Aircraft Technical and General PDF

Privet Pilot License Aircraft Technical and General Cap/ Ahmed Hamed UNITAS FLYING SCHOOL 1. Ignition of fuel/air mixture in a four-stroke piston engine occurs during the: a. Compression stroke 2. The timing of the ignition o...

Privet Pilot License Aircraft Technical and General Cap/ Ahmed Hamed UNITAS FLYING SCHOOL 1. Ignition of fuel/air mixture in a four-stroke piston engine occurs during the: a. Compression stroke 2. The timing of the ignition of the fuel and air mixture in an internal combustion engine is arranged to occur: a. Between 20° and 25° before TDC during the compression stroke 3. If the RPM of an aircraft's piston engine is increased, the ignition timing will: a. Remain the same 4. In a piston engine, the piston will have passed BDC and be moving towards TDC during: a. The compression and exhaust strokes 5. During the operation of a reciprocating engine the piston is travelling up: a. during both the compression and exhaust strokes, 6. Valve overlap in the four-stroke piston engine will occur between the: a. Exhaust and the induction strokes 7. The correct sequence of the operation four strokes of an internal combustion engine are: a. Induction, compression, power, exhaust 8. The term "valve overlap" refers to: a. the short period that both inlet and exhaust valves are both open around TDC 9. In the four-stroke piston engine, the term valve lag is used to indicate that the: a. Inlet valve closes after the piston has reached the BDC b. the inlet valve closing only once the piston has passed BDC 10. The term "valve lead" refers to: a. the inlet valve opening prior to the piston reaching TDC 11. Application of “alternate air” in a fuel injection system: a. Feeds air from within the engine cowling to the induction system 12. The primary purpose of a cowl-flap is to: a. Control the flow of air over the engine cylinders in order to maintain the correct operating temperature 13. The cylinder head temperature gauge usually obtains its reading from: a. A cylinder which tests show runs the hottest 14. Engine cylinders and barrels are usually fitted with the fins in order to: a. Improve engine cooling 15. The purpose of baffles in the engine compartments is to: a. Direct the airflow over the engine cylinders for better cooling 16. Balancing of the crankshaft of a piston engine is achieved by: a. counter-weights attached to the crank cheeks 17. counter-weights are attached to the crankshaft of an engine in order to: a. Prevent damage from vibrations 18. The crankshaft of a piston engine is balanced by the addition of counter-weights in order to: a. Reduce vibration caused by power impulses on the opposite crankpin 19. Blue smoke appearing from the exhaust pipes of a piston engine which is running is an indication that the engine: a. is burning oil 20. The control of fuel entering the carburettor is achieved by: a. The needle valve and the float chamber 21. The purpose of a needle mixture control in a carburettor is to: a. Regulate the flow of fuel from the float chamber to the diffuser 22. The mixing of fuel and air in a carburettor is achieved: a. By the diffuser 23. The function of a diffuser in a carburettor is to: a. Allow air to mix with the fuel before it is discharged into the venturi as the power is increased 24. Carburettor icing is most likely to occur: a. At the venturi butterfly valve or inlet manifold 25. The presence of carburettor icing would be indicated by: a. The engine starting to run rough and a decrease in RPM 26. An engine which starts to run rough and then slowly loses power is probably suffering from: a. Carburettor icing 27. The pilot of an aircraft which is equipped with manifold pressure gauge would be able to identify the presence of carburettor icing by: a. A decrease in manifold pressure 28. The application of carburettor heat: a. Will also richen the mixture because of the higher air temperature 29. The application of carburettor heat will: a. Air which has been heated by contact with the exhaust pipe to flow into the carburettor venturi 30. When the mixture control lever is moved to the full rich position: a. The amount of fuel entering the inlet manifold will be increased 31. When the mixture control lever is moved to the full lean position: a. The amount of fuel entering the inlet manifold will be decreased 32. Moving the mixture control to the lean position will: a. Reduce the amount of fuel entering the diffuser 33. A fuel pressure gauge is usually incorporated in aircraft fuel systems to measure the pressure of the fuel: a. as it enters the carburettor 34. In respect of piston engine operation, a rich mixture is one where: a. The ratio of air to fuel reduces 35. After starting an engine black smoke is seen coming from the exhaust. This indicates: a. That the mixture is too rich 36. One of the advantages of refuelling an aeroplane with full fuel after flight is that: a. Full tanks will minimise the condensation forming overnight 37. To eliminate the risk of fire when refuelling: a. have an earth lead between ground, fuel truck, fuel nozzle and the aircraft 38. Absorption of water into aviation fuel: a. more likely with cold fuel 39. 100 LL aviation fuel or AVGAS can be identified by its: a. blue colour 40. The fuel supply line from the fuel tank to the engine normally: a. Draws fuel from a position higher than the sump to allow water or other impurities to settle at the bottom of the tank. 41. The purpose of baffles in an aircraft’s fuel tank is to: a. Prevent the fuel from surging about during the flight 42. After about 20 minutes flight with full tanks the engine stops but restarts immediately after selection of another tank, a possible cause was: a. A blocked fuel tank vent 43. Fuel vents are provided in aircraft fuel tanks: a. To allow atmospheric pressure to be retained in the tank as the fuel is used 44. Atmospheric pressure is maintained within the fuel tanks through the use of: a. a fuel vent in the fuel tank cap 45. The type of fuel supply system in which the fuel tank is constructed as an integral part of the wing structure is called: a. a wet wing 46. An aircraft engine is designed to operate on a specific octane rating. Using fuel of a higher octane than recommended may result in: a. Lead fouling of the spark plugs 47. The use of fuel with a lower octane rating than that recommended by the aircraft manufacturer may lead to: a. Detonation 48. Unless approved for use, the use of motor car fuel (MOGAS) in aircraft engines: a. Should not be used because it may result in detonation, reduced power and lead fouling of the spark plugs 49. The most appropriate method to deal with detonation during flight is to: a. Reduce the RPM and rich the mixture 50. Detonation may occur in a piston engine: a. when fuel of too low an octane rating is used 51. A condition which may occur in only one cylinder of an engine as a result of too a lean mixture is: a. Pre-ignition 52. Pre-ignition is likely to occur in a piston engine: a. Where there are hot spots in one or more cylinders. 53. The most appropriate method to deal with pre-ignition in a piston engine during flight is: a. Increase the engine cooling and rich the mixture b. richen the mixture 54. With regard to the engine handling: a. The throttle should be opened and closed smoothly to avoid over- stressing the crankshaft 55. An accelerator pump is often incorporated in a carburettor in order to: a. Provide extra fuel when the throttle is opened rapidly 56. When the throttle is opened quickly, the throttle accelerator pump will: a. Discharge additional fuel into the venture 57. When the throttle is opened from idle to full power rapidly, additional fuel is required to compensate for the increased volume of air. This is provided by: a. The accelerator pump 58. A manually operated primer pump should always be used to prime a cold engine for start because: a. The primer pumps fuel directly into the induction system, whereas pumping the throttle only increases the amount of fuel in the venturi which could ultimately lead to an engine fire b. The primer is more effective than the throttle accelerator pump and will pump more fuel into the venturi as a result 59. Prior to starting the engine of a carburetor equipped aircraft engine the manual primer pump should be used, for easier starting, in order to supply additional fuel: a. Into the induction system close to the inlet valve. 60. he manually operated engine fuel primer pump in carburettor system will deliver fuel into: a. Induction manifold near to the inlet valve. 61. When attempting to start an engine which has been over-primed or flooded: a. The mixture should be in the full lean position until the engine fires and then richened slowly to keep the engine running 62. Lubrication of the main bearings and crankshaft of the engine is provided: a. By both high-pressure oil and splash lubrication 63. The lubricating system of a piston engine normally makes use of: a. A gear type pump combined with splash lubrication. 64. The type of pump utilised in a piston engine to provide high pressure oil lubrication is a: a. Gear type pump 65. The purpose of the pressure relief valve in a lubrication system is to: a. Maintain a constant oil pressure over a range of engine power changes 66. A high oil temperature coupled with low oil pressure: a. Are an indication of low oil supply 67. Dry sump piston engine lubrication systems make use of a scavenge pump to: a. Pump oil from the sump back to the oil tank 68. In a wet sump piston engine lubrication system: a. Oil is stored in the engine sump and distributed throughout the engine by a pressure pump 69. The primary method of cooling oil in a wet sump system is by: a. Ram air through an oil cooler 70. The temperature of the oil in a wet sump lubrication system is usually measured: a. After leaving the oil cooler 71. Normal operation of a piston engine would be indicated on the firing end of a spark plug by: a. A light grey coating 72. The presence of black oily deposits in the firing end cavity of a spark plug would probably indicate: a. that oil is slipping past the piston rings and is being burnt in the combustion chamber 73. The presence of dry, black, powdery carbon in the firing end cavity in a spark plugs would propably indicates: a. that oil is slipping past the piston rings and is being burnt in the combustion chamber 74. The oil in a wet sump lubrication system passes through the oil cooler: a. Before being fed to the engine components 75. An oil pressure gauge is usually located in the oil line of a wet sump system: a. Before the oil enters the engine components 76. An oil pressure gauge is usually located in the oil line of a wet sump system: a. Between the pressure relief valve and the sump 77. The breather pipe on an engine is used to: a. relieve excess sump pressure 78. A hydraulic system operates on the basic principle that: a. When pressure is increased on a confined volume of fluid the increased pressure will be transmitted by the fluid 79. The component of hydraulic system which stores the hydraulic fluid under pressure is called: a. The accumulator 80. An accumulator may be installed in a hydraulic system in order to: a. store unpressurised fluid for use in an emergency 81. A low-pressure filter is usually incorporated in a hydraulic system between: a. The reservoir and the pump 82. A non-pressurized hydraulic fluid reservoir is fitted with an air vent, often in the cap, in order to: a. allow the fluid level to expand and contract as fluid is used in the system 83. The purpose of the vent on a hydraulic fluid reservoir is to: a. Prevent a vacuum from forming by allowing air into the reservoir as the fluid is drawn off 84. Vegetable and mineral hydraulic fluids can be mixed in the same hydraulic system: a. Never 85. The colour of mineral based hydraulic fluid is: a. Red 86. The colour of Vegetable based hydraulic fluid is: a. Blue 87. The colour of Phosphate Ester hydraulic fluid is: a. Purple 88. Loss of pressure in a hydraulic system is indicated to the pilot: a. A warning light usually red 89. The electrical current produced by a magneto: a. Is created by the rotating magnet 90. The purpose of an impulse coupling in a magneto is to: a. Produce a strong retarded spark usually in the left magneto for easier starting 91. An impulse coupling is provided in a magneto to: a. Retard the ignition to compensate for the low RPM during the start 92. In some magneto ignition systems an impulse coupling is used as a method of: a. Producing a strong retarded spark during the low RPM of engine start 93. If the earth wire from a magneto to the aircraft structure is broken: a. The engine will continue to run with the magneto switch in the off position 94. A breakage or disconnection of the magneto earth wire will have the effect of: a. making it impossible to stop the engine by switching off the ignition 95. The purpose of a condenser or a capacitor in a magneto is to: a. Prevent arcing at the points b. Control the flow of high voltage current to the spark plugs 96. A capacitor is incorporated in an electrical circuit to: a. store an electrical charge 97. The function of the distributor in a magneto is to: a. Provide high voltage to the spark plugs 98. In comparison to the generator: a. The power output of an alternator will be greater at a lower RPM 99. In an alternator, the stator: a. remains stationary 100. An operational advantage of the alternator is that it: a. Will still produce electrical power at low RPM 101. A left-zero ammeter is incorporated in an electrical system to: a. Indicate the flow of current from the alternator b. are that only the output of the alternator is shown 102. A centre zero ammeter is incorporated in an electrical system to: a. Indicate the flow of current into and out of battery 103. The indications of a centre-zero ammeter: a. Are that positive indications are shown right of centre. 104. The purpose of an ammeter is to: a. measure the flow of electrical current from the alternator to the battery 105. The supply of electrical power to the engine started motor is a functionof: a. A solenoid located near the starter motor 106. The correct level of electrolyte in a lead acid battery should bemaintained by the addition of: a. Distilled water 107. The electrolyte used in a lead acid battery is composed of: a. Sulphuric acid and pure water. 108. A reverse current flow from the battery to the alternator provided by: a. reverse current cut-out 109. A reverse current cut-out relay, or circuit breaker, is used in a generatorsupplied electrical system to: a. Prevent the flow of current from the battery to the generator 110. Modern aircraft electrical systems generally make use of circuit breakers: a. As a means of preventing the system from becoming overloaded 111. In the event that a circuit breaker in an electrical circuit has tripped: a. It should be pushed back in only once after allowing a cooling off period 112. In the event that a fuse in an electrical circuit has blown: a. It should be replaced only once with a fuse of same value 113. Electrical fuses are graded in: a. Ampere 114. The operating principle of a DC generator is that it: a. It is self-excited and does not require the use of a battery 115. A DC generator: a. is self-excited 116. One of the benefits of the DC generator is that it: a. Does not rely on battery power to bring it on line 117. A voltmeter may be incorporated in an electrical system to: a. Indicate the voltage in the electrical system b. Indicate the system voltage provided by the battery 118. Control of the voltage output from a DC generator is achieved through a: a. Voltage regulator 119. A rectifier in an Alternator is required to: a. Convert AC output into DC 120. Diodes are used in an AC alternator to: a. Convert the AC output to DC 121. The AC output from an alternator is converted to DC by a: a. Rectifier 122. In a DC generator, The AC output is converted into DC through: a. A commutator 123. A transformer is incorporated in a low tension magneto system in order to: a. step up the low voltage to a high voltage before transmission to the spark plug 124. Resistors are used in electrical circuits to: a. Vary the voltage 125. The storage capacity of a battery is usually expressed in: a. Ampere-hours 126. A rating of 20amps/hour means that a battery will provide: a. 20amps for 1 hour 127. A battery rated for 40 amps/hr means it will provide: a. A amps for 10 hours 128. A twenty-four volt lead acid battery would have: a. twelve cells 129. An aircraft’s pitot tube is usually mounted: a. Directly into the airflow 130. Pitot pressure is taken from: a. A tube mounted in the relative airflow 131. Pitot pressure is used in: a. Airspeed indicator 132. The basic principle of an airspeed indicator is to measure the differentialbetween: a. Static and pitot pressure 133. In a simple airspeed indicator: a. Pitot pressure is fed to the capsule 134. In a simple airspeed indicator: a. Static pressure is fed to the case 135. Normal static pressure is taken from: a. A port located in an area of undisturbed air 136. The alternate static source draws air from: a. Within the cockpit 137. Position error of the static vent can be reduced: a. If two interconnected static vents are mounted one on either side of the fuselage 138. The effect of having two static vents located one on either side of an aircraft’s fuselage is that: Many light aircraft are equipped with an alternate static vent. Static pressure is drawn through this vent: a. Position error will be reduced 139. An operational problem of the conventional VSI which does not occur inthe Instantaneous VSI is: a. manoeuvre-induced error 140. The instruments that would be affected by a static vent blockage are: a. The altimeter, airspeed indicator and vertical speed indicator 141. The instruments which would be affected by a blockage in both pitottube and static vent are: a. The altimeter, VSI and ASI 142. If the pitot tube became blocked in flight: a. The ASI reading would remain the same in level flight, irrespective of power changes 143. If, during a level flight, the ASI reading falls to zero: a. The pitot tube becomes blocked and there is a leak in the pitot pressure system 144. If, during level flight, the static vent becomes blocked the ASI will: a. Remain constant 145. A blockage of static vent during a descent would cause the ASI to: a. Over-read 146. If the only static vent becomes blocked in level flight and the aircraft does not climb or descend, the airspeed indicator will: a. continue to show the correct indicated airspeed 147. If the pitot pressure line became blocked during level flight, the airspeed indicator (ASI) reading: a. will remain constant 148. If the pitot pressure line became blocked during level flight and the airspeed indicator (ASI) reading fell to zero: a. there is a leak in the pitot pressure line 149. On an airspeed indicator (ASI) the cautionary range is indicated by: a. A yellow arc 150. The green arc on the airspeed indicator represents: a. The normal operating speed rang 151. On an airspeed indicator (ASI) the full flap stalling speed is indicated by: a. the lower end of the white arc 152. An airspeed indicator is constructed so that: a. static pressure is fed to the instrument case and pitot pressure to the capsule 153. If the alternate static vent, located in the aircraft’s cockpit, is opened in flight in response to a blocked static vent, the ASI will: a. Over-read 154. If the alternate static vent, located in the aircraft’s cockpit, is opened in flight in response to a blocked static vent, the altimeter will: a. Over-read because the cockpit pressure is usually lower than the outside pressure 155. An altimeter is constructed so that: a. The capsule contains a partial vacuum and static pressure is fed to the instrument case 156. The effect of a climb on an altimeter is that: a. the decrease in static pressure will allow the capsule to expand, registering a climb 157. As altitude is increased the capsule inside an altimeter will: a. Expand causing the instrument to show an increase in altitude 158. As altitude is decreased the capsule inside an altimeter will: a. Contract causing the instrument to shown a decrease in altitude 159. Airfield elevation 2800 ft, QNH 1009 hPa. The pressure altitude is: a. 2920 ft 160. An altimeter is indicating 5300ft with QNH 1023 is set, the pressure altitude: a. 500ft 161. An altimeter in an aircraft on the ground at an airfield indicates a pressure altitude of 2200 ft. If the QNH is 1023 hPa, the airfield's elevation is: a. 2500 ft 162. When an aircraft levels out after a rapid descent the altimeter will: a. over-read for a brief period 163. If, during a descent, the static vent becomes blocked the altimeter will: a. Continue to indicate the altitude at which the blockage occurred 164. During the initiation of a climb, the accelerometer in an InstantaneousVertical Speed Indicator will: a. Cause a rapid decrease in static pressure in the capsule 165. The instantaneous vertical speed indicator (IVSI) utilises anaccelerometer to: a. Increase the static pressure of the capsule during the initiation of a descent 166. A vertical speed indicator (VSI) is constructed so that: a. delayed static pressure is supplied to the instrument case and static pressure to the capsule b. Delayed static pressure and direct static pressure 167. The effect of a climb on a vertical speed indicator (VSI) is that:The delayed static pressure fed to the instrument case will allow the capsule to expand, indicating a climb 168. During a climb, the pressure in the capsule of a vertical speed indicator: a. Decrease 169. During a descent, the pressure in the capsule of a vertical speed indicator (VSI) will: a. Increase 170. During a climb, the pressure inside the case of a vertical speed indicator will: a. Decrease at a slower rate than that inside the capsule 171. During a descent, the pressure inside the case of a vertical speed indicator (VSI) will: a. Increase at a slower rate than that inside the capsule 172. If the only static vent becomes blocked during level flight, then during a climb the vertical speed indicator (VSI) will: a. read zero 173. The two properties associated with a spinning gyroscope are: a. Rigidity and precession 174. Rigidity is the term which describes: a. The reluctance of a spinning gyro to turn away from its spinning axis 175. If the mass and rate of rotation of a gyro is increased: a. rigidity will increase 176. Gyroscopic precession means that if a force is applied to a spinning gyroscope: a. The force will be moved through 90deg in the direction of rotation b. the resultant effect of a force which occurs 90° from where it was applied 177. Wear in the bearings and the gimbals as well as air turbulence will have the effect of: a. Causing a real wander of the gyro 178. The vacuum pump, which is engine-driven in most light aircraft: a. sucks air from the gyro instrument case allowing the incoming air to turn the gyro rotor 179. The purpose of the engine driven vacuum pump used in an aircraft's gyroscopic instrument system is to: a. Remove air from the instrument case b. Decrease the pressure within the instrument case 180. Over-speeding of vacuum driven gyro rotor is prevented by: a. A pressure relief valve which is located just before the vacuum pump 181. The gyro rotor of an air driven artificial horizon is maintained in the vertical by: a. The action of the port vanes 182. When the axis of the gyro rotor of an air of driven artificial horizon is in the vertical: a. All four vanes are open by an equal amount 183. The gyro suction gauge will indicate to the pilot that the normal vacuum system pressure: a. Is less than the atmospheric pressure 184. The suction required to operate vacuum driven gyroscopes is usually between: a. 3 - 5 inches of mercury 185. During the engine run-ups, prior to take off, a reading of 2 inches of mercury is indicated on the gyro suction gauge. This means that the gyro instruments: a. Will function erratically 186. The type of gyro used in an Attitude indicator is: a. An earth gyro 187. The gyroscope used in a Direction indicator is a: a. Horizontal axis gyro 188. The Turn indicator makes use of a: a. Rate gyro 189. Some aircrafts make use of electrically driven turn indicator because: a. It provides a valuable back-up instrument should the vacuum pump, or the artificial horizon fail 190. During take-off the error which may be expected from an air-driven Artificial Horizon, or Attitude Indicator: a. Is a temporary error in both pitch and roll 191. With reference to the Attitude Indicator or Artificial Horizon, as an aircraft changes its pitch attitude or bank: a. The gyro remains in the vertical relative to the earth 192. An Artificial Horizon (AH) is so constructed that: a. the vertical axis gyro remains fixed in space and the aircraft pitches and rolls about the gyro 193. An Artificial Horizon (AH) is so constructed that: a. the axis of the gyro is maintained in the vertical by the port vanes 194. During flight the gyro in a Direction Indicator aligns itself with: a. A fixed point in space 195. A Direction Indicator (DI) is so constructed that: a. the horizontal axis aligns itself with a fixed point in space 196. Apparent wander in a Direction Indicator is caused by: a. The rotation of the earth 197. The Direction Indicator is subject to: a. apparent wander caused by the earth's rotation 198. Mealy The directional indictor (DI) should be re-aligned with the magnetic compass: a. Every 10 to 15 minutes during the flight 199. Control of the precession of the gyro in a turn indicator is achieved by: a. The tension of a spring mounted between the gimbal and the case of the instrument 200. If the rotor speed of a turn indicator falls below normal: a. The pointer will show a lower rate of turn 201. If the rotor speed of a turn indicator increases above normal: a. The pointer will show a higher rate of turn 202. The needle of a Turn co-ordinator shows: a. The rate of turn 203. The indications on a turn indicator during a turn to the right whilst taxying is: a. Ball should move to the left and the needle should show a right turn 204. The serviceability of a turn co-ordinator can be checked on the ground whilst taxying by making turns to the left and right, during which: a. the ball will move to the right and the needle to the left during a left turn 205. The serviceability of a Direction Indicator can be checked on the ground whilst taxying by making turns to the left and right, during which: a. In a turn to the right the headings should increase 206. During a level co-ordinated turn, the additional load imposed on the wings is a function of: a. The angle of bank used 207. A fuselage which is constructed to allow the skin to take some of the load is: a. A semi-monocoque structure 208. A semi-monocoque fuselage design is one in which: a. the shape and rigidity of the fuselage is provided by formers and stringers whilst the stressed skin carries part of the load 209. A monocoque airframe structure is one where: a. All flight loads are carried by the outer skin 210. A semi-cantilever monoplane is: a. One where bracing struts mounted at the base of the fuselage are attached to the wings to provide additional support 211. With reference to tab balances: a. a servo tab is connected directly to the pilot controls 212. The most important structural component of a wing is: a. The main spar 213. The primary load carrying component of an aluminium stressed skin wing is: a. The main spar 214. The components of a stressed skin wing which provide both strength and shape are called: a. Ribs. 215. In a Truss or Girder-type fuselage, the main structural component is a: The main longitudinal member in a Truss type of fuselage construction would be: a. Longeron 216. The part of the wing to which the ailerons and flaps are usually attached is the: a. Rear or auxiliary spar 217. Torsion is the term used to describe the load on an airframe: a. caused by twisting 218. The purpose of a torque link on a nose wheel shock strut assembly is to: a. Keep the nose wheel correctly aligned with the airframe 219. Torque links may be incorporated on the shock struts of some undercarriage systems in order to: a. prevent the piston, and the wheel to which it is attached, from rotating within the cylinder 220. A shimmy in the nose wheel whilst taxying indicates that: a. The torque links are worn or have failed 221. Nose wheel shimmy is controlled by: a. a shimmy damper 222. The most likely cause of the over extension of an oleo in an undercarriage leg is: a. High air pressure 223. The most likely cause of the under extension of an oleo in an undercarriage leg is: a. Low air pressure 224. The operation of an oleo leg is based on: a. shock struts comprising a lower chamber containing hydraulic fluid and an upper chamber containing compressed air 225. An over-inflated tyre may result in: a. Excessive tread wear in the centre of the tyre 226. An under-inflated tyre may result in: a. Excessive tread wear on the outside of the tyre 227. Tyre creep may be expected to occur: a. During the normal landing 228. Tyre creep may occur as a result of: a. heavy braking on landing. 229. Tyre creep may cause: a. The inflation valve to break away from the inner tube 230. If the creep marks on the tyres have moved too far out of alignment: a. a blow-out may occur on landing because tyre movement may cause the inflation valve to be broken off from the tube 231. The figure "28" indicated in the tyre size number "28 x 12.00-10" represents: a. the outside diameter 232. A rotating propeller will produce a force which acts in the opposite direction of rotation. This force is called: a. Torque 233. The torque created by a rotating propeller has the effect on the propeller of: a. Bending the blade in the opposite direction to the rotation 234. The helix angle of a propeller is the angle: a. Between the relative airflow and the plane of rotation 235. The blade angle of a propeller varies from hub to tip in order to: a. Ensure that the thrust produced is constant along the propeller blade 236. The reduction in the blade angle of a propeller towards the tip ensures that the thrust is constant along the blade and is referred to as: a. Helical twist 237. During take-off in an aeroplane equipped with a Constant Speed Unit (CSU), it would be most beneficial to have: a. A small blade angle 238. Disregarding the effect of a crosswind during take off in an aeroplane with a tricycle undercarriage and a clockwise rotation propeller (as viewed from the cockpit) there will be tendency for the aeroplane a. yaw the left 239. With reference to fixed pitch propeller: a. A coarse pitch propeller will produce a better cruise performance than a fine pitch propeller 240. The correct sequence for increasing power in an aeroplane with a Constant Speed Unit (CSU) is: a. Richen the mixture, increase the RPM then increase the manifold pressure setting 241. On an aeroplane equipped with constant speed unit (CSU) If the RPM is set (pitch) power is slowly increased the RPM will: a. Remain the same 242. If the speed of an aeroplane fitted with a fixed pitch propeller decreases, but the throttle setting remains constant the RPM will: a. Decrease 243. If A/C, with a fixed pitch propeller, is placed in a shallow dive so that forward speed increases with no change in power setting, RPM will: a. Increase 244. The mandatory periodic inspection (MPl) should be carried out: a. Either once a year or every 100 hours of flight time, whichever comes first 245. A certificate of release to service: a. is issued on completion of an MPI and is valid for 12 months or 100 hours of flight time, whichever comes first 246. The Supplements section of the Aircraft Flight Manual contains information relevant to: a. the operation of optional equipment which has not been installed in a standard aircraft 247. With reference to the documents to be carried on an aeroplane engaged in a domestic flight in South Africa: a. The certificates of registration, airworthiness and release to service as well as a list of visual signals and procedures for use by intercepting aircraft must be carried 248. Details in respect of maintenance carried out on an aeroplane while away from base shall be transferred to the appropriate logbook(s): a. within 48 hours after the return of the aeroplane to its base of operation 249. Details in respect of maintenance carried out on a aeroplane at its base of operation: a. Shall be entered in its logbook(s) within 48 hours of completion of such maintenance 250. Newton’s first law refers to: a. Equilibrium 251. Newton’s second law refers to: a. Acceleration and deceleration 252. Newton’s third law refers to: a. Action and reaction 253. During a normal level flight, the reduction in power will cause the nose of an aeroplane to drop because: a. The centre of gravity is located forward of centre of pressure 254. As the angle of attack of an aerofoil in normal flight is increased, the centre of pressure will: a. Move forward 255. An aircraft which has its CG too far aft would: a. Be difficult to control in pitch 256. If the centre of gravity is moved aft during flight the effect will be: a. To reduce longitudinal stability 257. According to the International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), there is a: a. MSL temperature of 15deg C and lapse rate of 1.98deg C/1000ft up to 36090ft 258. According to International Standard Atmosphere (ISA), the density of air at sea level is: a. 1225 grams per cubic metre 259. The pressure altitude at an airfield is 2800ft and the airfield elevation above sea level is 2500ft. The QNH is: a. 1003hpa 260. The stall warning device, which is usually mounted on the leading edge of a wing, is adjusted to activate the cockpit warning: a. Just before the stall 261. The horizontal stabiliser on the tail boom: a. Helps generate aerodynamic lift to prevent tail boom from dipping 262. In order to remove the aerodynamic forces from the controls, balance tabs are adjusted by the pilot in flight: a. To operate in the opposite direction to the primary control surface to which they are attached 263. An adjustable trim tab when attached to an elevator will, when the elevator is moved: a. Remain in the same position irrespective of the deflection of the control surface 264. The initial effect of uncorrected aileron drag, or adverse aileron yaw is to: a. Cause an initial yaw to the right when rolling left 265. The operation of frise ailerons is such that: a. The hinge line of both ailerons is located slightly aft of their leading edges 266. The effect of slats is to: a. Allow the aeroplane to fly at a higher angle of attack and a lower airspeed 267. The type of flap which, when extended, increases the surface area of the wing is called a: a. Fowler flap. 268. With reference to the figure below, the flap type indicated is: a. Fowler flap 269. With reference to the figure below, the flap type indicated is a: a. Split 270. With reference to the figure below, the flap type indicated is a: a. Slotted flap 271. The diagram below indicates a: a. Balanced turn 272. The diagram below indicates a: a. Slipping turn 273. The diagram below indicates a: a. Skidding turn 274. A magnetic compass is so constructed that: a. bar magnets suspended well below a high pivot point reduce magnetic dip 275. The effect of the magnetic dip in an compass are reduced by: a. Suspending the magnets well below a high pivot point 276. Magnetic dip occurs: a. because of the stronger magnetic attraction close to the magnetic poles 277. Compass deviation in a particular aircraft: a. Varies with each heading 278. The discrepancy between magnetic bearings and compass bearings is a caused by: a. Deviation 279. The effect of acceleration and deceleration error on a magnetic compass in the southern hemisphere is that: a. on a westerly heading the compass would show a decrease in heading as speed is increased 280. The deviation error found in a magnetic compass: a. Is caused by local magnetic fields within the aircraft 281. When executing a turn from 300deg through north to 060deg in the southern hemisphere, using only a magnetic compass, the most appropriate heading to roll out would be: a. 080deg 282. When executing a turn from 160° through south to 210°, in the southern hemisphere, using only a magnetic compass, the most appropriate heading to roll out on would be: a. 190deg 283. In the southern hemisphere, an aircraft is to maintain a constant heading of 090° (M) on a magnetic compass. If the aircraft speed is increased from 80 kts to 110 kts the compass would: a. Show an apparent turn to the south 284. An aircraft is to maintain a constant heading of 360deg in the southern hemisphere, using a magnetic compass. If the airspeed is increased from 90kts to 110kts, the compass would: a. Continue to show the same reading 285. True airspeed is: a. Calibrated or rectified airspeed corrected for temperature and density 286. True airspeed is: a. CAS/RAS corrected for temperature and altitude 287. Calibrated or Rectified airspeed is: a. Indicated airspeed corrected for instrument and position error 288. A person, other than a maintenance engineer, may carry out limited maintenance on an aeroplane with a maximum certificated mass of 5 700 kg or less or a maximum approved passenger seating configuration of nine seats provided that: a. He or she is the holder of at least a private pilot license