Academy Final Test Review PDF

**Academy Final Test Review** 200 questions total: 50 CRS 50 Patrol Procedures 25 Intro to criminal justice 20 Arrest control 15 Human/Victims right 10 Investigative 10 Communications 10 Firearms 5 Community policing 4 TCCC 1 Wellness 1. Rule 41.1 is? a. Colorado Rule 41.1 of the...

**Academy Final Test Review** 200 questions total: 50 CRS 50 Patrol Procedures 25 Intro to criminal justice 20 Arrest control 15 Human/Victims right 10 Investigative 10 Communications 10 Firearms 5 Community policing 4 TCCC 1 Wellness 1. Rule 41.1 is? a. Colorado Rule 41.1 of the Rules of Criminal Procedure outlines the process for obtaining a **court order for a suspect\'s non-testimonial identification** b. Warrant required for DNA, Fingerprints, etc. i. A court order will be needed to collect a reference standard from a non-consenting suspect. 2. Who can issue an emergency protection order? c. **A judge** may order if there is strong belief the victim is in danger, but the suspect cannot be arrested ii. Must be verbally served to the suspect by the issuing jurisdiction iii. Enforced for 72 hours 3. If the law is enacted by Congress, what kind of law is it? d. Statutory law (C.R.S.) iv. State: enacted by the Colorado General Assembly (e.g., C.R.S. § 18-1-602). e. **Federal Law: enacted by Congress** 4. When does Governmental Immunity cover you? f. Governmental employees are immune from suit for acts or omissions occurring **during the performance of their duties** and within the scope of their employment unless the act or omission causing such injury was willful and wanton. C.R.S. § 24-10-118(2)(a). 5. Define "Drawer"? g. **Person, whether real or fictitious, whose name appears on a check as the obligator.** 6. If someone throws a stink bomb in their teachers' car? h. **Criminal use of a noxious substance**. v. Any person who deposits on the land or in the building **or vehicle of another**, **without the other person's consent**, any stink bomb or device, irritant, or offensive-smelling substance **with the intent to interfere with another's use or enjoyment of the land, building, or vehicle** commits a civil infraction. 7. When entering a turn at a high speed, it is best to? i. **Brake early so you are not trying to break in the turn.** 8. Who can lawfully park in a disabled parking spot? j. **A person with a disability** may use reserved parking on public property or private property if the person **displays an identifying plate or placard** while using reserved parking. k. **A person is parking the vehicle for the direct benefit of a person with a disability** **and an identifying plate or placard is displayed.** 9. What is 1^st^ Degree Burglary? l. **[Knowingly ]** vi. Unlawfully **([entered) (remained in) a building or occupied structure]** vii. **With the [intent ]** viii. **[To commit a crime therein]** (except trespass) m. **[AND]** ix. The offender or other participant **[assaults or menaces] any person [AND/OR] is [armed with explosives or a deadly weapon]** while the offender is: a. Entering the building, b. In the building or occupied structure, or c. During the flight there from. 10. What is 3^rd^ degree Assault? n. **The person [knowingly or recklessly] causes [bodily injury] to another person or with [criminal negligence] the person causes [bodily injury to another person by means of a deadly weapon]** 11. Means to transfer, pass, or deliver, or attempt or cause to be transferred, passed, or delivered, to another person any written instrument, article, or thing. o. **Utter** 12. **Possesses** any explosive, tool, instrument, or other article adapted, designed, or commonly used for committing or facilitating the commission of an offense involving forcible entry into premises or theft by a physical taking, **and intends to use the thing possessed, or knows that some person intends to use the thing possessed, in the commission of such an offense.** p. **Possession of burglary tools** 13. What is "contact damage" in regard to a traffic accident investigation? q. **Damage to any part of a motor vehicle by direct contact with some object.** 14. **After deliberation and with the intent** to cause the death of a person other than themselves, they cause the death of that person, or of another person. r. **1^st^ Degree Murder** 15. The offender distributed/dispensed/sold a controlled substance to a person [under 18 on school grounds] and the death of such person was caused by the use of the controlled substance. s. **1^st^ Degree Murder** 16. Mark hits a stop sign and drives away without notifying anyone. Mark is in violation of what traffic offense? t. **Duty upon striking highway fixtures or traffic control devices** 17. Knowingly and unlawfully entered or remained upon the premises of another which were enclosed in a manner designed to keep intruders out of or fenced OR the common areas of a hotel/motel/condominium/apartment building OR enters or remains in a motor vehicle of another. u. **2^nd^ degree criminal trespass** 18. **With intent** to defraud a creditor or debtor with any collateral in a security interest, the person commits: v. **Defrauding a secured creditor or debtor** 19. Grounds for issuing a search warrant that allows that property to be searched and seized, includes any property: w. **Is stolen or embezzled, intended for use in committing a crime, has been used in a crime, is illegal to possess, or is considered material evidence in a criminal prosecution.** 20. When photographing people, it's just as important to photograph non-injured areas as it is to photograph injured areas. x. **True** 21. With intent to hinder, delay, or prevent the discovery, detection, apprehension, prosecution, conviction, or punishment of another for the commission of a crime, he renders assistance to such person. y. **Accessory to crime** 22. 3^rd^ Degree Criminal Trespass z. **Unlawfully entered or remained upon any premises of another** 23. When is overtaking a vehicle on the left permitted? a. **When the vehicle overtaken is making or giving an indication of making a right turn upon a straight marked for two or more lanes in each direction.** 24. Knowingly Set fire to, burns, causes to be burned **any building or occupied structure** of another without the owner's consent. b. **1^st^ Degree Arson** 25. With intent to cause serious bodily injury, caused serious bodily injury, by means of a deadly weapon. c. **1^st^ Degree Assault** 26. When you run a red light, you violate which traffic code? d. **Obedience to official traffic control devices** 27. When you're halfway through the intersection and it turns red? e. **No Violation** 28. Knowingly provided shelter to a minor without consent of the minor's parent or guardian. f. **Harboring a Minor** 29. Substances listed under the schedule of the uniform control substance act have minimally accepted medical uses with severe prescriptions. g. **Schedule II** 30. Recklessly causes the death of another person. h. **Manslaughter** 31. Who can approve a search warrant? i. **A Judge** 32. How many days can a vehicle be abandoned before it's a crime? j. **7 days** 33. At a fatal traffic accident scene, who can move the body? k. **The coroner** 34. Person who **defaces** or destroys any **written instrument** evidencing a property right, whether vested or contingent, with the intent to defraud. l. **Defacing or destruction of written instruments** 35. What supreme court case addresses de-escalation and whether there was any effort made by the officer to temper or limit the amount of force? m. **Kingsley v. Hendrickson** 36. Any person, **knowing he has insufficient funds with the drawee**, who, **with intent to defraud**, issues a check for the payment of services, wages, salary, commissions, labor, rent, money, property, or other thing of value. n. **Fraud by check**. 37. Can an officer use a chokehold? o. **No** 38. What is "trace" evidence? p. **Hairs, Fibers, DNA** 39. What are the 2-types of DNA? q. **Mitochondrial and Nuclear** 40. Mandatory sentence for violent crime? r. **At least the midpoint in, but not more than twice the maximum of, the presumptive range provided for such offense.** 41. What is a schematic sketch? s. **Illustrates a ['chain of events'], shows movement, paths, direction of travel, etc.** 42. A deputy notifying a death investigation? t. **Notify a supervisor** 43. Your initial estimate of any crime scene boundary should be: u. **DOUBLED** 44. What is a polar coordinate in relation to a crime scene? v. **It is not a common method of placing evidence.** 45. If life size photographs are to be made, the object or the evidence should be measured with: w. **A Scale** 46. What can be an identifying shot in crime scene photography? x. **Street Signs, House Numbers, Business Signs, Mile Markers, GPS Coordinates** 47. What does a finished diagram contain? y. **Title block (heading), Legend, diagram area** 48. Do you remove the noose and knots tied around fixtures in a suicide? z. **No** 49. What is a bird's eye view sketch? a. **Floor plan sketch** 50. At a crime scene what kind of photograph ranges should be taken? b. **Overall, Evidence-establishing (Mid-range), Close-up, Examination quality** 51. What is required in a police report? c. **Factual Evidence and Objective information** 52. What is the purpose of verbal communication? d. **To generate voluntary compliance** 53. Most important concept for law enforcement's role in conflict management? e. **Safety** 54. Three great Arts of Communication f. **Representation** g. **Translation** h. **Mediation** 55. In relation to leadership, Aggressive means: i. **Mitigate risk and solve problems, commit to a resolution** 56. Verbal communication can reduce liability because: j. **Reduces the need for an officer to take any physical action** 57. Incapable of making informed decisions about or providing for his or her essential needs without significant supervision and assistance from other people. k. **Gravely Disabled** 58. How long can a person be in custody without a court order? l. **24 hours in a correctional facility, excluding weekends, if no treatment facility is available, and examined every 12 hours.** m. **72 hours in a treatment facility, excluding weekends, if there are no evaluation or treatment services on those days.** 59. As a LE officer you are responsible for protecting the rights of: n. **Everyone** 60. A lawful representative o. **Any person who is designated by the victim or appointed by the court to act in the best interests of the victim.** 61. What year was the "Victims' Rights Act" signed into law? p. **1993** 62. How long can a person be held for a mental health evaluation? q. **72 hours** 63. What's a critical function of a victim's right advocate? r. **Provide resources for the victim, 24/7** 64. What is considered a critical stage covered in the Victim's Right Act? s. **Filing of charges, Any Hearing, The Trial, Sentencing, Appeals, etc.** 65. Who cannot invoke an emergency mental health hold? t. **Clergy** 66. What are the reasons victims of domestic violence stay? u. **Has poor self-image, puts up with abusive behavior, is economically and emotionally dependent on the abuser, is uncertain of his or her own needs, etc.** 67. After the initial contact between the victim and LE agency, the agency responsible for investigating the crime is required to provide what information in writing? v. **Availability of protection for the victim** w. **A statement of the victims' rights** 68. True or False: Victims have the right to be informed of the death of the inmate while in custody? x. **True** 69. True or False: Victims have the right to be informed of the location and telephone number of the offenders probation department? y. **True** 70. What of the following are not a category of disability? z. Permanent a. Temporary b. Aging c. **Gravely** 71. A sheriff or police who violate the provisions of taking a juvenile into custody may be subject to a civil fine of? d. **\$1,000, based on prior violation** 72. What is ICS? e. **Incident Command System** 73. When is ICS used? f. **Meet the needs of incidents of any kind or size** 74. Probable cause is used for: g. **Make an arrest** h. **Search a location** 75. Gang terms of the crips: i. **Cuz or Cuzz** 76. 4 phases of RED are j. **Getting to the site** k. **Breaching the entrance** l. **Moving to the threat** m. **Stopping the threat** 77. Term meaning "Rapidly evolving with the Subjects action": n. **Dynamic, not static.** 78. What is the Triad of Tactical Thinking? o. **Problem Area:** Person/Object/or site which may be a hazard p. **Area of Responsibility:** Exact location in the problem area where an attack may come from q. **Focus Point:** Clear and Present Threat that must be immediately controlled 79. What behaviors are associated with crisis situations? r. **Expressive** s. **High risk** 80. What are the crisis rehearsal guidelines: t. **Do it in a relaxed state.** u. **Be very detailed in the imagery** v. **Select a response that is effective and that you can perform and [see yourself doing].** w. **[Always] visualize a "win" never a loss.** 81. In the gang world, Which gang is represented by a 6-pointed star? x. **Folk nation** 82. The running presence of several officers may indicate: y. **A Stop** 83. What is vital to achieve skilled perception? z. **Context** 84. Reasonable suspicion regarding a suspect, you are allowed to: a. **Detain the suspect briefly for further investigation** b. **May obtain the suspects ID (if available), name, DOB, Address and reasonable explanation of suspects actions.** 85. True or False: Can you swap in bullets for personal use? c. **False** 86. What is an element of Basic human perception? d. **Hearing, Sight, Touch** 87. True or False: Fear is an element of Basic Human perception? e. **False** 88. What is Fitt's Law? f. **The law that states accuracy will diminish when speed is essential to performance.** 89. The active, and professed refusal of a citizen to obey certain laws, demands, orders or commands of a government. g. **Civil Disobedience** 90. During the response to an active killer, suppressive fire may be used as a last resort when: h. **Stopping deadly behavior while moving under fire** i. **During officer/citizen rescue operations** j. **To gain tactical advantage** 91. True or False: Suppressive fire can be used to determine the location of the killer? k. **False** 92. True or False: Dedicated traffic enforcement is an example of reactive patrol? l. **False** 93. What can you do personally that demonstrates your commitment to duty for those that you lead? m. **Be prepared to step out of a tactical role to assume a leadership role.** 94. When discharging impact projectiles, what is acceptable target? n. **Large Muscle Groups** 95. Regarding the awareness conditions, what is Condition Red: o. **Flight or Fight, engaged in combat (actively in a fight UOF)** 96. Hazardous material is defined as p. **Substances that pose an unreasonable risk to people, environment and property** 97. Regarding the awareness conditions, what is Condition Yellow: q. **Relaxed awareness, aware of environment, easy to maintain.** 98. Who is responsible for the Record of negotiations, regarding CNU r. **The Scribe** 99. True or False: A LE Officer may check anyone for weapons? s. **False** 100. Tactical Breathing, Crisis Rehearsal, and Positive Self Talk are examples of: t. **Effective stress management** 101. A person commits inciting riot if he: u. **Incites or urges a group of five or more persons to engage in a current or impending riot.** 102. Deliberate release of toxic gas, liquid or solid that can poison people and the environment: v. **Chemical attack** 103. When striking with a baton, you should aim for: w. **Large muscle groups** 104. Many is not most armed encounters to place at a distance of: x. **7 yards or less** 105. Name the different types of traffic stops. y. **High risk** z. **Unknown** 106. The 14th Amendment a. **Requires States to uphold rights and privileges to citizens** b. **Requires that States NOT deprive citizens of life, liberty or property without [Due Process of law.]** c. **Requires States to uphold "equal protection of the laws"** 107. The 4th amendment d. **"The right of the people to be secure in their persons, houses, papers and effects, against [unreasonable searches and seizures], shall not be violated, and no Warrants shall issue, but upon probable cause, supported by Oath or affirmation, and particularly describing the place to be searched, and the persons or things to seized."** 108. The 8th amendment e. **"[Excessive bail] shall not be required, nor excessive fines imposed, [nor cruel and unusual punishments inflicted.]"** 109. Which court handles the first appearance for a Misdemeanor DV? f. **County court** 110. Which part of the criminal justice system is overseen by jusdges g. **The Courts** 111. The preliminary hearing must be held within: h. **30 days** 112. Municipal court has jurisdiction over: i. **City** 113. The 6^th^ amendment j. **Fair and Speedy Trial** k. **"In all criminal prosecutions, the accused shall enjoy [the right to a speedy and public trial], by an impartial jury of the State and district wherein the crime shall have been committed, which district shall have been previously ascertained by law, and to be informed of the nature and cause of the accusation; to be confronted with the witnesses against him; to have compulsory process for obtaining witnesses in his favor, and to have the Assistance of counsel for his defense."** 114. When 9 out of 12 jurors on a grand jury find probable cause to indict, this is known as: l. **True bill** 115. What is the legal code of Colorado? m. **(C.R.S.) Colorado Revised Statutes** 116. The 2^nd^ amendment n. **The right to bear arms** o. **"A well-regulated militia, being necessary to the security of a free state[, the right of the people to keep and bear arms], shall not be infringed."** 117. The 5^th^ amendment p. **Self-incrimination** q. **"No person shall be held to answer for a capital, or otherwise infamous crime, unless on a presentment or indictment of a Grand Jury, except in cases arising in the land or naval forces, or in the Militia, when in actual service in time of War or public danger; [nor shall any person be subject for the same offence to be twice put in jeopardy of life, or limb; nor shall be compelled in any criminal case to be a witness against himself,] nor be deprived of life, liberty, or property, without due process of law; nor shall private property be taken for public use, without just compensation."** 118. The first 10 amendments of the constitution: r. **The Bill of Rights** 119. Decision making is defined as: s. **Selecting from choices after critical thought.** 120. Overall goal of TCCC? t. **To perform the [*correct intervention* at the *correct time*] in the continuum of Tactical Trauma Care** u. **To Prevent additional Casualties** 121. What is not a goal of TCCC? v. **Provide Suppressive Fire** 122. Phases of TCCC? w. **Care under fire** x. **Tactical Field Care** y. **Tactical Evacuation Care** 123. What is M.A.R.C.H. z. **Massive Hemorrhage** a. **Airway, Alertness** b. **Respirations** c. **Circulation** d. **Hypothermia** 124. What is T.H.R.E.A.T. e. **Threat Suppression / Elimination of Enemy** f. **Hemorrhage Control** g. **Rapid Extrication to Safety or Cover** h. **Assessment by Medical Providers or Trained Officers until higher medical care arrives** i. **Transport to Definitive Care** 125. 6 P.O.S.T. approved handheld flashlight positions j. **F.B.I.** k. **Neck/Body Index** l. **Crossed** m. **Uncrossed** n. **Stacked** o. **Wrapped Finger** 126. Regarding your firearm, what is the first steps to clear any stoppage? p. **Immediate action (Move-Tap-Rack)** 127. What is not a proper use of your flashlight? q. **Directing traffic** 128. In Hyperactive delirium syndrome with severe agitation, (formerly excited delirium) What collectively causes the highest level of chemical arousal? r. **Hitting and kicking for 30 Seconds** 129. Range of response continuums at agencies Use of Force Policies and Procedures fail the Graham standard because? s. They provide a precise definition of mechanical application to Use of Force. 130. Graham v. Connor t. **The Objective Reasonableness standard is the analysis that will be used to evaluate all use of force, deadly and non-deadly, as outlined in the Supreme Court's decision in *Graham v Connor.*** u. **It will be dependent on the facts and circumstances confronting officers in each particular case at the time of the use of force [without regard to their underlying intent or motivation]*.*** v. **3-Prong Test -- In order to potentially use force on a subject, you must have one of the three prongs:** x. **The severity of the crime at issue.** xi. **Does the suspect pose an immediate threat to the safety of officers or others.** xii. **Is the suspect actively resisting arrest or attempting to evade arrest by flight.** w. **Must take into consideration that officers are often forced to make split second decisions in circumstances that are tense, uncertain, and rapidly evolving.** x. **Must be judged from on-scene perspective; not 20/20 hindsight** 131. Examples of recovery positions? y. **Lying on their side, sitting, standing, etc.** 132. Kingsley v. Hendrickson z. **Objective Reasonableness** a. **When you have time and its [feasible] you must de-escalate.** 133. Determining is the Officers force was reasonable b. **(QQT) Quality, Quantity, Timeliness** 134. Three elements of non-deadly force? c. **(AOI) Ability, Opportunity, Intent (All 3 must be present to use force)** 135. Tennessee v. Gardner d. **Must give warning where feasible, when it doesn't place you or someone else in immediate danger.** 136. A deputy waiting for backup is an example of: e. **Tactical De-Escalation** 137. Effective community policing strategies f. **Organizational Transformations** g. **Community Partnerships** h. **Shared Problem Solving** 138. CPTED i. **Crime Prevention Through Environmental Design** 139. Sir Robert Peel j. **Father of Law Enforcement** k. **Peel's Nine Principles of Policing** 140. A Call Screen is a good Substitute for: l. **Nothing** 141. **The 1^st^ Amendment** m. **"Congress shall make no law respecting an establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof; or abridging the freedom of speech, or of the press; or the right of the people peaceably to assemble, and to petition the government for a redress of grievances."** 142. How do we achieve room domination? n. **Acquire flash sight picture** o. **Check diminished** p. **Step 45** q. **Step Center** r. **Clear immediate threat area** s. **Clear corners** t. **Conduct primary and secondary sweep** u. **Post rear security ASAP** 143. CNU who is the support? v. **Secondary** 144. What are some factors for reasonable suspicion? w. **Time of day** x. **Clothing** y. **Suspects Actions** z. **Knowledge of the suspect** 145. When using active listening skills what should we [NOT] do? a. **Talk in an authoritive tone** 146. Evidence that justifies an officer in stopping and questioning an individual believed to be involved in criminal activity, is? b. **Reasonable Suspicion** 147. Any person who causes the death of another person by conduct amounting to *criminal negligence *commits criminally negligent homicide" c. **Criminally negligent homicide**