Blood Bank Post Exam PDF

BLOOD BANK POST EXAM Prepared by: Nadzla D. Hack, RMT 1. Which of the following blood group system 7. Which of the following is the proper procedure for expresses for complement component? preparation of platele...

BLOOD BANK POST EXAM Prepared by: Nadzla D. Hack, RMT 1. Which of the following blood group system 7. Which of the following is the proper procedure for expresses for complement component? preparation of platelets from whole blood? a. Indian a. Hard spin followed by a light spin b. Gerbich b. Light spin followed by a hard spin c. Chido/Rodgers c. Light spin followed by two hard spins d. Cromer d. Two light spins 2. The prozone phenomenon can result in a (an): 8. What is the lowest allowable pH for a platelet a. false positive rxn component at outdate? b. enhanced agglutination a. 5.2 c. false negative rxn b. 5.5 d. diminished antigen response c. 6.2 d. 7.0 3. What is the purpose of auto-control in crossmatching? 9. Blood stored for 72 hours is safe against a. to find possible alloantibodies in the patient transmission of: b. to confirm for the presence of alloantibodies in a. Hepatitis an incompatible crossmatching b. Malaria c. to find possible autoantibodies in the donor c. HIV d. to find possible autoantibodies in the patient d. Syphilis 4. Refers to the RBC storage lesion: 10. The cells and serum of a two weeks old infant were I. Decrease 2,3-DPG tested at room temperature. The result was: II. Decrease ATP III. Increase pH Patient’s RBC Patient’s SERUM IV. Increase lactic acid Anti-A: POSITIVE A1 cells: NEGATIVE a. 1 and 2 Anti-B: NEGATIVE B cells: NEGATIVE b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1, 2, and 4 a. Group A d. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. Group B c. Group AB 5. A blood collected with CPD will expire on April 20, d. Group O 2024. If the blood was irradiated on April 5, 2024, what will be the new expiry date? 11. The immunogenicity of the common Rh antigens a. April 20, 2024 may be described from greatest to least as: b. May 3, 2024 a. D > C > E > c > e c. April 25, 2024 b. D > c > E > C > e d. May 5, 2024 c. D > C > e > c > E d. D > c > e > C > E 6. A 150lb man who has hemoglobin of 9 g/dL was transfused with 3 units of packed RBC. What is the 12. Excluding ABO, this an?gen is rated second only to expected hemoglobin level after the transfusion? D in immunogenicity: a. 18 g/dL a. Duffy b. 16 g/dL b. Kidd c. 14 g/dL c. Lewis d. 12 g/dL d. Kell 13. Interpret the blood typing result: 19. Using known sources of antisera (known antibodies) to detect ABO antigens on a patient’s red cells is known as: a. forward grouping b. reverse grouping c. Rh typing d. direct antiglobulin testing 20. An ABO type on a patient gives the following a. Group A reactions: b. Group B c. Group O d. Group AB 14. Acquired B phenomenon is classified under what group of ABO discrepancies? What is the patient’s blood type? a. Group I b. Group II a. A c. Group III b. B d. Group IV c. AB d. O 15. Autologous units generally have distinct _____ color of label and tag. 21. An individual has the genotype of AO, hh. What a. Tan antigens would be present on the red cells of this b. Red individual? c. Green a. A only d. Pink b. A and H c. A and O 16. Group O red cells are used as a source for d. none of the above commercial screening cells because: a. anti-A is detected using O cells 22. Glycophorin A and glycophorin B possess antigen b. anti-D reacts with most group O cells sites for which blood group system? c. weak subgroups of A react with group O cells a. Duffy d. ABO antibodies do not react with group O cells b. Kidd c. Lewis 17. What antibodies are present in polyspecific AHG d. MNS reagent? a. anti-IgG 23. AHF is present in cryoprecipitate in what amount? b. anti-IgM and anti-IgG a. 150 mg c. anti-IgG and anti-C3d b. 150 IU d. anti-C3d c. 80 IU d. 80 mg 18. To determine the specificity of a red cell antigen in a patient sample, what source of antibody is selected? 24. A pregnant patent went to the Blood Bank for blood a. commercial reagent red cells donaton. After the inital interview with the Medtech b. commercial antisera assigned, the pregnant patent was temporarily c. patient serum deferred for donaton. The pregnant patent can donate: d. patient plasma a. 14 to 21 days after pregnancy b. 6 weeks after pregnancy c. 12 months deferral d. Deferred until the mother has fully recovered from the recent delivery 25. How long is the shelf-life of Packed Red Blood Cells 33. A mother is group A, D-negative with anti-D in her using AdSol anticoagulant that is stored at 1-6°C? serum. Which of the following units should be a. 21 days selected for an intrauterine transfusion? b. 35 days a. group A, D-positive c. 42 days b. group A, D-negative d. 45 days c. group O, D-positive d. group O, D-negative 26. ABO antigens which are A, B and H develop as early as: 34. The purpose of irradiation of blood selected for an a. 2 to 4 years of age exchange transfusion is to prevent: b. 37th day of fetal age a. formation of HLA antibodies c. 3 to 6 months after birth b. sepsis from bacterial contamination d. None of these c. transmission of viruses d. graft-versus-host disease 27. A blood typing was performed; there was an agglutination on blue reagent and no agglutination 35. The rosette test used for screening for a on yellow reagent. What is the blood type? fetomaternal haemorrhage can detect a bleed as a. A small as: b. B a. 5 mL c. AB b. 10 mL d. O c. 15 mL d. 20 mL 28. What is the universal color of LISS reagent? a. yellow 36. Results of a Kleihauer-Betke test determine there b. green was a fetomaternal haemorrhage of 35 mL of whole c. colorless blood during delivery. What is the correct dosage of d. blue RhIG? a. one vial 29. Who developed the gel test? b. two vials a. Gibson c. three vials b. Lewisohn d. four vials c. Dr. Charles Drew d. Dr. Yves Lapierre 37. The minimum amount of fibrinogen in 1 unit of Cryoprecipitated AHF is: 30. In the gel test, a button cells at the bottom of the well a. 150 mg is a: b. 250 mg a. 4+ positive reaction c. 80 IU b. 1+ positive reaction d. 1000 mg c. negative reaction d. invalid reaction 38. Eight units of platelets were pooled without a sterile connecting device. The new expiration is: 31. Which among the immunoglobulin class is uniquely a. 2 hours associated with HDFN? b. 4 hours a. IgG c. 6 hours b. IgA d. 24 hours c. IgM d. IgD 39. Temperature limits for shipping RBCs are: a. 1oC to 6oC 32. HDFN occurs when: b. 1oC to 10oC a. maternal antigens react with fetal antibodies c. 2oC to 8oC b. maternal antibodies react with fetal antigens d. 20oC to 24oC c. fetal antibodies react with maternal antibodies d. fetal antigens react with maternal antigens 40. Although ABO compatibility is preferred, ABO 47. When should quality control be performed on routine incompatibility is acceptable for which of the blood typing reagents? following components? a. at the beginning of each shift a. PF24 b. weekly b. cryoprecipitated AHF c. once every opening of new vial c. apheresis granulocytes d. once a day d. apheresis platelets 48. This type of antibody response is analogous to an 41. Which among the blood phenotypes is the only anamnestic antibody reaction? heterozygous type? a. primary a. group A b. secondary b. group B c. tertiary c. group O d. anaphylactic d. group AB 49. RhIG is indicated for: 42. What blood type is not possible for the offspring of a. mothers who are Rh positive AO and BO parents? b. infants who are Rh negative a. AB c. mothers who are Rh negative b. A or B d. infants who have anti-D c. O d. all are possible 50. Which of the following mothers should receive RhIG? 43. Anti-H will react weakest with blood from a person a. A-negative mother; O-negative baby; no with _______. prenatal care, anti-D in mother a. group O b. AB-negative mother; B-positive baby; anti-D in b. group A1 mother c. group A2 c. O-negative mother; A-positive baby; no anti-D d. group A2B mother d. A-positive mother; A positive baby; no anti-D in 44. The antigens of this blood group system are carried mother by decay accelerating factor (DAF). a. cromer 51. What does a major crossmatch consists of? b. knops a. recipient plasma and donor red cells c. chido/rodgers b. donor plasma and recipient red cells d. colton c. recipient plasma and recipient red cells d. donor plasma and donor red cells 45. During blood donation drive, a woman begins to breathe rapidly. What is the resolution as a Medical 52. Screening cells and major crossmatch are positive Technologist? on IS only, and the autocontrol is negative. Identify a. continue the donation; the woman is just hungry the problem: b. continue the donation and apply cold compress a. cold alloantibody c. discontinue the donation and give the woman a b. cold autoantibdy paper bag c. abnormal protein d. pause the donation and move the blood d. antibody mixture collection to the opposite arm 53. A patient who has a phenotype group AB, D- 46. The temperature of a blood refrigerator without a negative requires 1 unit of plasma. Which of the continuous recording device should be recorded: following units of plasma would be best for a. daily transfusion? b. every 4 hours a. group A, D-negative c. once every 24 hours b. group B, D-positive d. every 1 hour c. group AB, D-positive d. group O, D-negative 54. How often can a blood donor donate whole blood? 60. Polyethylene glycol (PEG) enhances antigen- a. every 24 hours antibody reactions by: b. once a month a. Decreasing zeta potential c. every 8 weeks b. Concentrating antibody by removing water d. twice a year c. Increasing antibody affinity for antigen d. Increasing antibody specificity for antigen 55. When RBCs are stored, there is “shift to the right”. This means: 61. Rh antibodies react best at what temperature? a. hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to a. 15 an increase in 2,3-DPG b. 18 b. hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to c. 22 an decrease in 2,3-DPG d. 37 c. hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to an increase in 2,3-DPG 62. Biochemically speaking, what type of molecules are d. hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to Rh antigens? an decrease in 2,3-DPG a. glycophorins b. simple sugars 56. Which of the following anticoagulant preservatives c. proteins provides storage time of 35 days at 1oC to 6oC for d. lipids units of whole blood and prepared RBCs if an additive solution is not added? 63. Antibodies to antigens in which of the following blood a. ACD-A groups are known for showing dosage effect? b. CPD2D a. I c. CPD b. P d. CPDA-1 c. Kidd d. Lutheran 57. Which of the following occurs during storage of red blood cells? 64. What antigens are strongly expressed on placental a. pH increases tissue, allowing for the adsorption of antibodies b. 2,3-DPG decreases a. cromer c. ATP increases b. knops d. plasma K+ decreases c. diego d. vel 58. After the addition of IgG-coated RBCs (check cells) to a negative AHG reaction during an antibody 65. Which is not included on a properly labelled screen, a negative result is observed. Which of the specimen? following is a correct interpretation based on these a. two unique patient identifiers findings? b. date and time of draw a. The antibody screen is negative. c. phlebotomist’s initials b. The antibody screen cannot be interpreted. d. patient’s home address c. The saline washings were adequate. d. AHG reagent was added. 66. How many days before a pretransfusion specimen expires? 59. After testing with Rh control, the test should yield a. 3 days what reaction in order to be interpreted as valid? b. 7 days a. agglutination c. 14 days b. no agglutination d. 1 month c. sensitization d. lattice formation 67. A patient has a history of anti-Jka. The antibody 73. What should be done first if a mother types as O and screen is currently negative. Which red blood cell the baby types as AB? unit should be selected, and what type of crossmatch a. report the results with no further testing should be performed? b. try to get a sample from a father a. Jk(a-) red blood cells, computer crossmatch c. retype using all new reagents b. Jk(a-) red blood cells, antiglobulin crossmatch d. recheck all labels, get new samples and retest c. Jk(a-) red blood cells, immediate spin crossmatch 74. Which procedure should be used to identify the d. ABO-compatible because the antibody screen is specificity of the IgG antibody attached to red cells? negative a. elution b. adsorption 68. A patient requires 15 units of thawed plasma for an c. prewarming apheresis procedure. The patient’s blood type is O- d. neutralization negative. What donor units could be selected? a. O-negative 75. Based on the following antigram, which cell is b. AB-positive homozygous for N? c. A-negative d. all of the above 69. Which of the following antibodies is classified as “biphasic” and an autoantibody? a. anti-B b. anti-H a. cell 1 c. anti-P b. cell 2 d. anti-Le(a) c. cell 3 d. none of the above 70. Testing for the D antigen was conducted at the IAT phase. A control was included in the testing. Both the 76. A 300-μg dose of RhIG covers a maximum FMH of patient’s red cells and the control tube reacted at 4+. how many millilitres of whole blood? How would you interpret the result? a. 10 mL a. patient is D positive b. 15 mL b. patient is D negative c. 30 mL c. test is invalid d. 50 mL d. test should be repeated and control tube omitted 77. A donor positive for HbSAg is: 71. How many molecules of IgM are needed to fix a. temporarily deferred complement? b. permanently deferred a. 1 c. deferred if the antibody to HBc is also present b. 2 d. deferred if ALT is elevated c. 3 d. 4 78. Which lectin agglutinates A1 red cells? a. Dolichos biflorus 72. An end-point of tube testing other than agglutination b. Ulex europaeus that must also be considered a positive reaction is c. Iberis amara called: d. Bandeiraea simplicifolia a. clumping b. mixed field 79. This transfusion reaction is now considered the c. hemolysis leading cause of transfusion-associated fatalities d. microscopic surpassing ABO incompatibility and bacterial contamination. a. Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Rxn (AHTR)  b. Febrile Non-hemolytic Transfusion Rxn b. blood bank computer system (FNHTR) c. product inserts c. Transfusion Associated with Circulatory d. product catalogs Overload (TACO) d. Transfusion-Related Acute Lung Injury (TRALI) 86. According to Landsteiner’s rule, if a patient has no ABO antibodies after serum testing, what ABO 80. How many days must be a pretransfusion specimen antigens are present on the patient’s red cells? and donor unit segments be retained post- a. A transfusion? b. B a. 3 days c. both A and B b. 7 days d. none c. 14 days d. 1 month 87. When RBCs are stored, there is a “shift to the left.” This means: 81. Part of daily quality control in the blood bank a. hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to laboratory is the testing of reagent antisera with an increase in 2,3-DPG corresponding antigen-positive and antigen- b. hemoglobin-oxygen affinity increases, owing to negative red cells. What does this procedure an decrease in 2,3-DPG ensure? c. hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to a. antibody class an increase in 2,3-DPG b. antibody titer d. hemoglobin-oxygen affinity decreases, owing to c. antibody specificity an decrease in 2,3-DPG d. antibody sensitivity 88. What immunoglobulin class is primarily associated 82. Part of daily quality control in the blood bank with ABO antibodies? laboratory is the testing of reagent antisera with a. IgA corresponding antigen-positive and antigen- b. IgG negative red cells. What does this procedure c. IgE ensure? d. IgM a. antibody class b. antibody titer 89. Which of the following occurs during storage of red c. antibody specificity blood cells? d. antibody sensitivity a. pH decreases b. 2,3-DPG increases 83. RhIG should be administered within how many days c. ATP increases of delivery? d. plasma K+ decreases a. 1 day b. 2 days 90. RBCs must be washed in saline at least three times c. 3 days before the addition of AHG reagent to: d. 4 days a. wash away any hemolyzed cells b. remove traces of free serum globulins 84. Detection of serologic incompatibility between donor c. neutralize any excess AHG reagent RBCs and recipient serum is performed in the: d. increase the antibody binding to antigen a. antibody screen b. crossmatch 91. What are the gene products of the A and B genes? c. DAT a. glycolipids d. autologous control b. glycoproteins c. oligosaccharides 85. Information regarding reagent limitations is located d. transferase enzymes in the: a. SOPs 92. The test for weak D antigen involves: d. electrophoresis chamber a. the IAT 99. Which among the following blood components has b. the DAT the longest shelf-life? c. anti-Du typing sera a. Fresh frozen plasma (FFP) d. anti-D antisera with a LISS potentiator b. Cryoprecipitate c. Platelet concentrate 93. A donor tested D-negative using commercial anti-D d. Frozen RBCs reagent. The weak D test is positive. How should the RBC unit be labelled? 100. What blood group system antibodies are a. D-positive commonly associated with delayed hemolytic b. D-negative reactions? c. D variant a. ABO d. varies with blood bank policy b. Rh c. Kidd 94. Antibodies to the Rh blood group system antigens d. Duffy are usually characterized as: a. naturally occurring IgM --------------------------------- END --------------------------------- b. immune IgG c. immune IgM “Long the night, the dawn will break” d. naturally occurring IgG and IgM 95. Select the antibody that is characteristically clinically insignificant: a. anti-Kp(b) b. anti-S c. anti-Le(b) d. anti-Fy(a) 96. What ABO and D types are selected for RBC units issued to a patient in emergency release? a. group O, D-positive b. group O, D-negative c. group AB, D-positive d. group AB, D-negative 97. Synthetic single-stranded DNA that determines the sequence of DNA for amplification in the PCR reaction is referred to as: a. amplicons b. polymerases c. DNA primer d. Taq polymerases 98. In PCR testing, the initial step involves adding the DNA in question to a mixture of taq polymerase, excess nucleotides, MgCl2, and primers. This mixture is placed in which of the following instruments to allow the amplification to take place? a. flow cytometer b. capillary array sequencer c. thermal cycler