NEET(UG) Bio-Chemistry Past Paper ALLEN 07-06-2021 PDF
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This is a past paper from ALLEN for NEET(UG) Bio-Chemistry, dated 07-06-2021. The paper contains 135 multiple-choice questions covering topics such as inorganic chemistry, including periodic table and chemical bonding, and biological diversity, including biological classification, plant kingdom, and animal kingdom.
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(1701CMD305320013) Test Pattern *1701CMD305320013* NEET(UG) 28 This Booklet contains 28...
(1701CMD305320013) Test Pattern *1701CMD305320013* NEET(UG) 28 This Booklet contains 28 pages. Bio-Chemistry Do not open this Test Booklet until you are asked to do so. Read carefully the Instructions on the Back Cover of this Test Booklet. : Important Instructions : 1. -1 -2 1. On the Answer Sheet, fill in the particulars on Side-1 and Side-2 carefully with blue/black ball point pen only. 2. 1½ 135 2. The test is of 1½ hours duration and this Test Booklet 4 contains 135 questions. Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response, the candidate will get 4 marks. 4 For each incorrect response, one mark will be deducted 540 from the total scores. The maximum marks are 540. 3. 3. Use Blue/Black Ball Point Pen only for writing particulars on this page/marking responses. 4. 4. Rough work is to be done on the space provided for this purpose in the Test Booklet only. 5. 5. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator before leaving the Room/Hall. The candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them. 6. 6. The candidates should ensure that the Answer Sheet is not folded. Do not make any stray marks on the Answer Sheet. Do not write your Form No. anywhere else except in the specified space in the Test Booklet/ Answer Sheet. 7. 7. Use of white fluid for correction is not permissible on the Answer Sheet. In case of any ambiguity in translation of any question, English version shall be treated as final. ( ): Name of the Candidate (in Capitals) : Form Number : in figures : : in words ( ): Centre of Examination (in Capitals) : : : Candidate’s Signature : Invigilator’s Signature : Facsimile signature stamp of Centre Superintendent : Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 1/28 07062021/E/H TG: @Chalnaayaaar ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER COURSE (ALL PHASE) BIO-CHEMISTRY TEST DATE : 07 - 06 - 2021 SYLLABUS – 01 CHEMISTRY : Inorganic Chemistry Periodic Table + Chemical Bonding. BIOLOGY : Diversity in the Living World : (i) The living world (ii) Biological Classification (iii) Plant Kingdom (iv) Animal Kingdom Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 2/28 07062021/E/H 1. Which of the following shows the Lewis dot formula 1. CO2 for CO2? ? (1) : O :: C :: O : (2) : O : C :: C : (1) : O :: C :: O : (2) : O : C :: C : (3) : O : C :: O : (4) : O : C :: O : (3) : O : C :: O : (4) : O : C :: O : 2. Correct order of dipole moment is : 2. : (1) BF3 < H2S < H2O (2) H2S < BF3 < H2O (1) BF3 < H2S < H2O (2) H2S < BF3 < H2O (3) H2O < H2S < BF3 (4) BF3 < H2O < H2S (3) H2O < H2S < BF3 (4) BF3 < H2O < H2S 3. Which shows negative overlapping? 3. (1) Z (1) Z (2) Z (2) Z (3) Z (3) Z (4) Z (4) Z 4. Which of the following has strongest bond? 4. (1) N = O (2) C = C (1) N = O (2) C = C (3) C = N (4) C = O (3) C = N (4) C = O 5. Which statement is correct : 5. : Nb Number of e– occupying bonding orbital Nb e– Na Number of e– occupying antibonding orbital Na e– (1) Molecule is stable if Nb is greater than Na (1) Nb Na (2) Molecule is unstable if Na is greater than Nb (2) Na Nb (3) Both (1) & (2) are correct (3) (1) (2) (4) 2 is correct (4) 2 6. How many number of electron are involved in the 6. formation of a nitrogen molecule? (1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 8 (4) 6 (3) 8 (4) 6 7. Which statement is correct? 7. ? (1) Isoelectronic molecules and ions have identical (1) bond orders (2) Bond order increases stability of molecule (2) increases (3) Bond enthalpy increases stability of molecule (3) increases (4) (4) All are correct ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 3/28 8. Correct match is : 8. : (a) Expanded octet (p) H2SO4 (a) (p) H2SO4 (b) Odd e molecule (q) NO – (b) (q) NO (c) Incomplete octet (r) CH4 (c) (r) CH4 (d) Complete octet (s) BeH2 (d) (s) BeH2 (1) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p (2) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r (1) a-q, b-r, c-s, d-p (2) a-p, b-q, c-s, d-r (3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r (4) a-p, b-r, c-q, d-s (3) a-s, b-p, c-q, d-r (4) a-p, b-r, c-q, d-s 9. Correct order of increasing bond angle is : 9. : (1) BeCl2 > BF3 > CH4 (1) BeCl2 > BF3 > CH4 (2) CH4 > BF3 > BeCl2 (2) CH4 > BF3 > BeCl2 (3) BF3 > BeCl2 > CH4 (3) BF3 > BeCl2 > CH4 (4) BeCl2 > CH4 > BF3 (4) BeCl2 > CH4 > BF3 10. Shape of AB3E type of molecule is : 10. AB3E : (1) Bent/V-shape (1) /V- (2) Pyramidal (2) (3) Trigonal planar (3) (4) Linear (4) 11. In O3 molecule, value of formal charge on central 11. O3 oxygen would be : : (1) –1 (2) 0 (1) –1 (2) 0 (3) +1 (4) +2 (3) +1 (4) +2 12. Correct match is : 12. : Molecule Molecular Geometry (a) HgCl2 (p) Linear (a) HgCl2 (p) (b) NH4 + (q) Trigonal planar (b) NH4+ (q) (c) BF3 (r) Trigonal bipyramidal (c) BF3 (r) (d) PCl5 (s) Tetrahedral (d) PCl5 (s) a b c d a b c d (1) p r q s (1) p r q s (2) p s q r (2) p s q r (3) r p q s (3) r p q s (4) p q s r (4) p q s r 13. How many molecular orbital are singly occupied in 13. O2 O2 molecular ? ? (1) 2 (2) 1 (1) 2 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) None of these (3) 3 (4) 14. Electronic configuration of C2 molecule is : 14. C2 : (1) ( 1s2) (x 1s2) (2s2) (x2s2) (2pz2) (2px2) (1) ( 1s2) (x 1s2) (2s2) (x2s2) (2pz2) (2px2) (2) ( 1s2) (x 1s2) (2s2) (x2s2) (2px2 = 2py2) (2) ( 1s2) (x 1s2) (2s2) (x2s2) (2px2 = 2py2) (3) ( 1s2) (x 1s2) (2s2) (x2s2) (2pz2) 2pz1=2py1) (3) ( 1s2) (x 1s2) (2s2) (x2s2) (2pz2) 2pz1=2py1) (4) None of these (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 4/28 07062021/E/H 15. Which of the following species show maximum 15. energy Ionisation : (1) Ne (2) Ne+ (1) Ne (2) Ne+ (3) F (4) F– (3) F (4) F– 16. Correct order of solubility is : 16. : (1) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4 (1) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4 (2) BeSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4 (2) BeSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > SrSO4 > BaSO4 (3) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > BeSO4 (3) BaSO4 > SrSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > BeSO4 (4) None of these (4) 17. Which of the following species show maximum 17. electron alfinity (1) H (2) S (1) H (2) S (3) Br (4) O (3) Br (4) O 18. Which of the following species show maximum acidic nature 18. (1) NH3 (2) H2S (3) HI (4) CH4 (1) NH3 (2) H2S (3) HI (4) CH4 19. Which of the following does not show any resonating 19. structures? (1) NH3 (2) CO32– (1) NH3 (2) CO32– (3) O3 (4) CO2 (3) O3 (4) CO2 20. What is common between the following molecules 20. SO3, CO32–, NO3– ? SO3, CO32–, NO3– ? (1) (1) All have linear shape (2) (2) All have trigonal planar shape (3) All have tetrahedral shape (3) (4) None of these (4) 21. Which of the following pairs are isostructural? 21. ? (1) SO42– and BF4– (2) NH3 and NH4+ (1) SO4 2– BF4– (2) NH3 NH4+ (3) CO32– and CO2 (4) CH4 and BF3 (3) CO32– CO2 (4) CH4 BF3 22. Which molecule have maximum dipole moment? 22. (1) BeF2 (2) BF3 (3) CCl4 (4) H2O (1) BeF2 (2) BF3 (3) CCl4 (4) H2O 23. Which molecule is polar and nonplanar? 23. (1) SF4 (2) H2O (1) SF4 (2) H2O (3) PCl5 (4) SF6 (3) PCl5 (4) SF6 24. Which of the following species show maximum 24. covalent character : (1) KCl (2) CaF2 (1) kcl (2) CaF2 (3) CuCl (4) ZnCl2 (3) CnCl (4) ZnCl2 25. Which of the following species show London farce: 25. London farce (1) CO2+NH3 (2) Ne+He (1) CO2+NH3 (2) Ne+He (3) HCL+HBr (4) ALL (3) HCL+HBr (4) ALL 26. Which species does not exist? 26. (1) BF3 (2) BF4– (1) BF3 (2) BF4– (3) BF6–3 (4) None of these (3) BF6–3 (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 5/28 27. Correct statement for PO43– : 27. PO43– : (1) One p–p bond (1) One p–p bond (2) One p–d bond (2) One p–d bond (3) two p–p bond (3) two p–p bond (4) two p–d bond (4) two p–d bond 28. Which of the following pairs will have same bond order? 28. (1) O2 and O2– (1) O2 O2– (2) N2+ and N2– (2) N2+ N2– (3) O2+ and O2– (3) O2+ O2– (4) CO and NO (4) Co NO 29. Which combination form bond (INAZ) : 29. ( Z): (1) Pz + Pz (2) Pz + S (1) Pz + Pz (2) Pz + S (3) Px + Px (4) None of these (3) Px + Px (4) 30. Which species have lowest bond order? 30. ? (1) H2O2 (2) O2 (1) H2O2 (2) O2 (3) O3 (4) All have same bond order (3) O3 (4) 31. Write correct energy level order of 7th period : 31. : (1) 7s 4f 5d 7p (2) 7s 5d 4f 7p (1) 7s 4f 5d 7p (2) 7s 5d 4f 7p (3) 7s 6d 5f 7p (4) 7s 5f 6d 7p (3) 7s 6d 5f 7p (4) 7s 5f 6d 7p 32. Which of the following element present in p-block but 32. p-block s-block belong from s-block : (1) Ne (2) He (1) Ne (2) He (3) Cl (4) K (3) Cl (4) K 33. Which of the following element are never found pure 33. in nature : : (1) s-block (2) p-block (1) s-block (2) p-block (3) d-block (4) f-block (3) d-block (4) f-block 34. Which of the following configuration element does not 34. show most of the properties of transition element: (1) (n–1)d10ns1 (1) (n–1)d10ns1 (2) (n–1)d8ns2 (2) (n–1)d8ns2 (3) (n–1)d10ns2 (3) (n–1)d10ns2 (4) (n–1)d5ns2 (4) (n–1)d5ns2 35. Which of the following element does not show 35. : covalent radius : (1) Halogen (2) Noble gas (1) Halogen (2) Noble gas (3) Nitrogen (4) Oxygen (3) Nitrogen (4) Oxygen 36. Which of the following species show largest size: 36. : (1) Mg (2) Mg2+ (1) Mg (2) Mg2+ (3) Al3+ (4) Al (3) Al3+ (4) Al ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 6/28 07062021/E/H 37. Which of the following e– shielded from the nucleus 37. Li e- in Li atom : (1) 1s (2) 2s (1) 1s (2) 2s (3) 2p (4) Both (1) and (2) (3) 2p (4) (1) (2) 38. Which of the following property can not explain of 38. octet rule : (1) (1) Shape of molecule (2) (1) (3) (2) Both (1) & (3) (3) Stability of molecule (3) (4) None of these (4) 39. Which of the following maximum polarising power: 39. : (1) K+ (2) Cl– (1) K+ (2) Cl– (3) O 2– (4) Cu+ (3) O2– (4) Cu+ 40. Why lone pair (l.p) show more repulsion than Bond 40. pair (1) l.p. +nt between nucleus (1) l.p. (2) l.p. +nt on the central atom (2) l.p. (3) b.p. +nt between nucleus (3) e– (4) l.p. +nt between two atom (4) l.p. 41. Which of the following theory explain geometry of 41. molecule : (1) (1) Octet theory (2) (2) V.S.E.P.R. theory (3) (3) Dipole moment theory (4) All (4) 42. Which of the following orbital not participate in 42. hybridisation : (1) 3s, 3p, 3d (2) 4s, 4p, 3d (1) 3s, 3p, 3d (2) 4s, 4p, 3d (3) 3p, 3d, 4s (4) All (3) 3p, 3d, 4s (4) All 43. Which of the following species show different bond 43. : length : (1) PCl5 (2) SF6 (1) PCl5 (2) SF6 (3) CH4 (4) All (3) CH4 (4) All 44. Which of the following species not show 2s–2p mixing: 44. 2s-2p (1) B2 (2) C2 (1) B2 (2) C2 (3) N2 (4) O2 (3) N2 (4) O2 45. Which of the following species show electrostatic force: 45. (1) NaCl (1) NaCl (2) H2O (2) H2O (3) HF (3) HF (4) All (4) All ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 7/28 46. Read the following statement : 46. : (i) Increase in mass (i) (ii) Maturation (ii) (iii) Increase in number of individual (iii) (individual) (iv) Consciousness (iv) Which two statement are known as the twin characteristics of growth? (1) i & ii (1) i & ii (2) i & iv (2) i & iv (3) ii & iii (3) ii & iii (4) i & iii (4) i & iii 47. Which is correct in nomenclature : 47. : (1) Both genus and specific epithet are printed in italics (1) (2) Genus & specific epithet may be of same name (2) ICBN in ICBN (3) (3) Both in genus specific epithet the first letter is capital (4) (4) Genus is written after the name of specific epithet 48. Recognise the following flow diagram & Find the 48. correct option according to taxonomic hierarchy : Angiosperma Dicotyledone B A Solanum vko`rchth f}chti=h B A lksysue (1) A-Mango, B-Anacardiaceae (1) A- , B- (2) A-Polymoniales, B-Solanaceae (2) A- , B- (3) A-Solanaeae, B-Polymoniales (3) A- , B- (4) A-Convolvulaceae, B-Spaindales (4) A- , B- 49. Reproduction is synonymous with growth/cell division in 49. (I) Bacteria (II) Human (I) (II) (III) Earthworm (IV) Unicellular Algae (III) (IV) (V) Amoeba (V) (1) I, IV, V (1) I, IV, V (2) I, II, III (2) I, II, III (3) I, III, V (3) I, III, V (4) I, II, III, IV, V (4) I, II, III, IV, V 50. Cornivora includes : 50. : (1) Group of organism belonging to producer in (1) ecosystem (2) Group of organism belonging to related species (2) which are herbivorous only (3) Group of organism belonging to related families (3) (4) Group of organism which are similar in all features (4) can reproduce with each other ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 8/28 07062021/E/H 51. Read the following statement carefully & select how 51. many statement are correct: (a) Key are generally analytical in nature (a) (b) On Herbarium sheet local names are not mentiaon (b) (c) Taxonomic aids are useful in knowing bioresoues (c) (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Zero (1) (2) (3) (4) 52. Most obvious and technically complicated feature of 52. all living organism. (1) Metabolism (1) (2) Growth (2) (3) Reproduction (3) (4) Ability to sense the environment (4) 53. Consider the following (A to D) & arrange the correct 53. A D sequence of taxonomical categories : (a) Solanum (a) (b) Polymoniales (b) (c) Dicotyledonae (c) (d) Solanaceae (d) (1) c d b a (1) c d ba (2) a b c d (2) a b cd (3) c b a d (3) c b ad (4) a d b c (4) a d bc 54. Study the four statement (A-D) given below and 54. (A-D) select the two correct ones out of them: : (A) Species and family are the unit of classification (A) (B) Photoperiod does not affect reproduction of (B) seasonal breeders in animals (C) Binomial nomenclature system was given by (C) R.H. R.H. whithcker (D) In unicellular organism, reproduction is (D) synonymous with growth (1) B and C (2) C and D (1) B C (2) C D (3) A and D (4) A and B (3) A D (4) A B 55. Arrange the following taxa to form the correct 55. sequence of classification of man : (I) Primata (II) Chordata (I) (II) (III) Mammalia (IV) Hominidae (III) (IV) (1) I, III, IV, II (1) I, III, IV, II (2) IV, II, I, III (2) IV, II, I, III (3) III, II, IV, I (3) III, II, IV, I (4) II, III, I, IV (4) II, III, I, IV ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 9/28 56. Solanaceae + Convolvlaceae A 56. + A Solonum + Petunia B + B Identify A & B. Choose the correct option. A B (1) A = Sapindales, B = Solandceae (1) A = ,B= (2) A = Monocotyledone, B = Cruciferae (2) A = ,B= (3) A = Polymoniales, B = Solanaceae (3) A = B= (4) A = Solanaceae, B = Polymoniales (4) A = B= 57. Which of the following is correctly matched with its 57. particular taxonomic category : (1) Mango – Sapindales is class (1) – (2) housefly – Insecta is phylum (2) – (3) Wheat – Triticum is genus (3) – (4) Human – Carnivora is order (4) – 58. _____ serve quick referral system in taxonomic study 58. _____ while _____ are analytic in nature correct fill of _____ blanks are respectively: (1) Monograph, Herbaria (1) (2) Herbaria, Taxonomic keys (2) (3) Museum, Monograph (3) (4) Bofanical garden, Museum (4) 59. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. binomial 59. nomenclature. (1) (1) The name are latinised or derived from latin irrespective of their origin (2) (2) This naming system uses a two word formate, the first word represents the genus while the second denotes the specific epithet. (3) Name of the author appears at the end of biological (3) name and is written in itallics (4) The genus starts with a capital latter while the (4) specific epithet starts with a small latter 60. You are given with various categories of classification 60. of housefly. Arrange them in correct sequence of taxonomic hierarchy starting from the lowest category: a. Muscidae b. insecta a. b. c. Arthropoda d. Musca c. d. e. Diptera f. Animalia e. f. (1) dbaecf (1) dbaecf (2) dabcef (2) dabcef (3) daebcf (3) daebcf (4) dbcaef (4) dbcaef ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 10/28 07062021/E/H 61. Read the following statement and state True(T) or 61. (T) (F) False (F) (A) National Botanical Research Institute - Howarah (A) ( ) (India) (B) Herbarium serves as quick source of reference (B) in taxonomical studies (C) Wild animals are kept in protected environment (C) under human care in zoological park A B C A B C (1) F T T (1) F T T (2) T T F (2) T T F (3) T F F (3) T F F (4) F T F (4) F T F 62. What is a taxonomic category ? 62. (1) A rank in taxonomic hierarchy (1) (2) Fundamental unit of ecology (2) (3) A group of interfertile organism (3) (4) A type of key (4) 63. Match the column and mark the correct option: 63. Column I ColumnII I II Indian Botanical a. (i) a. (i) Lucknow Garden Suffix of category b. " " (ii) b. (ii) -ales "Family" National botanical c. (iii) c. (iii) Howrah Garden Suffix of category d. " " (iv) d. (iv) -aceae "Order" (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (1) a(i), b(iv), c(iii), d(ii) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (2) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (3) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii) 64. A, B C 64. Identify the correct option for A, B and C regarding taxonomic categories of wheat : A B C TriticumAPoalesBAngiospermC A B C (1) Aestivum Dicotyledonae Plantae A B C Monocotyle- (2) Poaceae donae Plantae (1) Monocotyle- (3) donae Aestivum Dicatyledonae (2) Monocotyle- (4) Polymoniales donae Plantae (3) (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 11/28 65. Read the following statement A and B and choose 65. A B the correct option : : Statement A : The number of common A: characteristics goes on increasing from species to kingdom B: Statement B : Higher the category, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa of same level. (1) Only statement A is correct (1) A (2) Only statement B is correct (2) B (3) Both statements A and B are correct (3) A B (4) Both statements A and B are incorrect (4) A B 66. Only nucleic acid containing and non-proteinaceous 66. smallest infectious agent cause. (1) Mad cow disease (1) Mad cow disease (2) CJD (2) CJD (3) Potato Spindle Tuber Disease (3) (4) Flu (4) Flu 67. How many among given are wall less ? 67. Lichens, Mycoplasma, Spores of slime mould, Diatom (1) 2 (1) 2 (2) 3 (2) 3 (3) 1 (3) 1 (4) 4 (4) 4 68. Select the incorrect statements among given : 68. (1) Fungi show great diversity in morphology and (1) Nutrition. (2) Fungi prefer to grow in warm and humid places (2) (3) Fungal cell wall composed of chitin and (3) polysaccharide (4) Yeast are used to make bread and bear. (4) 69. Which of the following does not form the basis for 69. the division of the kingdom fungi into various classes: (1) Morphology of mycellium (1) (2) Fruiting body (2) (3) Cell wall composition (3) (4) Mode of spore formation (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 12/28 07062021/E/H 70. Match the features given in column-I with protistans 70. -I -II given in column-II and select the correct option : Column-I Column-II -I -II Cheif producer in a. (i) Slime moulds a. (i) Oceans b. Mesokaryon (ii) Diatoma b. (ii) c. Mixotropic nutrition (iii) Dinoflagellates c. (iii) d. Lack chlorophyl (iv) Euglenoids d. (iv) (1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (1) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(iv), d-(i) (2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) (2) a-(ii), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(iv) (3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (3) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) (4) a-(iv), b-(iii), c-(i), d-(ii) 71. Mycelium as continous tubes filled with 71. multinucleated (Coenocytic) cytoplasm is found in : (1) Saccharomyces and Penicillium (1) (2) Rhizopus, Mucor and Albugo (2) (3) Rhizopus, Ustilago and Puccinia (3) (4) Alternaria, Colletotrichum and Albugo (4) 72. Match the column-I with column-II and select the 72. -I -II correct option : -I -II Column-I Column-II ( ) ( ) (Organisms) (Features) Used a. Dinoflagellates (i) extensively for a. (i) genetic work Complex b. Euglenoid (ii) structures of cell wall b. (ii) Stiff cellulose c. Neurospora (iii) plates c. (iii) Protein rich d. Thermo-acidophiles(iv) elastic Pellicle layer d. (iv) (1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (1) a-(i), b-(ii), c-(iii), d-(iv) (2) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii) (2) a-(i), b-(iv), c-(iii), d-(ii) (3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) (3) a-(iii), b-(ii), c-(i), d-(iv) (4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) (4) a-(iii), b-(iv), c-(i), d-(ii) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 13/28 73. Sac fungi with edible ascocarps are : 73. (1) Morels and Truffles (1) (2) Neurospora and Agaricus (2) (3) Puffballs and Toad stool (3) (4) Claviceps and Aspergillus (4) 74. Diatoms differ from slims moulds in all except: 74. (a) Have cell wall impregnated with silica. (b) Are single celled organism (a) (c) Are photosynthetic protists (b) (c) (d) Are microscopic phytoplanktons (d) (1) (a), (b), (c) & (d) (1) (a), (b), (c) (d) (2) Only (a) & (b) (2) (a) (b) (3) Only (b) & (c) (3) (b) (c) (4) Only (b) (4) (b) 75. How many among the following organisms were 75. grouped together under kingdom protist in whittaker's classification? chlamydomonas, Archaebacteria, chlrobium Amoeba, ficus, fucus, chlorella, paramoecium (1) 5 (2) 3 (1) 5 (2) 3 (3) 2 (4) 4 (3) 2 (4) 4 76. Which of the following statement is/are correct with 76. respect to Bacteria (a) (a) Bacteria are the sole members of the Kingdom Monera (b) (b) Bacteria occur almost everywhere (c) (c) Bacteria are the most abundant micro organism (d) 80 S (d) 80 S type of Ribosome are present in bacteria (1) a d (2) b d (1) a & d (2) b & d (3) a, b, c (4) b, c, d (3) a, b, c (4) b, c, d 77. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to 77. Archaebacteria. (a) (a) Archaebacteria differ from other bacteria in having a different cell wall structure. (b) (b) Feature of cell wall is responsible for their survival in extreme conditions. (c) (c) Methanogens are present in the guts of several ruminant animals such as cow & buffalo. (d) These are oldest of the living fossils. (d) (e) Peptidoglycan & muramic acid are present in cell (e) wall (1) a and e (2) b and e (1) a e (2) b e (3) a, b and c (4) only e (3) a, b c (4) e ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 14/28 07062021/E/H 78. Which statement is/are wrong with respect to 78. kingdom protista. (i) All single celled eukaryotes are placed under (i) protista (ii) The boundaries of this kingdom are not well (ii) defined. (iii) (iii) Chrysophytes, dinoflagellated, Euglenoids, slimemoulds and protozoans are included under protista. (iv) All protista are eukaryotic, achlorophyllous, (iv) heterotrophic, nonvascular organism. (1) only (ii) (2) only (iii) (1) (ii) (2) (iii) (3) only (iv) (4) None of these (3) (iv) (4) 79. Majority of Euglenoids are Fresh water organisms 79. found in stagnant water. Instead of cell wall, they have a protein rich layer called ____(a)____which ____(a)____ makes their body flexible. They have _____(b)______ _____(b)______flagella; (a) & (b) are respectively. (a) (b) (1) (a) Pellicle (b) One (1) (a) (b) (2) (a) Pellicle (b) Three (2) (a) (b) (3) (a) Cell wall sheath (b) Two (3) (a) (b) (4) (a) Pellicle (b) Two (4) (a) (b) 80. Read statements A to D 80. A D (A) Golden Algae are classified under chrysophytes. (A) (B) Gonyaulax & Diatoms are classified under (B) Dinoflagellates (C) In Diatoms the cell wall form two thin overlapping (C) shell, which fit together as in soap box. (D) Most of the Dinoflagellates have two flagella. (D) How many statement are wrong. (1) 1 (2) 2 (1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4 (3) 3 (4) 4 81. As compared to slime moulds, Euglenoids has: 81. (A) Presence of chloroplast (A) (B) Holophytic nutrition (B) (C) Presence of proteinaceous pellicle (C) (D) Presence of contractile vacuole (D) (1) Only A & B (1) A B (2) Only B & C (2) B C (3) Only A, B & C (3) A, B C (4) A, B, C & D (4) A, B, C D ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 15/28 82. Read the following statement (A-D) 82. (A-D) (A) Cell wall of Fungi consists of chitin or fungal (A) cellulose. (B) Most fungi are heterotrophic (B) (C) Fungi can also live as symbionts in association (C) with algae as lichens and with roots of higher plants as mycorrhiza (D) Fusion of two nuclei called plasmogamy (D) How many of the above statement are correct ? (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 (1) 2 (2) 3 (3) 4 (4) 1 83. Match the classes of fungi given in Column I with 83. I II their common names given in Column II Column I Column II I II (i) Phycomycetes (a) Imperfect fungi (i) (a) (ii) Asocomycetes (b) Club fungi (ii) (b) (iii) Basidiomycetes (c) Sac fungi (iii) (c) (iv) Deuteromycetes (d) Algal fungi (iv) (d) Options - - (1) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d (1) (i) a (ii) b (iii) c (iv) d (2) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a (2) (i) d (ii) c (iii) b (iv) a (3) (i) c (ii) b (iii) d (iv) a (3) (i) c (ii) b (iii) d (iv) a (4) (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d (4) (i) b (ii) a (iii) c (iv) d 84. Read the following statement (A-C) regarding the 84. (A-C) class phycomycetes & select correct statement (A) In phycomycetes mycelium is multinucleate (A) (Coenocytic) and aseptate (B) Asexual reproduction take place through (B) Zoospore or Aplanospore (C) (C) Albugo is parasitic fungi (1) A (2) B (1) only A (2) only B (3) only C (4) A, B, C (3) C (4) A, B, C 85. Give below the following statements 85. (a) The mycelium of deuteromycetes is aseptate & (a) unbranched & Asexual reproduction is performed by conidia. (b) (b) In ascomycetes, conidia are produced exogenously on conidiophores. (c) (c) Trichoderma is deuteromycetes class fungi How many statements are correct (1) 0 (2) 1 (1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3 (3) 2 (4) 3 ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 16/28 07062021/E/H 86. At least half of the total CO2 fixation on earth is carried 86. CO2 out through photosynthesis by (1) Pteropsida (1) (2) Moss (2) (3) Angiosperm (3) (4) Algae (4) 87. Which is not correct for Red Algae ? 87. ? (1) Both spore and gamets are non motile (1) (2) Floridean starch (Reserve Food) (2) (3) Post Fertilization development is complex (3) (4) Majority of the red algae are fresh water (4) 88. Bryophytes are called Amphibians of the plant 88. kingdom because : (1) They are evolved from pteriodphyta (1) (2) They are found in only water (2) (3) Plant live in soil but are dependent on water for (3) sexual reproduction (4) They found in dry area (4) 89. Which statement is nor correct for bryophyta ? 89. (1) Ingeneral Little economic importance (1) (2) Great Ecological importance (2) (3) Main plant body is gametophyte (3) (4) Sporophyte is differentiated into root, stem leaves (4) 90. Correct for prothallus in pteridophyte is : 90. (1) Nonvascular & Diploid (1) (2) Diploid & Freeliving gametophyte (2) (3) Mostly photosynthetic (3) (4) Unicellular & Freeliving (4) 91. Branched & unbranched stem are found respectively 91. (1) Cedrus & Pinus (1) (2) Pinus & Cedrus (2) (3) Cycas & Pinus (3) (4) Cedrus & Cycas (4) 92. How many among the following are members 92. rhodophyceae and phacophyceae respectively ? Dictyota, Gelidium, Polysiphonia, Gracilaria, Sorgassum, Ectocarpus, Porphyra. (1) 5, 2 (1) 5, 2 (2) 3, 4 (2) 3, 4 (3) 4, 2 (3) 4, 2 (4) 4, 3 (4) 4, 3 ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 17/28 93. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. algae. 93. (1) Asexual reproduction in most brown algae is by (1) pyriform biflagellate zoospores. (2) The commercial source of carrageen is Brown (2) algae (3) (3) Most of the members of chlorophyceae have one or more storage bodies called pyrenoids located in the chloroplast (4) (4) Red alga reproduce asexually by non-motile spores and sexually by non-motile gametes. 94. Protonema is : 94. (1) Gametophyte dependent on sporophyte in moss. (1) (2) Leafy stage of gametophyte in liverworts (2) (3) Green filamentous, Haploid stage in moss (3) (4) First stage of gametophyte in pteridophytes (4) 95. Which of the following set include the algae belonging 95. to same class to which Laminaria belong ? (1) Sargassum, Dictyota (1) (2) Gracilaria, Ectocarpus (2) (3) Volvox, Ulothrix (3) (4) Gracilari, Gelidium (4) 96. Consider the following statements w.r.t. Funaria. 96. A. Antheridia and archegonia are produced at the A. apex of leafy shoots. B. Spores are formed after meiosis. B. (1) Only A is correct (1) A (2) Only B is correct (2) B (3) Both A & B are correct (3) A B (4) Both A & B are incorrect (4) A B 97. How many feature(s) is/are common between 97. bryophytes and pteridophytes? a. True leaves a. b. Diploid sporophyte b. c. Vascular tissue present c. d. Motile male gametes d. e. Diplontic Life Cycle e. (1) Three (2) Four (3) Two (4) One (1) (2) (3) (4) 98. Selaginella, Dryopteris, Equisetum, Adiantum, 98. Lycopodium, Pteris belong to how many classes of pteridophyte (1) (2) (1) One (2) Two (3) Three (4) Four (3) (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 18/28 07062021/E/H 99. On the basis of the following features, identify the 99. algae from the given options. Inner cellulosic cell wall is covered outside by algin Pear-shaped gametes bear two laterally attached flagella (1) Chara (1) (2) Porphyra (2) (3) Spirogyra (3) (4) Laminaria (4) 100. Which of the following features is not correct for 100. pteridophytes ? (1) Main plant body is differentiated into root, stem (1) and leaf (2) Vascular tissue has xylem and phloem (3) These plants may be homosporous or (2) heterosporous (3) (4) Main plant body is gametophyte (4) 101. Read statement (A-D) & find which is/are wrong 101. A D statement (A) Asexual reproduction in liver worts takes place (A) by fragmentation of thalli or by the formation of specialised structure called Gemmae (B) (B) Bryophytes are known as a amphibians of plant (C) kingdom (C) Funaria, Polytrichum & Sphagnum are classified under mosses. (D) (D) Vascular tissues (xylem & phloem) are present in Bryophytes. (1) A (2) A D (1) only A (2) A & D (3) only C (4) only D (3) C (4) D 102. Read the statement A to D & select wrong statement 102. A-D (A) The pteridophytes include horse tails & fern (A) (B) Pteridophytes are the first terrestrial plants to possess vascular tissues xylem & phloem. (B) (C) In Bryophytes the dominant phase in the life cycle is the sporophytic plant body. (C) (D) In Pteridophytes, the main plant body is a gametophyte (D) (1) only B (1) B (2) ony A & C (2) A C (3) only C & D (3) C D (4) only B & D (4) B D ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 19/28 103. Which is/are wrong regarding gymnosperms 103. (A) Heterosporous (A) (B) Produce haploid microspore & megaspore (B) (C) Two kind of spore are produced within sporangia (C) that are borne on sporophyll (D) The microspores develop into a male (D) gametophytic generation, which is highly reduced. (1) only A & D (2) only B & D (1) A D (2) B D (3) only B & C (4) none (3) B C (4) 104. Choose correct statements 104. (A) Pyrenoids are present in all algae that is meant (A) for storage of starch only. (B) Gelatinous coating of algin is found on cellulosic (B) wall of Phaeophyceae. (C) Rhodophyceae contains r-phycoerythrin pigments (C) r- 2- as well as 2, unequal lateral flagella. (D) Majority of red algae are marine with greater (D) concentration found in the warmer areas. (1) A (2) B and D (1) A (2) B D (3) C (4) D (3) C (4) D 105. Examine the figure given below and select the correct 105. (a, b,c d) option giving all the four parts (a, b,c and d) rightly identified. a b c d a b c d (1) Rhizoids Capsule Seta Main axis (1) (2) Main axis Seta Roots Capsule (2) (3) Rhizoids Capsule Main axis Seta (3) (4) Main axis Seta Rhizoids Capsule (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 20/28 07062021/E/H 106. Which statements are correct for kingdom animalia: 106. : (a) Heterotrophic nutrition & eukaryotic (a) (b) Directly or indirectly depend on plant for food. (b) (c) Store food reserves as only glycogen. (c) (d) They follow a definite pattern of growth. (d) (e) Alternation of generation with presence of cell wall. (e) (1) a, c, d (1) a, c, d (2) a, b, c, d, e (2) a, b, c, d, e (3) a, b, d (3) a, b, d (4) a, b, c, d (4) a, b, c, d 107. Identify the correct statement for animals which is 107. bilateral symmetrical and acoelomate : : (1) Ectodermaly derived paranchyma present. (1) (2) Excretion by general body surface (2) (3) Triplobastic and psuedosegmentation present. (3) (4) Thick cuticle with complete digestive system (4) 108. How many statements are correct for given diagram? 108. (a) Marine and fresh water. (a) (b) Metagensis present (b) (c) Tentacles present (c) (d) Bisexual (d) (e) Internal fertilisation with indirect development (e) (f) Eight external row of ciliated plates. (f) 8 (1) 3 (1) 3 (2) 4 (2) 4 (3) 2 (3) 2 (4) 5 (4) 5 109. Which option is correctly matched : 109. : (1) Malpighian tubule Round worm, Hook worm (1) (2) Proboscis gland Flat worm, Acron worm (2) , (3) Enterocoelomate Filaria worm, Tape worm (3) (4) Complete digestive system Earthworm, Round (4) worm ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 21/28 110. Identify the correct features for given diagram. 110. A B : (A) (B) (A) (B) (i) Living fossil (i) (ii) Body covered by calcareous shell (ii) (iii) Gills perform respiratory & excretory function (iii) (iv) Gregarous pest (iv) (v) Chitinous exoskeletal (v) (vi) Dioecious (vi) A B A B (1) i, ii, iii, vi iv, v, vi (1) i, ii, iii, vi iv, v, vi (2) ii, iii, vi i, iv, v, vi (2) ii, iii, vi i, iv, v, vi (3) ii, iv, vi iii, iv, v (3) ii, iv, vi iii, iv, v (4) ii, iii, vi iv, v, vi (4) ii, iii, vi iv, v, vi 111. Identify the correct features of animal phylum which is 111. characterised by presence of muscular pharynx. : (1) Free living, aquatic or terrestial, parasite only in (1) plants. (2) Internal fertilisation and monoecious. (2) (3) Diploblastic & Acoclomate (3) (4) Filiariasis causing individual also belongs to this (4) phylum 112. Which one is common feature for given animal 112. A B speciman A & B : : (A) (B) (A) (B) (1) Presence of Nematoblast (1) (2) Type of fertilisation (2) (3) Presence of metagenesis (3) (4) Presence of tentacles (4) 113. Which one is incorrect matched pair : 113. : (1) Planaria – Power of regeneration (1) – (2) Liver fluke – Internal fertilisation (2) – (3) Ctenoplana – Bioluminescence (3) – (4) Cucumaria – Canal system (4) – ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 22/28 07062021/E/H 114. Excretion by malpighian tubules and respiration by 114. trachea occurs in how many animals from given list: : Locust, Butterfly, Scorpion, Prawn, Pila, Octopus, Apis, Laccifer. (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 2 115. Identify the correct feature for animals in which coelom 115. is developed by splitting of mesodermal pouch : : (1) Presence of metamerism (1) (2) Open type of circulation (2) (3) All are dioecious (3) (4) All are triploblastic & excretory organ present (4) 116. Tunicates are characterised by : 116. : (1) Exclusively marine (1) (2) Notochord is present in Larva and adult both (2) (3) Nerve chord is replaced by dorsal ganglia in adult. (3) (4) Both (1) and (3) (4) (1) (3) 117. Consider the following feature : 117. : (A) Enterocoelomate and absence of excretory organ. (A) (B) Worm like cyclindrical animal with open circulation (B) and excretion by proboscis gland. Given statements are associated with : A B : A B A B (1) Sea urchin Brachiostoma (1) (2) Sea cucumber Balanoglossus (2) (3) Sea lily Sea star (3) (4) Salpa Saccoglossus (4) 118. Which one is common character for amphibia and 118. mammals : : (1) Number of cranial nerve (1) (2) Type of fertilisation (2) (3) Type of skull (3) (4) Warm blooded (4) 119. Which one is correct feature for given animal 119. : speciman : (1) 4 pair of gillslits (1) 4 (2) Sucking and circular mount with Jaw (2) (3) Marine and show anadromous migration (3) (4) All of these (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 23/28 120. (a) Presence of cloaca 120. (a) (b) Presence of air bladder (b) (c) Internal fertilisation (c) (d) Placoid scale (d) (e) Oviparous (e) (f) Presence of operculum (f) (g) Cartilagene endoskeletal (g) How many statment are correct for given animal : speciman : (1) 3 (2) 4 (1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 5 (4) 6 (3) 5 (4) 6 121. Which one is not common character for all amniotes? 121. (1) Warm blooded (1) (2) Metanephric kidney (2) (3) Number of cranial nerve (3) (4) Presence of extra embryonic membrane (4) 122. Which is correct matching pair ? 122. ? (1) Neophron – Presence of crop & gizzard (1) – (2) Pteropus – Absence of mammary gland (2) – (3) Chelone – Four chambered heart (3) – (4) Columba – Presence of sacles of skin (4) – 123. Match the correct column : 123. : (a) Naja (i) Presence of ear pinna (a) (i) (b) Macropus (ii) Pneumatic bone (b) (ii) (c) Corvus (iii) External fertilisation (c) (iii) (d) Rana (iv) Limbless (d) (iv) (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (1) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (3) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii (4) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 124. How many animal from given list are Homoithermous, 124. Oviparous and show internal fertilisation. : Macropus, Pterpus, Corvus, Psittacula, Calotes, Hyla, Ornithorhynchus, Viper, Pavo, Alligator, Columba, Corcodilus. (1) 4 (1) 4 (2) 5 (2) 5 (3) 6 (3) 6 (4) 3 (4) 3 ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 24/28 07062021/E/H 125. Identify the correct statment for equus : 125. : (1) Even toed hoofed mammal (1) (2) Odd toed hoofed mamamls (2) (3) External ear pinna absent but auditory canal (3) present (4) Skin is unique in possesing scale. (4) 126. Antedon belong to a group of animals to which 126. follwong are also belongs : : (1) Sea lily, sea anemon (1) (2) Sea cucumber, sea horse (2) (3) Sea star, sea fan (3) (4) Sea urchin, sea cucumber (4) 127. Select the correct feature of non chordata phylums 127. which is exclusively marine and show external : fertilisation (1) All are bilateral symmetrical (1) (2) All are true coelomate except one phylum (2) (3) All are respire through gills (3) (4) All are triploblastic (4) 128. Presence of radula is characteristic of a phylum to 128. which following animals are also associated : : (1) Lucusta, Pila (1) (2) Prawn, Pila (2) (3) Pila, Octopus (3) (4) Balanoglossus, Aplysia (4) 129. Which one is incorrect for vertebrata ? 129. (1) Central nervous system is dorsal hollow and double. (1) (2) Heart in ventral (2) (3) Excretion by kidney (3) (4) Some of them posses Jaw (4) 130. (a) Tympanum absent 130. (a) (b) Body is covered by dry and cornified skin (b) (c) Mostly terrestial (c) (d) Shed their scales as skin cast. (d) Given Character are associated with (1) Krait (1) (2) Calotes (2) (3) Rattus (3) (4) Bufo (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 25/28 131. Match the correct column : 131. Column-I Column-II -I -II (A) Torpedo (i) Sea-pen (A) (i) (B) Octopus (ii) Devil fish (B) (ii) (C) Asterias (iii) Electric organ (C) (iii) (D) Pennatula (iv) Tube feet (D) (iv) (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv (2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (2) A-iii, B-ii, C-iv, D-i (3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (3) A-ii, B-iii, C-iv, D-i (4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-ii (4) A-iv, B-ii, C-i, D-ii 132. How many organism from given list are exclusively 132. marine? , , , , , , Hippocampus, Ascidia, Saccoglossus, Rohu, Ctenoplana, Antedon, Scoliodon (1) 5 (2) 6 (1) 5 (2) 6 (3) 7 (4) 4 (3) 7 (4) 4 133. Which option is correctly matched with their 133. respective feature and example : I II III I II III Dry & cornified skin, (1) Reptiles Neophron (1) tetrapods Head, mantle, visceral (2) Mollusca hump, foot Limulus (2) Radula (3) Annelida Nephridia, Statocyst Nereis (3) 2 pair of wing (4) Aves Psittacula (4) 3 pair of legs 134. Advantage of bilateral symmetry is that it allows 134. evolution of : (1) (1) Organ-system level of organisation (2) (2) Cephalisation (3) (3) Development of true coelom (4) Presence of respiratory organ (4) 135. Fresh water coelentrate found only in poly form: 135. (1) Euplectella (2) Physalia (1) (2) (3) Hydra (4) Adamsia (3) (4) ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 26/28 07062021/E/H ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) 07062021/E/H Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 26/32 Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 27/28 13032020/E/H Read carefully the following instructions : : 1. Each candidate must show on demand his/her 1. Allen ID Card to the Invigilator. 2. No candidate, without special permission of 2. the Invigilator, would leave his/her seat. 3. The candidates should not leave the 3. Examination Hall without handing over their Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty. 4. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is 4. prohibited. 5. The candidates are governed by all Rules and 5. Regulations of the examination with regard to their conduct in the Examination Hall. All cases of unfair means will be dealt with as per Rules and Regulations of this examination. 6. No part of the Test Booklet and Answer Sheet 6. shall be detached under any circumstances. 7. The candidates will write the Correct Name 7. and Form No. in the Test Booklet/Answer Sheet. Note : In case of any Correction in the test paper, please mail to [email protected] within 2 days along with Paper code and Your Form No. Correction Paper code Form No. 2 [email protected] mail ENTHUSIAST, LEADER & ACHIEVER (All Phase) Bio-Chemistry Test/Page 28/28 28/32 07062021/E/H 13032020/E/H