747 Tech Paper (Combined) PDF Notes

Notes 1) This is a combination of Tech Papers 1-4, sorted into topics. 2) Some questions have been filtered as they are repeated, while some repeats have been left in place. 3) Answers have been checked to the best of my ability, mistakes may still exist. 4) Doubtful answers are denoted with (?)...

Notes 1) This is a combination of Tech Papers 1-4, sorted into topics. 2) Some questions have been filtered as they are repeated, while some repeats have been left in place. 3) Answers have been checked to the best of my ability, mistakes may still exist. 4) Doubtful answers are denoted with (?) - Feb 2023 1. Air & Pressurisation systems 1. According to the panel configuration below, what are the zones in which temperature can be controlled? A. All the zones. B. Flight Deck, Upper Deck, Crew Rest Area, Forward and Aft Main Decks. C. Flight Deck, Upper Deck, Crew Rest Area, Forward and Aft Main Decks, Forward and Aft Lower Lobe Cargo. D. Flight Deck, Forward and Aft Main Decks, Forward and Aft Lower Lobe Cargo ANS: B 2. Which statement is true with reference to the switch position as shown. (Freighter) A. Part of pack 3 air is diverted to the FWD LL cargo zone. B. The AFT LL Temperature Selector can be used to control the AFT LL cargo zone temperature in AUTO or MAN. C. The AFT LL Temperature Selector cannot be used to control the AFT LL cargo zone temperature. D. All of pack 2 air is routed to the Flight and Upper Decks, Crew Rest Area, FWD and AFT Main Decks. ANS: B 3. The landing altitude switch/control is used to set A. Landing field elevation when FMS landing field elevation is not available B. A higher than normal cabin altitude as is required by abnormal checklist C. Cabin altitude when the cabin altitude controllers have failed D. A and B are correct ANS: D 4. What would be the most likely message (indicated by????? ) on the EICAS given the information below? A. PACK 1 B. PACK 2 C. PACK 3 D. PACK 2 + 3 ANS: B 5. With the EICAS message displayed as shown, what are the procedures called for? A. Crew should select both outflow valves to MAN. B. Crew should select both outflow valves to MAN and turn off one of the packs.  C. Crew should select both outflow valves to MAN and turn off two of the packs. D. Crew should select one outflow valves to MAN and turn off one of the packs. ANS: B 6. What is the purpose of the OVRD position on the Equipment Cooling Selector? A. The OVRD position is used to override the automatic system and provide manual control. B. Stops Equipment Cooling from operating. C. Using the OVRD position manually reconfigures the airplane for flight if it fails to reconfigure automatically. D. The OVRD position provides an alternate means of cooling, using reverse airflow provided by differential pressure. ANS: D 7. What does the high position of the air conditioning pack valve do? A. Maximizes pack turbine workload B. Maximizes pack compressor work load C. APU auto-start and provides APU bleed air to supply more air D. Supplies more pack generated air to meet maximum conditioned air requirements ANS: D 8. Which condition will cause passenger temperature control to switch automatically to the backup temperature control mode? A. Any Pack failure B. Any temperature zone duct overheat C. Any zone Trim Air Valve failed close D. Any Pack Controller failure ANS: B 9. Which section of the pneumatic manifold supplies bleed air to the Master Trim Air Valve? A. Left B. Center C. Right D. All 3 sections ANS: B 10. What automatic protective feature acts to help relieve excessive pressure? A. Pack 1 shuts down when a pressure relief valve opens B. Pack 2 shuts down when a pressure relief valve opens C. Pack 1 and 2 shuts down when a pressure relief valve opens D. Pack 2 and 3 shuts down when a pressure relief valve opens ANS: B 11. How do you reset the pack in the event of a shutdown of pack 2 due to an over pressurization?  A. Manually when the cabin pressure differential decreases below 8.5 psi B. Automatically when either cabin pressure relief valve closes C. Automatically when both cabin pressure relief valves close D. Manually when the cabin pressure differential decreases below 9.25psi ANS: C 12. When is the EICAS warning message CABIN ALTITUDE displayed and the cabin altitude intermittent warning siren sounded? A. If the cabin altitude exceeds 10,000 feet B. If the cabin altitude exceeds 11,000 feet C. If the cabin altitude exceeds 12,000 feet D. If the cabin altitude exceeds 14,000 feet ANS: A 13. What is provided by the NORM position of the equipment cooling selector after all engines have been started? A. Ground Exhaust Valve OPEN and Inboard Exhaust Valve CLOSE B. Ground Exhaust Valve CLOSE and Inboard Exhaust Valve OPEN C. Ground Exhaust Valve CLOSE and Inboard Exhaust Valve CLOSE D. Ground Exhaust Valve OPEN and Inboard Exhaust Valve OPEN ANS: B 14. How is the forward compartment heated? A. By warm cabin cooling system exhaust air B. By warm cabin and equipment cooling system exhaust air C. By electric heaters D. By warm equipment cooling system exhaust air ANS: D 15. When does the zone SYS FAULT light illuminate? A. Zone duct overheat B. Zone temperature controller fault C. Master trim air valve has failed closed D. All of the above ANS: D 16. During normal operations, when are the air conditioning packs in high flow and what is the recirculation fan configuration? A. All 3 packs are normally in high flow, 2 of the 4 recirculation fans operate during all phases of flight except cruise B. Two packs are normally in high flow, 2 of the 4 recirculation fans operate during all phases of flight except cruise C. All 3 packs are normally in high flow, all the recirculation fans operate during all phases of flight except cruise D. All 3 packs are normally in normal flow, al recirculation fans operating during all phases of flight except cruise  ANS: A 17. How many temperature zones are there on the B747-400? A. Four: Flight deck, the upper deck, and two main deck zones B. Four: Flight deck, the upper deck, and two main deck zones C. Six: Flight deck, two upper deck zones, and three main deck zones D. Seven: Flight deck, the upper deck, and five main deck zones ANS: D 18. In which phase of flight would you expect the packs to be in HI – FLOW (?) A. 3 packs in HI Flow with 4 cir fans always except in cruise B. 2 packs in HI Flow with 4 cir fans always except in cruise C. 3 packs in Hi Flow with 2 cir fans always except in cruise D. 2 packs in HI flow with 2 cir fans always except in cruise ANS: C 19. When will you hear the siren accompanied by an EICAS “Cabin Altitude”? A. 10000’ B. 11000’ C. 12000’ D. 13000’ ANS: A 20. The Zone Overheat Reset switch illuminated indicates A. Zone duct overheat B. Temperature controller faulty C. master trim air valve failed closed D. All of the above ANS: D 21. The zones in which temperature is controlled are A. the upper decks, main cargo deck, forward and aft lower lobe B. the flight deck, crew rest, upper deck, forward and aft lower lobe C. the flight deck, upper deck, crew rest and the main cargo deck D. the flight deck, upper deck, crew rest and the main cargo deck and the forward and aft lower lobes and bulk hold ANS: C 22. #1 Bleed Air Switch is OFF due to a system overheat. Switching NAI ON for engine #1 results in: A. NAI is provided by the HP bleed source as it is sourced upstream of the Bleed Air switch B. NAI is provided by the IP bleed source as it is sourced upstream of the Bleed Air switch C. NAI is provided by both the HP and IP bleed sources D. no NAI being available  ANS: D 23. During operations at low thrust, engine bleed air is supplemented by the opening of; A. the PRV valve B. the HP valve C. the IP valve D. the PRSOV ANS: B 24. After engine start, the EICAS message EQUIP COOLING indicates A. the Ground Exhaust valve has failed to close – select the EQUIP COOLING selector to STBY B. the Ground Exhaust valve has failed to close – select the EQUIP COOLING selector to OVRD C. insufficient air is available as the Supply Fan has failed D. the Bypass Valve has failed to OPEN ANS: A 25. Prior to start, the pneumatic panel should look like; A B C ANS: B 26. With all engines running and the equipment cooling system in NORM mode, the equipment cooling air is ?? 2. Anti-ice and rain 27. You are taxing in snowing condition. As a crew, what would you do? 28. While in-flight, the right front window suddenly experiences excessive arcing. The abnormal procedure would ask you to A. Switch off the affected window heat. B. Switch off the affected window heat for 10 seconds and then put it back. C. Switch off the affected window heat and switch on the Windshield Air switch. D. Do nothing ANS: C 29. Which section/s of the leading edge is heated when selecting wing anti-ice on? A. The whole wing B. The inboard section C. The outboard and mid span sections D. The outboard section ANS: C 30. Airplane on ground. Selecting the Wing Anti- Ice switch ON A. opens the wing anti-ice valves for 10 seconds. B. opens the wing anti- ice valves if the TAT is at or below 12 °C C. opens the wing anti- ice valves only when engines are running D. does not open the wing anti-ice valves ANS: D 31. How are the side windows heating systems controlled? A. Automatically when DC electrical system is powered B. Automatically when the battery system is powered C. Automatically when AC and DC electrical systems are powered D. Automatically when AC electrical system is powered ANS: D 32. What does the EICAS advisory message > ANTI-ICE means? A. A Nacelle Anti-Ice system is ON and the TAT >12 °C B. Ice is detected at a level requiring Nacelle Anti-Ice but it has not been selected ON  C. There is a disagreement between any Anti- Ice switch and the respective valve position D. Nacelle Anti-Ice system inoperative ANS: A 33. During flight arching is observed on the left forward window. The required procedure is A. switch the L Window Heat switch OFF and turn the WSHLD AIR switch ON B. switch the L Window Heat switch OFF C. switch the L Window Heat switch OFF and back ON after 20 secs D. C. switch the Shoulder Heat Switch OFF ANS: A  3. AFDS 34. VNAV is armed for takeoff. Thrust reduction height is set to the same height as flap acceleration. Both heights are set to 1500 ft on TAKEOFF REF page. What occurs when aircraft passes 1500 ft? A. Command airspeed change to flap placard speed minus 5 knots. The A/T sets thrust to the armed climb limit B. Command airspeed must be manually reset. The A/T sets thrust to the armed climb limit. C. Command airspeed changes to 250 knots. The A/T sets full climb thrust at all times. D. Command airspeed changes to FLAPS 10 plus 10 knots. The A/T sets thrust to maintain that speed ANS: A 35. Following a climb as shown, which MCP shows the correct annunciations when the aircraft level-off? A B C D ANS: B  36. Aircraft is climbing with the MCP set up as shown. What are the annunciations when the aircraft level-off? A. SPD | LNAV | ALT B. THR | LNAV | ALT. C. SPD | LNAV | ALT HOLD D. THR REF | LNAV | ALT ANS: A 37. Aircraft is on approach and the APP switch is pushed. Based on the indications given below, how many A/P(s) is/are engaged? A. All 3 A/Ps B. 2 A/Ps C. The existing A/P will control the aircraft till touchdown D. The existing A/P. The other 2 A/Ps are armed ANS: D 38. Midway on an 'LAND 3' approach, a go-around is performed by clicking the TOGA button once. Choose the correct picture as a result of this action. A C B D  ANS: A 39. A/T is disengaged but the A/T switch is in the armed condition. Select the correct statement with regard to speed protection. A. Speed protection by A/T is available. B. Speed protection by A/T is NOT available. C. The A/T will automatically engage to provide speed protection. D. Speed protection is NOT available, regardless of position of A/T switch. ANS: B 40. Aircraft is on autoland with 1 A/P inoperative. What is the annunciator indicated by the arrow? A. LAND 3 B. >LAND 2< C. NO AUTOLAND D. CMD ANS: B 41. Aircraft is rolling for takeoff and HOLD is annunciated. What happens when thrust levers are pulled back? A. They will move back to takeoff thrust. B. AT will disconnect. C. They will remain where they are. D. All FMA modes will be cancelled ANS: C 42. What is the FMA annunciation on the PFD for the Pitch mode in VNAV operation at cruise altitude? A. VNAV ALT B. VNAV SPD C. VNAV PTH D. ALT ANS: C 43. The FMA is showing SPD | LOC | ALT. Flaps are at 5. Pushing a TOGA switch on the thrust lever will A. engage THR | TOGA | TOGA B. engage THR | LOC | TOGA C. engage THR REF | TOGA | TOGA D. have not effect ANS: A 44. What will be the defaulted Flight Director modes that will be annunciated by placing a Flight Director switch to ON in-flight (full bank angle less than 5°) with no Auto- pilot engaged? A. HDG HOLD and V/S B. ATT and V/S C. HDG SEL and V/S D. None of the above ANS: A 45. With Auto-throttle system armed and Auto-pilot engaged, what happens when FLCH switch is pushed to initiate a climb? A. Auto-pilot controls the MCP window speed/ Mach B. Auto-pilot controls the FMS computed speed/ Mach C. Auto-throttle controls the MCP window speed/ Mach D. Auto-throttle controls the FMS computed speed/ Mach ANS: A 46. During single autopilot flight, what flight controls do the autopilot control? A. Ailerons and elevators  B. Ailerons and flight spoilers C. Elevators and flight spoiler D. Ailerons, elevators, rudder ANS: A 47. When is the AUTO position of the bank angle limit selector active? A. When either LNAV or HDG SEL is engaged B. Only when LNAV is engaged C. Only when HDG HOLD is selected D. Only when HDG SEL is engaged ANS: D 48. During takeoff roll, the TO/GA switch must be pushed before _____ in order for the autothrottle to engage? A. 50 KIAS B. 55 KIAS C. 60 KIAS D. 65 KIAS ANS: A 49. Following a Climb in FLCH mode, SPD | LNAV | ALT is annuciated at level-off, which is the correct picture at level-off? A B C D ANS: D 50. With the Mode Control Panel set up as shown, what would be annunciated on the Flight Mode Annunciator at 400' AGL? A. THR | LNAV| VNAV SPD B. THR REF | LNAV | VNAV SPD C. THR REF | HDG SEL | VNAV SPD D. THR | HDG SEL | FLCH SPD ANS: B 51. When is the Go-Around mode armed? A. When flaps are at 25 B. When the landing gear is extended C. When glide slope is captured and flaps are out of UP D. When glide slope is captured or when flaps are out of UP ANS: D 52. The LNAV operation affects which of the following? A. Auto-pilot, Flight Director and Auto-throttle B. Auto-Pilot and Auto-throttle C. Auto-throttle and Flight Director D. Auto-pilot and Flight Director ANS: D 53. Which of the following modes will control throttles and pitch mode simultaneously? A. FLCH and VNAV B. LNAV and VNAV C. FLCH and LNAV D. VNAV only ANS: A 54. The Auto-throttle command comes from the A. Left FMC only B. Master FMC C. Thrust Control D. Computer Electronic Engine Control ANS: B 55. What Auto-throttle mode should be annunciated on the PFD when the VNAV mode is engaged? A. VNAV SPD for climb and VNAV PTH or VNAV ALT for cruise B. THR REF for climb and SPD for cruise C. THR for climb and SPD for cruise  D. THR REF for climb and VNAV SPD for cruise ANS: B 56. Which statement is not true with regards to Altitude Selector on the Mode Control Panel? A. It can be used to delete altitude constraints B. It can be used to delete speed constraints C. It can be used to initiate a climb/ descent in FLCH operation D. It can be used to initiate a climb/ descent in VNAV operation ANS: C 57. During an auto-land, the Auto-throttle mode (IDLE) is disengaged by A. Air/ground sensing ground B. rollout mode engage C. auto-pilot disengagement D. reverse thrust operation ANS: D 58. During an approach for an autoland, when APP is selected on the MCP; A. the autopilot controlling prior to selecting APP is active B. all autopilots are now active C. all autopilots will become active when LOC and GS is captured below 1500ft RA. D. A and C ANS: D 59. During an automatic approach with flaps at 5 if a go-round is carried out, the FMA changes to; A. THR REF | LNAV | VNAV B. THR | LNAV | VNAV C. THR | TOGA | TOGA D. THR | LOC | TOGA ANS: C 60. The MCP is set to climb in vertical speed mode. Upon levelling off the new altitude the MCP will display: A B C D ANS: D 61. At what altitude does VNAV engage after takeoff? A. 50 feet B. 100 feet C. 400 feet D. at the altitude inserted into the VNAV/CLB page ANS: C 62. After passing 1500 feet acceleration height with climb thrust set, VNAV will command a pitch attitude to increase speed; A. up to the current flap setting placard speed - 5kts B. up to the greater of 250 KTS or V2 + 100 C. to maintain V2 + 10 up to V2 + 25 D. to enroute climb speed ANS: A 4. Communications 63. Communication is established on L HF. This is followed by SECAL check. An incoming SELCAL is annunciated by: A. A tone signal and white lights on RTPs. B. An EICAS message. C. A tone signal and CALL light on all 3 ACPs. D. A tone signal and CALL light on L ACP. ANS: C 64. An incoming SELCAL is indicated by; A. a white Mic and Call light and an aural chime B. a white call light and an aural chime C. a white call light only D. an aural chime only ANS: B 65. ACARS downlink and uplink are processed by: A. VHF C or HF C. B. VHF L or HF R C. VHF L or HF L. D. VHF C or SATCOM. ANS: D 66. Oxygen mask is removed from its stowage compartment. To use the boom mike again, you should A. Close both the doors of the mask stowage. B. Close the left mast stowage door and press the TEST/RESET lever. C. Press TEST/RESET lever only. D. Do nothing as the boom mike works in parallel with oxygen mike. ANS: B 67. How many VHF communication radios are installed and how are they tuned? A. 2; Each one may be tuned by their respective Radio Tuning Panel B. 3; Each one may be tuned by their respective Radio Tuning Panel C. 2; Each one may be tuned by any of the Radio Tuning Panel D. 3; Each one may be tuned by any of the Radio Tuning Panel ANS: D 68. If the First Officers Radio Tuning Panel is used to the left HF radio, where is the Left HF sensitivity adjusted? A. The Captain's Radio Tuning Panel B. The FO's Radio Tuning Panel C. Observer's Radio Tuning Panel D. Any of the three Radio Tuning Panel ANS: A 69. Pressing the CAB transmit button twice in quick succession on the Audio Control Panel will ring A. Door 1 Left Station B. Door 2 Right Station C. Upper Deck Crew Station D. All Cabin Stations ANS: A  5. Electrical 70. Aircraft has landed and APU started. What happens when APU GEN 1 switch is pushed? A. APU GEN 1 will power all AC buses. B. APU GEN 1 will power all AC buses and ground handling. C. APU GEN 1 will power AC buses 1 and 2. D. APU GEN 1 will power only ground handling bus. ANS: C 71. Engine flameout has occurred in-flight. It results in a configuration as shown on the electrical panel. Select the correct statement. A. AC buses 3 and 4 are lost. B. APU may be started to provide electrical power. C. IDGs 3 and 4 cannot be recovered. D. All AC buses are powered. ANS: D 72. If loading is still taking place in the main deck, which panel configuration would you choose? A B C D ANS: B 73. Select correct statement with reference to the panel below. Alternate EFIS selector is at Capt's position. A. APU Alternate power is activated to replace both Capt's and FO's Transfer Buses. B. APU Alternate power replaces only Capt's Transfer bus. C. APU Alternate power replaces only FO's Transfer bus. D. Capt's and FO's Transfer buses are not affected. ANS: D 74. What is the action if this message appears on the EICAS? A. Reset GCB 4. B. Reset BTB 4. C. Push IDG 4's DRIVE switch D. IDG 4 will disconnect automatically. ANS: C 75. In normal operations during flight, Standby Power switch is required to be in the AUTO position. What happens if the switch is selected to OFF? A. Nothing happens, but the backup power sources from APU and Main batteries are not available B. The Standby AC bus and APU Alternate power will not be available C. The Standby AC Bus is powered by Main Battery and APU Alternate power is unavailable  D. The APU Alternate power is powered by APU Battery and Standby AC Bus is unavailable ANS: B 76. Prior to engine shutdown, EXT 1 and EXT 2 are connected and indicating AVAIL. What happens when EXT 1 is selected to ON? A. IDG 1 and IDG 2 trip, SSB opens B. All IDGs trip, SSB remains close C. IDG I and IDG 2 trip, SSB remains close D. EXT PWR 1 returns to AVAIL ANS: A 77. Choose the correct statement with regards to LAND 3 annunciation. A. AC bus isolation lights 1, 2 and 3 do not illuminate B. EICAS message ELEC BUS ISLN does not display C. The message "ELECTRICAL SYNOPTIC INHIBITED FOR AUTOLAND" appears when electrical synoptic is selected D. All of the above are correct ANS: D 78. During multiple-channel autopilot’s ILS approach below 1,500 feet radio altitude A. AC busses 1, 2 and 3 are isolated B. AC and DC busses 1, 2 and 3 are isolated C. AC busses 2, 3 and 4 are isolated D. AC and DC busses 2, 3 and 4 are isolated ANS: B 79. What will power the Main Battery Bus and APU Battery Bus if Main DC Bus 3 is not available? A. Transformer Rectifier Units B. The Main and APU batteries automatically power their respective busses C. The Main Battery D. Th APU Battery ANS: B 80. Which bus/ buses powers the Captain's Transfer Bus? A. AC Bus 1, backup by AC Bus 3 B. AC Bus 3, backup by AC Bus 1 C. AC Bus 3 and 1 simultaneously D. AC Bus 2 and 1 simultaneously ANS: B 81. With the following panel setup, which source is powering the Ground Handling Bus? A. External Power 1 B. External Power 2 C. APU Generator 1 D. APU Generator 2 ANS: A 82. All engines have started, External Power disconnected and APU has been shut down. Which Bus/Buses is/are not powered under this condition? A. Ground Handling Bus B. Ground Service Bus C. Ground Handling and Ground Service Bus D. All Busses are powered ANS: A 83. APU generators are powering the aircraft started. 1, 2 and 3 engines are subsequently started. Choose the correct answer. A. AC Bus 4 is still powered by APU GEN 2 B. AC Bus 1 and 2 powered by IDGs, AC Bus 3 and 4 powered by APU Gen 2 and SSB is open C. All AC Busses are powered by IDGs D. All AC busses are powered by IDGs and SSB is open ANS: C 84. What powers the Main Deck Cargo Handling Bus and the Synchronous Bus?  A. APU Gen 2 is powering the MDCH Bus; EXT PWR 1 and EXT PWR 2 powering the Synchronous Bus with SSB open B. EXT PWR 2 powering the MDCH Bus; EXT PWR 1 powering the Synchronous Bus C. APU Gen 1 is powering the MDCH Bus; EXT PWR 1 and EXT PWR 2 powering the Synchronous Bus with SSB open D. EXT PWR 2 powering the MDCH Bus; EXT PWR 1 and EXT PWR 2 powering the Synchronous Bus with SSB open ANS: A 85. After landing with the APU running, selecting APU #1 ON will; A. trip all BTBs, SSB will open B. trip #1 and #2 IDGs, SSB will open C. trip all IDG’s, SSB remains closed D. trip all BTB’s and DC Isolation Relays, SSB will remain closed ANS: B 86. With the APU running and cargo loading/offloading taking place, the electrical panel should be configured A B C D ANS: A 87. If #2 and #3 engine shutdown, what happens to the AC bus A. the AC bus SSB will Open B. the AC bus SSB will Open and AC Bus 3 will be un-powered C. the AC bus SSB will Open and AC Bus 2 and AC Bus 3 will be un-powered D. no change ANS: D 88. During an automatic approach, the synchronous bus is powered by A. AC Buss 1 B. AC Buss 4 C. AC Busses 1 and 4 D. AC Busses, 1, 2, 3 and 4 ANS: B 89. Normally, Auto Ignition is powered by A. AC BUS 1 and 3 provided STBY is in NORM B. AC BUS 1 if STBY is in 1 or AC BUS 4 if STBY is in 2. C. STANDBY BUS provided STBY is in NORM D. AC BUS 2 ANS: A 6. Engines, APU 90. What are the minimum electrical power sources necessary for start and the operation of the APU? A. APU battery only. B. Main battery only. C. APU and Main batteries. D. APU battery and EXT PWR 1 or 2 ON. ANS: C 91. Choose the correct statement. A. APU is certified for in-flight start and operation up to 20,000 ft. B. APU is not certified for in-flight start but in-flight operation (with pneumatic load) up to 20,000 ft is allowed after ground start. C. APU is not certified for in-flight start but in-flight operation (without pneumatic load) up to 20,000 ft is allowed after ground start. D. None of the above ANS: C 92. What additional display appears on the EGT indication to assist in engine start when the FUEL CONTROL switch is in CUTOFF? A. A maximum start limit (red, 435 degrees C) is displayed. B. A maximum start limit (red, 485 degrees C) is displayed. C. A maximum start limit (red, 535 degrees C) is displayed. D. A maximum start limit (red, 585 degrees C) is displayed. ANS: C 93. What should be the position of the Standby Ignition selector that allows the normal AC busses to supply power to the selected ignitors when the Auto Ignition selector is on BOTH? A. NORM B. Position 1 C. Position 2 D. All of the above ANS: A 94. When should starter cut out automatically occur? A. 50% N1 B. 60% N1 C. 50% N2 D. 60% N2 ANS: C 95. What are the secondary engine indications? A. N2, EGT, fuel flow, oil pressure. B. N2, fuel flow, oil pressure, oil quantity. C. N2, fuel flow, oil pressure, oil temperature, oil quantity, and engine vibration. D. N2, fuel flow, oil temperature, and engine vibration.  ANS: C 96. What two engine indications have caution ranges? A. N1 and N2 B. EPR and EGT C. N1 and EGT D. EGT and oil temperature ANS: D 97. Aircraft is on final approach with the flaps selected for landing. Auto ignition selector is on 1. What is the action if 'ENG IGNITION' message appears on the primary EICAS? A. Select Standby Ignition selector to 1 or 2. B. Select Auto Ignition to BOTH. C. Select Auto Ignition to 2. D. Place Continuous Ignition to ON. ANS: A 98. The APU on the B747- 400 is: - A. certified for in-flight start and operation up to 20, 000 ft B. NOT certified for in-flight start but in-flight operation (with load) up to 20, 000 ft is C. NOT certified for in-flight start but in- flight operation (without load) up to 20, 000 ft is allowed after ground start D. shuts down at lift off ANS: C 99. With the panel configured as shown at the preflight stage, which pump is providing fuel to the APU? A. Number 2 AFT Boost pump B. Number 2 FWD Boost pump C. DC pump D. Gravity fed from Number 2 tank ANS: C 100. Engine Start Switch #1 is pulled for engine start, but it fails to start with the shown indications. What is the cause of the problem? A. Number 1 Bleed Air valve fails to open B. Number 1 Start Valve fails to open C. Number 1 Pressure Regulating valve fails to open D. Number 1 High Pressure valve fails to open ANS: A (?) 101. What does the amber REV (thrust reverser status indicator) above the EPR box indicates? A. Reverser is locked B. Reverser is deployed C. Reverser unlocked and/or in transit D. Reverser failure ANS: C 102. What protection does the EEC provide in the alternate control mode? A. Over temperature B. Thrust limiting C. Overspeed D. No protection at all ANS: C 103. What is the maximum takeoff EGT for PW 4056 engines? A. 535 °C B. 625 °C C. 635 °C D. 650 °C ANS: D 104. What normally powers the EEC when engine is running? A. The Standby AC bus B. The Battery Bus C. Respective AC bus D. Engine driven EEC Alternator ANS: D 105. On the ground, the Fuel-On-Command indicator on the N2 RPM indicator will disappear when: - A. when the Fuel Control Switch is moved from CUTOFF to RUN B. 10 secs after the Fuel Control Switch is moved from CUTOFF to RUN C. 20 secs after the Fuel Control Switch is moved from CUTOFF to RUN D. None of the above ANS: A 106. When does the APU generator AVAIL lights extinguish during shutdown? A. When N2 drops below 90% and the voltage and frequency fall out of limit B. When N2 drops below 95% limit and the voltage and frequency fall out of limit C. When N1 drops below 90% and the voltage and frequency fall out of limit D. When N1 drops below 95% and the voltage and frequency fall out of limit ANS: D (?) 107. What occurs if the normal operating parameters of the APU controller are exceeded? A. The APU controller automatically shuts down the APU after a 1 minute cool down period B. The APU controller automatically shuts down the APU with no cool down period C. An EICAS APU fault message is displayed in the primary EICAS D. None of the above ANS: B 108. The APU is; A. certified for inflight start and can be used to supply pneumatics up to 20000 ft B. not certified for inflight start but can be operated up to 20000 ft after ground start C. can be used to supply electrical power up to 15000 ft D. can be used to supply electrical power and pneumatics up to 15000 ft ANS: B 109. If on approach, the EICAS message “ENG IGNITION” displays, A. Select the Ignition CON switch ON. B. Select the Ignition STBY selector to NORM C. Select the Ignition STBY selector to 1 or 2 D. Select the Ignition AUTO selector to 1 or 2 ANS: C 110. Refer to the diagram; continuous ignition A. is provided by the AC busses B. only when the CON switch is selected C. only when the CON switch is selected and during start D. when nacelle or wing anti ice is selected ON ANS: A 111. If the start switch is illuminated with N2> 60 %, the EICAS message is; A. ENG START VLV B. STARTER CUTOUT C. ENG CONTROLS D. ENG SHUTDOWN ANS: B (?) 112. The line indicated on the diagram is; A. Max EPR (amber) B. Reference EPR (green) C. Command EPR (white) D. FMC calculated takeoff EPR ANS: A 7. Fire Protection 113. Select true statement. A. Engine fire detector serves also as overheat detector. B. Wheel well fire detector is a single loop detector. C. APU fire detector is a single loop detector. D. There are 2 APU fire extinguisher bottles. ANS: B 114. CARGO FIRE DISCH switch is pushed following a fire in FWD cargo compartment. Fire is extinguished. Select correct statement. A. All 4 fire extinguishing bottles will discharge simultaneously. B. Fire bottles C and D will not discharge if fire is extinguished after A and B have been discharged. C. Fire bottles C and D will discharge after a time delay. D. After a time delay, C will discharge. After another time delay, D will discharge. ANS: C 115. Referring to question above, what will happen to the pack(s)? A. Turns off Pack number 2 only B. Turns off Pack number 3 only C. Turn off Packs 2 and 3 D. Packs are unaffected ANS: C 116. 'FIRE WHEEL WELL' message appears on the EICAS. What are the actions according the abnormal procedure? A. Extend landing gear and discharge the extinguisher. B. Extend landing gear to extinguish the fire. C. Discharge the extinguisher. Landing gear may be left retracted. D. Discharge the extinguisher and activate cooling fans to cool down the brake temperature. ANS: B 117. What happens when the AFT CARGO FIRE extinguishing switch is pushed to the ARMED position? A. Pack 3 shuts down only  B. The upper recirculation fans goes 'OFF' only C. Equipment Cooling mode changes to 'Standby only D. All of the above ANS: A (?) 118. Arming the Main Deck Cargo Fire Alarm Switch and pushing the Cargo Fire Depress/ Disch Switch will A. depressurize the airplane to a cabin altitude of 25,000 feet B. depressurize the airplane to a cabin altitude of 20,000 feet and discharge Main Deck fire extinguishers C. depressurize the airplane to a cabin altitude of 25,000 feet and discharge Main Deck fire extinguishers D. discharge Main Deck fire extinguishers ANS: A 119. When will the Fire Warning lights on the Fire Handle and Fuel Control Switch extinguish? A. When the Caution, & Warning Display Cancel Switch is pushed B. When the fire signal no longer exists C. When the Master Caution/ Warning Reset switch is pushed D. When the Fire Handle is pulled. ANS: B 120. The lower cargo lobe fire DISCH light illuminates A. when the fire bottles A and B are discharged B. when all the 4 bottles are discharged C. when any bottle is discharged D. when the fire bottles C and D are discharged ANS: C 121. Which are the fire detection systems that are tested just by pushing the FIRE/OVHT TEST switches? A. The leading edges B. The wheel well fire detector loops C. The bleed duct leak detector loops D. Only B and C are correct ANS: D 122. What is provided for engine overheat detection? A. It uses the same loops as the fire detection unit B. It uses a thermal sensor C. In addition to the dual loop fire detection circuit, each engine also has a single loop overheat detector D. In addition to the dual loop fire detection circuit, each engine also has a dual loop overheat detector ANS: D 123. Which of the following DOES NOT occur when the FWD CARGO FIRE extinguisher is pushed to the ARMED position? A. Turns off Pack 2 B. Turns off all fans C. Arms the discharge squibs D. Equipment cooling is configured to the OVRD mode ANS: A 124. On ground, when an APU fire warning is activated, A. the APU will continue to run until the fire switch is pulled. B. the APU will shut down automatically but fire discharge will have to be carried out manually C. the APU will shut down automatically followed by an automatic fire extinguisher discharge. D. the APU has to be shut down from the APU Ground Control Fire Protection panel only ANS: C 125. When the CARGO FIRE DEPRESS/DISCH switch is pushed; A. All bottles will discharge into all cargo compartments B. All bottles will discharge into Lower Lobe compartments C. Bottles A and B will discharge immediately, then if FIRE message is still displayed, Bottle C will discharge followed by Bottle D after a time delay D. Bottles A and B will discharge then bottles C and D after a time delay ANS: D 126. When the main deck forward Cargo Fire Arm switch is armed; A. 1 Pack shuts down B. 2 Packs shut down C. 2 Packs shut down and aircraft is depressurised D. Aircraft is depressurised after a time delay ANS: B 127. The procedure for a Wheel Well fire is to; A. Lower the landing gear B. Lower the landing gear and leave extended C. Lower the landing gear for 20 minutes D. Lower the Landing Gear and leave extended until the Fire Wheel Well message extinguishes ANS: A 128. The wheel well has; A. a single loop overheat detector B. a single loop fire detector C. a duel loop overheat detector D. a duel loop fire detector ANS: B 129. If an engine fire occurs after V1 during the takeoff run, the following aural and visual alerts will be generated until 400 ft or 25 secs after V1; A B C D ANS: C 130. When the APU Fire Switch is pulled, A. one bottle is discharged B. one bottle is discharged after the APU Stop Switch is pushed in the right Body Gear Well C. and rotated, one bottle is discharged and when rotated in the opposite direction the other bottle is discharged if the fire warning persists D. and rotated, one bottle is discharged ANS: D 8. Flight controls 131. With the speedbrake lever extended in-flight, which flight control surface position shows the correct indication? A B C D ANS: A 132. One of the functions of Flap Control Units is to provide A. flap load relief protection in the primary mode only. B. flap load relief protection in the primary and secondary modes. C. TE flap asymmetry protection in the primary mode only. D. A and C are correct. ANS: A 133. Select correct answer with reference to the diagram A. LE and TE flaps extend together. B. There is no sequencing. Flap load relief protection is not available. C. LE and TE flaps are extended by electrical means. D. All of the above are correct. ANS: D 134. Aircraft is taxing. Flight control check is carried out as shown. Choose the correct indications A B C D ANS: B 135. Is there any penalty involved if approach is made with ‘AILERON LOCKOUT' message on the EICAS? A. Yes. Maximum landing weight must be reduced. B. No. One group of ailerons provides adequate manoeuvring capability. C. Yes. Crosswind limit must be observed. D. None of the above are correct. ANS: C 136. Flaps are extending when FLAPS DRIVE message appears. Choose the correct answer regarding this scenario A. Inboard flaps are driven by electrical motor. B. Outboard flaps freeze. C. Both outboard and inboard flaps are driven by electrical motor. D. Outboard flaps operation is normal. ANS: D 137. Flap 30 position is selected. What is the correct flap indication if Flap Load Relief occurs? A B C D ANS: D 138. What is true of elevators? A. Pitch trimming on this airplane is by moving the elevator trim tab B. Outboard elevators are lock out at high speeds C. If both elevator position indicators deflect, all the four elevators are functioning normally D. Hydraulic system 1 & 4 power the feel mechanism ANS: C 139. Which of the following is indicated by the EICAS caution message STAB TRIM UNSCHD? A. Failure of stabilizer to move with a trim signal B. Stabilizer trim using the Alternate Trim switches C. Stabilizer movement without a trim signal and the auto-cutout function has stopped the movement D. Stabilizer movement without a trim signal and the auto-cutout function did not occur ANS: D 140. Which of the following is one of the required conditions for automatic speedbrake extension with the speedbrake lever in the ARM position? A. Application of wheel brake pressure B. Nose landing gear on ground C. Availability of hydraulic system 1 OR 4 pressure D. Availability of both hydraulic system 1 AND 4 pressure ANS: C 141. During taxi with all flaps retracted, turning a control wheel will deflect A. the outboard ailerons only B. the inboard ailerons only C. both the outboard and inboard ailerons D. none of the ailerons ANS: C 142. The EICAS caution message FLAPS DRIVE is displayed when: A. trailing edge flap asymmetry is detected B. leading edge flap asymmetry is detected C. leading edge or trailing edge flap asymmetric is detected D. both leading edge and trailing edge flap asymmetric are detected ANS: A 143. What is the function of the rudder ratio changers? A. Reduce rudder pedal deflection (and hence rudder surface deflection) with increasing speed B. Reduce rudder surface response to pedal inputs with increasing airspeed C. Increase maximum rudder surface deflection with increasing speed D. None of the above ANS: B 144. What will be the stabilizer trim rate if one trim actuator fails to operate? A. There will be no difference B. Both trim actuator fails to operate C. Manual trim rate will be reduced to 1/2 the normal scheduled rate D. Manual trim rate will be reduced to 1/4 the normal scheduled rate ANS: C 145. If the speed brake lever is in arm, when do the spoilers automatically extend for landing? A. When thrust levers 2 and 3 are near closed position and the main landing gear touch down B. When thrust levers 1 and 4 are near closed position and the main landing gear touch down C. When thrust levers 2 and 4 are near closed position and the main landing gear touch down D. When thrust levers 1 and 3 are near closed position and the main landing gear touch down ANS: D 146. What is the primary power source for the trailing edge flaps? A. Inboard flaps are hydraulic system 1; Outboard flaps are hydraulic system 4 B. Inboard flaps are hydraulic system 2; Outboard flaps are hydraulic system 4 C. Inboard flaps are hydraulic system 1; Outboard flaps are hydraulic system 3 D. Inboard flaps are hydraulic system 2; Outboard flaps are hydraulic system 3 ANS: A 147. What is the primary power source for the leading edge flaps? A. Hydraulic system 1 B. Hydraulic system 3 C. Electrical D. Pneumatically from the bleed air duct  ANS: D 148. What are the three necessary entries to be made into the FMS-CDU in order to display the green band for takeoff? A. Airplane gross weight, takeoff flaps setting and C.G. B. Airplane gross weight, C.G and takeoff thrust setting C. Takeoff thrust setting, takeoff flaps setting and stabilizer trim units. D. Takeoff thrust setting, C.G and fuel configuration ANS: B 149. When does flap load relief operate? A. If flap airspeed limits are exceeded with flaps at 25 or 30 B. When the FCU primary control mode is operational and if flap airspeed limits are exceeded with flaps at 20 or greater. C. If flap airspeed limits are exceeded with flaps at 20 or greater. D. When the FCU primary control mode is operational and if flap airspeed limits are exceeded with flaps at 25 or 30. ANS: D 150. If a trailing edge flap asymmetry is detected, primary mode operation is immediately shut down for the asymmetric group and the FCUs A. will switch control to the secondary mode in an attempt to correct the asymmetry B. will not switch control to the secondary mode and you should not use alternate mode C. will not switch control to the secondary mode and you should use alternate mode D. will switch control to the secondary mode but will not correct the asymmetry ANS: B 151. What happens to the flaps during engine reverse thrust operation? A. The outboard flaps automatically retract. B. The inboard and mid span leading edge flaps automatically retract. C. The inboard flaps automatically retract. D. No changes occur. ANS: B 152. Extending the Flaps using the Alternate Flap Selector; A. does not provide any asymmetry protection. B. does not provide any asymmetry protection or flap load relief C. displays the EICAS message FLAPS PRIMARY D. inhibits the >FLAP RELIEF EICAS message ANS: B 153. Which diagram best represents the indication of the flaps during flap load relief. A B C D ANS: C 154. Refer to the diagram A. The Outboard Flaps will stop operating B. The Outboard Flaps will operate in Secondary mode C. The Outboard Flaps should be operated in ALT mode D. The Outboard Flaps will operate normally ANS: D 155. The Stab Trim green band is calculated from inputs into the FMC of; A. Gross weight and C of G B. Gross weight, C of G and takeoff flap setting C. Gross weight and T/Off thrust setting D. Gross weight, C of G and takeoff thrust setting ANS: D 156. When the EICAS message FLAPS PRIMARY is displayed A. primary flap operation is occurring B. it takes a longer time for flap extension; the approach must be planned earlier C. there is an asymmetric flap problem detected and secondary flap operation is taking place D. the Alternate Flaps Arm switch need to be placed in ARM to regain flap operation ANS: B 157. With an EICAS message “AILERON LOCKOUT”, the required procedure on final approach is to; A. not extend Flaps beyond 25 B. not apply large or abrupt control wheel inputs C. observe the crosswind limit D. both B and C ANS: D 158. With control column positioned as shown in the diagram, the Surface Position Indicator will show; A B C D ANS: A 159. If the ALT FLAPS ARM switch is pushed, the EICAS message displayed is; A. FLAPS DRIVE B. FLAPS CONTROL C. FLAPS PRIMARY D. FLAPS DISAGREE ANS: B 160. Operation of the Speed Brake in flight is indicated on the Flight Control Position Indicator as A B C D ANS: A 9. Flight management & navigation 161. What are the navigation systems that can be used by FMC to update its position. A. GPS, VOR and LOC B. GPS, ADF and VOR C. Transponder, LOC and VOR D. Weather radar, GPS and GS ANS: A 162. What does EICAS message ›SOURCE SELECT NAV mean? A. Both FMCs are relying on single VOR/DME for update. B. Both pilots are using single ADC for operation. C. Failure of both FMCs. D. Single FMC operation ANS: D 163. The L system is selected as shown. Which IRU(s) is/are providing stabilization signal to the WX radar antenna? A. L IRU B. R IRU C. L and R IRUs D. L and C IRUs ANS: D 164. The standby Attitude direction Indicator receives ILS data from: A. Left and Center ILS receivers. B. Right and Center ILS receivers. C. Left and Right ILS receivers. D. Left ILS receiver only. ANS: D 165. Which ND modes can be used to display weather radar? A. VOR EXP and CTR B. APP EXP and CTR C. MAP EXP and CTR D. Plan ANS: C 166. If an EFIS control panel fails, the related functions/ selections: - A. are pre-set to a default value B. can still be selected from the on-side FMS-CDU C. can be selected from either FMS-CDU D. can be selected from the Center FMS-CDU ANS: B 167. What must be selected to 'STEP" through the selected flight plan? A. ND mode selector in PLAN and CDU in LEGS page. B. ND mode selector in PLAN or MAP and CDU in LEGS page. C. ND mode selector in PLAN and CDU in PROG page. D. ND mode selector in PLAN or MAP and CDU in PROG page ANS: A 168. Where can speed and altitude constraints at a waypoint be entered into the FMS- CDU? A. PERF page. B. RTE page. C. LEGS page. D. VNAV page. ANS: C 169. VNAV is armed on the ground. After take-off, VNAV will engage it. - A. airplane is above 50 ft RA and PERF INIT page is complete. B. airplane is above 400 ft RA and PERF INIT page is complete. C. airplane is above 50 ft RA. D. airplane is above 400 ft RA. ANS: B 170. Where could one tune the ADF radio? A. CDU NAV RAD page only. B. CDU NAV RAD or APPROACH REF page. C. CDU NAV RAD or Radio Tuning panel. D. Radio Tuning panel only. ANS: A 171. During Standby Navigation operation, (upon dual FMC failure), which are the navigation related pages available on the CDUs? A. Alternate Navigation Radio only. B. IRS LEGS, IRS Routes and Alternate Navigation Radio. C. IRS Progress, IRS Routes and Alternate Navigation Radio. D. IRS Progress, IRS LEGS and Alternate Navigation Radio. ANS: D 172. With both FMCs failed, how does one tune ILS frequency? A. From the left CDU B. From the right CDU C. From the center CDU D. From all 3 CDUs ANS: D 173. What normally powers the center, right and left IRUs? A. DC busses 1, 2, and 3 respectively  B. AC busses 1, 2, and 3 respectively C. Standby AC busses 1, 2 and 3 respectively D. Standby DC busses 1, 2 and 3 respectively ANS: B 174. If AC power is lost to the IRUs, what will power the Center, Right, and Left IRUs? A. DC power from the standby DC bus B. AC power from the standby AC bus C. DC power from the APU hot battery bus D. From internal batteries ANS: C 175. What happens during LNAV operation when you pass the last waypoint? A. Maintains last heading B. Enters a holding pattern C. LNAV disengages D. HDG SEL engages ANS: A 176. Following dual FMC failure midway through the flight, you decide to land at the nearest airport. How do you insert the airport's waypoint into the FMS? A. By typing latitude and longitude co-ordinates of the airport into the FMS-CDU B. By typing the airport identifier into the FMS-CDU C. By using the FIX page and insert airport ICAO code into the page. D. By inserting airport ICAO code into the Dep/Arr index page ANS: A 177. Which CRT can you select for weather radar display? A. PFDs, NDs and both EICAS B. NDs and Lower EICAS C. PFDs and NDs D. Only the NDs ANS: B (?) 178. With autopilot engaged, glideslope and localiser captured, how could you retune the ILS to accommodate a runway change? A. By simply changing the ILS frequency on the Nav Rad page. B. By disengaging the autopilot and turning OFF both flight director switches, then re-engaging the autopilot and select both flight directors back ON C. By disengaging the autopilot and turning OFF both flight director switches, then change the ILS frequency on Nav Rad page D. It will be automatically re-tuned once you captured the new glideslope. ANS: C 179. If both EFIS Control Panels have failed, where can you select the synoptic on the EICAS Display Select Panel?  A. On the EICAS Display Select Panel B. On the Left FMS-CDU C. On the Right FMS-CDU D. Both B & C is correct ANS: D 180. What are the conditions that must be satisfied to allow FMS autotuning A. The appropriate approach (ILS, LOC, back course) is selected B. The aircraft is within 150 miles of destination C. The aircraft is within 50 miles of T/D D. All of the above ANS: D 181. Which ND mode does not have Center display? A. APP B. VOR C. MAP D. PLAN ANS: D 182. Select the correct statement. A. MAP mode route display is referenced to True North B. PLAN mode route display is reference to compass heading C. APP and VOR modes are 'Heading Up' display D. APP and VOR modes are Track Up' display ANS: C 183. How do you cancel the LNAV mode once it has been engaged? A. By selecting ALT HOLD B. By selecting HDG SEL C. By selecting FL CH D. By selecting LNAV again ANS: B 184. What is the significance of the momentarily displayed EICAS message ‘IRS AC CENTER, LEFT, RIGHT’ when you select the IRS mode switch from OFF to NAV? A. AC power failure B. IRU fault detected C. IRU backup DC power failure D. No fault, just a self-test of the backup power supply ANS: D 185. Which CDU pages can you manually inhibit GPS update? A. PROG page 2/ 3 B. VNAV CRZ C. POS REF page 3/3  D. Cannot be inhibited ANS: C (?) 186. The Heading Reference switch affects which of the following systems? A. PFDs and NDs B. PFDs, NDs, AFDS, FMCs and RMI C. PFDs, NDs and RMI D. PFDs, NDs, AFDS and FMCs ANS: B 187. The EIU selector on the Captain's Source Select Panel is used to select the EIU source for: A. Captain's PFD and ND B. Captain's PFD, ND and Upper EICAS C. Captain's PFD, ND and both EICAS D. Both pilots' PFD and ND ANS: A 188. The RMI receives heading information from which IRS? A. Right and Center, depending on Capt IRS Source Selector B. Right and Center, depending on F/O IRS Source Selector C. Left, Center and Right, depending on Capt IRS Source Selector D. Left, Center and Right, depending on F/O IRS Source Selector ANS: B 189. The standby Attitude direction Indicator receives ILS data from: - A. Left and Center ILS receiver B. Right and Center ILS receiver C. Left and Right ILS receiver D. Left ILS receiver only ANS: D 190. The heading on the RMI on the Capt. panel is supplied from; A. L, C, or R IRS depending on Capt IRS source select switch B. R, C or L IRS depending on FO IRS source select switch C. R or C IRS depending on the FO IRS source select switch D. L IRS ANS: C 191. If the HDG REF switch is selected to TRUE, the systems/displayed affected are? A. PFD, ND B. PFD, ND, AFDS, FMS, RMI C. PFD, ND, RMI, FMS D. PFD, ND, RMI ANS: B 192. The Standby Attitude indicator receives; A. approach information from the L ILS receiver B. ILS information as selected on the FMS-CDU C. VOR and ILS information as selected on the FMS-CDU D. approach information from the Master FMC ANS: A 193. When an EFIS control panel fails, control of the PFD/ND; A. is pre-set by default B. is available from the other EFIS control panel C. is achieved by selecting the respective FMS-CDU D. is available from either FMS-CDU ANS: C 194. The Captains EIU selector will affect the displays on the Captains; A. PFD, ND and the upper and lower EICAS displays. B. PFD C. ND D. PFD and ND ANS: D 195. In STANDBY navigation (both FMC’s failed), what are the three pages available on the respective CDU’s; A. IRS LEGS, IRS ROUTE, ALTN NAV RADIO B. IRS LEGS, IRS PROGRESS, IRS ROUTE C. IRS LEGS, IRS PROGRESS, ALTN NAV RADIO D. IRS LEGS, ALTN NAV RADIO, MENU ANS: C 196. ADF tuning can be done; A. manually on the CDU only B. manually or automatically by the FMC C. automatically by the FMC only D. on the RTP’s ANS: A 197. The EICAS control panel has failed: EICAS selections can be made on: A. L FMS-CDU only B. L or R FMS-CDU (respectively) C. L, C, or R FMS-CDU D. can no longer be made ANS: B 198. If both FMC’s have failed, the ILS frequency and course; A. is manually entered into all three CDU’s  B. is manually entered into the Left and Right CDU’s C. is manually entered into the Left CDU only D. autotunes ANS: A 199. A FMS-CDU modified route is displayed on the ND as a; A. magenta line B. dashed cyan (blue) line C. dashed white line D. white line ANS: C 200. Weather Radar is displayed with the following EFIS selections; A. MAP, VOR CTR B. MAP CTR, PLN C. APP, VOR, VOR CTR D. MAP, MAP CTR ANS: D 10. Fuel 201. The fuel panel is set for takeoff as shown. Which picture shows the correct panel set- up when takeoff flaps are selected? A B C D ANS: C 202. In the question above, as the flight progresses, >FUEL TANK/ENG message appears on the EICAS. Which is the correct panel configuration to select following this message? A B C D ANS: B 203. Select correct statement(s) with regard to fuel jettison. A. Fuel from tanks 1 & 4 will transfer to tanks 2 & 3 when either tank 2 or 3 is 9070 kg. B. The amount of fuel that cannot be dumped per tank is 3,200 kg. C. Each tank has its own jettison pumps. D. A and B are correct. ANS: A (?) / D(?) 204. Fuel pump 1 AFT has failed. What should you do under this condition? A. Switch off the affected pump. B. Switch off the affected pump and reduce engine 1 thrust. C. Switch off the affected pump and switch on O/J pumps 2 and 3. D. Pull FUEL PUMP 1AFT CB. ANS: A 205. What is/are correct about fuel transfer from RESERVE TANKS 2 & 3 to MAIN TANKS 2 & 3? A. Transfer is by pumps in RESERVE TANKS. B. Transfer is by gravity. C. Transfer takes place when either MAIN TANK 2 or 3 is about 18,000kg D. B & C are correct ANS: D 206. For scavenge system which uses hydromechanical pumps, fuel from center wing tank is transferred to A. Main tanks 2 & 3. B. Main tank 2. C. Main tank 3. D. Reserve tanks 2 & 3. ANS: A 207. All fuel tanks are full and all pumps are selected ON. All cross-feed switches are selected ON. What is the fuel feed configuration when flaps are extended for takeoff? A. Main tanks 2 and 3 feed all engines B. Centre tank feeds all engines C. Centre tank feeds the outboard engines and main tanks 2 and 3 feed their respective engine D. Centre tank feeds the inboard engines and main tanks 1 and 4 feed their respective engine ANS: C 208. How do you reconfigure the fuel system for tank to engine operation? A. Place Main pumps 1 & 4 switches OFF and place Crossfeed valve 1 & 4 switches ON B. Place Override pumps 2 & 3 switches OFF and place Crossfeed valve 1 & 4 switches ON C. Place Main pumps 1 & 4 switches OFF and place Crossfeed valve 1 & 4 switches off  D. Place Override pumps 2 & 3 switches OFF and place Crossfeed valve 1 & 4 switches off ANS: D 209. How do you correct the fuel imbalance as shown? A. Shut off No. 2 Main pump B. Shut off No. 3 Main pump C. Shut off No. 2 Override/Jettison pumps D. Shut off No. 3 Override/Jettison pumps ANS: D 210. Where is the fuel temperature measured and how is the temperature displayed? A. It is measured in main tank 1 and displayed on lower right corner of primary EICAS B. It is measured in main tank 4 and displayed on lower right corner of primary EICAS C. It is measured in main tank 1 and displayed on upper right corner of primary EICAS D. It is measured in main tank 4 and displayed on upper right corner of Primary EICAS ANS: A 211. How many fuel pumps supply fuel from main tank 1 or 4? A. Two DC pumps for each tank B. One DC pump for each tank C. Two AC pumps for each tank D. One AC pump for each tank ANS: C 212. What fuel temperature causes the EICAS message FUEL TEMP LOW displayed? A. -57 degrees C B. -47 degrees C C. -37 degrees C D. -27 degrees C ANS: C 213. After refuelling, the fuel load distribution in the various tanks is as follows: CWT 24,000 kg HST 0 kg 2/3 MT 37,000 kg 1/4 MT 13,000 kg 2/3 RT 3,900 kg Which of the following shows the correct fuel panel set-up before engine start? A B C D ANS: D 214. When flaps are extended during approach (after a normal cruise and descent): A. Cross-feed valves 2 and 3 remain open B. Cross-feed valves 2 and 3 closes automatically C. Cross-feed valves 1 and 4 closes automatically D. Cross-feed valves 1, 2, 3 and 4 closes automatically ANS: A 215. When does reserve tank fuel transfer take place in-flight? A. Automatically when either main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to about 18,000kg B. Automatically when both main tank 2 and 3 fuel quantity decrease to about 18,000kg C. Automatically when either main tank 2 or 3 fuel quantity decreases to about 13,600kg D. Automatically when both main tank 2 and 3 fuel quantity decrease to about 13,600kg ANS: A 216. >FUEL IMBALANCE, if it appears, means there is a A. fuel difference of 1,360 kg between MT 1 & 4 B. fuel difference of 2,720 kg between MT 2 & 3 C. fuel difference of 1,360 kg between the total of inboard MT and the total of outboard MT after reaching FUEL TANK/ENG condition D. fuel difference of 2,720 kg between the total of inboard MT and the total of outboard MT after reaching FUEL TANK/ENG condition ANS: D 217. With all tanks filled, what occurs in the fuel management sequence when the flaps are lowered for takeoff? A. System logic automatically closes crossfeed valves 2 & 3 B. CWT now feeds engine 1 & 4 C. Main tanks 2 and 3 feed their respective engine D. All of the above ANS: D 218. Which of the following fuel pumps are controlled by system logic? A. CENTER, STAB and OVRD 2/3 pumps B. CENTER and STAB pumps C. STAB and OVRD 2/3 pumps D. OVRD 2/3 pumps ANS: C 219. Reserve fuel #2 or #3 transfer is carried out in flight; A. automatically when either main tanks #2 or #3 is < 18,200 kgs B. automatically when either main tanks #2 or #3 is < 9000 kgs C. automatically when both main tanks #2 and #3 is < 18,200 kgs D. manually by a switch on the overhead maintenance panel ANS: A 220. #1 and #4 main tank transfer valves operate; A. automatically during fuel jettison when the fuel quantity in MT2 or MT3 reaches approximately 18,000kgs B. manually by a switch on the overhead panel C. automatically during fuel jettison when the fuel quantity in MT2 or MT3 reaches approximately 9,072kgs until all tanks reach 3,200kgs D. automatically during fuel jettison when the fuel quantity in MT2 or MT3 reaches approximately 9,072kgs ANS: D 221. If the EICAS message”> FUEL TANK/ENG” is displayed, the fuel system should be configured A B C ANS: C 222. With the configuration shown before start, what is the configuration indicated on the fuel panel when flaps are lowered for takeoff;  A B C ANS: B 223. Fuel remaining in the CWT is scavenged into. A. Tank Main 2 B. Tank Main 3. C. Tank Main 2 and 3 D. Tank Main 1 and 4 ANS: C 224. Fuel used information can be found on; A. CDU page PROGRESS 2/2 B. CDU page PROGRESS 1/2 C. the secondary EICAS with the FUEL synoptic switch pushed D. LEGS page ANS: A 225. The required sequence for fuel jettison is A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 3, 1 C. 3, 1, 2 ANS: A 11. Hydraulics 226. Which panel is correct when AUX position is selected in preparation for engine start? A B C D ANS: C 227. Aircraft is on final approach and is configured for landing. What is the status of demand pumps? A. All demand pumps are running. B. Demand pumps 1 and 4 are running. C. Demand pumps 2 and 3 are running. D. None of the demand pumps are running. ANS: B 228. Select correct picture which depicts an engine fire switch being pulled. A B C D ANS: A 229. What is the difference between the outboard and inboard demand pumps? A. System 1 and 4 have electric pumps; System 2 and 3 have air driven pumps B. System 1 and 4 have air driven pumps; System 2 and 3 have accumulators C. System 1 and 4 have electric pumps; System 2 and 3 have accumulators D. System 1 and 4 have air driven pumps; System 2 and 3 have electric pumps  ANS: D 230. How would you close the Hydraulic Shut Off Valve upstream of the EDP? A. Select EDP switch on overhead panel to OFF B. Select EDP switch on overhead panel to OFF and pull Fire handle C. Pull Fire handle D. Select Fuel Control switch to CUTOFF ANS: C 231. Select the correct statement with reference to auxiliary pump in number 4 hydraulic A. It operates any time when selected B. It operates when APU is online with the airplane on ground with all APU services operative C. It operates when number 4 demand pump and EDP fails D. It operates when parking brake is set ANS: B 232. Which hydraulic system powers the normal brakes and the alternate brakes A. 4, 1 and 2 B. 1, 2 and 4 C. 2 and 1, 4 D. 4 and 1, 2 ANS: A 233. How do Demand Pumps 1 and 4 behave with regards to flaps? A. On ground, demand pumps 1 and 4 will run as long as TE flaps are in transition. In flight, they run as long as TE flaps are extended. B. On ground, demand pumps 1and 4 will run as long as all flaps are in transition. In flight, they run as long as all flaps are extended. C. Demand pumps 1 and 4 will run when flaps are extended, both on ground and in flight D. Demand pumps 1 and 4 will run when TE flaps are extended, both on ground and in flight ANS: A 234. What does the SYS FAULT light indicate (overhead panel) and where is the location of these parameters? A. Reservoir pressure, over temperature, low system pressure; HYD synoptic B. Reservoir pressure, over temperature, low system pressure; HYD synoptic and Status page C. Low quantity, over temperature, low system pressure; HYD synoptic and Status page D. Low quantity, over temperature, low system pressure; HYD synoptic ANS: C 235. Refer to the diagram; A. (a) - AUX pump running  (b) - AUX pump plus ENG pump running B. (a) - DEMAND pump running (b) - ENG pump running C. (a) - AUX pump running (b) - ENG pump running ANS: C 236. When the flaps are extended past 1, the hydraulic system is best represented by; A B C D ANS: B 237. When a Fire Switch is pulled, the Hydraulic systems configures to A B C D ANS: C 238. What hydraulic systems (in order) are used by autopilots C, R and L. A. 1, 2, 3 B. 2, 3, 1 C. 3, 1, 2 ANS: A 12. Landing gear 239. EICAS message 'GEAR DISAGREE' means A. There is disagreement of any gear with the gear lever position. B. That one of the gear doors is not fully closed. C. Gear operating speed is exceeded. D. One gear is still in transit. ANS: A 240. Select true statement. A. Tiller input moves nose wheel and rudder pedals B. Body gear steering is powered by hydraulic system 4 C. Both nose and body gear wheels turn in the same direction when aircraft is manoeuvring a tight corner. D. Body gear is deactivated and centred when aircraft speed is more than 20 knots ANS: D 241. Match this picture with correct answer assuming you are in-flight. A B C D ANS: B (?) / D 242. Reference to the question above, what are the means available to decelerate the aircraft on landing? A. Alternate brake system. B. Ground spoilers will deploy automatically to decelerate the aircraft. C. Only accumulator pressure. D. Accumulator pressure and thrust reverser #3.  ANS: D 243. Select correct statement about autobrakes system. A. Autobrakes works on both Normal and Alternate brake sources. B. Autobrakes system requires anti-skid system to be serviceable. C. Autobrakes system requires brake torque limiters to be serviceable. D. B and C are correct. ANS: B 244. What must a crew do following a rejected takeoff? A. Prepare for the next takeoff. B. Get maintenance crew to change all brakes. C. Refer to the Brake Cooling Chart for advice. D. Allow 24 hrs for brakes to cool down. ANS: C 245. What are the correct steps for the problem shown below? A. 1, 3 followed by 2. B. 1 followed by 4. C. 4, 1 followed by 2. D. 1, 4 followed by 2. ANS: D 246. Which hydraulic systems/sources can pressurize the parking brake when set A. System 4 B. System 1 and 2 C. System 4, 1 and 2 D. System 4 ,1, 2 and the accumulator pressure ANS: D 247. The EICAS advisory message BODY GEAR STRG is displayed:  A. whenever body gear steering is in use B. if the body gear steering is unlocked or pressurized when not commanded C. if body gear steering is locked when commanded to operate D. None of the above ANS: B 248. Which of the following statements is true with regards to hydraulic system 4 failure? A. Anti-skid system is lost B. Autobrake system is available C. Anti-skid system is still available D. Brake Source light illuminates ANS: C 249. Which of the following EICAS message(s) should be displayed with the parking brake set? A. Memo message PARK BRAKE SET only B. Memo message PARK BRAKE SET and advisory message ANTI-SKID OFF C. Memo message PARK BRAKE SET and advisory messages ANTI-SKID OFF and BRAKE LIMITER D. Memo message and status message PARK BRAKE SET ANS: D(?) / A 250. Which hydraulic system(s) supplies the autobrake system? A. System 1 only B. System 1 or 4 C. System 1, 2 or 4 D. System 4 only ANS: D 251. Which of the following system/s will be lost if Hydraulic system 1 is lost? A. Normal Brakes B. Nose wheel and body gear steering C. Anti-skid system D. Autobrake system ANS: B 252. At what speed will the RTO of the autobrakes system arm? A. 75 knots B. 80 knots C. 85 knots D. 90 knots ANS: C 253. What does the display (in white) on the Primary EICAS Display mean?  A. Normal indication for cruise B. All gears are up-locked and doors are closed for less than 10 seconds C. All gears are up-locked and doors closed with gear lever in the UP position D. All gears are up-locked and doors closed with gear lever in the OFF position ANS: B 254. The following indications mean A. the only available brake source is from the accumulator, and this may be insufficient to stop the aircraft on the landing run B. the normal brake source pressure is lost, and hydraulic system 1 alternate brake pressure has been auto-selected C. the normal brake source pressure is lost, and hydraulic system 2 alternate brake pressure has been auto-selected D. this is normal brake pressure indication ANS: A 255. What happens when the gear lever is place to OFF after all gears are up-locked and doors closed? A. Hydraulic system depressurizes and all gears are held up by mechanical uplocks B. Body gears and wing gears are held up by hydraulic pressure but nose gear is held up by mechanical uplocks C. Body gears are held up by hydraulic pressure and wing gears are held up by mechanical uplocks D. All gears are held up by hydraulic pressure ANS: A 256. What does this display (in green) on the Primary EICAS Display means? A. All gears are down-locked. Display will disappear after 10 seconds B. All gears are down-locked and doors closed following a normal hydraulic gear extension. C. All gears are down- locked and doors closed following an alternate gear extension with hydraulic system 1 loss D. All gears are down-locked. But one or more doors are still open ANS: B 257. When do autobrakes disarm automatically after landing A. When thrust reversers are deployed B. When pedal braking is applied, any thrust lever is advanced or speedbrakes are stowed C. A new deceleration rate is selected with speedbrakes deployed D. Thrust reverser levers 1 & 4 are at idle detent ANS: B 258. What would be the status of the gear doors after an alternate gear extension has been performed and the gear lever is selected DN? A. All gears doors would always remain open with or without hydraulic pressure B. All gears doors would always be closed with or without hydraulic pressure C. The gear doors may close if hydraulic pressure is available D. The door for the malfunctioning gear will always be stuck open with or without hydraulic pressure ANS: C 259. When does the landing gear lever lock prevent movement of the landing gear lever to the UP position? A. When any main gear is not tilted and/ or nose gear is not centered B. When any main gear is not tilted and/ or nose gear is C. When all main gears are tilted and body gears steering is centered D. When any main gears are not tilted and/ or body gears steering is not centered ANS: D 260. The situation depicted in the diagram indicates; A. the normal hydraulic brake source is not pressurised and hydraulic source 1 or 2 is supplying pressure. B. only accumulator pressure is available to the brake system and may not be sufficient to stop the aircraft. C. only accumulator pressure is available to the brake system due to failure of hydraulic system 4. D. demand pump 4 is supplying brake pressure. ANS: B 261. Autobrakes are disarmed by; A. applying manual braking, advancing any Thrust Lever or stowing of the Speed Brake B. applying Reverse Thrust, applying manual braking, applying the Park Brake C. an Autobrake system fault, selecting Reverse Thrust to idle thrust D. manually positioning the Autobrake selector to OFF only ANS: A 262. The EICAS display shown in the diagram is displayed; A. all the time that the gear is up and locked B. if the gear is up and locked for less than 10 seconds C. when the gear is up and locked with the Gear Lever in the UP position D. when the gear position is in disagreement with the gear lever ANS: B 263. The Landing Gear Lever Lock will prevent the selection of Gear UP; A. when the nose wheel is not centered B. when the body gear is not centered C. when the body gear is not centered and/or the main gear trucks are not tilted D. when the body gear is not centered and the wing gear trucks are not tilted. ANS: C 264. With the Gear Lever in the OFF position the gear is held up in the uplock position; A. with hydraulic pressure B. after the up locks are closed electrically C. by the Gear Doors D. with mechanical uplocks ANS: D 265. After normal gear extension, the EICAS displays; A. a single green GEAR indication for 10 seconds and then it is removed B. a single green DOWN indication is displayed continuously while the gear is extended C. a single white GEAR indication for 10 seconds and then it is removed D. a single green GEAR indication is displayed continuously while the gear is extended  ANS: B 266. Following Alternate Gear extension; A. the Gear Doors may or may not close B. the Gear Doors will close C. the Gear may be retracted D. no ANTISKID protection is available ANS: A 13. Warning systems 267. You are flying over some mountainous regions when suddenly an aural "CAUTION TERRAIN" is heard plus an automatic pop-up display of terrain on ND. What must you be aware of under this situation? A. There is traffic nearby which posed a threat to collision. B. Your sink rate is too high. C. You are 40 to 60 seconds from projected impact with terrain. D. This is normal display when flying over mountainous areas. ANS: C 268. You have opened up the power for takeoff. Suddenly you hear "WINDSHEAR AHEAD" announce 2 times. What can that mean? A. GPWS has detected windshear. B. PWS has detected windshear up to 3 NM ahead. C. This warning is erroneous as you have not selected WX for display on the ND. D. GPWS mode 7 is activated. ANS: B 269. What best describes the TCAS symbol shown below? A. It is TA traffic, 300 ft above and descending more than 500 fpm. B. It is proximate traffic, 300 ft above and descending more than 500 fpm. C. It is RA traffic; and is descending to 300 ft. D. It is RA traffic and is predicted to be in collision within 25 seconds. ANS: D 270. Below are items associated with engine fire. What are the indications in the cockpit if the fire occurs at V1? A. 2, 3 and 4 B. 1, 2, 3 and 4 C. 2, 3 and 5 D. 1, 2 and 4 ANS: A 271. Which of these will trigger TO configuration warning? A. Rudder trim not at zero. B. Speedbrake lever not DN. C. Parking brakes set. D. B and C are correct. ANS: D 272. What happens if the CANC switch is pushed with reference to the picture as shown? A. All Alert messages and Memo messages are removed B. All Alert messages are removed but not the Memo messages C. Only the Warnings and Memo messages are removed D. Only the Caution and Advisories messages are removed ANS: D 273. What does "VVVVV" mean when it replaces "STATUS" as shown? A. An error with the STATUS message B. A STATUS message inhibit cue  C. A Primary Engine Exceedance cue D. A Secondary Engine Exceedance cue ANS: D 274. How do you interpret the TCAS symbol given below? A. Symbol is Traffic Advisory. Intruder is 200 feet above and descending more than 500 FPM B. Symbol is Resolution Advisory. Intruder is 2000 feet above and descending more than 300 FPM C. Symbol is a Proximate Traffic. Intruder is at FL200 and descending D. Symbol is Resolution Advisory. Intruder is 2000 feet above and descending more than 500 FPM ANS: A 275. With the Capt's and FO's EIU Source Select switch to AUTO and the Center EIU Selector selected to “C”, choose the right picture that shows the EIU in use. A B C D ANS: A 276. Choose the correct statement when both EFIS Control Panels fail. A. EFIS Control Panels are back up by the on-side FMS-CDU and the EICAS DSP will fail as well B. EFIS Control Panels are back up by the on-side FMS-CDU and the EICAS DSP will not fail. C. EFIS Control Panels are back up by either FMS-CDU and the EICAS DSP will fail as well D. EFIS Control Panels are back up by either FMS-CDU and the EICAS DSP will not fail. ANS: A 277. With the EICAS EIU selector in AUTO, what happens if the left EIU fails? A. Both EICAS displays goes blank B. The center EIU controls both EICAS displays C. Lower CRT goes blank and Compact displays on the Upper CRT D. Both EICAS displays goes blank till the EICAS EIU selector is switched to ‘C’ ANS: B 278. How do you silence the “GLIDESLOPE” voice aural? A. Push the Glideslope Inhibit Switch B. Push the Master Warning/ Caution Reset Switch C. Push the Cancel Switch D. Cannot silence ANS: A 279. What happens to the crew alerting messages when the Cancel switch is pushed? A. All warning, caution and advisory messages disappear B. Only caution and advisory messages disappear C. Only the most recent messages disappears D. Only cleared faults messages will be erased ANS: B 280. What are the synoptics left on the EICAS Display Select panel when one EICAS CRT fails? A. Engine, Fuel and Gear B. Electrical, Engine, Fuel C. Status, Engine and Gear D. Electrical, Fuel and ECS ANS: A 281. Status page is being displayed on the lower EICAS as shown. What happens if the STAT button is pushed? A. Status page goes back to page 1 B. Status portion of Lower EICAS goes blank C. Entire Lower EICAS goes blank D. Status page goes to page 3 ANS: C 282. While cruising over mountainous terrain, a voice annunciation of “CAUTION TERRAIN” occurs with an EICAS message TERRAIN and pop up display of terrain on the ND. This means; A. There is proximate traffic climbing from below. B. There is terrain less than 2500 feet below the aircraft. C. There is terrain ahead and it is predicted that impact will occur within 40 to 60 secs. D. There is terrain above 10,000 ft MSL below the aircraft ANS: C 283. The voice annunciation of “WINDSHEAR AHEAD” will be announced’ A. During the takeoff run if the PWS detects windshear directly ahead of and within 3nm of the aircraft B. During the takeoff run, if the GPWS detects windshear  C. On approach if windshear is detected within 3nm of the aircraft D. On approach if windshear is detected below 3000 ft. ANS: A 284. The display of indicates; A. A RA displaying an aircraft descending through 3000 ft. B. A RA displaying an aircraft descending 3 nm from current position C. A RA displaying an aircraft predicted to be a conflict within 20 to 30 secs. D. A TA displaying an aircraft descending 300 ft above current altitude ANS: C