Aakash TE 01 (TYM 2025) PDF

14/06/2023 Code-A Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456...

14/06/2023 Code-A Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456 MM : 720 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A Time : 200 Min. Topics Covered: Physics: Physical World, Units & Measurements Chemistry: Some Basic Concepts of Chemistry Botany: Cell: The Unit of Life, Cell Cycle & Cell Division Zoology: Structural Organisation in Animals–Animal Tissues, Biomolecules General Instructions : 1. There are two sections in each subject, i.e. Section-A & Section-B. You have to attempt all 35 questions from Section-A & only 10 questions from Section-B out of 15. 2. Each question carries +4 marks. For every wrong response, –1 mark shall be deducted from the total score. Unanswered/unattempted questions will be given no marks. 3. Use blue/black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle. 4. Mark should be dark and completely fill the circle. 5. Dark only one circle for each entry. 6. Dark the circle in the space provided only. 7. Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white fluid or any other rubbing material on the Answer sheet. PHYSICS SECTION-A 1. Force(s) which obey inverse square law 2. Match the technology in coloum–A to its is/are related scientific principle in coloum–B (1) Gravitational forces B– A–Technology (2) Electrostatic forces Scientificprinciple (3) Strong nuclear forces (a) Steam engine (1) Faraday’s laws (4) Both (1) and (2) Laws of (b) Nuclear reactor (2) thermodynamics (c) Computer (3) Nuclear fission Electric power (d) (4) Digital logic generation (1) a–2, b–4, c–3, d–1 (2) a–2, b–3, c–4, d–1 (3) a–1, b–3, c–4, d–2 (4) a–4, b–1, c–3, d–2 1 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 3. Gravitational force is 11. A : The parsec consists of dimension of time. (1) Conservative, weakest and long range R : The parsec is unit of time. (2) Conservative, weakest and short range (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of (3) Conservative, strongest and long range the assertion (4) Non-conservative, weakest and long (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but range the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion 4. Sir C.V. Raman, an Indian born physicist (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason won nobel prize in the field of is false (1) Quantum statistics (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) Scattering of light by molecules statements (3) Structure and evolution of stars (4) Ultrashort radio waves 12. A : Kilo-watt hour is a commercial unit of energy. R : 1 kilo-watt hour = 36 × 106 J. 5. The ratio of strength of strong nuclear force to that of electromagnetic force is about (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of (1) 104 :1 the assertion (2) 1013 :1 (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (3) 102 :1 the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion (4) 1039 :1 (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false 6. Which of the following statements is (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false incorrect for nuclear forces? statements (1) They are charge independent (2) They are non-conservative in nature 13. If the unit of force is 10 kN, length is 10 km (3) They are effective only for short ranges and time is 1000 s, then the unit of mass will (4) They are central force be (1) 103 kg 7. The quantum model of atom was given by (2) 104 kg (1) Bohr (3) 105 kg (2) Rutherford (4) 106 kg (3) Einstein (4) Hertz 14. The dimensionless physical quantity among the following is 8. Rocket propulsion works on (1) Pressure (1) Law of thermodynamics (2) Solid angle (2) Newton’s law of motion (3) Speed (3) Photoelectric effect (4) Modulus of elasticity (4) Superconductivity 15. The radius of a circle is 0.020 m. The 9. Choose the incorrect pair. number of significant figures is (1) J.C. Maxwell - Electromagnetic theory (1) 1 (2) Niels Bohr - Natural radioactivity (2) 2 (3) C.V. Raman - Scattering of light by (3) 3 molecules (4) 4 (4) S.N. Bose - Quantum statistics 16. The radius of sphere is measured as 10. Which of the following scientist discovered (5.2 ± 0.2)cmthen the % error in volume the mercury thermometer? of sphere is (1) Michael Faraday (1) 11% (2) S.N. Bose (2) 4% (3) G. Fahrenheit (3) 7% (4) James Watt (4) 9% 2 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 17. The percentage errors in the quantities 23. If the length and breadth of a rectangle are a,b,c,d are respectively given by 0.5% , 1% , 3.123 m and 2.45 m, then the area of the 2%, and 4%. Then the maximum possible rectangle upto proper significant figure is percentage error in quantity Y which is given (1) 7.6 2 a b by Y = is (2) 7.65 √c3 d (3) 7.651 (1) 9% (4) 7.6513 (2) 3% (3) 5.5 % 24. Order of magnitude of the distance of the (4) 7% sun from the earth (in S.I. unit) is (1) 11 18. The relation between power p, distance x 2 (2) 5 b+x and time t is given as p = at , the (3) 3 b dimensions of a is (4) 19 (1) [ML2 T–2 ] (2) [M–1 LT–2 ] 25. Dimensional analysis fails (1) To identify the value of constant (3) [M–1 L2 T–2 ] involved in physical equation. (4) [ML–2 T–2 ] (2) To establish the relation between the physical quantities when they are related other than product type 19. 1 eV is equal to (3) When a physical quantity depends on (1) 746 J different physical quantities having (2) 3.6 × 106 J same dimensional formula (3) 10 −19 J (4) All of these (4) 1.6 × 10 −19 J 26. True value of a measurement is 7.01 m. Which of the following is the most accurate 20. If a, b and c be three physical quantities reading? having different dimensions. Which of the (1) 6.99 m following mathematical operations must be (2) 7.09 m meaningless? (1) a2 b2 = c (3) 7.11 m (4) 7.05 m (2) a2 + b3 = c (3) a +b 3 3 ab = c 27. Which of the following relation is dimensionally incorrect? (Symbols have (4) a 3 3 = c their usual meaning) b (1) v = u + at (2) y = x tanθ 21. If 19 main scale divisions coincides with 20 vernier scale divisions. The least count will (3) 2(Energy) F = be (1 main scale division = 1 mm) Volume (1) 0.1 mm (4) 1 mv 2 = mgh 2 (2) 10 mm (3) 10 μm 28. Which of the following is the smallest unit of (4) 50 μm length? (1) Millimeter 22. The order of magnitude of 220 will be (2) Angstrom (1) 3 (3) Picometer (2) 4 (4) Fermi (3) 5 (4) 6 29. A physical equation is (1) Always mathematically correct (2) Always dimensionally correct (3) Both (1) & (2) (4) Only (1) 3 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 30. The dimensional formula of force is 33. 1 dimensional formula is same as frequency (1) [MLT–2 ] (1) time (2) [ML2 T–2 ] (2) speed (3) [MLT–1 ] (3) distance (4) [ML2 T–1 ] (4) force 31. The S.I. unit of volumetric mass density of 34. If there is a positive error of 50% in the substance is measurement of the velocity of a body, then (1) kg the error in the measurement of kinetic m 2 energy will be (2) kg (1) 50% (2) 25% 3 m (3) kg m3 (3) 100% (4) kg m2 (4) 125% 32. Parallax method is used for the 35. L2 T–2 is Dimensional formula of which of the measurement of following physical quantity (1) Large distances (1) Velocity (2) Very small distances (2) Acceleration (3) Solid angle (3) Latent heat (4) Plane angle (4) Work done SECTION-B 36. The dimensions of impulse is same as that 39. The scientific principle involved in LASER is of (1) Newton's law of motion (1) Force (2) Faraday's law of induction (2) Pressure (3) Coulomb's law of induction (3) Linear momentum (4) Light amplification by stimulated (4) Torque emission of radiation 37. James Chadwick was awarded the 1935 40. If linear momentum (P), length (L) and time Nobel prize in Physics for the discovery of (T) are assumed to be fundamental the quantities, then the dimensional formula of (1) Neutron pressure is (2) Electron (1) [PL–2 T–1 ] (3) Proton (2) [P–1 L–1 T–1 ] (4) Nucleus (3) [PLT–2 ] (4) [PL–2 T] 38. Select correct statement regarding mesoscopic physics. (1) It deals with molecules, atoms, nuclei 41. Which of the following relation cannot be and subatomic particles deduced using only dimensional analysis? (1) y = Aeωt (2) It deals with the phenomenon at the laboratory, terrestrial and astronomical (2) s = ut + 1 at2 scale 2 − − (3) l (3) It deals with quantum physics T = 2π√ g (4) It deals with a few tens or hundreds of atoms together (4) All of these 4 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 42. If Z = A + B, then the absolute error in Z will 47. λ Dimension of c is same with dimension of be (where λ is wavelength and c is velocity of (1) ΔA + ΔB light) A B (2) AΔB + BΔA (1) Speed (3) ΔA – ΔB (2) Mass (4) ΔA + ΔB (3) Frequency (4) Time 43. If A = 2.231 cm and B = 3.1 cm, then A + B with correct significant figure is 48. Which of the following instrument is not used (1) 5.331 cm for measurement of length? (2) 5.33 cm (1) Barometer (3) 5.3 cm (2) Spherometer (4) 5.0 cm (3) Screw gauge (4) Vernier calliper 44. Which of the following time measuring devices, is most precise? 49. Identify the pair whose dimensions are (1) A digital watch equal. (2) A wall clock (1) Stress and energy (3) A stop watch (2) Force and pressure (4) An atomic clock (3) Work and pressure (4) Torque and energy 45. The dimension formula of moment of mass is (1) [M1 L2 T0 ] 50. The value of 46.7 – 10.04 with due regard to significant figure is (2) [M1 L1 T0 ] (1) 36.6 (3) [M0 L2 T0 ] (2) 36.7 (4) [M1 L1 T–1 ] (3) 36 (4) 36.8 46. Which one is wrongly matched unit of lengths measurement? (1) 1 fermi = 10–15 m (2) 1 light year = 9.46 × 1015 m (3) 1 parsec = 3.08 × 1016 m (4) 1 angstrom = 10–9 m 5 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A CHEMISTRY SECTION-A 51. Consider the following statements. 56. A container contains H2 and CO in the mass (a) Molality of the solution does not change ratio of 1 : 2. The molar ratio of the two gases with temperature in the mixture is (b) An empirical formula represents the (1) 1 : 2 simplest whole number ratio of various atoms present in a compound (2) 3 : 2 (c) In reaction, the reactant which gets (3) 5 : 1 completely consumed is called limiting (4) 7 : 1 reagent (d) A solution of known higher concentration is also known as stock solution 57. Assertion (A): 1.2 g of CO2 molecules and The correct statement(s) are 1.2 g molecule of CO2 contains equal (1) (a) and (b) only number of atoms. (2) (a), (b) and (c) only Reason (R): Amounts represented in g molecule and in g are same. (3) (a), (c) and (d) only (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (4) (a), (b), (c) and (d) the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion 52. The mass percentage of oxygen in water (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but (1) 80.25% the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion (2) 92.45% (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason (3) 88.89% is false (4) 95.95% (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements 53. Which among the following species will contain same number of atoms as in 20 g of 58. What is the mole fraction of the solute in a calcium? 1.00 m aqueous solution? (1) 23 gram of sodium (1) 0.0354 (2) 24 gram of magnesium (2) 0.0177 (3) 12 g carbon (3) 0.177 (4) 8 g oxygen atom (4) 1.770 54. Phosphorus forms two oxides P2 O3 and 59. If 4 moles of a gas ‘x’ weighs 176 g, then the P2 O5. For constant amount of phosphorus, gas ‘x’ can be amounts of oxygen combine in the ratio of (1) NH3 (1) 3 : 5 (2) CO (2) 1 : 1 (3) CO2 (3) 1 : 2 (4) O2 (4) 1 : 3 55. An element, X has following isotopic 60. From 440 mg of CO2 , 1020 molecules of composition 40 X : 80%, 42 X : 20%. The CO2 are removed. The total number of average atomic mass of X is remaining atoms will be (1) 40.4 u (1) 1.51 × 1020 (2) 41.8 u (2) 2.89 × 1021 (3) 40.9 u (3) 1.77 × 1022 (4) 42.2 u (4) 1.46 × 1023 6 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 61. Incorrect statement among the following is 67. Caffeine is a molecular substance (1) SI unit of amount of substance is mole containing 4 atoms of ‘N’ per molecule. The mass percentage of nitrogen in caffeine is (2) The prefix used for the multiple 102 is 28.1%. What is the molecular mass of hecto caffeine? (3) Accuracy refers to the closeness of (1) 387.5 various measurements for the same (2) 200 quantity (3) 96.8 (4) Pure substances have fix composition (4) 176.5 62. Formula mass is applicable in the case of 68. The molarity of 4% (w/v) NaOH solution is (1) H2 O (1) 1 M (2) NaCl (2) 2 M (3) NH3 (3) 3 M (4) CH4 (4) 4 M 63. Statement I : Mole fraction is the ratio of 69. 5.6 g of nitrogen and 2 g of hydrogen were moles of a substance to the total moles in heated in a closed steel vessel. Maximum the solution. amount of ammonia produced in this Statement II : Mole fraction does not reaction will be depend on temperature of solution. (1) 6.8 g In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given (2) 8.5 g below. (3) 3.4 g (1) Statement I is incorrect but statement II (4) 4.25 g is true (2) Statement I is correct but statement II is false 70. 200 ml of 3 M NaOH solution is diluted by 400 ml water. The molarity of the resulting (3) Both statement I and statement II are solution is true (1) 1 M (4) Both statement I and statement II are (2) 2 M false (3) 1.5 M (4) 2.25 M 64. 0.2 mol of a solute (molar mass = 60 g mol– 1 ) is present in 200 ml solution. Molarity of the solution is 71. How many statement(s) among a, b, c and d is/are correct? (1) 1 M (a) Mole fraction is unit less quantity (2) 2 M (b) 1 M NaOH means 1 mol NaOH is present (3) 0.1 M in 1 litre of the solution (4) 0.2 M (c) Unit of molality is mol kg–1 (d) Dilution equation: M1 V1 = M2 V2 (1) 1 65. The number of oxygen atoms required to combine with 7.0 g of N2 to form N2 O3 if (2) 2 80% of N2 is converted into N2 O3 (3) 3 (1) 2.24 × 1023 (4) 4 (2) 3.6 × 1023 72. An example of homogeneous mixture is (3) 18 × 1023 (1) Copper (4) 6.02 × 1023 (2) Oil and water (3) Air 66. Total number of electrons in 2 mol of (4) Carbon dioxide sulphide ion is (1) 3.6 × 1024 73. The ratio of vapour densities of two gases (2) 3.6 × 1023 oxygen and methane is (3) 2.16 × 1025 (1) 1 : 2 (4) 2.16 × 1023 (2) 2 : 1 (3) 1 : 1 (4) 2 : 3 7 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 74. Mass percentage of carbon in urea 80. Which of the following set represents most (NH2 CONH2 ) is precise measurements of a physical (1) 46.66% quantity? (1) 8.0, 8.5 , 8.6 (2) 26.66% (3) 20% (2) 8.23, 8.66, 8.86 (4) 30% (3) 8.1, 8.13, 8.15 (4) 8.0, 9.0, 7.0 75. According to following reaction. XY + O2 → X2 O3 + Y2 O3 81. The molecular mass of Na2 CO3 ·10H2 O is The number of moles of Y2 O3 produced if 1 (1) 286 u mole of XY is burnt with 1 mole of O2 is (2) 180 u (1) 3 (3) 106 u (2) 1 (4) 272 u (3) 1/3 (4) 2/3 82. The S.I. unit of density is (1) g/cm3 76. Which of the following values possess (2) g/L maximum number of significant zeros? (3) kg/m3 (1) 0.00007 (2) 0.0070 (4) kg/cm3 (3) 20.000 (4) 0.800 83. Maximum number of molecules are present in (1) 15 L of H2 gas at STP 77. For which of the following pair of compounds, law of multiple proportion is (2) 5 L of N2 gas at STP applicable? (3) 0.5 g of H2 gas at STP (1) HI and HCl (4) 10 g of O2 gas at STP (2) CO2 and CS2 (3) H2 S and SO2 84. “Matter can neither be created nor be (4) H2 O and H2 O2 destroyed” is the statement of which of the following laws of chemical combinations? 78. 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample (1) Law of definite proportion decomposes on heating to give carbon (2) Law of multiple proportion dioxide and 8.0 g magnesium oxide. What (3) Gay Lusac’s law will be the percentage purity of magnesium (4) Law of conservation of mass carbonate in the sample? (At. wt. : Mg = 24) (1) 60 85. 32°F is equal to (2) 84 (1) 0°C (3) 75 (2) 32°C (4) 96 (3) 100°C (4) 132°C 79. 60 ml, 0.4 M NaOH is mixed with 40 ml, 0.8 M NaOH solution. The molarity of resultant mixture is (1) 0.2 M (2) 0.4 M (3) 0.56 M (4) 0.64 M SECTION-B 8 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 86. The mass of an atom of calcium is 93. A : Molar mass is the mass of one mole of a (1) 40 g substance in gram. (2) 1 g R : Molar mass of NH3 = 17 g mol–1. 40 (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and (3) NA × 40 g the reason is the correct explanation of (4) 40 g the assertion NA (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion 87. 20 g NaOH is mixed with 36 g of H2 O. What (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is mole fraction of H2 O in solution? is false (1) 0.6 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (2) 0.8 statements (3) 0.4 (4) 0.1 94. In an organic compound containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen, the percentage of carbon and hydrogen in it are 40% and 88. 0.1 M H2 SO4 solution has a density of 6.67% respectively. Its molecular formula 2g/mL. The molality of solution is may be (1) 0.01 m (1) C2 H5 OH (2) 0.05 m (2) CH3 CHO (3) 0.1 m (3) C6 H12 O6 (4) 0.5 m (4) C12 H22 O11 89. Volume of 8 g of CH4 (g) at STP is (1) 22.4 L 95. The incorrect statement regarding Dalton’s atomic theory is (2) 11.2 L (1) Matter consists of indivisible atoms (3) 5.6 L (2) Atoms can neither be created nor (4) 44.8 L destroyed in a chemical reaction (3) Compounds are formed when atoms of 90. A : 1 amu = 1.66 × 10–24 g different elements combine in variable R : One atomic mass unit is a mass exactly ratio. equal to one-twelfth the mass of one carbon- (4) All the atoms of a given element have 12 atom. identical properties (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of 96. In the synthesis of ammonia, 42 g of nitrogen the assertion gas is reacted with 8 g of hydrogen gas. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but Mass of ammonia produced in the process is the reason is not the correct (1) 50 g explanation of the assertion (2) 36.5 g (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false (3) 45.3 g (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false (4) 48 g statements 97. A metal oxide containing 70% of metal (At. 91. The number of oxygen atoms present in 90 g wt of metal = 56) and rest oxygen. Its of water is empirical formula would be (1) NA (1) MO (2) MO2 (2) 5NA (3) M2 O3 (3) 2.5NA (4) M2 O (4) 10NA 92. A quantity of aluminium has a mass of 81 g. 98. Total number of electrons in 1.4 g of N3– ion What is the mass of same number of is magnesium atom? (1) 10 NA (1) 81 g (2) 0.1 NA (2) 72 g (3) NA (3) 41 g (4) 0.2 NA (4) 48 g 9 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 99. Correct scientific notation is (1) 0.000473 (2) 0.473 × 10–3 (3) 4.73 × 10–4 (4) 473 × 10–6 100. Assertion (A) : Atomicity of phosphorus is four. Reason (R) : Atomicity is the number of atoms present in a 1 molecule. (1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. (2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion. (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false. (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements. 10 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A BOTANY SECTION-A 101. Small bristle like fibres sprouting out of the 106. A non-membrane bound cell organelle bacterial cells are helpful in which forms spindle fibres during cell (1) Cell wall formation division in animal cells (2) Attachment to the host tissue (1) Has '9 + 2' arrangement of microtubules (3) Secretion process (2) Is also found in higher plants (4) Cell motility (3) Helps in formation of basal bodies (4) Has nine microtubules doublets at 102. Choose the pair of cell organelles that do periphery not contain any nucleic acid (1) Plastid, mitochondria 107. Leucoplast lacks (2) Ribosome, chloroplast (1) Stroma (3) Nucleus, vacuole (2) Storage material (4) Centriole, vacuole (3) Double membranous covering (4) Granum 103. Select the incorrect statement about nucleolus. (1) It is the site for rRNA synthesis 108. Continuity of cytoplasm from one plant cell to another cell is maintained by (2) Larger nucleoli are present in the cells that are actively involved in protein (1) Nuclear pore synthesis (2) Middle lamella (3) It is not bounded by a membrane (3) Plasmodesmata (4) It is found in the cytoplasm as it takes (4) Plasma membrane part in spindle formation 109. Identify the incorrect statement for plasma 104. The bacterial envelope consists of three membrane layers. Which layers(s) is/are structurally (1) The lipid component of membrane similar to that of the eukaryotes? consists of phosphoglycerides and (1) Innermost layer and middle layer cholesterol. (2) Innermost layer (2) The tail of phospholipid is made up of (3) Outermost layer unsaturated hydrocarbons only (4) Middle layer and outermost layer (3) Lipids enable lateral movement of proteins within the overall bilayer (4) The fluid nature of membrane helps in 105. Match the following columns and select the intake of materials in the form of carrier correct option. vesicles. Column-I Column-II Infoldings in a. Ribozyme (i) 110. Nucleolus contains mitochondria (1) Ribonucleic acid Single membrane b. Cristae (ii) (2) Double membranous covering bound c. Chromatophores (iii) Photosynthesis (3) Microtubules d. Lysosome (iv) Nucleic acid (4) Small vacuoles (1) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) (4) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) 11 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 111. Arrange the following in ascending order 118. The functions are co-ordinated in w.r.t. their sizes. organelles A. PPLO (1) Peroxisome and ribosome B. Typical bacteria (2) Mitochondria and ER C. Viruses (3) Chloroplast and ER (1) C < A < B (4) ER and Golgi body (2) A < B < C (3) B < A < C (4) C < B < A 119. How many stage(s) of karyokinesis of mitosis occur(s) after the disappearance of nuclear membrane? 112. How many of the given structure(s) is/are (1) Three present in higher plant cells? (2) Two Cell wall, Plastid, Centriole, Large (3) Four central vacuole (4) One (1) One (2) Two 120. Event which occur in mitotic metaphase is (3) Three (1) Chromosomal material start to (4) Four condense to form compact mitotic chromosomes 113. Which of the following is an exception of cell (2) Spindle fibres attach to kinetochores of theory chromosomes (1) Bacteria (3) Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle (2) Viruses (4) Endomembrane system begin to disappear along with nuclear (3) Protists membrane (4) Fungi 121. Bivalent formation takes place in 114. A chromosome with the centromere at its (1) Leptotene one end is (2) Zygotene (1) Acrocentric (3) Pachytene (2) Metacentric (4) Diplotene (3) Submetacentric (4) Telocentric 122. Histone protein synthesis occurs in (1) G1 phase 115. Glycocalyx may be thick and tough in bacterial cells called (2) S phase (1) Cell wall (3) G2 phase (2) Slime layer (4) M phase (3) Capsule (4) Cell membrane 123. A cell at prophase shows all, except (1) Condensation of chromatin 116. Motile bacteria are able to move with the (2) Spindle fibre formation help of (3) Nucleolus reappearance (1) Pili (4) Disintegration of nuclear membrane (2) Fimbriae (3) Flagella 124. Yeast cell divides once in (4) Cilia (1) 15 minutes (2) 90 minutes 117. The genetic material is naked and not (3) 30 minutes surrounded by a nuclear membrane in (4) 24 hours (1) PPLO (2) WBC 125. In interkinesis of _______ cells, centriole (3) Columnar epithelial cell pair duplicates. (4) Mesophyll cell (1) Angiospermic (2) Animal (3) E. coli (4) Meristematic higher plant 12 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 126. Splitting of centromere is not seen in 131. Proteinaceous small disc shaped structure (1) Anaphase at the surface of centromere of chromosome is known as (2) Anaphase I (1) Telomere (3) Anaphase II (2) Centrosome (4) Both anaphase and anaphase II (3) Kinetochore (4) Centriole 127. Telophase differs from prophase as in (1) Telophase Golgi, ER and nucleus reform but in prophase they disappear 132. How many tetrads will be formed if a diploid cell contains 18 chromosomes? (2) Telophase chromatin condensation begins and in prophase it is completed (1) 18 (3) Telophase nuclear envelop (2) 9 disintegrates and in prophase it (3) 27 develops around the chromatin (4) 36 (4) Telophase chromatids move to opposite poles and in prophase they are aligned at equator 133. Dissolution of synaptonemal complex takes place in (1) Zygotene 128. Mitosis is not required for (2) Pachytene (1) Healing the wounds (3) Leptotene (2) Growth of multicellular organisms (4) Diplotene (3) Maintenance of cell size (4) Introduction of variations 134. The beginning of diplotene is recognised by (1) Terminalisation of chiasmata 129. Metaphase is considered as best stage to (2) Disappearance of nucleolus and study the morphology of chromosomes nuclear membrane because here (3) Dissolution of the synaptonemal (1) Each chromosome contains a single chromatid complex (2) Chromosomes align themselves at the (4) Recombination of genetic material on the two chromosomes equator (3) Condensation of chromatin material starts 135. How many mitotic divisions are required to (4) Chromosomes are thickest and produce 64 cells from one cell? shortest (1) 64 (2) 16 130. Crossing over takes place between (3) 63 (1) Sister chromatids of a chromosome (4) 8 (2) Non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes (3) Sister chromatids of non homologous chromosomes (4) Non sister chromatids of non homologous chromosomes SECTION-B 136. Mark the incorrect option for mitochondria. 137. Select the pair of single membrane bound (1) Double membrane bound organelles (2) 70 S ribosome is present (1) ER, Nucleus (3) Few RNA molecules present (2) Lysosome, Golgi apparatus (4) It has single linear DNA (3) Mitochondria, Golgi apparatus (4) Lysosome, Chloroplast 13 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 138. Chromatin contains 145. The daughter cells produced after meiosis I (1) DNA and RNA only (1) Are genetically similar to each other (2) DNA, RNA and acidic histone proteins (2) Are genetically similar to parent cell (3) DNA, RNA, basic histones and some (3) Are genetically dissimilar to each other non-histone proteins (4) Have same ploidy level as that of (4) DNA, RNA and non-histone proteins parent cell only 146. What will be the number of chromatids in 139. Plasmid prophase I of a cell having 20 bivalents? (1) Is ssDNA (1) 20 (2) Is linear DNA (2) 80 (3) Is genomic DNA (3) 40 (4) Confers certain unique phenotypic (4) 10 features to bacteria 147. Double metaphasic plate is formed during 140. The core of the cilium or flagellum is called (1) Mitosis the (2) Meiosis I (1) Axoneme (3) Meiosis II (2) Radial spoke (4) Mitosis and meiosis II (3) Hub (4) Central sheath 148. In G0 phase, a cell (1) Divides continuously 141. Tonoplast is the membrane of (1) Mitochondria (2) Is metabolically active (2) Vacuole (3) Divides into two daughter cells (3) Ribosome (4) Prepares itself for division (4) Peroxisome 149. DNA becomes double in (1) G1 phase 142. Palade particles are ________ bound cell organelles. (2) S phase (1) Double membrane (3) G2 phase (2) Single membrane (4) M phase (3) Non-membrane (4) Four membrane 150. In animal cell, cytokinesis is achieved by (1) Cell plate formation 143. Recombinase mediated activity is seen (2) Cell wall formation during which stage of meiosis-I? (3) Phragmoplast formation (1) Leptotene (4) Furrow formation (2) Zygotene (3) Pachytene (4) Diplotene 144. The most active stage, though called resting phase of cell cycle involves (1) Congression of chromosomes (2) Separation of chromatids and splitting of centromere (3) Duplication of cell organelles (4) Condensation of chromatids 14 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A ZOOLOGY SECTION-A 151. The kind of epithelium which covers the dry 156. Osteocytes are bone forming cells, present surface of the skin is in the spaces called (1) Simple squamous (1) Lamellae (2) Ciliated cuboidal (2) Lacunae (3) Simple columnar (3) Fat storage area (4) Compound (4) Solid and pliable ground matrix 152. Select the correct option for smooth muscle 157. Identify and observe the given tissue. fibre. (1) Branched (2) Peripheral nucleus (3) Unbranched (4) Cylindrical in shape 153. A single layer of thin and flattened cells with irregular boundaries in alveoli of lungs is (1) Cuboidal epithelium (2) Squamous epithelium (3) Columnar epithelium Choose the incorrect statement w.r.t. the given tissue. (4) Ciliated epithelium (1) It serves weight bearing function in human body 154. Match column I with column II and select the (2) It provides structural framework to the correct option. body (3) It has a solid and pliable ground Column I Column II substance rich in collagen fibres a. Macrophage (i) Release of (4) It protects and supports softer tissues vasodilator and organs b. Mast cell (ii) Collagen fibre 158. The excess, unused nutrients in the form of c. Fibroblast (iii) Phagocytosis fat is stored in d. Adipocyte (iv) Loose (1) Neural tissue connective tissue (2) Adipose tissue (3) Skeletal tissue (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (4) Areolar tissue (2) a(iii), b(i), c(ii), d(iv) (3) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii) 159. Tip of nose and outer ear pinna show the (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) presence of which connective tissue? (1) Cartilage 155. Property shown by neurons is (2) Bone (1) Excitability (3) Ligament (2) Elasticity (4) Tendon (3) Extensibility (4) Contractility 160. Cell junctions that prevent the leakage of substances across a tissue are (1) Tight junctions (2) Adhering junctions (3) Gap junctions (4) Desmosomes 15 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 161. 166. Following is the diagram of glandular epithelium which is marked as (a) and (b). Select the option which is correct In above given box, how many structures are identification of (a) and (b) with unicellular glands? functions/characteristics/ location (1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 3 (4) 1 162. Read the following statements. A : Some of the squamous and cuboidal cells get specialised for secretion, called glandular epithelium. B : Salivary gland is an example of multicellular glandular epithelium consisting of cluster of cells. Choose the correct option. (1) Both statements are incorrect (2) Both statements are correct (3) Statement A is correct and B is incorrect (4) Statement B is correct and A is incorrect 163. Heparin and histamine are released by (1) Fibroblasts (2) Mast cells (1) (a)–Unicelluiar gland, Sweat glands (3) Osteocytes (2) (b)–Multicellular gland, consists of a (4) Adipocytes duct and secretory part, both made up of epithelial cells e,g,: Gastric glands 164. Read the following statements w.r.t neurons (3) (a)–Multicellular gland, isolated cells (A) They are unit of neural system e.g.: Sebaceous glands (B) They exert greatest control over the (4) (b)–Multicellular gland, cluster of cells body’s responsiveness to changing e.g.: mucocytes conditions (C) These are specialized to send messages in our body 167. The backbone in nucleic acid is formed by How many statements is/are correct? (1) Sugar chain only (1) One (2) Phosphate chain only (2) Two (3) Sugar-nitrogen base chain (3) Three (4) Sugar-phosphate-sugar chain (4) Zero 168. GLUT-4 is a X and is associated with Y. 165. Which of the following type of tissue is Choose the ¯¯ ¯¯¯ option ¯ ¯¯ that correctly fill X and¯ ¯ Y. incorrectly matched with its location? X Y Tissue Location ¯ ¯¯¯ ¯ ¯ ¯¯¯ ¯ Compound Inner lining of (1) Carbohydrate Glucose transport (1) – epithelium pancreatic duct (2) Protein Ionic transport Pseudostratified Inner surface of (3) Lipid Protein transport (2) – epithelium buccal cavity (4) Protein Glucose transport Cuboidal Tubular parts of (3) – (1) (1) epithelium nephron Squamous (2) (2) (4) – Air sacs of lungs epithelium (3) (3) (1) (1) (4) (4) (2) (2) (3) (3) (4) (4) 16 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 169. The simplest amino acid is 175. Match the column I with column II and (1) Glutamic acid choose the correct answer with respect to elements present in earth crust. (2) Lysine Column I Column II (3) Valine a. Hydrogen (i) Very little (4) Glycine b. Sulphur (ii) 46.6% c. Nitrogen (iii) 0.14% 170. Select the amino acid which is not aromatic in nature. d. Oxygen (iv) 0.03% (1) Tyrosine e. Silicon (v) 27.7% (2) Phenylalanine (1) a(iv), b(ii), c(iii), d(v,) e(i) (3) Tryptophan (2) a(iii), b(iv), c(ii), d(i), e(v) (4) Glutamic acid (3) a(ii), b(iv), c(i), d(iii), e(v) (4) a(iii), b(iv), c(i), d(ii), e(v) 171. Prosthetic group is usually (1) An organic co-factor firmly attached to 176. Select the correct match between column I the apoenzyme and column II. (2) An inorganic co-factor transiently Column I Column II attached to the apoenzyme Storage a. Cellulose (i) (3) An organic co-factor loosely attached to homopolysaccharide the apoenzyme Structural b. Chitin (ii) (4) An inorganic co-factor loosely attached homopolysaccharide to the apoenzyme Branched polymer of c. Inulin (iii) glucose 172. Select the incorrect match. d. Glycogen (iv) Exoskeleton of arthropods (1) Polymeric substance : Rubber (v) Cannot trap I2 molecules (2) Drug : Curcumin Choose the correct option. (1) a(v), b(iv), c(i), d(iii) (3) Toxin : Ricin (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (4) Terpenoid : Codeine (3) a(v), b(iv), c(ii), d(i) (1) (1) (4) a(ii), b(iv), c(iii), d(i) (2) (2) (3) (3) 177. Select the correct statement. (4) (4) (1) Dipeptides have two peptide bonds and three amino acids 173. All of the following bonds are likely to be (2) Formation of glycosidic bond is involved in stabilizing three-dimensional accompanied by gain of water folding of most proteins except molecule (1) Hydrogen bonds (3) Lipids are polymers made up of (2) Covalent bonds glycerol and fatty acids (3) Ionic bonds (4) Phosphoester bond is present between (4) Phosphodiester bonds a phospate group and hydroxyl group of sugar molecule of a nucleotide 174. Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. lipids. (1) Phospholipids have phosphorus and a phosphorylated organic compound in them (2) Gingelly oil has higher melting point than fats (3) Lecithin is an example of a phospholipid (4) Phospholipids are found in cell membrane 17 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 178. In a polysaccharide chain, the right end is 182. Assertion : Co-enzymes are inorganic called the A end and the left end is called compounds but their association with ¯¯¯¯¯ apoenzymes is only transient. the B end. Reason : Catalytic activity is enhanced Fill ¯¯¯¯¯ the blanks A and B by selecting the when prosthetic groups are detached from correct option. apoenzymes. A B In the light of above statements, select the correct option. (1) Non-reducing Reducing (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true but (2) Non-reducing Non-reducing the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion (3) Reducing Reducing (2) Both Assertion and Reason are true (4) Reducing Non-reducing and the reason is the correct (1) (1) explanation of the assertion (2) (2) (3) Both Assertion and Reason are false (3) (3) statements (4) (4) (4) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false 179. Malonate is a competitive inhibitor of 183. In sea urchin’s dsDNA, 27% of the bases (1) Malic dehydrogenase were shown to be guanine. The percentages (2) Succinic dehydrogenase of the other three bases expected to be in (3) Carbonic anhydrase this DNA are: (4) Cytochrome oxidase C A T (1) 23%, 23%, 36% 180. Identify the number of compounds from the (2) 36%, 23%, 23% box given below which form a part of acid (3) 27%, 23%, 23% soluble fraction. Monosaccharides, Lipids, Amino acids, (4) 17%, 33%, 33% Polysaccharides (1) (1) Choose the correct option. (2) (2) (1) One (3) (3) (2) Two (4) (4) (3) Three (4) Four 184. Secondary metabolite functioning as a lectin is 181. Read the following statements (A) and (B) (1) Abrin and select the correct option. (2) Vinblastin Statement (A): Glycerol is trihydroxy (3) Morphine propane. Statement (B): Some tissues especially the (4) Concanavalin A neural tissues have lipids with more complex structures. 185. The most abundant protein in animal world (1) Statement (A) is incorrect while (B) is is correct (1) Elastin (2) Statement (A) is correct while (B) is (2) Myosin incorrect (3) Actin (3) Both statements are correct (4) Collagen (4) Both statements are incorrect SECTION-B 18 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 186. Tendon is a type of 191. Match Column-I with Column-II and choose (1) Dense regular connective tissue the correct option. (2) Dense irregular connective tissue Column-I Column-II (3) Areolar connective tissue Catalyzes a (4) Fluid connective tissue transfer of a group (other (a) Oxidoreductases (i) than hydrogen) 187. Choose the correct option w.r.t. ciliated between a pair columnar epithelium. of substrate (1) Cells are loosely packed. Catalyzes (2) It lines the hollow surface of fallopian interconversion tube. of optical, (b) Transferases (ii) (3) High amount of intracellular matrix is geometric or present between cells. positional isomers (4) It represents brush bordered epithelium. Catalyzes oxidoreduction (c) Isomerases (iii) between two 188. Structural and functional unit of neural substrates system is (1) Node of Ranvier (a) (b) (c) (1) (iii) (i) (ii) (2) Neuron (3) Axon (2) (iii) (ii) (i) (4) Schwann cells (3) (ii) (i) (iii) (4) (ii) (iii) (i) 189. Ligament connects (1) (1) (1) Humerus to biceps (2) (2) (2) Tibia to femur (3) (3) (3) Biceps to triceps (4) (4) (4) Triceps to humerus 192. Read the given statements. a. Ribozyme is a nucleic acid acting as an 190. The incorrect statement w.r.t. primary enzyme. metabolites is that they b. After catalysis, ES complex breaks to (1) Are required for basic metabolic release free enzyme and substrate. processes c. Deoxyribose sugar is present in DNA. (2) Have identifiable functions d. Inulin is a homopolymer of galactose. (3) Do not take part in physiological How many statements are wrong? processes (1) One (4) Include nucleic acids (2) Three (3) Two (4) Four 193. Which of the following is not a property of enzymes? (1) Efficiency of an enzyme is directly proportional to the turn-over number (2) Catalytic activity of an apoenzyme depends upon additional inorganic or organic cofactors that attach to it (3) Enzymes increase the activation energy barrier of chemical reactions (4) Enzymes remain unchanged at the end of a catalysed reaction 19 TermExam2023-25TYM(P1)-TE01A 194. Match column I with column II and choose 197. Vinblastine and curcumin are example of the correct option. which type of secondary metabolites? Column I Column II (1) Pigments a. Peptide bonds (i) Cellulose (2) Toxins b. Nucleotide (ii) Haemoglobin (3) Lectins c. Nucleoside (iii) Adenylic acid (4) Drugs d. Glycosidic bonds (iv) Uridine (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii), d(iv) 198. Identify the cell junction which performs (2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) cementing to keep neighbouring cells together (3) a(i), b(ii), c(iv), d(iii) (1) Tight junction (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i) (2) Adhering junction (3) Gap junction 195. Which statement is correct for biomolecules? (4) Zonula occludens (1) All carbohydrates break down into glucose 199. In humans, microvilli are present in (2) Sequence of amino acids determines epithelium of primary protein structure (1) Urinary bladder (3) RNA is single stranded and contains (2) Moist surface of skin similar nitrogen bases as in DNA (3) PCT of nephron (4) Lipids are macromolecules that are (4) Cornea of eye formed by esterification of fatty acid with glycerol/alcohol 200. Enzymes which catalyse joining of C-S bond falls under the class 196. All of the following are the characteristic (1) Transferases features of lining of alveoli, except (1) A single thin layer of flattened cells with (2) Lyases irregular boundaries (3) Hydrolases (2) Cells are compactly packed with little (4) Ligases intercellular matrix (3) Lining cells of alveoli rest on a non- cellular basement membrane (4) Cells contain microvilli to increase surface are for diffusion 20