer question. You should plan to spend ~30 minutes on the multiple choice questions, 5 minutes on the short answer question and 10 minutes on the long answer question. The topics for the multiple choice questions are drawn from the lecture learning outcomes, summarized below. The long answer question asks you to design an experiment. Note – not all of these learning outcomes will be on your test. Key outcomes that aren’t on the midterm exam will likely appear on the final exam. Chapter Learning Goals 1: Evolution 1. Describe how an organism’s environmental adaptations result from evolution. and the 2. Identify (and give examples) of the different levels of the hierarchy of biology. Themes of 3. Describe what hypothesis testing is. Biology 4. Describe how the food competition hypothesis (in the context of giraffes’ long necks) was not supported by data. 5. Describe the sexual competition hypothesis (in the context of giraffes’ long necks). 2-5: Water, 6. Compare and contrast covalent bonds, ionic bonds, and hydrogen bonds. Carbon, 7. Describe the difference between polar covalent bonds and non-polar covalent Macromolecul bonds. es 8. Describe how polar covalent bonds in water molecules result in hydrogen bonding. 9. Predict the type of bond that will form based on electronegativities. 10. Describe why (referring to bonding) ice is less dense than liquid water. 11. Describe how properties of water support life. 12. Explain why water is a polar molecule. 13. Explain how water is able to moderate temperature. 14. Compare and contrast the four different categories of macromolecules. 15. Describe how the structure of the four macromolecules determines their function. 16. Describe the structure of a nucleotide. 17. Explain why the two strands in a DNA double helix are anti-parallel. 18. Describe the molecular forces responsible for the stability of the DNA double helix. 19. Describe where trees obtain their mass from. 20. Explain why carbon is able to form diverse molecules. 21. Explain why it is dangerous to not know the function of an isomer to a pharmaceutical product. 22. Explain why ATP is an important source of energy for cellular processes. 23. Identify the behaviour (e.g., hydrophobic or hydrophilic) or an amino acid based Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide Chapter Learning Goals on its structure. 24. Describe how a change in primary structure can affect a protein’s structure and function. 25. Align sickle-cell disease to the hierarchy of biology. 26. Describe what is meant by 5’ and 3’ when referring to a DNA strand. 6: Inside the 27. Describe the differences between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. Cell 28. Describe the structure and function of cellular organelles, and expand on the connection between structure and function in this context. 29. Describe what is part of the endomembrane system. 30. Describe the structure of the plasma membrane. 12: Mitosis 31. Draw the chromosomal structure & number throughout the cell cycle. 32. Identify the stage of the cell cycle based on chromosomal structure & number. 33. Describe what a replicated and un-replicated chromosome looks like. 34. Describe chromosome movement during the cell cycle. 35. Describe the cell cycle control system. 36. Describe the regulatory proteins involved in cell cycle control. 13: Meiosis 37. Explain why meiosis is a “reduction division”. 38. Explain how meiosis can increase genetic variation. 39. Describe why mules cannot reproduce. 40. Describe the three mechanisms that contribute to genetic variation. (Independent assortment of chromosomes, crossing over, random fertilization.) 41. Predict how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes can be packaged in gametes (when given a specific diploid number). 42. Compare and contrast meiosis and mitosis. 14: Mendel 43. Describe the difference between an allele and a gene. 44. Use a Punnett square to solve genetic problems. 45. Describe when and why a testcross is used. 46. Predict potential gametes based on parental genotypes. 47. Calculate the percentage of progeny expected to have specified traits based on parental genotypes. 48. Draw a pedigree, and use a pedigree to determine risk of inheriting a specific allele. 49. Determine the inheritance pattern by examining a pedigree. 50. Describe why inheritance by a single gene may deviate from simple Mendelian patterns. 51. Explain the difference between complete dominance, incomplete dominance, and codominance. 52. Describe how the alleles resulting in the ABO blood group system are both completely dominant AND codominant. Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide Selected sample questions: According to the science of learning, it is important to interleave (mix up) your review practice. The questions below are in no particular order, but all come from Ch 1-6, 12, and 13. More questions will be posted shortly, including for Ch 14. Start with the questions below. 1. What type of bond is formed between the hydroxyl group of one nucleotide and the phosphate group of an adjacent nucleotide, forming the sugar-phosphate backbone of DNA? A. glycosidic bond B. phosphodiester bond C. ester linkage D. hydrogen bond E. ionic bond 2. When the atoms involved in a covalent bond have the same electronegativity, what type of bond results? A. an ionic bond B. a hydrogen bond C. a nonpolar covalent bond D. polar covalent bond 3. Polypeptides are synthesized from amino acid building blocks. The condensation reaction between the growing polypeptide chain and the next amino acid to be added involves the loss of ________________. A. a water molecule. B. an amino group. C. a carbon atom. D. a carboxylic acid group. 4. Polar covalent bonds are formed when the electrons in the bond are not shared equally between the two nuclei. Which one of these molecules contains polar bonds? A. molecular oxygen B. methane C. propane D. water 5. Which type of biological polymer has the least diversity in physicochemical properties and structure? A. Polysaccharides B. polypeptides C. DNA D. RNA Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide 6. Suppose you discovered a new amino acid. Its R-group contains only hydrogen and carbon atoms. Predict the behavior of this amino acid. A. It is hydrophobic. B. It is hydrophilic. C. Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be intermediate. D. Relative to the amino acids found in organisms, its interactions with water will be very high. 7. Mayonnaise can be made at home by adding a stream of olive oil into some vinegar in a blender. The blender creates tiny droplets of oil suspended in the water. If you then blend in an egg, amphiphilic phospholipids in the yolk will stabilize the oil droplets and prevent the oil from separating from the water. What would you predict this would all look like at the molecular level? A. The phospholipids would form a double membrane around each oil droplet. B. The phospholipids would have their hydrophobic tails in the oil droplets and their hydrophilic heads in the surrounding water. C. The oil droplets would line up in a membrane with the phospholipids holding them together. D. The phospholipids would form spheres around the water molecules, keeping them away from the oil. 8. True or false: the amino acid shown above would readily dissolve in water. A. True B. False 9. The energy used by the cell to generate specific biological molecules and highly ordered structures is stored in the form of _____________. A. Brownian motion. B. heat. C. light waves. D. chemical bonds. Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide 10. Many mammals control their body temperature by sweating. Which property of water is most directly responsible for the ability of sweat to lower body temperature? A. water's change in density when it condenses B. water's ability to dissolve molecules in the air C. the release of heat by the formation of hydrogen bonds D. the absorption of heat by the breaking of hydrogen bonds E. water's high surface tension 11. True or False: Hydrogen bonds between each nucleotide hold individual DNA strands together. A. True B. False 12. How would acidification of sea water affect marine organisms? A. Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals and shell-building animals. B. Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and promote faster growth of corals and shell-building animals. C. Acidification would increase dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shell-building animals. D. Acidification would decrease dissolved carbonate concentrations and hinder growth of corals and shell-building animals. E. Acidification would increase dissolved bicarbonate concentrations, and cause increased calcification of corals and shellfish. 13. Below is the structure of an amino acid side chain that is categorized as: A. nonpolar, aromatic B. nonpolar, hydrocarbon C. polar, uncharged D. polar, acidic E. polar, basic 14. True or False: An α-helix is an element of secondary structure A. True B. False 15. Noncovalent bonds are far too weak to influence the structure of a protein. A. True B. False Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide 16. All genes encode proteins. A. True B. False 17. The most reliable feature distinguishing a eukaryotic cell from a prokaryotic cell is: A. the presence of a cell wall B. the presence of a plasma membrane C. the presence of ribosomes D. the presence of a nucleus E. movement of the cell 18. The primary structure of a polypeptide is determined by the nucleotide sequence of a gene. A. True B. False 19. What is the chemical reaction mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers? A. phosphodiester linkages B. hydrolysis C. dehydration reactions D. ionic bonding of monomers E. the formation of disulphide bridges between monomers 20. If a cell has completed the first meiotic division and is just beginning meiosis II, which of the following is an appropriate description of its contents? A. It has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis. B. It has the same number of chromosomes but each of them has different alleles than another cell from the same meiosis. C. It has half the chromosomes but twice the DNA of the originating cell. D. It has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the originating cell. E. It is identical in content to another cell from the same meiosis. 21. Given the relative electronegativities of the elements, a molecule with the formula CH4 would have which type of bonds? A. nonpolar covalent bonds B. polar covalent bonds C. ionic bonds D. organic bonds E. All of the above bonds in equal proportions. Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide 22. This image above shows dividing cells with their chromosomes stained. Although the cytoskeleton is not visible in this image, which cell would most likely have had kinetochore motor proteins actively moving along microtubules? A. A B. B C. C D. D 23. In researching questions for this test, Prof Rawle read the following unfortunate passage about dividing lily cells on a website called Suite 101: “The cell cycle has a DNA synthesis phase (S phase) which doubles the normal full number of chromosomes from diploid (2n) to tetraploid (4n). This is followed by a G2 cell phase that biochemically prepares the cell for the mitotic or M phase, which includes cytokinesis.” In what way is the author of this passage mistaken (whacked)? A. DNA synthesis does not occur in S phase. B. S phase does not increase ploidy from 2n to 4n. C. G2 does not follow S phase. D. Cytokinesis is not part of mitotic cell division. 24. Some cancer tumors increase in size because their cells are rapidly dividing “out of control”. If you cut a cross section through such a tumor and observed the cells with a microscope, which stage of the cell cycle would most of the cells be in? A. G0 B. Interphase C. Mitosis D. Cytokinesis Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide 25. Cannabis is a diploid flowering plant with 2n = 20. Imagine one of your friends is looking down a microscope at meiotic cells in the stamens. How will she identify the metaphase II cells? A. They will have 10 chromosomes, all different, lined up at the center of the cell. B. They will have 5 pairs of chromosomes; all chromatids paired, at the center of the cell. C. They will have 5 pairs of chromosomes all chromosomes lined up individually at the center of the cell. D. D. They will have 20 unreplicated chromosomes, all lined up individually at the center of the cell. 26. True or false: On your chromosome #22, you have the same genes in the exact same order as the person sitting next to you. A. True B. False 27. “Interkinesis” is the name of the period between the end of meiosis I and the beginning of meiosis II. Which of the following is true during interkinesis? 1. Cells are haploid. 2. Sister chromatids are likely identical. 3. Chromosomes have two chromatids. 4. S phase prepares for meiosis II. A. 1, 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 4 only E. All of 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct. 28. This amino acid above: A. is polar and hydrophilic. B. is polar and hydrophobic. C. is non-polar and hydrophilic. D. is non-polar and hydrophobic. E. is charged and hydrophilic. F. is charged and hydrophobic. Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide 29. Why are hydrocarbons insoluble in water? A. The majority of their bonds are polar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages. B. The majority of their bonds are nonpolar covalent carbon-to-hydrogen linkages. C. They are hydrophilic. D. They exhibit considerable molecular complexity and diversity. E. They are lighter than water. 30. Which of the following is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n = 16? A. The species is diploid, with 32 chromosomes per cell. B. The species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell. C. Each cell has eight homologous pairs. D. Suring the S phase of the cell cycle there will be 32 separate chromosomes. E. A gamete from this species has four chromosomes. 31. Male Australian Jack Jumper ants are haploid. They have only one chromosome and make gametes by mitosis. Female Australian Jack Jumper ants are diploid and make gametes by meiosis as usual. How much DNA would be in the nucleus of female Jack Jumper ant zygotes immediately following fertilization? A. 0.5 x C B. 1 x C C. 2 x C D. 4 x C 32. In which of the following ways is one member of a given homologous pair of chromosomes “the same” as the other member of the pair? 1. Both members of the pair are replicated from the same chromosome during S phase. 2. Both members of the pair contribute one chromatid to every gamete produced. 3. Both members of the pair carry their mobile elements in the same locations. 4. Both members of the pair have their centromeres in the same location. A. 1,2 & 3 only B. 1 & 3 only C. 2 & 4 only D. 4 only E. All of 1,2,3 & 4 are correct. Dr. Rawle – BIO152 Fall 2024 Term Test 1 Study Guide 33. Imagine that you isolate some cells in metaphase of meiosis I from a rat and prepare them on slides for immunofluorescence light microscopy with staining for chromatin and the cytoskeleton. Imagine that you do the same for cells in metaphase of mitosis from the same animal. You have two sets of slides but you forgot to label them and they become mixed up. Which of the following observations would allow you to distinguish the mitosis slides from the meiosis slides? A. Only cells on the meiosis slides would have sex chromosomes. B. Only cells on the meiosis slides would show homologues paired together. C. Only cells on the mitosis slides would contain microtubules attached to the centromeres. D. Cells on the meiosis slides would have half as many chromosomes as those on the mitosis slides. E. Cells on the mitosis slides would have replicated chromosomes (composed of two chromatids each); cells on the meiosis slides would have unreplicated chromosomes.