AASA-UNSW Aerodynamics & Systems Practice Exam 1 PDF

01 05 19 REVISED EDITION  Syllabus ATPL – Aerodynamics & Systems Subject End of course practice exams Unit Code AASA...

01 05 19 REVISED EDITION  Syllabus ATPL – Aerodynamics & Systems Subject End of course practice exams Unit Code AASA Topic EXAM 1 UNSW Version 2.0 Form No RJK 01 11 17 1. Highest temp in a gas turbine engine is: a. In the primary (front) part of the combustion chamber b. In the dilution area of the combustion chamber c. At the first stage turbine nozzle guide vane d. At the jet propelling nozzle 2. The HOT battery bus is powered: a. Only by the aircraft battery b. When any battery is connected to the aircraft c. By the ground service supply 3. Which is NOT an element of anti-skid? a. Tire lockup b. Landing protection c. Takeoff protection d. Pneumatic reserve braking 4. Compared to a turbojet (pure jet) of the same thrust output, the high-pressure turbine of a turbo- fan would be: a. Larger due to the reduced mass airflow b. Larger due to the increased mass airflow c. Smaller due to the increased mass airflow d. Smaller due to the reduced mass airflow 5. Which one is NOT an air data computer output? a. Vertical speed b. Altitude c. Indicated airspeed d. Pitch attitude 6. The nose wheel steering follow-up does what? a. Applies the brakes during the retraction cycle b. De-pressurises the landing gear extension/retraction hydraulic lines once the up-lock is in place c. Commands the steering valve to select the nose-wheel in neutral during gear retraction Page 1 of 10 7. With respect to a shockwave on a conventional wing section, which answer best describes the characteristics of the airflow ahead and behind the ‘normal’ shockwave? a. Sub-sonic ahead of shock, supersonic behind, with change of airflow direction b. Supersonic ahead and behind the shockwave, with no change in airflow direction c. Super-sonic ahead of the shockwave, sub-sonic behind, with no change in airflow direction 8. Throttle is set during a climb in a turbo jet aircraft. Which element is maintained as the aircraft climbs? a. EPR b. Fan speed (N1) c. EGT 9. Vortex generators on a horizontal stabilizer primarily does what? a. To reduce turbulent flow separation, and preserve elevator authority at all flight speeds. b. To enhance stability around the normal axis c. To reduce shock induced flow separation effecting the rudder authority d. Reduce induced drag 10. Which answer best describes the effect of dissolved water in Avtur fuel? a. Reduces specific gravity, causes microbial infestations, and sludge b. Increases SG, and causes corrosion c. Decreases SG, and causes corrosion 11. Tyres must be replaced when: a. There is a bulge in the tread b. It is cut to the tread limit c. It has a flat spot 12. Air conditioner load on an engine can be relieved by: a. Increasing the amount of air that is bled by activating the anti-ice system on “high” b. Decreasing the demanded engine RPM or EPR c. Selecting the re-circulation fans on the air conditioner controller to on 13. Body gear when fitted: a. Is not steerable b. Turns in the opposite direction to the nose gear to reduce tyre scuffing c. Turns in the same direction as the nose gear to reduce tyre scuffing d. Cannot be fitted with brakes Page 2 of 10 14. Spiral instability is worst when? a. Directional stability is high compared to lateral stability b. Lateral stability is high compared to directional stability c. Directional and lateral stability are equal 15. Climbing at a constant CAS, you would expect Mach number and TAS to: a. Both to increase b. Both to decrease c. Both remain unchanged d. Mach number to rise, TAS to decrease e. Mach number to decrease, TAS to increase 16. Climbing at a constant speed just below VMO, you would expect: a. The MMO value to eventually be exceeded b. No exceedance of either VMO or MMO c. The manoeuvre margin between high and low speed stall buffet to increase 17. To reduce the VMCG speed you could: a. Increase the take off thrust setting, and/or move the C of G forward b. Decrease the take off thrust setting, and/or seat pax further aft c. Increase the take off thrust setting, and/or move the C of G rearward d. Decrease the take off thrust setting, and/or move the C of G forward 18. A high-density altitude affects the VMCG speed in what way? a. Increase it b. Decrease it c. Leave its value unchanged 19. With the loss of the right engine, which statement is most correct? a. With a bank toward the live engine, less rudder deflection will be needed, and the skid ball will be slightly displaced to the live engine side b. With a bank toward the live engine, more rudder deflection will be needed, and the skid ball will be centred c. With wings level, less rudder deflection is needed, and the skid ball will be slightly displaced to the live engine side Page 3 of 10 20. In aircraft with two engines mounted in pods beneath the wing, and one tail mounted engine with its thrust line up high (e.g. DC10) failure of the left wing mounted engine would see: a. A requirement for pitch up trim, a yaw to the right, left rudder trim required b. A requirement for pitch up trim, a yaw to the left, right rudder trim required c. A requirement for pitch down trim, a yaw to the left, right rudder trim required d. A requirement for pitch down trim, a yaw to the right, right rudder trim required 21. Regarding factors affecting VMCA, which statement is MOST correct? a. High density altitude, dihedral, and skid induced blanketing of the live engine wing, reduce VMCA values b. Low density altitude, anhedral, and a rearward C of G reduce VMCA values c. Dihedral, banking toward a failed engine, and large tailfin, increase VMCA value 22. Which statement is MOST correct about drag? a. Induced drag is greatest at high airspeeds, just below MCRIT b. Parasite drag is greatest at low airspeeds, just approaching the stall c. Induced drag is highest at the angle of attack for maximum lift 23. Compared to a conventional wing a laminar flow wing has its position of maximum camber: a. Further forward b. Further rearward c. At the same point, only the thickness/chord ratio is different 24. In comparing MCRIT and MCDR of a supercritical wing to a conventional cambered wing: a. MCRIT is higher, and MCDR lower b. MCRIT lower and MCDR higher c. MCRIT and MCDR are both higher 25. Which statement is MOST correct? a. Washout is used on swept wings. The angle of incidence is less at the root than at the tips, which in turn causes the roots to stall before the tips b. Fences and saw tooth leading edges are employed to reduce span-wise flow at low A of A c. Shark teeth or stall strips are fitted to the leading edges near the wing roots to stall first, and provide more stable static longitudinal stability at the stall 26. Shortly after takeoff, a swept wing aircraft encounters a downdraft. Best recovery technique would be to: a. Maintain airspeed, even if it means increasing vertical sink rate b. Lower aircraft nose to prevent stall, then zoom climb using high alpha c. Raise aircraft alpha to just less than stick-shaker speed Page 4 of 10 27. Which statement best describes the properties of slots and LE flaps? a. Slots increases the camber, and re-energise the boundary layer near the leading edge b. LE flaps increase the camber, and re-energise the boundary layer near the leading edge c. Slots alone re-energise the boundary layer, whereas LE flaps and extendable slats only increase the camber d. Slots and slats re-energise the boundary layer, slats and LE flaps increase the camber 28. Leading edge devices: a. Contribute most to lift values at high angles of attack b. Increase lift equally at all angles of attack c. Contribute most to lift values at low angles of attack 29. The leading edge devices fail to extend on approach, but trailing edges do extend normally. You would expect what changes to approach alpha angle, drag, selected approach speed, and cockpit cut-off angle, compared to an approach with all high lift devices deployed: a. Higher alpha, lower drag, lower approach speeds, reduced view ahead b. Lower alpha and drag, higher approach speeds, and improved view over the nose c. Lower alpha and approach speeds, and improved view over the nose 30. Which statement best describes properties a Zap flap? a. Increases camber, drag and wing area. Deployment requires nose-up trim change b. Increases camber and drag. Deployment requires nose-down trim changes c. Centre of lift moves aft, no change in wing area. Drag and camber increase 31. Spoiler panels are: a. Located at about mid chord. Deflecting the roll spoilers up on the right wing will see the left wing aileron deflect upward to initiate a roll to the right b. Located just ahead of the trailing edge flaps. Deflecting the roll spoilers up on the right wing will see the right wing aileron deflect upwards to initiate a roll to the right c. Located just ahead of the trailing edge flaps. Deflecting the roll spoilers up on the left wing will see the right wing aileron deflect upward to initiate a roll to the left 32. Shockwaves form: a. First over the lower wing surface at the point of maximum camber. The upper shockwave forms later, but reaches the trailing edge before the lower shockwave b. First over the upper wing at the point of maximum camber. The upper shockwave reaches the trailing edge first due to shockwave induced flow separation on the lower surface c. First over the upper wing surface where airflow reduces to below Mach 1. The lower shockwave forms later, but reaches the trailing edge before the upper shock Page 5 of 10 33. Which statement is most correct as speed increases beyond MCRIT? a. The centre of lift moves forward, lift increases, and the super-stall becomes likely due to the nose-up pitch moment b. The centre of lift moves aft, lift reduces, and nose-down pitch moment occurs (Mach tuck) c. The centre of lift moves forward, lift reduces, and the adverse couple with the fixed C of G causes the nose-down pitch moment 34. Which statement best represents the order of events as speed increases? a. MCRIT, MDET, MCDR, MFS speed of sound, Mach tuck b. MCRIT, MCDR, MDET, MFS speed of sound c. MCRIT, MCDR, speed of sound, MDET 35. Which answer best describes the airflow qualities behind a normal shockwave? a. Temp and velocity rise, pressure and Mach number decrease, density increase b. Temp and pressure rise, velocity and Mach number decreases, density increases c. Temp decrease, pressure and density increase, velocity and Mach number decrease 36. Airflow direction: a. Through a normal shockwave changes direction but does not do so through an oblique shock b. Through an oblique shockwave changes in direction but does not do so through a normal shock c. Changes direction through a normal shockwave and an oblique shockwave 37. For high-flying jet aircraft featuring swept wings: a. Low speed stall indicated airspeed is unchanged for all altitudes as the swept wing eliminates the compressibility factors at higher levels b. Low speed stall indicated airspeed increases cumulatively as altitude is gained c. High speed stall and low speed stall are the same value at the aircraft “service ceiling” d. High speed stall and low speed stall are the same value at the aircraft “certificated ceiling” 38. ‘Aerodynamic ceiling’ for a given aircraft is: a. Higher with increased turbulence/greater bank angle b. Lower with increased turbulence/greater bank angle c. Unchanged by turbulence or bank angle Page 6 of 10 39. Increased apparent gross weight does what if anything to the speed margin between initial buffet speeds? a. Reduces it b. Increases it c. Has no effect 40. An aircraft is cruising at a very high altitude and experiences buffet. This is: a. Definitely high speed buffet b. Definitely low speed buffet c. Spoiler buffet d. High or low speed buffet 41. To ensure correct flow direction is maintained in a hydraulic system you would fit a: a. Pressure reduction valve b. Pressure maintaining valve c. Check valve d. Shuttle valve 42. Which answer is most correct? a. Pneumatic air is re-cycled b. Pneumatics carry with it a relatively high risk compared to hydraulics c. Pneumatic system is lighter than an equivalent hydraulic system d. An advantage of pneumatics over hydraulics is that pneumatics has a faster response time e. Prevention of leaks is more difficult to achieve in a hydraulic system 43. Shuttle valves move: a. Intermittently to regulate bleed air to match design system b. By manual selection, should the normal supply fail c. Automatically should normal system pressure fail 44. Which answer is incorrect? a. A start can be obtained by powering up the engine that is started and ‘Cross-feeding’ bleed air from that engine to another engine air driven starter b. Most air transport jet aircraft use electrical starter mechanisms c. An open start valve on an operating engine can damage the starter mechanism d. The closing of the high pressure bleed shut-off valve at high power settings will automatically open the low pressure valve Page 7 of 10 45. Ideal humidity for an aircraft cabin is: a. 30% b. 60% c. 100% 46. Humidity level possible in a high-flying aircraft cabin is about? a. 0% b. 100% c. 30% 47. Ideal temperature range for humans is: a. 28-30oC b. 15-20oC c. 18-24oC 48. Which statement is most correct? a. Bleed air source from the engine fan (N1 Low pressure Compressor) is used during low engine rpm and second stage compressor (N2) during high engine RPM b. Bleed air extraction during take off reduces take off and climb performance c. Bleed air can NOT be used for ground operations, only during flight 49. Which statement is NOT correct? a. Air cycle machine basic advantage is its lightweight. Disadvantage is poor ground cooling b. The lowest temperature achieved in air cycle machine is that expansion turbine outlet c. Pre-cooler cold air is supplied from the expansion turbine. This is called boot-strapping 50. To achieve a ‘fail operational’ autopilot coupled ILS approach in a B767-300ER: a. Three autopilots engage at 1500 ft above sea level b. Two autopilots engage at 3000 ft above sea level c. Three autopilots engage at 1500 ft radio altitude d. Three autopilots engage at the Top of Descent point Page 8 of 10 Page 9 of 10 ANSWERS 1. A 26. C 2. A 27. D 3. D 28. A 4. D 29. B 5. D 30. A 6. C 31. B 7. C 32. C 8. B 33. B 9. A 34. C 10. B 35. B 11. A 36. B 12. C 37. B 13. B 38. B 14. A 39. A 15. A 40. D 16. A 41. C 17. D 42. C 18. B 43. C 19. A 44. B 20. B 45. B 21. A 46. C 22. C 47. C 23. B 48. B 24. C 49. C 25. C 50. C Page 10 of 10  Syllabus ATPL – Aerodynamics & Systems Subject End of course practice exams Unit Code AASA Topic EXAM 2 UNSW Version 2.0 Form No RJK 01 11 17 1. The primary purpose of a supercritical wing section is to: a. Decrease the critical drag rise number b. Provide greater lift at a given angle of attack c. Shorten the take off roll of an aircraft d. Prevent tip stalling on swept wing aircraft e. Increase the critical drag rise number 2. Coffin Corner is best described, as the situation where an aircraft is operating at such high altitude that the difference between high and low speed buffet is only a few knots. Which statement is correct? a. It is not effected by aircraft weight b. It is not effected by aircraft weight or G load factors c. It is effected by aircraft weight and load factors 3. Which answer best describes the purpose of the Transformer Rectifier Unit (TRU)? a. It converts AC power to DC power and steps up the voltage b. It converts DC power to AC power and steps down the voltage c. It converts AC power to DC power and steps down the voltage d. It converts DC power to AC power and steps up the voltage 4. The term ‘Fail Passive’ of the autopilot system is used to describe: a. An autopilot system that comprises 3 autopilots and should one fail it will be isolated the other two continuing to fly the landing approach in a “Fail Passive” mode b. An autopilot system comprising 2 autopilots and should one fail it will be isolated and the remaining autopilot will automatically begin a missed approached procedure c. An autopilot system comprising 2 autopilots and should one fail both will be disconnected leaving the aircraft in a passive state of trim. The aircraft must then be flown manually. 5. Which description best describes Spiral Stability: a. Opposes oscillatory stability and gets better with increased altitude b. Works in conjunction with oscillatory stability and gets better with altitude c. Oppose oscillatory stability and gets worse with increased altitude 6. Which answer is most correct when describing the Diffuser in the exhaust section of a gas turbine engine: a. It is a convergent duct decreasing gas stream pressure and increasing gas stream velocity b. It is a divergent duct decreasing gas stream pressure and increasing gas stream velocity c. It is a convergent duct increasing gas stream pressure and decreasing gas stream velocity d. It is a divergent duct increasing gas stream pressure and decreasing gas stream velocity 7. Which statement is correct about turbine blade creep stress values with time in service? a. Initially the blade stretches very little but creep values increase at linear rate up to blade failure b. Initially the blade stretches considerably during the primary stage then at a linear rate during the tertiary stage c. Initially during the primary stage and finally in the tertiary stage, blade stretching is significant, being less so between these stages 8. The function of the positive pressure relief valves in the pressurisation system of a transport category aircraft is to: a. Limit cabin altitude to a value below or equal to the aircraft altitude b. Limit the cabin pressure to a value above the outside ambient pressure at all times c. Limit the maximum positive pressure differential d. Prevent ambient pressure being greater than cabin pressure upon landing 9. What is the purpose of the Shuttle Valve in the hydraulic system of a transport category aircraft? a. To allow hydraulic pressure from the alternate system to automatically pressurise the lines in the event of a failure of the normal system b. To vent excess hydraulic system pressure back to the reservoir during period of low demand c. To allow two separate hydraulic systems to simultaneously supply pressure to required services d. To allow for the correct operating sequence of components when extending or retracting landing gear 10. In which component of the air cycle machine in the air-conditioning system of a transport category aircraft is the coldest air found? a. The primary heat exchanger b. The secondary heat exchanger c. The expansion turbine d. The condenser 11. Which of the following components of a hydraulic system in a transport category aircraft acts as a surge suppressor: a. The reservoir b. The pressure relief valve c. The accumulator d. The check valve e. The pressure regulator 12. The highest temperature in a gas turbine engine is: a. At the jet propelling nozzle b. At the first stage turbine nozzle guide vanes c. In the dilution zone of the combustion chamber d. In the primary zone of the combustion chamber 13. In a pure turbojet, compared to a high by pass turbofan of the same thrust output, the rear (LP) turbine wheels are - a. smaller and rotate faster b. larger and rotate slower c. larger and rotate faster d. smaller and rotate slower 14. Regarding factors that effect VMCA which statement is most correct? a. High density altitude, dihedral, and skid induced blanketing of the live engine wing all reduce VMCA b. Low density altitude, anhedral and rearward CoG reduce Vmca values c. Dihedral, banking toward the failed engine and a large tail fin increase Vmca values 15. A method of reducing the engine air bleed load in an air cycle air conditioning system of a jet transport aircraft is to a. lower the cabin altitude b. lower the cabin temperature c. increase the vapour pressure d. recirculate the air 16. Which statement is most correct regarding crew alert messages: a. Over-speed and altitude alerts are both cautions and are colour coded amber b. Warnings are colour coded red, cautions and advisories are amber c. Warnings, cautions and advisories all have associated aural warnings d. Engine fire and antiskid malfunctions are both displayed in amber 17. Which of the answers listed below best represents the display of active waypoints and active routes? a. Active waypoints are displayed in white and tracks as dashed white lines b. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as dashed magenta lines c. Active waypoints are displayed in green and tracks as solid magenta lines d. Active waypoints are displayed in magenta and tracks as solid magenta lines 18. Which of the following combinations of flight director/autopilot modes are not selectable together: a. HDG SEL and V/S b. HDG SEL and ALT HOLD c. HDG HOLD and LOC d. HDG SEL and HDG HOLD 19. In a gas turbine engine, how does thrust produced at engine design RPM vary? a. An OAT decrease will lead to a thrust decrease b. An OAT increase will lead to a thrust increase c. An OAT increase will lead to a thrust decrease d. A humidity increase will lead to a thrust increase 20. In a turboprop powered aircraft the power lever is used to control a. Pitch and torque in the Beta range b. Pitch only in the reverse thrust range c. Pitch and torque in the normal (Alpha) flight range d. Pitch and torque in all operating ranges 21. The EPR of a gas turbine engine may be defined as: a. The ratio between the gas temperature and gas pressure of the engine b. The ratio between the engine inlet pressure and the exhaust duct pressure c. The ratio between the Fan N1 RPM and N2 RPM d. The ratio between the static pressure and dynamic pressure in the compressor 22. The EGT of a gas turbine engine may be defined as: a. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the combustion chamber b. The temperature of the gas flow at the entry to the turbine c. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit of the compressor d. The temperature at the exit from the last stage of the turbine 23. As a flight progresses and weight decreases as fuel is burnt in a transport category aircraft: a. Optimum speed decreases, maximum altitude decreases and buffet boundaries increase b. Optimum speed increases, maximum altitude decreases and buffet boundaries increase c. Optimum speed increases, maximum altitude decreases and buffet boundaries decrease d. Optimum speed decreases, maximum altitude increases and buffet boundaries increase 24. The freezing point of Jet-A1 fuel is closest to: a. -20o C b. -30o C c. -40o C d. -50o C 25. What is the purpose of the bogie wheel landing gear configuration compared to a single wheel on a main gear leg? a. Cost effectiveness b. Reduced tyre pressure and lower ACN’s c. Reduced tyre surface area contact d. Softer main gear landings 26. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the operation of the Ground Proximity Warning System: a. A hard warning is not always preceded by a soft warning b. A soft warning is always followed by a hard warning c. All modes provide both hard and soft warnings d. All modes provide hard warnings 27. On a turboprop aircraft the purpose of the safety coupling is to:: a. Disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque b. Disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive negative torque c. Disconnect the propeller from the gearbox in the event of excessive engine RPM d. Disconnect the engine from the gearbox in the event of excessive torque 28. The measurement of temperature in a gas turbine engine is one of the most critical items of information the pilot needs for safe operation of the engine. The type of thermocouple used in measurement of turbine temperature varies with engine type and design. From the following list select the statement which correctly describes the usual application of various thermocouple probe types: a. Rapid response probes are used primarily in turbojet and turbofan installations while stagnation type probes are used mainly in turboprop installations b. Rapid response probes are used primarily in turboprop installations while stagnation type probes are used mainly in turbojet and turbofan installations c. Surface probes measure gas temperature while immersion probes measure engine temperature 29. With differential spoilers fitted to an aircraft a left bank will require: a. The left spoiler to retract if both were extended b. The left spoiler to extend if both were retracted c. Both spoilers to remain extended if both were extended d. The left spoiler to remain retracted if both were retracted 30. The auto-brake selector has eight positions: DISARM, OFF, 1, 2, 3, 4, MAX and RTO. Which statement regarding the retardation rates of various settings is true? a. RTO is greater than MAX b. RTO and MAX provide the same level of braking c. RTO is less than MAX d. Manual braking is greater than both RTO & MAX 31. While in cruise at a constant Flight Level at M0.82 an increase in ambient temperature will result in: a. A higher TAS and a higher SFC b. A higher TAS and a lower SFC c. A lower TAS and a higher SFC d. A lower TAS and a lower SFC 32. What indicates that self-sustaining speed has been achieved during the start cycle of a gas turbine turbofan engine? a. The EGT rises first b. The turbine first starts to drive the compressor c. The starter disengages d. The pressure starts to rise in the compressor 33. In the event of a failure of the active sources of 115Volts AC in a transport category aircraft, which component of the electrical system supplies the AC power? a. A TRU b. The Transistor c. The Static Inverter d. The Generator 34. As a turbofan powered aircraft climbs through the tropopause, thrust will: a. Increase b. Remain constant c. Reduce at the same rate as below the tropopause d. Reduce at a greater rate compared to below the tropopause 35. TCAS-2 TA ONLY mode is selected by the crew. Which statement is correct regarding advising of threat levels to the crew? a. RA will not be displayed aurally nor visually b. RA will not be displayed visually only aurally c. RA will not be announced aurally only visually d. RA will continue to be announced aurally and visually 36. An aircraft flies above its mach trim speed, the mach trim system will: a. Deflect the elevator upwards b. Deflect the trim tab upwards c. Deflect the leading edge of the horizontal stabilator downwards d. Deflect the trim tab downwards 37. What is the difference between the de-ice system and the anti-ice system? a. De-ice is selected on prior to entering an area of ice and anti-ice on after entering it b. Anti-ice is selected on prior to entering an area of ice and de-ice after entering it c. Anti-ice uses pneumatic pressure to remove formed ice and de-ice uses thermal means d. There is no difference between them 38. In aircraft fitted with Series Type Yaw Dampers: a. The pilot’s rudder pedals move in conjunction with the yaw damper inputs b. They cannot be turned on when on the takeoff roll whereas parallel types can c. They are normally turned on during all phase of flight. The pilot rudder pedals will not move in response to yaw damper movements 39. Regarding the gas flow in the combustion section of a gas turbine engine: a. Pressure and temperature increase b. Pressure and temperature decrease c. Pressure is said to be constant and temperature increases d. Pressure increases and temperature decreases 40. The effect of a centre of gravity (CoG) position on the cruise speed of an aircraft for a given thrust setting and weight in level flight is: a. A rearward CoG (within limits) results in a higher cruise speed b. A forward CoG (within limits) results in a higher cruise speed c. No effect if trimmed correctly d. A forward CP (within limits) results in a lower cruise speed e. A rearward CP (within limits) results in a higher cruise speed 41. In an aircraft equipped with a Flight Management Computer (FMC), a holding pattern programmed into the FMC LNAV active route will command the holding pattern track taking account of - a. the wind in the CASA wind model b. the forecast wind c. nil wind d. the actual wind 42. Gas turbine engine mass air flow is governed primarily by - a. the number of combustion chambers, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature b. the RPM, the number of compressor stages and the turbine inlet temperature c. the turbine inlet temperature, the RPM and the number of combustion chambers d. the RPM, the airspeed and the air density 43. The correct procedure to follow in the event of a hot start to prevent torching in a gas turbine engine is to - a. gradually open the throttle to en-richen the mixture and cool the combustion temperatures b. open the bleed valves to increase the mass air flow through the compressor c. motor the engine with the fuel supply cut off d. close the bleed valves to decrease mass flow through the compressor 44. An advantage of NICAD batteries in an aircraft installation compared to lead acid batteries is - a. no dangerous gases b. no need for ventilation c. greater load carrying capabilities d. faster recharge cycle 45. Regarding the forces acting on an aircraft in a steady climb a. lift equals weight and thrust equals drag b. lift is greater than weight and thrust is greater than drag c. lift is less than weight and thrust is less than drag d. lift is less than weight and thrust is greater than drag 46. The component of the autopilot system which safeguards against a servomotor runaway is - a. the artificial feel b. the trim system c. the comparator d. the torque limiter 47. An aircraft landing gear tyre replacement should be considered essential with a. a bulge in the tyre b. worn tread c. a deep cut in the tread d. a metal object imbedded in the tread 48. The fuel boost pumps in a jet transport category aircraft fuel system are located a. in the fuel manifold b. in the fuel tanks c. in the nacelle d. in the fuel control unit 49. The function of the follow up linkage in the nose wheel landing gear system of a jet transport category aircraft is a. to prevent nose wheel shimmy b. to hold the nose wheel steering at the correct angle c. to stop tyre scuffing d. to permit the tiller to turn the nose wheel 50. The nose-wheel centering system of large jet aircraft operates to straighten the nose wheel - a. prior to gear retraction b. during gear retraction c. after gear retraction d. prior to gear extension Page 9 of 10 ANSWERS 1. E 26. A 2. C 27. B 3. C 28. B 4. C 29 B 5. A 30. A 6. D 31. A 7. C 32. C 8. C 33. C 9. A 34. D 10. C 35. A 11. C 36. C 12. D 37. B 13. A 38. C 14. A 39. C 15. D 40. A 16. B 41. D 17. D 42. D 18. D 43. C 19. C 44. D 20. A 45. D 21. B 46. D 22. D 47. A 23. D 48. B 24. D 49. B 25. B 50. A Page 10 of 10  Syllabus ATPL – Aerodynamics & Systems Subject End of course practice exams Unit Code AASA Topic EXAM 3 UNSW Version 2.0 Form No RJK 01 11 17 1. During flight planning, the pilot enters a holding pattern into the FMC flight plan for approach to an airport. Upon arrival at the holding fix with LNAV engaged, the FMC will command an entry to the holding pattern based on the: a. Planned aircraft HDG, at the fix b. Planned aircraft Track, at the fix c. Actual aircraft HDG, at the fix d. Actual aircraft Track, at the fix 2. In an aircraft EFIS with three symbol generators (SGs), the failure of the captain’s symbol generator would require: a. The captain to manually switch to the standby SG b. The co-pilot to manually switch to the standby SG c. No direct action as the switching to standby is automatic with 3 SGs d. The captain to select the same EADI and EHSI settings as the co-pilot 3. During a flight over continental Australia in a high capacity RPT aircraft equipped with EFIS and a FMS, the reference for the MAP mode of the EHSI would be: a. Magnetic Heading b. Magnetic Track c. True Heading d. True Track 4. For the park brake to work effectively following the shutdown of all hydraulic systems, at the time of shutdown the brake accumulator pressure must be: a. Above maximum brake operating pressure b. Above the maximum pre-charge pressure c. Below the minimum pre-charge pressure d. Above minimum brake operating pressure Page 1 of 10 5. Items monitored by the take-off configuration warning system in a high capacity jet transport aircraft include: a. L/E flap position, undercarriage selector, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position b. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the cargo doors c. L/E flap position, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position, spoiler lever position and the park brake valve position d. L/E flap position, undercarriage selector, T/E flap position, stabiliser trim position 6. During the ‘ROLLOUT’ submode of an autoland, the IDLE mode of the autothrottle will be: a. Engaged until touchdown b. Engaged until 5 feet radio altitude c. Disengaged 5 seconds after touchdown d. Disengaged when selecting reverse thrust 7. Conditional waypoints are entered into the FMC via the: a. Arrivals or departures pages b. Init/ref page c. Route legs page d. Ident page 8. Subsonic flow through a divergent duct will experience: a. An increase in density, pressure and a decrease in velocity b. Constant density, an increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity c. Constant density, and a decrease in velocity and pressure d. A decrease in density and pressure and increasing velocity 9. Supersonic flow through a divergent duct will experience a. An increase in density, pressure and a decrease in velocity b. Constant density, an increase in pressure and a decrease in velocity c. Constant density, and a decrease in velocity and pressure d. A decrease in density and pressure and increasing velocity 10. In a free-power turbine type engine (turboprop), the free-power turbine is: a. Connected to the high pressure compressor b. Connected to the low pressure compressor c. Connected to the high pressure turbine d. Not connected to any other turbine shaft Page 2 of 10 11. During CAT III ILS multi-autopilot approach, in the rollout the thrust setting will be: a. Flight idle for 5 seconds after touchdown then ground idle b. Ground idle from 5 feet radio altitude c. Thrust hold d. N1 limit thrust for GA 12. The pure turbo jet engine design feature which decreased the occurrence of compressor stall was by incorporating: a. Multiple spools b. Variable inlet guide vanes c. Nozzle guide vanes d. The NTS 13. In terms of SFC and in comparison to a pure turbo jet, a turboprop would be more efficient than a turbojet during: a. Low speed flight b. Low altitude flight c. High speed flight d. High altitude flight 14. Pressing the CANCEL switch on the EICAS control panel will: a. Remove all warning and cautions from the screen b. Remove only advisories from the screen c. Remove only cautions from the screen d. Select the next page 15. In an aircraft with two separate independent hydraulic systems: a. All systems are supplied by both systems simultaneously b. No systems are supplied simultaneously by both systems c. The second system is a back up to the primary system and will only be used following the failure of the primary system d. Some systems are powered by both systems simultaneously 16. On an aircraft equipped with both outboard and inboard ailerons, the inboard ailerons operate: a. At all times b. Only at high speed c. Only at low speed d. Only when selected by the pilot Page 3 of 10 17. During TCAS operations in TA only mode, RA’s are: a. Not shown at all b. Shown as TA’s c. Shown on the EHSI only d. Removed from the EADI 18. Airflow behind a normal (vertical) shockwave compared to ahead of the shock will have a decrease in a. static pressure b. energy (total pressure) c. density d. temperature 19. A benefit of a Split Bus type aircraft electrical system is: a. Other generator can take up excess loads b. The system can evenly share the load between generators c. There is a reduced requirement for frequency matching d. More systems can be powered from one bus 20. Engine bleed air may be used for: a. Reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, pitot heat, and to power the RAT b. Reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, air conditioning, and to power the RAT c. Reverse thrust actuation, anti-icing, air conditioning and pressurisation d. Pitot heat, anti-icing, air conditioning and pressurisation 21. In-flight, engine bleed air for anti-icing the wing leading edges in known icing conditions is: a. Used continuously b. Used for short periods only c. Used for long period cycles d. Not used 22. The radio altimeter display on the EADI is blank when: a. Above 2500 ft b. At low level over smooth water c. Indications are below 0 ft d. unserviceable Page 4 of 10 23. When climbing at a constant Mach number, TAS will: a. Increase through all levels b. Decrease through all levels c. Decrease in the troposphere then remain constant in the isothermal layer above the tropopause d. Increase in the troposphere then remain constant in the isothermal layer above the tropopause 24. The reference for the heading display on the EFIS MAP and FMC is: a. Always true with the heading reference switch in the normal position b. Always magnetic with the heading reference switch in the normal position c. Never true with the heading reference switch in the normal position d. Either true or magnetic as selected by the pilot or determined by latitude 25. On an aircraft with a conventional flight instrument panel with two compass systems, the Captain’s HSI displays a HDG flag. In this situation another expected indication would be: a. A HDG flag on the Captain’s RMI b. A HDG flag on the First Officer’s HSI c. A HDG flag on the First Officer’s RMI d. An off flag on the Captain’s flight director 26. An aircraft with a TAS of 300 kt has a fuel burn of 3000 kg/hr. The Specific Air Range (SAR) as a ratio distance travelled per tonne of fuel used would be most correctly expressed as ratio of: a. 30 kg/3 nm b. 1 kg/10 nm c. 30 nm/300 kg d. 100 nm/tonne 27. The EPR of a gas turbine engine may be defined as: a. The ratio between the gas temperature and gas pressure of the engine b. The ratio between the total jet pipe pressure and the total engine inlet pressure c. The ratio between the Fan (N1) RPM and the N2 RPM d. The ratio between the static pressure and the dynamic pressure in the compressor 28. The EGT of a gas turbine engine may be defined as: a. The ratio between the engine inlet pressure and the exhaust duct pressure b. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the combustion chamber c. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the last turbine stage d. The temperature of the gas flow at the exit from the compressor Page 5 of 10 29. Windscreen rain repellent fluid is used in some installations to assist visibility. A limitation on its use is: a. It should not be used in conjunction with windscreen heating systems b. It should not be used on a dry windscreen as it could smear and reduce forward vision c. It should not be used inc conjunction with wipers d. It should only be used airborne 30. The first indication of a successful light-off (light-up) in a gas turbine engine is: a. Increasing N1 RPM b. Increasing N2 RPM c. Increasing EGT d. Increasing EPR 31. The main advantage of kerosene compared to wide cut type fuel for use in a gas turbine engine is that kerosene has a relatively a. higher flash point and higher volatility b. higher volatility and lower flash point c. lower flash point and lower volatility d. lower volatility and higher flash point 32. A pressurised aircraft on climb maintains its cabin altitude at that of the departure aerodrome until it reaches its maximum cabin pressure differential. If the climb is continued: a. The cabin altitude will decrease as the aircraft climbs b. The aircraft cannot climb as it has reached its service ceiling c. The cabin altitude will climb as the system maintains maximum pressure differential d. The cabin pressure will rise to protect the seals in the pressure vessel 33. In level flight an AP/FDS mode control panel shows a selected IAS of 280kt in altitude hold mode. The flight director, autopilot and auto-throttle are then all turned off. In this case the 280 IAS indication will: a. Be blanked off and not displayed b. Remain as before but will have no significance on the speed tape display c. Remains as a reminder to the pilot that the system is still in altitude hold d. Remain displayed in the window and as the command airspeed bug on the speed tape Page 6 of 10 34. Reverse thrust is most useful on a large transport turbine aircraft: a. At high forward speed in the landing roll b. At low forward speed in the landing roll c. In flight to increase d. Late in the landing roll 35. In a gas turbine engine, compressor surge can be recognised by: a. Rapidly increasing N1 RPM b. A sharp rise in thrust c. Fluctuating RPM d. Low TOT 36. If a reduced thrust take-off is programmed into a flight management computer using the assumed temperature method. Regarding thrust output in the event of an engine failure after V1: a. The pilot must manually increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance b. The autothrottle will automatically increase the thrust on the live engine/s following an engine failure to ensure climb gradients for obstacle clearance c. The reduced thrust output of the remaining engine/s will provide net obstacle clearance at all temperatures below ISA d. The reduced thrust output from the remaining engine/s will be sufficient to provide the required climb gradients for obstacle clearance without needing to increase thrust output 37. The use of sweepback as a design feature of a jet transport aircraft wing will result in: a. A decrease in MCDR b. An increase in lift c. An increase in MCDR d. Will not affect MCDR 38. On a conventional ASI/Mach Meter the Mach readout is covered by a red flag indicating loss of altitude sensing. This means that the Mach display is unreliable and: a. The command airspeed bug is also unreliable b. No other element is affected c. The VMO pointer is also probably unreliable d. The command airspeed bug is removed from view and the command airspeed select knob is also inoperative Page 7 of 10 39. An IVSI differs from a conventional VSI in that it has: a. Accelerometers or dashpots to give an immediate indication of climb or descent b. No moving parts c. Electric amplification for greater accuracy d. Laser beams to register displacement 40. An autopilot ‘hardover’ means: a. Full servomotor deflection b. Partial servomotor deflection c. An unserviceable servomotor d. Full scale trunion servo actuator deflection 41. The purpose of a propeller brake in a turboprop installation is to: a. Reduce speed on descent b. Decelerate the propeller into the ground range after landing c. Prevent the propeller from rotating until self sustaining speed is reached d. Stop the propeller from windmilling when in feather on the ground 42. In a normal operation of an aircraft electrical system with a bus tie, the generators are operated: a. In series b. As a split-bus system c. Independently to avoid frequency and phase matching problems d. In parallel 43. In an aircraft electrical system with two engine driven generators and an APU generator, none of which can be synchronised: a. With one engine driven generator connected to the system, the APU generator can supply either TRU b. In normal operation, the system operates as a split bus system c. In normal operation bus 1 and 2 act as a single bus d. In normal operations, the generators are paralleled 44. The main reason for the combustion of fuel in a gas turbine engine is - a. to raise gas pressure b. to raise gas velocity c. to raise gas temperature d. to raise gas density Page 8 of 10 45. When the residual voltage of a large AC generator decreases to zero and no battery power is available: a. No AC generator can be re-started airborne b. It can be re-started if it is a PMG (permanent magnet generator) c. It can be re-started if it is a field excitation generator d. All AC generators can be re-started from zero voltage airborne 46. When an Integrated Drive Generator (IDG or CSD) suffers an internal failure the unit: a. Will disconnect from the engine automatically b. Will change the output power frequency, causing problems with AC powered systems c. If manually disconnected, cannot be re-connected in flight d. All of the above 47. With a multiple battery installation in an aircraft, the batteries are usually connected in: a. Parallel, to give increase current output at constant voltage b. Parallel, to give increase voltage output at constant current c. Series, to give increased current output at constant voltage d. Series, to give increased voltage output at constant current 48. The combustion chamber design which is most cost effective and efficient is the: a. Multiple chamber design b. Can-annular (turbo-annular) design c. Annular design d. Vaporiser design 49. The percentage of the mass airflow through a gas turbine entering the combustion chamber through the swirl vane is approximately: a. 2% b. 12% c. 20% d. 50% 50. When the “THROTTLE HOLD” (THR HLD) mode of the auto-throttle is active and enunciated on the auto-throttle flight mode enunciator on the EADI: a. The auto-throttle is de-energised and can be repositioned b. The thrust levers advance to take-off thrust c. The thrust levers retard to idle d. The auto-throttle will adjust to hold the current airspeed Page 9 of 10 ANSWERS 1. D 26. D 2. A 27. B 3. B 28. C 4. D 29. B 5. C 30. C 6. D 31. D 7. A 32. C 8. B 33. D 9. D 34. A 10. D 35. C 11. A 36. D 12. B 37. C 13. A 38. C 14. D 39. A 15. D 40. A 16. A 41. D 17. B 42. D 18. B 43. B 19. C 44. B 20. C 45. B 21. A 46. C 22. A 47. A 23. C 48. C 24. D 49. B 25. C 50. A Page 10 of 10  Syllabus ATPL – Aerodynamics & Systems Subject End of course practice exams Unit Code AASA Topic EXAM 4 UNSW Version 2.0 Form No RJK 01 11 17 1. When operating in the region of reversed command (slower than VIMD): a. Any decrease in speed will result in increased power required to maintain altitude while an increase in speed will result in less power required to maintain altitude b. Any increase in speed will result in increased power required to maintain altitude while a decrease in speed will result in less power required to maintain altitude c. Small power increases will lead to a rapid decrease in speed while larger power increases will result in a slow decrease in speed d. Small power increases will lead to a rapid increase in speed while large power increases will result in a slow increase in speed 2. When flying a jet transport on an approach with steep wind gradients or wind shear and/or gusts the approach speed should be modified accordingly to provide protection against sudden airspeed loss. As a rule of thumb, the approach speed may be increased to a maximum value of VREF+15 kt for wind gradients by adding half the wind speed to the normal approach speed. In gusty conditions the approach speed may be increased to a maximum of VREF+20 kt by adding half the wind speed and half the gust value. If the reported wind speed was 20 kt gusting to 40 kt the appropriate approach speed would be: a. VREF+20kt b. VREF+15kt c. VREF+25kt d. VREF+30kt 3. Hydraulic fluid pumps are lubricated and cooled by - a. Turbine oil b. Hydraulic fluid c. Air d. Turbine fuel 4. The antiskid brake system on a jet transport aircraft allows maximum braking without loss of traction. If, during operation of the antiskid braking system, the pilot feels a rapid oscillation through the pedals, the probable cause is: a. Antiskid brake system failure and wheel lock up b. Excessive pedal pressure c. Normal operation of the system d. Nose wheel shimmy Page 1 of 12 5. The element of the antiskid brake system providing protection for the hydraulic system against damage from antiskid brake operation is: a. The hydraulic shut off valve b. The modulator valve c. The non return valve d. The accumulator 6. If the wings are level in steady asymmetric flight in a multi-engined aircraft, the balance ball will be: a. Displaced fully toward the live engine b. In the centre c. Displaced fully towards the dead engine d. Displaced partially towards the live engine 7. With reference to the B767 EHSI display, in MAP mode the altitude range arc shows: a. The FMC flight plan computed top of climb position based on the forecast wind b. The current altitude c. The computed top of climb position based on current wind and rate of climb d. The glide range in nil wind for the current altitude 8. The purpose of the bogie wheel landing gear configuration compared to a single wheel on a main gear leg is: a. Cost effectiveness b. To permit increased tyre pressures and higher ACNs c. Reduced tyre surface area contact, reduced tyre pressures and higher ACNs d. To allow softer nose wheel touchdown during landings 9. Regarding inertial reference systems (IRS): a. An IRS can derive current true heading independent of other inputs b. An IRS can derive track made good, but cannot obtain current true heading c. An IRS requires periodic heading input from a gyro-stabilised compass d. An IRS requires constant heading input from a gyro-stabilised compass 10. With differential spoilers fitted to an aircraft, a left bank will cause: a. The left spoiler to retract if both were extended b. The left spoiler to extend if both were retracted c. Both spoilers to remain extended if both were extended d. The left spoiler to remain retracted if both were retracted Page 2 of 12 11. The method usually used when charging lead acid batteries in an aircraft: a. Constant current b. Constant amperes c. Constant specific gravity d. Constant resistance e. Constant voltage 12. When an autopilot system ‘mimics’ control wheel inputs, it is connected in: a. Series b. Parallel c. CW d. VNAV 13. With regard to the monitoring of autopilot systems via the auto-land status enunciator: a. A land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail operational) b. A land 3 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail operational) c. A land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not cause a significant deviation from the flight path (fail passive) d. A land 2 indication means the level of redundancy is such that any single fault would not prevent the autopilot system from making an automatic landing (fail passive) 14. A particular aircraft demonstrates good oscillatory stability at 1000 ft but poor oscillatory stability at 30000 ft. The reason for this is: a. Reduced aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased TAS as a result of a decrease in density b. Reduced aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased EAS as a result of a increase in density c. Increased aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased TAS as a result of increased air density d. Increased aerodynamic authority (damping) at altitude due to increased EAS as a result of a decrease in density 15. When configured for take off, the command speed bug on the airspeed indicator and speed tape on the EADI is referenced to - a. V2 b. V1 c. VREF d. VR Page 3 of 12 16. During flight planning the crew of a transport category aircraft program the FMC with the proposed route but forget to load a descent point and final segment. With LNAV engaged, when the aircraft passes its last programmed waypoint the FMC will command the aeroplane to: a. Enter a left hand holding pattern b. Enter a right hand holding pattern c. Maintain present heading d. Maintain present track 17. To provide LNAV guidance the FMC needs as a minimum input from initialisation, navigation data from: a. 2 VOR’s b. A VOR/DME c. 2 DME’s d. 1 IRS e. 2 IRS’s 18. In asymmetric flight a multi-engined piston propeller driven aeroplane is usually flown with: a. Bank away from the dead engine with no slideslip and the ball slightly off centre toward the live engine b. No bank with no sideslip with the ball centred c. Only bank with no rudder with the ball off centre to the dead engine and no sideslip d. Bank way from the dead engine with no sideslip and the ball slightly off centre toward the dead engine 19. Air is slowed down in the combustion chamber of a gas turbine engine to: a. Prevent flame out b. Confine the heat to a smaller region c. Improve mixture d. Stop surge 20. If thermocouples are used in parallel to measure the temperature in a jet engine, the temperature shown will be: a. The maximum temperature of all probes on the circuit b. The total of all temperatures c. The average temperature of all probes on the circuit d. The minimum temperature of all probes on the circuit Page 4 of 12 21. The formula: nine times the square root of the tyre pressure in PSI gives the a. maximum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second b. maximum speed for hydroplaning in knots c. minimum speed for hydroplaning in knots d. minimum speed for hydroplaning in meters per second 22. Some jet transport aircraft are equipped with a feature known as aileron lockout. If ‘AILERON LOCKOUT’ appeared as a caution message on the EICAS, you would expect to experience: a. Unusually high control forces at low speeds b. Degraded roll controllability at low speeds c. Unusually high control forces at high speeds d. Degraded roll controllability at high speeds 23. On a conventional attitude indicator, the fast/slow indicator opposite the glide-slope deviation indicator shows the current speed as fast or slow relative to - a. The command bug speed b. V1 c. VREF d. V2 24. If the EPR probe at the compressor inlet of a jet engine becomes blocked with ice during taxiing and the pilot advances the thrust levers for take off to the predetermined EPR setting for take off, and likely result is: a. The EPR gauge will overread and the engine thrust will be less than take off thrust b. The EPR gauge will overread and engine thrust will increase above take off thrust c. The EPR gauge will underread and engine thrust will be less than take off thrust d. The EPR gauge will underread and engine thrust will increase above off thrust 25. Regarding the cabin altitudes at which the cabin altitude warning occurs and the cabin altitude at which emergency passenger oxygen masks deploy in the event of a depressurisation in most modern jet transport category aircraft: a. Cabin altitude warning at 8500 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 10000 ft b. Cabin altitude warning at 10000 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 14000 ft c. Cabin altitude warning at 9500 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 10000 ft d. Cabin altitude warning at 12000 ft, oxygen mask deployment at 13000 ft Page 5 of 12 26. If the FMC detects a difference between the FMC computed (calculated) fuel quantity and the fuel gauge indicted (sensed) quantity it will: a. Automatically use the higher value for subsequent navigational computations b. Automatically use the lower values for subsequent navigational computations c. Alter the pilot(s) FMC to the discrepancy with a fuel quantity error message and the pilot then decides which quantity to use for subsequent navigational calculations d. Recalibrate the sensed fuel quantity shown on EICAS to agree with the computed quantity e. Recalibrate the calculated fuel quantity to agree with sensed quantity shown on EICAS 27. Advantages of a tricycle undercarriage configuration include: a. Greater braking effectiveness, better visibility during landing and taxiing, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies b. The CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies, better rough strip capability, less c. Higher descent rates during approach and landing, better visibility during landings and taxiing, the CG is behind the main wheels which minimises ground loop tendencies d. Lower landing speeds, better rough strip capability, the CG is forward of the main gear which minimises ground loop tendencies 28. The minimum position input(s) required to initialise an inertial navigation system are/is: a. Latitude and longitude b. Latitude only c. Longitude only d. Latitude, longitude and time 29. The auto-flight mode combination which controls thrust to maintain a set aircraft speed is: a. N1 and SPD b. THR HLD and ALT HLD c. VNAV PATH and SPD d. FL CH and SPD 30. Differential flight spoilers are often used on large aircraft to assist roll control. If the pilot rolled the control column towards the right to initiate a right turn: a. If the flight spoilers are extended, they will both retract b. If the spoilers are retracted, the left spoiler will extend, and the right spoiler will remain retracted c. If the spoilers are retracted, they will both remain retracted d. If the spoilers are extended, the left spoiler will retract and the right spoiler will remain extended Page 6 of 12 31. Concerning the use of the rudder pedals for steering on the ground and using a tiller for nose- wheel steering when fitted to a large transport category aircraft: a. Full deflection of the rudder pedals gives a greater angle of nose-wheel steering than full tiller deflection b. Full rudder deflection is the same as full tiller deflection c. Full tiller deflection gives a greater angle of nose-wheel steering than full rudder pedal deflection d. The tiller does not steer the nose-wheel, only the rudder 32. The brakes on large aircraft are prone to overheating. The incorrect statement regarding the use of brakes is: a. If an aircraft takes off with hot brakes, the gear may be left down (dangling) to cool b. If the park-brake is engaged with very hot brakes, the disk may fuse to the pad c. After an aborted take off, the aircraft must be taxied to a cool-down area for a specified time d. With overheated brakes, a take off is allowed immediately after prolonged taxiing as long as excessive brake pressure is not applied 33. Large transport category aircraft may be equipped with multiple batteries. When this is done the batteries are usually connected in: a. Parallel to increase the voltage at constant current (amps) b. Series to increase the voltage at constant current (amps) c. Parallel to increase the current (amps) at constant voltage d. Series to increase the current (amps) at constant voltage 34. The errors associated with a Machmeter are: a. Temperature, compressibility, pressure and position b. Instrument and position c. Density, temperature, pressure and instrument d. Position, pressure, density and compressibility 35. In a split bus electrical system consisting of two main engine driven generators: a. One engine generator can supply all buses with no loss of load capacity b. One bus can have multiple generators connected at once c. A bus is only supplied by one generator at any given time d. The generators are normally connected in parallel Page 7 of 12 36. The Master Warning system on an aircraft consists of an audio alarm and a light on the glare- shield. The warning may be cancelled by: a. Switching off the warning system b. Pressing the warning light caption c. Pulling the appropriate circuit breaker d. Reprogramming the flight management computer 37. What gauge is needed in the cockpit of a pressurised aircraft to monitor a parameter essential to pressurisation: a. The cabin pressurisation gauge b. The cabin climb and descent gauge c. The cabin altitude and differential pressure gauge d. The cabin negative differential pressure gauge 38. Standpipes in the hydraulic system in a jet transport aircraft needed to: a. Supply pressure during negative G flight b. Reduce foaming during flight in turbulence c. Ensure fluid supply in the event of primary system fluid loss d. Ensure a positive supply of fluid to the pump during periods of high demand 39. Compared to a high bypass turbofan, a pure turbojet engine has: a. More thrust at the same mass flow b. A higher power to weight ratio c. Lower Specific Fuel Consumption d. Higher propulsive efficiency 40. While in cruise at a constant Flight Level at a Mach No of 0.82, an increase in ambient temperature will result in: a. A higher TAS and a higher SFC b. A higher TAS and lower SFC c. A lower TAS and higher SFC d. A lower TAS and a lower SFC 41. Methods for defining waypoints entered by the crew into the data base of the FMC include: a. Latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, place distance/place distance b. Latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, place bearing/place bearing c. Latitude and longitude, place bearing/distance, bearing distance/bearing distance d. Latitude and longitude, place bearing/place, place distance/distance Page 8 of 12 42. An aircraft is filled to full tank volume capacity with AVTUR for a Specific Gravity (SG) of 0.8. If the SG has been 0.7 instead of 0.8, the available range would be: a. The same b. Greater c. Less d. Independent of calorific value 43. Concerning large aircraft electrical systems: a. Split bus systems need not run generators in parallel b. In a split bus system one generator will never supply power to all services c. Parallel generator systems do not suffer from frequency matching problems d. Most electrical systems can be run split or parallel depending on demand 44. In an aircraft electrical system, a bus bar is: a. A large terminal for power distribution to services b. A receiving point of current from the generator or battery c. A circuit breaker panel d. Always live 45. In the B767-300ER autopilot system, the autopilot will be prevented from engagement when: a. The heading cursor (bug) is different to the aircraft heading b. The speed bug is different to the aircraft speed c. The Left AC bus is un-powered d. The pitch selector is in pitch hold 46. In a steady climb, the thrust produced by the engines is balanced by drag: a. Plus a component of lift b. Plus a component of weight c. Plus total lift d. Alone 47. In an aircraft with a ‘flying tail’, movement of the control column results in movement of the: a. Elevator with the tailplane position controlled by trim signals from the trim wheel b. Tailplane with the elevator position controlled by movement of the trim switches c. Tailplane with the elevator moving in the same direction d. Tailplane with the elevator moving in the opposite direction Page 9 of 12 48. In a turbo-jet aircraft compared to a turbo-prop aircraft, lowest specific fuel consumption (SFC) compared to net thrust is achieved when flying at: a. High altitude b. High speed c. Low altitude d. Low speed 49. The effect of spoiler deployment on the total drag curve for an aeroplane is to move the curve: a. Up and right b. Up and left c. Down and left d. Down and right 50. On an aircraft with a conventional flight director system, the flight director bars are controlled by: a. The flight director computer b. The air data computer c. The flight management computer d. The control display unit Page 10 of 12 Page 11 of 12 ANSWERS 1. A 26. C 2. A 27. A 3. B 28. A 4. C 29. C 5. B 30. D 6. B 31. C 7. C 32. D 8. C 33. C 9. A 34. B 10. B 35. C 11. E 36. B 12. B 37. C 13. C 38. C 14. A 39. A 15. A 40. A 16. C 41. B 17. D 42. C 18. A 43. A 19. A 44. A 20. C 45. C 21. C 46. B 22. B 47. C 23. A 48. B 24. A 49. B 25. B 50. A Page 12 of 12  Syllabus ATPL – Aerodynamics & Systems Subject End of course practice exams Unit Code AASA Topic EXAM 5 UNSW Version 2.0 Form No RJK 01 11 17 Never Stand Still Faculty of Science School of Aviation 1. What is the primary advantage of AC over DC electrical generation types a. Savings on space and weight b. It is easier to convert AC to DC, than DC to AC c. Separate bus systems are not required with AC systems d. Circuits of AC are less complicated than DC 2. An aircraft is fitted with Nicad batteries, and the crew get a “High Battery Temp” warning light. This situation was probably caused by: a. The electrical load on the nicad battery was too high b. The battery discharge rate was too high c. The rate of charging was too high 3. After a WET START in a turbine engine, what precautions should be taken to prevent a future engine malfunction? a. Use a cross-bleed start to prevent starter motor overheating b. Use a cross-bleed start to prevent a hot start c. Motor-over using the starter motor to prevent a hung start d. Motor-over to prevent torching when re-starting 4. With increasing airspeed up to and beyond Mach 1.0, the co-efficient of drag at a constant angle of attack will: a. Initially increase, then decrease b. Remain unchanged c. Increase steadily d. Decrease steadily, then increase again e. Decrease steadily 5. The purpose of a cabin pressure relief valve is to automatically open when: a. The cabin rapidly depressurises, such as in an explosive decompression b. Cabin pressure reaches a preset value c. Rate of cabin pressure rise is too great d. Cabin differential pressure reaches a pre-set value Page 1 of 10 6. The valve that controls the air pressure in a cabin pressurisation system is known as: a. The pressurising valve b. The pack flow control valve c. The ram air valve d. The outflow valve 7. Which of the following correctly names the component in a pneumatic system that will automatically shut off the air supply to non-essential services, when system pressure reduces below a certain predetermined value? a. Isolation control valve b. Pressure maintaining valve c. Non-return valve (i.e. one way valve) d. Pressure compensation valve e. Swing check valve 8. In what way is the SG of AVTUR effected by changes in ambient temperature? a. SG is NOT effected b. SG decreases with temperature rise c. SG increases with temperature rise 9. Under which of the following conditions is it necessary to incorporate cabin air humidifiers, in an aircraft air conditioning system? a. When operations are at low altitudes/low temperatures b. At all altitudes, when air temperature is low c. At low altitudes, at any temperature d. At high altitudes, at all times 10. Hydraulic fluid has which of the following properties? a. Resistance to expansion when heated b. It is easily compressed, giving more positive control responses c. It is almost incompressible d. It can maintain a constant temperature under adverse high temperature operating environments 11. When comparing the properties of pneumatic vs hydraulic systems: a. Pneumatic can provide greater control power b. Pneumatics do not require return lines, whereas hydraulic systems do c. Pneumatic systems do NOT suffer from moisture in the system d. Pneumatics great advantage is that air is considered to be incompressible Page 2 of 10 12. In what way does the extension of leading edge devices such as flaps and slats effect the co- efficient of lift and drag, and the nose pitching moment? a. Increase in lift and drag co-efficient, and a nose up pitch moment b. Increase in lift, decreasing in drag co-efficient, and a pitch down moment c. Decrease in lift and drag co-efficient, and a nose pitch up tendency 13. Assuming the same degree of trailing edge flap deflections, which answer best describes the primary advantage of slotted flaps, compared to fowler flaps? a. Greater flap area b. Longer effective chord length c. Increased camber occurs d. Improved boundary layer airflow over flaps 14. Assuming the aircraft is within the various radio altitude envelope bands, in which of the following scenarios will the flight crew receive a warning? a. When 1 dot or more below the glideslope b. During a slow descent over flat terrain, whilst in the correct landing configuration c. When an unsafe radio height is reached, with the aircraft NOT in the landing configuration d. With an excessive closure rate when approaching a near vertical cliff 15. Assuming a constant speed drive is disconnected in flight when, and under what circumstances can it be re-connected? a. Anytime when in-flight b. Automatically, when the undercarriage air/ground logic switch has weight on it c. Electrically, when the undercarriage air/ground logic switch has weight on it d. Mechanically, when the aircraft is on the ground 16. Which of the following best describes how an APU speed is controlled? a. By a governor b. By a throttle lever in the cockpit c. By a tacho-generator sensed circuit d. A speed sensitive switch 17. The device that controls the direction of movement of a hydraulic actuating unit, is called the: a. Sequencing valve b. Flow control valve c. Pressure relief valve d. Bi-valve e. Selector valve Page 3 of 10 18. Which of the following switches must be closed before a generator can be connected to the synchronising bus? a. The generator field switch b. The generator control relay switch c. The generator circuit breakers switch d. The bus tie breaker switch 19. Which answer best describes the disadvantage of a turboprop engine, compared to a turbojet engine? a. Turboprop less capable of lifting heavy loads off short runways b. Turboprops have higher SFC at low altitudes than do turbojets c. Lower propulsive efficiencies at high subsonic Mach numbers d. Less effective reverse thrust capability during landing operations 20. The Auto-land Status Enunciator: a. Monitors autopilot and ILS ground station signal integrity b. Monitors only autopilot, and autopilot support system integrity c. Monitors only ILS ground station signal integrity 21. A swept wing transport turbojet is cruising at a higher than normal operating altitude, at normal cruise Mach number, in non-turbulent conditions. It experiences buffet, which statement is most correct? a. It is not likely to be high or low speed buffet, because the aircraft is in cruising flight b. It will be high speed buffet, because the aircraft is maintaining a published cruise schedule c. It is not likely to be low speed buffet, because the aircraft is at high altitude d. It could be high or low speed buffet, as it is difficult to tell at high altitude 22. Shock waves can form at a true Mach number below Mach 1.0. This is because: a. The airflow around the wing tips is accelerated to greater than free stream Mach number when the aircraft is in a turn b. The speed of sound is lower at high altitude c. Curved surfaces in various parts of the aircraft accelerate the greater than free stream Mach number 23. A control tab that is moved by the main control linkage, such that the hinge moments cause a deflection of the primary control surface. This device is called a: a. Lagging Tab b. Trim Tab c. Servo Tab Page 4 of 10 24. High flying air transport aircraft have a fuel tank venting system. This is to: a. Aid in the de-fuelling process b. Ensure the tank walls do not rupture when in turbulence, or during manoeuvres c. Prevent the spread of fire, should a bleed air duct leak occur near the fuel cell d. Provide a system whereby fuel can be jettisoned overboard in an emergency 25. What is the reason why the hydraulic reservoir is pressurised in high-flying aircraft? a. To provide the pressure to feed the system b. To prevent the collapsing of the reservoir walls during descent c. To prevent the fluid from foaming due to low ambient pressures at high altitudes d. To provide system pressure redundancy during the loss of that hydraulic system 26. An aircraft is fitted with TCAS and GPWS. Which statement is most correct? a. Only RA’s are inhibited by GPWS warnings b. Both TA’s and RA’s are inhibited by GPWS warnings c. Only TA’s are inhibited by GPWS warnings d. GPWS warnings are inhibited if a TA or RA occurs 27. The B767 incorporates a typical Autopilot Flight Director Systems (AFDS). When an ILS is being flown, with the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’, and ‘APPROACH’ modes selected, which statement best represents the actions that follow? a. The AFDS will maintain the selected altitude, and fly a Localiser only approach until the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ function is manually de-selected, then it will fly the glideslope also b. The systems is armed to capture the glide-slope, and ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ will automatically cancel when this occurs c. The system can NOT be armed for the approach until the ‘ALTITUDE HOLD’ function is manually selected off at or before glide-slope capture 28. The manoeuvre envelope defines: a. Airline policy for bank angle maximums to be used when carrying Pax or Freight, and must by law be incorporated in the Aircraft Operating Manual (AOM) b. The gust responses by the particular aircraft when in turbulent conditions c. The speed/load factor limits within which the aircraft is to be operated 29. ‘Manual Reversion’ is provided: a. To prevent a runway trim situation from occurring b. On aircraft that do not have triple hydraulic system redundancy c. On all air transport aircraft, irrespective of the number of redundant hydraulic control systems provided d. Only on those aircraft that employ 1 hydraulic channel for yaw damper operation Page 5 of 10 30. An aircraft accelerates beyond MCRIT and displays a nose-down tendency. This is due to: a. The rearward movement of the Centre of Pressure, and reduced tailplane down-load b. The forward movement of the C of P due to the shockwave attaching to the leading edge c. The wingtips stalling first, as tends to happen on rearward swept wings at high speed 31. On a large transport aircraft, the effect of a failure of the leading edge high lift devices to extend is to: a. Require a higher than normal attitude (alpha) and lower airspeed on approach b. Require a lower than normal attitude (alpha) and higher airspeed on approach c. Require a lower than normal attitude (alpha) and lower airspeed on approach d. Require a higher than normal attitude (alpha), and a higher airspeed on approach 32. With an increase in altitude, and same equivalent airspeed (EAS), spiral stability: a. Increases b. Decreases c. Remains un-altered 33. Which statement is most correct? a. The primary function of ground spoilers is to reduce lift and increase braking effectiveness b. Powered outboard ailerons are the principle tool used to reduce wing twisting c. For the same flight level EAS is always greater than IAS 34. As the speed of a large transport aircraft increases from low speed stall to M MO, the power requirements during this phase can be best described as: a. An increase then a decrease b. Decrease then increase c. Non-linear increase 35. The primary reason for fitting leading and trailing edge flaps is to: a. Increase the wing wetted area b. Improve visibility ahead by reducing the cockpit cut-off angle c. Reduce the landing and take off speeds and distances needed d. Increase the drag on approach, thereby producing a more speed stable aircraft Page 6 of 10 36. A number of swept wing jet transport aircraft have a limitation such that flap extension at high altitudes (typically above FL200) is prohibited. This is because: a. The aircraft may under certain conditions become unstable in yaw whilst banking b. The high IAS at such altitude can exceed that of the flap restricting Mach number c. Stall warning and flap fatigue life may be compromised 37. With increasing altitude up to maximum cruise level: a. Low speed stall buffet IAS value decreases, high speed stall IAS value increases b. Low, and high speed stall buffet speed IAS values become closer together c. A decrease will occur in spiral stability, other stability will remain unchanged or may increase in value 38. An excessively aft C of G when on approach to land will cause: a. Heavy elevator control forces, and decreased pitch stability b. Light elevator control forces, and decreased pitch stability c. No difference in elevator forces, and no change in pitch stability 39. The C of G is near its forward envelope limit. Which statement is most correct? a. The same force is required to change the pitch attitude as with an aft C of G position b. Less elevator force is required to change the pitch attitude than with an aft C of G position c. Greater elevator force is required to change the pitch attitude than with an aft C of G position 40. As altitude is gained, how is the low speed stall value affected? a. IAS value decreases, but EAS value increases linearly b. IAS value decreases, but EAS value increases cumulatively c. IAS value rises, but NOT at such a high rate of EAS value d. Both IAS and EAS values increase. EAS will always be equal to or less than IAS value 41. A ‘TRIP FREE’ thermal circuit breaker (CB) can be reset: a. Only when the overload condition no longer exists b. Immediately c. Only when the Air/Ground logic switch has weight on it d. When the bi-metallic strips have cooled Page 7 of 10 42. The ZFW limit imposed on some aircraft is to ensure the spar is not overstressed and is: a. Relevant at taxi weight only b. Relevant at take off weight c. Relevant at ramp weight only 43. During a climb at a constant Mach number, the angle of attack will: a. Remain unchanged b. Increase c. Decrease 44. In stable asymmetric flight: a. Bank angle is used to counter the drag on the dead engine b. Bank and rudder are used in combination to counteract the yaw produced by the live engine c. The slip ball MUST be considered with the rudder d. It is possible to have a zero sideslip and zero bank at one time 45. Greater rearward wings sweep: a. Improves pitch stability b. Reduces trailing edge flap effectiveness c. Reduces the low speed stall value d. Reduces span-wise flow e. Reduces pitch stability at all airspeeds, and attitudes 46. Which of the answers is incorrect about factors assisting lateral static stability? a. Inboard flaps b. Sweepback c. Dihedral 47. An aircraft fitted with 2 EADI and two EHSI. What is the minimum number of symbol generators required for all screens to be operational? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 Page 8 of 10 48. Which answer listed is correct regarding aircraft system warnings whilst the aircraft is taking off? a. Both cautions and warnings are inhibited from 80 knots to 400 ft radio altitude b. Warnings are inhibited from 80 knots to 400 ft radio altitude or 20 seconds after lift-off, whichever occurs first c. Cautions are automatically inhibited from 80 knots to 400 ft altitudes or 20 seconds after lift-off, whichever occurs first 49. Which does not affect hydroplaning speed? a. Tread pattern b. Tread wear c. Tyre pressure d. Tyre size 50. Which RPM range will produce the greatest variation in thrust for a given movement of the power lever? a. The upper end of the RPM range b. The lower end of the RPM range c. The middle of the RPM range d. No particular RPM range Page 9 of 10 ANSWERS 1. A 26. B 2. C 27. B 3. D 28. C 4. A 29. B 5. D 30. A 6. D 31. B 7. B 32. A 8. B 33. A 9. D 34. B 10. C 35. C 11. B 36. B 12. A 37. B 13. D 38. B 14. C 39. C 15. D 40. D 16. A 41. A 17. E 42. B 18. D 43. B 19. C 44. B 20. B 45. B 21. D 46. A 22. C 47. A 23. C 48. C 24. B 49. D 25. C 50. A Page 10 of 10  Syllabus ATPL – Aerodynamics & Systems Subject End of course practice exams Unit Code AASA Topic EXAM 6 UNSW Version 2.0 Form No RJK 01 11 17 1. A function of a pressure relieve valve in a transport category jet hydraulic system is: a. To regulate the normal system operating pressure b. To prevent hydraulic seals from blowing out c. To prevent hydraulic lock d. To prevent hydraulic jack stall 2. The function of the rear turbine support struts in the exhaust system of a turbojet engine is: a. To reduce axial velocity in the jet pipe b. To support the propelling nozzle c. To straighten the airflow in the jet pipe d. To increase the surface area of the exhaust cone 3. In a gas turbine engine the start bleed valve is open at idle RPM. The RPM is then increased to maximum with the bleed valve still open. Regarding this situation: a. This is the normal situation and would result in maximum thrust b. The EGT will be higher than normal with reduced thrust output c. The EGT will be lower than normal with reduced thrust output d. The EGT will be lower than normal with increased thrust output e. The EGT will be higher than normal with increased thrust output 4. The nozzle guide vanes (NGVs) in a gas turbine engine are located: a. At the compressor inlet b. At the compressor outlet c. At the turbine inlet d