AIISH M.Sc.-AUD Entrance Exam 2019 PDF

# All India Institute of Speech and Hearing, Mysuru, M.Sc.-AUD -Entrance Examination 2019 ## Questions 1. As sound intensity is increased by some factor, rms pressure increases by: - Cube root of that factor - Square of that factor - Cube of that factor - Square root of that facto...

# All India Institute of Speech and Hearing, Mysuru, M.Sc.-AUD -Entrance Examination 2019 ## Questions 1. As sound intensity is increased by some factor, rms pressure increases by: - Cube root of that factor - Square of that factor - Cube of that factor - Square root of that factor 2. Most often perforations in the pars flaccid are: - Exotosis - Carcinoma - Cholesteatoma - Glomus jugalaris 3. As frequency increases, difference limen for frequency: - Increases - Decreases - Does not change - Changes randomly 4. Which condition does not typically result in high frequency hearing loss? - Noise induced hearing loss - Presbycusis - Meniere's disease - Acoustic neuroma 5. A 36-year-old man has hearing loss in the left ear, high pitched tinnitus and giddiness. He has normal hearing sensitivity in the right ear. Weber test will lateralize to the: - Right ear - Left ear - Center - Ear with tinnitus 6. Perilympahtic fistula can occur in: - CSOM - Otosclerosis - Barotrauma - Eustachian tube dysfunction 7. The discrepancy between the MAF and MAP is known as: - Ear differences - Missing 6 dB - Hearing differences - Difference limen 8. Which type of hearing loss will have negative Rinne findings? - Unilateral conductive HL - Unilateral SNHL - Bilateral SNHL - Normal hearing 9. According to ____ law, "The amount of change in a stimulus intensity necessary to produce a JND is a constant proportion of the stimulus intensity”. - Steven's law - Newton's law - Weber's law - The law of diminishing returns 10. What is the maximum permissible total harmonic distortion for bone vibrators (ANSI S3.6-2004)? - 1.5% - 2.5% - 10% - 5.5% 11. Ripples or undulations in the tympanogram that are synchronized with the patient's pulse indicate: - Patulous Eustachian tube - Glomus jugular tumor - Pin-hole perforation - Resolving CSOM 12. 3CLT and spatio-temporal dipole models are used to: - Understand the generation sites of AEPS - Obtain frequency specific ABRS - Record near-field ABRS - Estimate signal to noise ratio of AEPS 13. If the compensated peak admittance is 0.8 mmho and the ear canal volume is 1.2 cc at 226 Hz, what is the uncompensated peak admittance? - 1.2 mmhos - 0.4 mmho - 0.8 mmho - 2.0 mmhos 14. In case of unilateral profound hearing loss, the ABR recorded in the poorer ear due to cross-hearing will have an approximate latency of: - 5.6 ms - 5.8 ms - 6.0 ms - 7.0 ms 15. Typically in DP gram, the OAEs are plotted against their: - Fl - F2 - 2F1-F2 - 2F2-F1 16. Which is a horizontal electrode montage? - Cz-M1 - Cz-M2 - Fz-Al - M1-M2 17. Which AEP is elicited using derived band technique? - Complex ABR - MMN - FFR - Stacked ABR 18. CID W-1 speech material is usually used to obtain: - Speech discrimination scores - Speech identification scores - Speech detection threshold - Speech recognition threshold 19. Which is a test for lateralization? - Weber - Rinne - Bing - Schwabach 20. In the Steinberg-Gardner plot, if the angle between the loudness function and the abscissa is less than 45 degrees, it indicates: - Hyperrecruitment - Decruitment - No Recruitment - Complete Recruitment 21. A patient has high frequency dead region starting from 1 kHz. In the same patient, if psychophysical tuning curve (PTC) was determined at 2 kHz, then the tip of PTC would be at: - 2 kHz - A frequency lower than 2 kHz - A frequency higher than 2 kHz - A frequency higher than 4 kHz 22. Given below are the air conduction thresholds, bone conduction thresholds and loudness discomfort levels (LDLs) of a patient evaluated for hyperacusis. Based on Johnson hyperacusis quotient, the patient has ____ degree of hyperacusis. | Frequency (Hz) | AC | BC | LDL | |---|---|---|---| | 250 | 5 | 0 | 65 | | 500 | 10 | 5 | 70 | | 1 | 10 | 10 | 70 | | 2 kHz | 15 | 10 | 75 | | 4 | 10 | 0 | 70 | | 6 | 10 | - | 70 | | 8 kHz | 15 | - | 75 | | Speech | 10 | - | 80 | - Mild - Moderate - Severe - Profound 23. In Feldman Masking curves, if the threshold curve and the masking curve coincide within an intensity difference of less than 10 dB, it is referred to as: - Distance - Persistence - Convergence - Congruence 24. Which vestibular pathology is diagnosed using Dix-Hallpike maneuver? - Meniere's Disease - Vestibular Neuritis - Benign Paroxysmal Positional Vertigo - Vestibular Migraine 25. 'Performance Intensity for Phonetically Balanced (PIPB)' test was administered on 50 patients with confirmed Meniere's disease. Out of them, 30 patients obtained a roll over index (ROI) of <0.45, and 20 patients obtained a ROI of > 0.45. Based on the above data, the sensitivity of PIPB test to identify Meniere's disease is: - 60% - 30% - 20% - 40% 26. Which of the following test does not assess 'binaural separation'? - Synthetic Sentence identification with contralateral competing message - Competing Sentence test - Dichotic CV test - Binaural Fusion test 27. A 45 year old patient has a pure-tone average of 41.25 dB HL, speech recognition threshold of 45 dB HL, speech identification score of 88%, speech perception in noise scores of 60% and the acoustic reflexes are present. Based on the above information, the patient might have: - Moderate retrocochlear hearing loss - Moderate mixed hearing loss - Moderate conductive hearing loss - Moderate cochlear hearing loss 28. The upper two-third of the lateral surface of the auricle is supplied by the: - auricular temporal nerve. - Great auricular nerve - Lesser occipital nerve. - Auricular branch of Vagus 29. The unit of loudness is: - Phon - Sone - dB - Bark 30. The principle behind 'Weber' test is: - Precedence effect. - Cocktail party effect - Hass effect - Stenger effect 31. 2 kHz dip in BC is seen in: - Noise induced hearing loss - Meniere disease - Otosclerosis - Semicircular canal dehiscence 32. The following is a custom hearing aid model: - BTE - RIC - OTE - ITC 33. The number of Carnegie stages in the embryonic period is: - 8 - 23 - 25 - 42 34. A stimulus having a rise time of >2 seconds is usually not associated with: - Decreased heart rate - Looking around - Reduced breathing rate - Startle 35. Birth weight <1500 g as a risk indicator for hearing loss was eliminated from high risk register for the first time in: - JCIH position statement 1994 - JCIH position statement 1982 - JCIH position statement 2000 - JCIH position statement 2007 36. For a child to be referred for detailed assessment for (C)APD, the answer 'yes' on SCAP must appear on at least: - 1 question - 3 questions - 5 questions - 7 questions 37. In a full term baby, the maturation of ABR is complete by: - Birth - 18 months of gestational age - 24 months of gestational age - 33 months of gestational age 38. If the correct expected response to auditory presentation of 1, 3, 4, 5 is 4, the test being used is: - Children's auditory test - Auditory number test - Phoneme detection test - WIPI 39. The test with separate normative values for use in children with cochlear implants is: - Verbal auditory screening test - Early speech perception test - NU-CHIPS - BKB-SIN 40. Which is usually not an advantage of peri-modular electrode array in cochlear implants? - More focused stimulation of ganglion cells - Provides higher current thresholds - Improved frequency discrimination - More energy efficient 41. Intracochlear electrodes of a cochlear implant with excessively high impedance are said to have: - Open circuit - Closed circuit - Short circuit - Partial short circuit 42. The function of the Dacron mesh in auditory brainstem implants is to: - Prevent tissue growth - Unfasten the electrode array from the surface of the neural tissue - Provide stability to the electrode array after implantation - Decrease impedance of the electrode array after implantation 43. The reason for using bipolar stimulation mode less commonly than monopolar stimulation in cochlear implants is that bipolar mode of stimulation: - Results in relatively poorer thresholds - Produces relatively a localized pattern of excitation - Results in relatively better thresholds - Is achieved using two electrodes located within the cochlea 44. The age criteria given by United States Food and Drug Administration for auditory brainstem implants is: - 1 year of age or older - 3 years of age or older - 5 year of age or older - 12 years of age or older 45. Which is not the name of the Electrically Evoked Compound Action Potential given by any of the cochlear implant manufactures? - ART - ESRT - NRI - NRT 46. Which of the following is false? - The sound processor part of auditory brainstem implants is similar to that of cochlear implants - In multichannel cochlear implants, different sites of stimulation generate different pitch perception - Procedure for initial mapping of cochlear implants and auditory brainstem implants are the same - The thresholds in cochlear plants are not as important as the comfort level / MCL 47. The NAL-NL2 prescription is based on the _____ whereas the IHAFF prescription is based on the _____. - Comfortable loudness data; normalization data - Loudness data; threshold data - Threshold data; suprathreshold data - Suprathreshold data; threshold data 48. The measure that is used to predict the real ear response of a hearing aid from a 2 cc coupler response is: - RECD - RESD - EAT - REAR 49. The words 'which', 'witch' and 'wick' are examples of: - Visemes words - Homophonous words - Homophenous words - Phonous words 50. An FM device can be coupled to a hearing aid through: - Headphones - Neckloop - Bluetooth - Channel hopping 51. If a hearing aid user complains that the speech from a distance is easier to understand than speech nearby, then optimize the hearing aid to: - Increase the gain for the loud sounds - Increase the gain for the soft sounds - Reduce the gain for the loud sounds - Couple a vented earmold 52. A cochlear implant cannot be recommended to an ear with severe to profound hearing loss having: - Enlarged vestibular aqueduct - Mondini deformity - Cochlear nerve aplasia - Sparsely ossified cochlea 53. In order to increase the battery life of a hearing aid, which of the following should be done? - Store at room temperature - Store in a refrigerator - Keep in sunlight - Store in a metal box 54. A compression hearing aid provides 100 dB output for a 60 dB input sound. If the knee-point is set at 65 dB SPL and compression ratio is set at 2:1, calculate the output for 70 dB input. - 110.5 dB - 107.5 dB - 105.5 dB - 115 dB 55. Electrical capacity of 675 size battery is ______ whereas for 312 size battery is ______. - 600 mAh, 175 mAh - 700 mAh, 175 mAh - 500 mAh, 175 mAh - 800 mAh, 300 mAh 56. CROS hearing aids used to achieve the benefits of ear level amplification instead of a body worn hearing aid is called: - FROS - CRIS CROS - POWER CROS - BICROS 57. In a dual microphone hearing aid, if the sound arrives at both the microphones at 90 degree simultaneously, it will result in approximately ____ reduction in gain. - 20 dB - 6 dB - 15 dB - 0 dB 58. In a second order directional microphone, low frequency roll-off is as high as: - 5 dB - 12 dB - 23 dB - 37 dB 59. The best method to reduce feedback in digital hearing aids is: - Gain reduction - Notch filter - Feedback path cancellation - Low pass filtering 60. Which is not true with respect to directional microphones? - Two omni directional microphones are required to form adaptive directionality - Microphone matching is essential for directional benefit of adaptive directional microphones - Directional microphones can enhance SNR - Directional microphone boosts low frequencies 61. Which is a standard label for hearing aid batteries? - PR46 - PR47 - PR48 - PR42 62. Which prescriptive formula attempts to achieve loudness normalization utilizing the hearing threshold data? - DSL [i/o] - LGOB - CAMEQ - NAL-NL2 63. Pure-tone sweep is not a preferred stimulus for electro-acoustic measurement, because of: - Intermodulation distortion effect - Blooming artifact - Entrainment artifact - Chirping artifact 64. The standard bone vibrator has a plane circular tip area of: - 175±100 mm² - 170±25 mm² - 175±25 mm² - 170±100 mm² 65. The level per cycle can be computed for noise using the formula: - Overall intensity SPL- 10 log Band width\ - Overall intensity SPL - 20 log Band width - Overall intensity SPL - 1000 Band width - Overall intensity SPL-100 log Band width 66. The mechanical behaviour of the B-71 bone vibrator leads to acoustic radiation at: - 1000 Hz, 2000 Hz, 3000 Hz & 4000 Hz - 2000 Hz, 3000 Hz & 4000 Hz - 4000 Hz - 3000 Hz & 4000 Hz 67. According to Niemeyer (1965), social hearing index is calculated based on the scores obtained at: - 50 dB SPL, 65 dB SPL & 80 dB SPL - 55 dB SPL, 60 dB SPL & 80 dB SPL - 60 dB SPL, 70 dB SPL & 80 dB SPL - 45 dB SPL, 65 dB SPL & 80 dB SPL 68. According to AAOO method, the lower fence considered for calculating percentage of hearing impairment is: - 26 dB - 15 dB - 20 dB - 24 dB 69. According to Studebaker (1967), the interaural attenuation for the mastoid placed bone vibrator for frequencies from 250 Hz to 4000 Hz ranges from: - 0 to 5 dB - 0 to 10 dB - 0 to 15 dB - 0 to 20 dB 70. The best way to help a person with auditory closure difficulties is: - Reduce or remove the noise source - Use ear plugs - Ask the person to avoid noisy environments - Use noise desensitisation 71. According to ASHA (1990 & 1999) recommendation, the symbol 'v' is used to depict: - Unmasked mastoid BC threshold - Masked BC threshold - Unmasked forehead BC threshold - Masked forehead BC threshold 72. In which condition overmasking of pure-tone is likely? - Effective masking level NTE ≥ BCTE + IA - Effective masking level NTE < BCTE + IA - Effective masking level NTE ≤ BCTE + IA - Effective masking level NTE = BCTE + IA 73. RETSPLs are not used for calibration of output through: - Supra aural earphones - Insert earphones - Bone vibrators - Loudspeakers 74. 'LACE' refers to: - Listening and Communication Enhancement - Language and cognitive enhancement - Lip reading ability for communicative exchange - Lip reading activity for communicative education 75. A comprehensive habilitation program for infants and their families without formal lipreading instruction refers to: - Acoupedic approach - Cued speech - IEP - SKI - HI 76. An individual's ability to scan the auditory environment for relevant acoustic signal refers to: - Auditory projection - Auditory summation - Lateralization - Localization 77. The scheme that promotes inclusive education at primary and secondary levels of education is: - ADIP - SSA - IEP - NPPCD 78. A deficit in re-auditorization may manifest as: - Localization deficit - Binaural separation deficit - Hearing loss - Binaural interaction deficit 79. "Guide and coach parents to use natural developmental patterns of audition, speech, language, cognition, and communication" is: - A principle given by Erber - A principle of AVT - A principle of auditory training - A general language training principle 80. A child with an IQ of 60 will be diagnosed as: - Mild Intellectual Disability - Moderate Intellectual Disability - Profound Intellectual Disability - Severe Intellectual Disability 81. Piaget has proposed ____ stages of cognitive development. - 4 - 6 - 3 - 5 82. Learning means establishment of association between the stimulus and response through: - Reinforcement - Punishment - Motivation - Environment 83. A 2cc coupler is not considered to be a good approximation of the average adult ear canal because: - The residual volume of adult ear canal is not 2cc - The acoustic impedance of the residual ear canal volume changes at high frequency - The acoustic impedance of the residual ear canal volume changes at low frequency - The residual volume of adult ear canal varies with frequency 84. As per the standard ANSI S 1.4-1983, the standard frequency weighting curve that is flat over the frequency range of 31.6 Hz to 8000 Hz is: - A weighting curve - B weighting curve - C weighting curve - D weighting curve 85. If the reverberation time is 5.0 sec and the volume of the room is 2000 m³, what is the total absorption in the room measured in metric Sabins equal to: - 5.44 - 4.44 - 3.44 - 6.44 86. The loudness of a 500 Hz tone if loudness level is 64 phons for the sound pressure level of 60 dB is: - 6 sones - 10 sones - 4 sones - 2 sones 87. Atresia of the external ear is caused by the failure of the _____ groove to develop or canalize. - II Brachial - III Brachial - I Brachial - IV Brachial 88. Impetigo is a staphylococci infection of the superficial layer of the: - Tympanic membrane - Auricle - Auditory tube - Eustachian tube 89. Glue ear is also known as: - Serous otitis media - Chronic suppurative otitis media - Acute Mastoiditis - Acute suppurative otitis media 90. The common site of otosclerosis is: - Round window - Oval window - Utricle - Umbo 91. Angular movement is sensed by: - Cochlea - Utricle - Saccule - Semi circular canals 92. Nasopharyngeal tonsil is also called: - Palatine tonsil - Adenoids - Faucial tonsil - Lingual tonsil 93. The rejection of a true null hypothesis is: - Power of the test - Type II error - Confidence level - Type I error 94. The algebraic sum of the deviations of the individual items from the arithmetic average is always: - Infinity - One - Zero - Average itself 95. Mitotic cell division results in two cells that have ____ chromosomes and are _____ genetically _____. - 2n, genetically identical - n, genetically identical - n, genetically different - 2n, genetically different 96. Type II error refers to: - False Negative - True Positive - False Positive - True Negative 97. A graphical representation of the effect size of an intervention against a measure of study size in meta-analysis is: - Forest plan - Funnel plot - Pie chart - Histogram - Consumer Protection Act - National Trust Act - Rights of Persons with Disability Act - Rehabilitation Council of India Act 99. Most of the sensory and motor nerve fibers crossover at the level of _____ in the brainstem: - Medulla oblongata - Pons & Medulla oblongata - Pons - Medulla oblongata and cerebellum 100. Gyri of Heschl lies in the: - Frontal lobe - Temporal lobe - Occipital lobe - Parietal Lobe 98. In which Act, the major aim is to appoint guardianship? ==End of OCR for page 9==