402 Quiz Midterm PDF

Correct 1. When HR managers are called upon to guide an organizational development intervention, they are filling the role of change agent. strategist. talent manger. employee champion. When human resource managers are called upon to supervise or guide an organizational development interventi...

Correct 1. When HR managers are called upon to guide an organizational development intervention, they are filling the role of change agent. strategist. talent manger. employee champion. When human resource managers are called upon to supervise or guide an organizational development intervention, they are filling the role of change agent. (See HR Roles, Role 4) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. When the human resource department conducts employee orientation training for new employees, it is filling its advisory role. service role. counseling role. control role. HR managers perform activities that can be provided more effectively through a centralized staff than through the independent efforts of several different units. These activities are a direct service for line management or for other staff departments. (See HR Roles, Role 1.) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding employee handbooks? An employee handbook should explain procedures for handling employee complaints. An employee handbook should describe the company\'s leave policy. An employee handbook should be brief, normally less than 30 pages. An employee handbook should include a statement indicating that it is a legal binding document. Employee handbooks should include a disclaimer that the handbook is for information purposes only and is not a legal binding document. (See HR Policies and Procedures, Policy Manuals and Employee Handbooks) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. What is a company\'s legal responsibility regarding policy manuals and employee handbooks? The company has an obligation to follow its written policies. Companies are required to have written policies. Companies are not allowed to change the policies in their employee handbook. Companies are required to furnish all employees with an employee handbook. Organizations have an obligation to follow their written policies. (See HR Policies and Procedures.) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. A company generally needs a separate staff position to handle HR functions when it reaches what size? 100 employees 25 employees 1,000 employees 2,500 employees As an organization begins to exceed 100 to 200 employees, a separate staff position is usually required to coordinate the human resource functions. (See HR Generalist and HR Specialist Roles) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. The senior human resource officer in an organization is typically an HR generalist. an employee relations expert. an HR specialist. a lawyer. Senior human resource executives possess a broad comprehension of all the human resource functions and how they interact with the other departments in the organization. (See HR Generalist and HR Specialist Roles, Human Resource Manager or Executive.) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. Which of the following is the best advice for companies regarding employees\' personal blogs? Employers should read and respond to their employees\' personal blogs regarding work-place issues. Employers should not have a policy regarding blogging; any restrictions would violate the employees\' right to free speech. Employers should prohibit employees from saying anything about their jobs on personal blogs. Since employers can\'t prevent employees from blogging, they should allow employees to blog freely on company time. Rather than prohibiting blogs, employers may want to read and respond to them. Many creative ideas and opinions are freely expressed there and companies can benefit from them. (See HR Policies and Procedures, Employee Communications) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. Staffing involves which three major activities? HR research, employment, and compensation selection, training and development, and performance evaluation HR planning, recruiting, and selection employee relations, performance evaluation, and training Staffing, usually called employment, involves three major activities: human resource planning, recruitment, and selection. (See HR Functions, Staffing/Employment) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. Being a successful human resource generalist requires an understanding of how learning theories impact a training design. knowing how to update a human resource information system. knowing how to validate a selection procedure. a broad comprehensive knowledge of all human resource functions. Human resource generalists possess a broad comprehension of all the human resource functions and how they interact with the other departments in the organization. (See HR Generalist and Specialist Roles.) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. Which of the following is NOT typically considered an HR function? line management compensation staffing employee relations The major HR functions include (1) staffing, (2) performance evaluations, (3) compensation and benefits, (4) training and development, (5) employee relations, (6) safety, health, and security and (7) HR research. (See HR Functions) Correct 1. An essential step in implementing a new HRIS is asking the vendor when new updates are anticipated. knowing how many live installs the vendor has had on the product they are now demonstrating. parallel testing to detect inconsistencies in the installation of the new system. identifying product enhancements that can be added in the future. When implementing a new HRIS software system, it is very important to have the new system functioning properly before abandoning the prior system. This process, called parallel testing, involves operating both systems simultaneously for several months, perhaps for an entire year, before discontinuing the former system. (See Analysis of Present Employees, Human Resource Information Systems) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. Which of the following most accurately describes the relationship between business planning and human resource planning? Long-range business plans should determine Short-range human resource plans. Business plans should be based on human resource plans. Short-range business plans should be based on long-range human resource plans. Business plans and human resource plans should be developed simultaneously. Human resource plans are an integral part of business planning, and the two plans should be developed together. (See Human Resource Planning) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. A short-term forecasting method called work-load analysis consists of: counting how many separate functions must be performed to know how many employees to hire. analyzing which employees have the appropriate skills to perform which skilled jobs. assigning jobs to employees and deciding who does what. using ratios of output per employee hour to know how many employees will be needed. The most accurate method of short-term forecasting is to use information about the actual work content based upon a job analysis of the work that needs to be accomplished. This type of short-term forecasting, often called workload analysis, involves the use of productivity ratios to identify personnel needs. (See Forecasting Employment Needs, Short-term Forecasting) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. Human resource plans are MOST useful when they identify the anticipated employment needs for exempt positions. job categories of jobs with similar skill, responsibility, and education. each job in the organizational chart. job vacancies that require the longest lead times and are the most expensive to fill. Forecasts of human resource needs are usually made for job categories rather than individual jobs. The jobs need to be grouped into a limited number of job categories, since trying to forecast and plan for each separate job would be a cumbersome task. (See Analysis of Present Employees, Categorizing Jobs) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. A forecasting method that uses turnover and transfer data from a previous period to predict future movement is called Plovic transfer. Madrid estimation analysis. turnover trend prediction. Markov analysis. Markov analysis is a simple form of probabilistic forecasting in which the movement of employees among different job classifications can be forecast based upon past movement. (See Forecasting Employment Needs, Long-term Forecasting) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. If an organization was experiencing a short-term labor surplus, which of the following would be the BEST method for reducing the size of the workforce? layoffs reduced hours early retirement attrition If the labor surplus appears to be a short-term problem, many organizations prefer to reduce the number of hours each employee works and keep all of the employees. (See Implementing Human Resource Plans, Layoffs) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. The long-range forecasting method that is based on an aggregate of the estimates of each division manager is called Delphi technique. probabilistic model. Markov analysis. unit demand. The unit demand method requires managers to know what business activity will be performed by their units in future years and how many people will be needed year by year to achieve their business objectives. The information collected from all unit managers is aggregated to create an overall forecast. (See Forecasting Employment Needs, Long-term Forecasting) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. In a turnover analysis, HR managers should be MOST concerned about turnover caused by death or disability. discharge or layoffs. retirement. promotions and transfers. Since turnover caused by layoffs and discharge are largely at the discretion of the organization, these causes of turnover merit special attention from HR managers. (See Implementing Human Resource Plans, Turnover Analysis) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. The chief advantage of employee leasing is that it provides fresh ideas and new creativity. improves the quality of work and commitment to the company. reduces the costs of employee benefits. relieves the company of the burden of administering HR services and record keeping. The advantage of employee leasing is that it relieves the company of the burdensome costs and administrative tasks associated with providing the full range of human resource services. (See Implementing Human Resource Plans, Employee Leasing) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. What is the BEST response to the criticism that highly unstable environments produce uncertain forecasts? Employment forecasts can still be accurate even when the environment is unstable. Uncertain forecasts are still useful since they identify the variables that influence the forecasts, and more accurate estimates can be made as the time frame becomes shorter. Random forces tend to operate in both directions thereby reducing the variability in the forecasts and increasing their accuracy. Employment forecasts should only be used when both the organization and the environment are reasonably stable. Employment forecasts need not produce exact estimates of future employment needs to be useful. The forecasting process itself, apart from the numbers that result, facilitates the planning process. Correct 1. Employee requisitions are normally prepared by supervisors, who see that they need more people to fill their human resource needs. the accounting department, who makes sure adequate funds are available. human resource managers, after the annual planning cycle. corporate planning committees, after strategic plans have been prepared. Line managers are responsible for submitting employee requisitions as the final step in the human resource planning process. (See Determining Recruitment Needs and Objectives, Needs Analysis) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. The concept that describes what a company has to offer relative to what is offered by other places of employment is employer competitiveness ratio. contributions-inducements balance. employment value proposition. workplace incentive index. Employment value proposition is a statement that describes what a company has to offer its employees relative to the rewards offered by other places of employment. (See Employment Branding) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. Which of the following statements is FALSE? The EEOC guidelines require employers to prepare written job descriptions of the essential functions of each job. Job analysis information can be used to identify acceptable performance standards for purposes of employee discipline. Job analysis information should be used in conducting a training needs assessment. Job specifications are especially helpful in recruiting new employees. The EEOC does not require job descriptions; however, the EEOC guidelines encourage employers to prepare written job descriptions listing the essential functions of each job. (See Uses of Job Analysis) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. Which of the following is the most important consideration in evaluating the effectiveness of a recruitment program? incidence rate learning curves yield ratio comparatio Yield ratios show the number of applicants at one stage of the recruiting process who move to the next stage, so an organization can significantly reduce its recruiting costs by achieving favorable yield ratios. (See Evaluating Recruiting Effectiveness, Effectiveness Measures) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. The problem of nepotism in recruiting refers to hiring applicants who do not pass the company\'s health or physical fitness standards. hiring minorities and females when more qualified candidates are available. showing favoritism by hiring friends or family members of present employees. hiring teenagers and other youth below the legal age. The practice of hiring friends and relatives increases the likelihood of nepotism, which refers to favoritism that is shown to friends and relatives. (See External Recruiting Source, Employee Referrals) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. The three major elements of a job description include identification, job summary, and training required. knowledge and skills. duties and responsibilities. supervision given or received. The major items included in a job description are: identification, job summary, and duties and responsibilities. (See Job Descriptions) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. The greatest disadvantage of relying on observations when conducting a job analysis is observations are an invasion of employee privacy. observations cannot be objectively categorized or recorded. many vital job functions are not visible on some jobs. employees know they are being observed and they feel embarrassed. A problem with using observation is that some jobs cannot be easily observed. Jobs that primarily involve thinking and problem-solving activities, such as professional and technical occupations, may not provide much overt behavior to observe. (See Methods of Job Analysis, Observations) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. Which of the following statements BEST describes how private employment agencies operate? The fees may be charged to either the employer or the employee. All fees are charged to the employers. They are financially supported by the Department of Labor. All fees are charged to the new employees who are placed in a job. The fee charged by a private employment agency is typically between 10 and 20 percent of the employee\'s first year\'s salary, and this fee is normally assessed to the party that is being served. If an employer requests job applicants, the employer typically pays the fee. If an individual asks for assistance in obtaining employment, the fee is paid by him or her. (See External Recruiting Sources, Private Employment Agencies) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. A policy of promoting people from within the company does all but which of the following? Stimulates greater company loyalty Contributes greater insight and fresh ideas Creates greater motivation Increases satisfaction A promotion-from-within policy can stimulate great motivation among current employees, and this motivation is often accompanied by a general improvement in employee morale. (See Internal Recruiting Sources, Current and Former Employees) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. A yield ratio of 12:1 for recruiting college engineering graduates means that for every twelve new hires only one remains. twelve graduates get jobs for each one who doesn\'t. to replace five retiring engineers will require 60 job interviews with graduating engineering students. for every twelve new engineering students recruited, one is rejected. Yield ratios express the relationship between the number of people at one step of the recruiting process relative to the number of people who will move on to the next step. (See Determining Recruitment Needs and Objectives, Yield Ratios ) Incorrect 1. The type of interview that requires the LEAST training for effective use is the structured interview unstructured interview semi-structured interview stress interview Structured, or patterned interviews require the least training because the questions are preset, and the interviewers don\'t deviate from them. (See Interviewing, Types of Interviews) Points 0 / 1 Correct 2. The employment interview is the best predictor of an applicants potential and probability of success on the job. the most important part of the selection process. absolutely useless and should not be used. one of the least valid and least reliable commonly used selection procedures. The major purpose of an employment interview is to gather information for making a selection decision, but very few interviews achieve this goal; employment interviews are generally unreliable. (See Interviewing) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. What happens when a hiring specialist makes a false positive error in making a selection decision? an applicant is hired who will not be successful an applicant is not hired who would have been successful an applicant who would not have been successful is rejected the data supporting the hiring of an applicant is ignored A false positive error represents individuals whose predictor scores were sufficiently high to merit hiring but whose performances were unsatisfactory. (See Validation and Evaluation of a Selection Process) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. To avoid charges of negligent hiring, employers should ensure that all components of the selection process are carefully validated. carefully check an applicant\'s employment background and criminal record. give all applicants an equal chance at employment regardless of race or sex. hire only individuals that they know personally. Companies can be held responsible for their employees\' wrongdoing and can be found guilty of negligent hiring if the employers knew, or should have known, that their employees were dangerous. (See Background Investigations, Negligent Hiring) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. Which of the following has been shown to be the MOST effective method of managerial selection? assessment center interviews biographical information blanks achievement tests An assessment center is one of the most powerful methods for identifying management potential. (See Pre-employment Testing, Assessment Centers) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. According to the EEOC guidelines, which would be a legal and appropriate hiring question? Do you have preschool children who will need to be cared for? Were you dishonorably discharged from the military? Have you ever been arrested? Do you have a legal right to work in this country? While it is not appropriate to ask questions that might discriminate against a protected class, it is perfectly legal and appropriate to ask if an applicant has a legal right to work in this country. (See Application Forms, Legal and Privacy Issues) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. The BEST predictor of how people will perform in the future is their grades in high school and college. how well they did in grade school. what their previous employers or work associates say about them. how they have performed in the past. Past behavior is the best predictor of future behavior. (See Application Process) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. The EEOC recommends that employers use Criterion-related validity studies which refer to measuring the adverse impact of a predictor. predictive and concurrent validity. content validity. construct validity studies using multiple criteria. Predictive and concurrent validity are referred to as criterion-related validity. (See Validity, Operational Definitions) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. A reliable selection procedure is one that accurately predicts performance. produces a repeatable result. provides an accurate measurement. measures what it purports to be measuring. Reliability refers to consistency of measurement or repeatability. (See Reliability) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. A chart showing the probability that an individual will be a successful performer given different scores on a test is called an institutional expectancy chart. an individual probability chart. an applicant prediction chart. an individual expectancy chart. An individual expectancy chart shows the probability of an individual employee being a high performer depending upon his or her test score. (See Pre-employment Testing, Expectancy Charts) Points 1 / 1 Correct 1. Under USERRA, an employer is exempt from the requirement to re-employ an individual returning after uniformed service under all EXCEPT which of the following circumstances? The position held by the former employee was a temporary job in a seasonal industry. The former employee was dishonorably discharged from the military. The employer closed the facility where the former employee was previously working. The former employee was injured during the military service and can no longer perform the duties of the previous job. If returning employees are no longer qualified for their previous job because of service-related disability, the employer is required to place them in another position of equivalent seniority, status, and pay. (See Uniformed Services Employment and Re-Employment Rights Act) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. If an employee requests time off for a special religious holiday, the employer should grant it if it does not unreasonably interfere with the operations of the business. grant it only if all employees are granted the same day off. refuse to grant it except when it is a recognized holiday. refuse to grant it unless it is part of a collective bargaining agreement. If an employee has a legitimate request for time off for religious observances (for Sabbath or holy days), an employer should try to accommodate the employee\'s request. (See Civil Rights Acts, Religious Discrimination) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. If a recruitment or selection procedure tends to significantly reduce the number of minorities or females who are accepted for employment, the procedure is said to have a disparate impact. is legal as long as the results are not intentional. is only grounds for pressing charges if discriminatory motive can be shown. is evidence of disparate treatment. Disparate impact usually involves unintentional discrimination. Some employment practices, such as testing, discriminate against a particular race or gender even though the practices do not appear to be related to race or sex. (See Civil Rights Acts, Disparate Treatment versus Disparate Impact) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. Which of the following is a legal question under the Americans with Disabilities Act? How often did you miss work at your last job? Does anyone in your family have a disability that may interfere with your work? Do you currently use any illegal drugs? Do you have any physical or mental limitations that would prevent you from performing this job? A person who currently uses illegal drugs is specifically excluded from coverage under the ADA. (See Disability Discrimination, Americans with Disabilities Act) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. Which of these is NOT a protected classification in Title VII? age religion color race Title VII of the Civil Rights Act (as amended) prohibits discrimination in employment on the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin. (See Civil Rights Acts, Civil Rights Act of 1964) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. Which of the following, by itself, would satisfy the verification requirement for an I9 form? a U.S. military I.D. a Social Security card a driver\'s license a U.S. passport Various documents may be used to establish proof of employment eligibility and proof of identity. Documents that establish both employability and identity include a U.S. passport, an Employment Authorization Document, a Temporary Resident card, and a Foreign Passport with a stamp indicating employment authorization. (See Immigration Reform and Control Act) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. Executive Order 11246, or Order Number 4, created \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ to monitor compliance with the anti-discrimination provisions of the order. BFOQ EEOC OFCCP OSHA The Office of Federal Contract Compliance Programs (OFCCP) was created by Executive Order 11246 (also known as Order Number 4); it is an agency within the U.S. Department of Labor. This agency is responsible for monitoring the affirmative action plans (AAPs) of federal contractors and subcontractors. (See Affirmative Action Plans) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. Workers are protected against age discrimination after they reach age 65. 40. 50. 25. The ADEA is designed to protect employees age 40 and older from arbitrary and aged-biased discrimination in hiring, promotion, training, benefits, compensation, discipline, and terminations. (See Age Discrimination in Employment Act) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. Which of these characteristics does not qualify as a bona fide occupational qualification? national origin race sex religion Section 703 (e) of the Civil Rights Act states that it is legal for an employer to discriminate on the basis of religion, sex, or national origin in those certain instances when religion, sex, or national origin is a \"bona fide occupational qualification reasonably necessary to the normal operation of that particular business or enterprise.\" Race is never a legitimate BFOQ. (See Civil Rights Acts, Bona Fide Occupational Qualifications) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. A selection procedure is said to violate the four-fifths rule if the selection rate for a protected class is less than four-fifths of the rate of the group with the highest selection rate. less than four-fifths of the applicants who are selected prove to be successful on the job. more than four-fifths of those accepted for employment are from the same race, sex, or ethnic group. only four-fifths of the minorities or women who apply are hired. The EEOC defines adverse impact by the four-fifths rule: \"A selection rate for any race, sex, or ethnic group which is less than four-fifths (4/5, or 80 percent) of the rate for the group with the highest rate will generally be regarded by the federal enforcement agencies as evidence of adverse impact\....\" (See Equal Employment Opportunity Compliance, Adverse Impact Analysis: Four-fifths Rule) Points 1 / 1 Correct 1. According to the systems model of training, criteria for evaluating a training program should be developed after the training objectives have been established but before the training method is selected. after the training method has been selected but before the training has been conducted. after the training has been completed and the results have been documented. while the training program is being conducted and monitored. According to the systems model for training, criteria for evaluating a training program should be developed after the training objectives have been established but before the training method is selected. (See Systems Model of Training) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. The MAJOR difference between training and education is that education is more closely related to learning a particular job. training provides more general knowledge. training narrows the range of responses while education broadens the range. education refers more to acquiring specific skills. Training refers to the acquisition of specific skills or knowledge. Training programs attempt to teach trainees how to perform particular activities or a specific job. Education, on the other hand, is much more general and attempts to provide students with general knowledge that can be applied in many different settings. (See Training and Development in the Organization) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. The BEST method for conducting a training needs analysis when data needs to be obtained from a large number of employees is questionnaires. interviews. observations. focus groups. A training-needs-assessment questionnaire can be administered to a large number of people to identify how many employees need training in particular skills and knowledge. (See Methods for Assessing Training Needs) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. From which of the following training techniques would you expect to have the highest transfer of training? case study apprenticeships sensitivity training lecture When the stimulus environments and the learned responses are the same in both the training situation and the job situation, a strong positive transfer of training will result. (See Principles of Learning, Transfer of Training) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. Memorizing the Declaration of Independence would involve which type of learning? rote learning value learning idea learning modeled learning Rote learning refers to memorizing arbitrary associations between words, symbols, objects, or events. (See Learning, Kinds of Learning) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. Difficult tasks that are hard to comprehend usually produce what sort of learning curve? linear positively accelerating negatively accelerating upside-down U-shaped With a positively accelerating learning curve, also called increasing returns, the learning proceeds slowly at first and then gradually improves. This curve typically occurs when the material to be learned is very difficult or complex, when a trainee lacks the necessary background or aptitude, or when motivation is low at first but increases as mastery improves. (See Principles of Learning, Learning Curves) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. The process of combining a series of stimulus response associations into a complex response pattern is called shaping. chaining. stimulus generalization. response generalization. Chaining consists of combining a series of simple responses into a complex response pattern. Each response changes the stimulus environment and serves as a cue for the next response. (See Theories of Learning, Operant Conditioning) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. Trainees typically learn better if a training program involves massed practice. no practice. sporadic practice. distributed practice. In general the evidence suggest that distributed practice is better than massed practice. (See Principles of Learning, Response: Practice and Repetition) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. Which explanation for forgetting suggests that new learning interferes with the retention of old learning? motivated forgetting proactive inhibition retroactive inhibition repression Retroactive inhibition suggests that new learning interferes with the recall of old learning. (See Principles of Learning, Forgetting) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. The BEST reason for presenting a training program is because of concern about federal agency pressure. it contributes to the organization\'s goals and objectives. it has been highly advertised. competitors are using the training. The best reason for presenting a training program is because it contributes to the organization\'s strategic goals and objectives and meets defined needs. (See Strategic Alignment of Training and Development, Strategic Training Issues) Points 1 / 1 Correct 1. Where does vestibule training take place? at a separate location such as a training center in the employee\'s home through self-study in the union hall on the job Vestibule training is similar to on-the-job training, except that is occurs in a separate training area equipped like the actual production area. (See Off-the-job Training Methods, Vestibule Training) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. The practice of pausing a role play episode and asking participants to critique what is happening is called role interrupt. freeze framing. action suspension. role reversal. Freeze framing is pausing a role play episode and asking the participants and possibly observers to critique what is happening. (See Off-the-job Training Methods, Role Playing) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. The two major processes that contribute to value internalization are: socialization and orientation. rewards and punishments. induction and modeling. intrinsic and extrinsic rewards. According to research on moral development, the most important techniques for developing value internalization are induction and modeling. Induction refers to all forms of verbal explanation, such as reasoning, preaching, and teaching. Modeling refers to the example that individuals observe in others\' behavior. (See Training Methods and Processes, Value Internalization) Points 1 / 1 Incorrect 4. Complete the following statement with the BEST example of a good behavioral objective. After completing this training course, you should: be aware of all potential hazards involved in your job. be able to describe the procedure for ordering supplies. know the name of each piece of equipment in the workshop. understand the proper procedure for operating a drill press. One attribute of good behavioral objectives is that the objective is described in specific behavioral terms, using an active verb such as to make, to construct, to adjust, to describe, or to list. (See Developing Training Objectives) Points 0 / 1 Correct 5. A major benefit of off-the-job training is that job-related distractions are minimized. it provides immediate transfer of training. it is generally less expensive. employees produce while they learn. Off-the-job training techniques allow employees to get away from job pressures and focus on learning new skills and information. (See On-the-job Versus Off-the-job Training) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. What are the normal effects of job rotation on training? It improves training by disrupting social ties and forcing trainees to make new friends. It retards training by not leaving trainees in one place long enough to master the job. It retards training by disrupting stable friendship patterns. It improves training by providing a broader perspective of the company and new job skills. With job rotation and cross-training, trainees gain an overall perspective of the organization and an understanding of the interrelationships among its various parts. The trainees can obtain valuable knowledge about diverse operations and can practice the different management skills that are required. (See On-the-job Training Methods, Job Rotation and Cross Training) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. Which training method has limited usefulness because it does not provide for active participation of the learners, and there is no practice, no feedback, no knowledge of results, and limited transfer of training? simulation programmed instruction lecture special study A lecture does not allow active participation by the learners. It provides no practice, no feedback, no knowledge of results, and it may inhibit the transfer of learning. (See Off-the-job Training Methods, Lecture) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. The training technique that applies the principles of operant conditioning is programmed instruction. role playing. simulation training. case studies. Programmed instruction is an application of the principles of operant conditioning and some of its most enthusiastic proponents expected it to revolutionize the field of training and education. (See Off-the-job Training Methods, Programmed Instruction) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. An important advantage of on-the-job training is that it allows employees to learn at their own rate without any pressure to produce. provides immediate transfer of training. reduces the costs of supervision. provides for greater group interaction. On-the-job training provides for immediate transfer of training. (See On-the-job Versus Off-the-job Training, On-the-job Techniques) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. An arrangement where students work for a company for a period of time as part of their educational experience is called an educational credits program. an internship. coordinated education. a college trainee experience. And internship is a learning experience in which students are able to work for a period of time and apply the information they have learned in the classroom. (See On-the-job Training Methods, Internships and Assistantships) Points 1 / 1 Correct 1. Of the following, which research design is a quasi-experimental design? time-series design post-test-only design the Solomon four-group design pre-test post-test control-group design The time-series design is a quasi-experimental design because it occurs in a natural setting where you can introduce an experimental change and collect data, but you do not have complete control over the experimental setting. (See Research Methods for Evaluation, Quasi-Experimental Designs) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. Which of the following is the BEST example of an unobtrusive measure? Evaluators collect survey data from trainees at the conclusion of the training program. Evaluators observe trainees in their normal workplace after the training program. Evaluators analyze six months worth of performance data. Evaluators conduct skills tests with the trainees before and after the training program. Unobtrusive measures are methods of obtaining data that do not influence how employees behave.(See Sources of Data, Archive Data) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. Which of the following is the BEST research design for evaluating a training program? pretest/posttest design using two established groups--one assigned as the experimental group and one as the control group Solomon four-group design case study pretest/posttest comparison using one group The Solomon four-group design is the most highly recommended research design for evaluating training programs. (See Research Methods for Evaluation, Experimental Designs and Use of Control Groups) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. Which of the following illustrates using results as a criteria for evaluating a supervisory training program? an interpersonal relations rating scale completed by the subordinates of each supervisor measures of turnover, productivity improvement, and grievances in each supervisor\'s department a frequency count of how often the supervisors praised or disciplined their subordinates over the next 8 weeks a 10 item questionnaire asking the supervisors to evaluate the results of the training The ultimate measure of results for a training activity is return on investment. What final results were achieved from the training: reduced costs, reduced turnover, improved productivity, or greater profitability? (See Criteria for Evaluating Training, Measurable Results) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. Upon completing a three-day training seminar, supervisors were asked to evaluate whether they felt the training was useful, whether they learned from it, and whether they thought it would have a positive impact on the organization. Which type of criteria are the evaluators using? learning behaviors reactions results When evaluators ask for the trainees\' opinion of a training programs, they are gathering data on participant reactions. (See Criteria for Evaluating Training, Reactions of Participants) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. Tests would most likely be used for evaluating the results of a training program when which criterion is utilized? behavior learning results reaction How well training participants learned and retained information can be assessed using examinations. (See Criteria for Evaluating Training, Learning New Skills and Competencies) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. What is the major shortcoming of the case study experimental design? It provides no previous measure with which to compare performance. Performance differences may be due to sensitizing effects of the pretest. The randomized groups produce erratic results. The experiment must occur in a natural setting, which isn\'t always convenient. Case study experimental designs, also called post-test--only designs, are poor research designs because no standards of comparison are available for interpreting the observations. (See Research Methods for Evaluation, Experimental Designs and Use of Control Groups) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. Internal referencing strategy improves the usefulness of the pretest--post-test design by including both relevant and irrelevant questions. administering the pretest and the post-test simultaneously. comparing scores only with members of the same group. holding out a control group. Internal referencing strategy compares improvement on relevant questions to scores on questions that are irrelevant to the content of the training to assess the benefit of the training. (See Research Methods for Evaluation, Experimental Designs and Use of Control Groups) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. Which of the following research designs is MOST susceptible to sensitizing effects of the pretest? post-test only design pretest--post-test comparison pretest--post-test control group design Solomon four-group design Sensitizing effects of the pretest refers to the effects that pretesting might have on the trainees. Research designs that use a pretest but no control group are susceptible. (See Research Methods for Evaluation, Experimental Designs and Use of Control Groups) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. Which of the following is an example of the Hawthorn Effect? Employees are randomly assigned to experimental groups but end up with their friends anyway. Employees work faster because they know that researchers are watching them. Employees\' performance on a post-test is influenced by exposure to the pre-test. Employees have better post-test scores on both relevant questions and irrelevant questions. The Hawthorn Studies concluded that employees tend to work faster when they know they are being observed and their productivity is being measured. (See Sources of Data, Observations) Points 1 / 1 Correct 1. The \"mommy track\" is defined as a career path for women who are willing to sacrifice promotions for flexible jobs with less travel so they can be more involved in raising their children. a career path for women who do not want to work outside the home. a career path for women who want to be both mothers and highly successful professionals. a career path for men who raise children while their wives work. The \"mommy track\" is for women who want a flexible career path so they can actively participate in the rearing of their children. (See Career Planning and Development, Mommy Track/Daddy Track ) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. Technical knowledge and an understanding of the rules and procedures for getting work done is especially important for top managers. sales executives. supervisors. middle managers. Supervisors must have technical knowledge and an understanding of rules and procedures for getting the work done. (See Talent Management, Hierarchy of Managerial Skills) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. A training program that focuses on changing a manager\'s assumptions about the value of openness and feedback and making the manager\'s behavior congruent with how they think they behave is known as managerial hierarchy. Theory X. management awareness. double-loop learning. Double-loop learning trains managers to change their assumptions about behavior by making them aware of the difference between what they actually do versus what they think they do. (See Talent Management, Double-Loop Learning) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. The main reason many expatriate managers fail in their overseas assignments is that the managers lack an understanding of the local economy. the local companies do not want expatriate managers. the managers lack basic management skills and training. the managers and their families fail to adjust to a different culture. Most failures of expatriate manager result from family problems. Moving to a new country can be very challenging to a spouse and children who are forced to speak a new language, pursue new career interests, find new friends, and attend different schools. Foreign assignments are especially difficult for the teenage children of expatriates. (See Expatriate Training, Problems of Adjustment) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. In the role transition process of organizational socialization, separation refers to organizational turnover. changing to a new organization. psychologically abandoning a former role. marital separation. Separation refers to moving out of the former role and seeing oneself differently, realizing it is time to move on. (See Socialization, Role Transition Process) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. Which of the following is NOT typically a result of under-socialization? unacceptable conduct rule violation dogmatic thinking rebelliousness When new employees are under-socialized, their behavior violates the social norms or they rebel against organizational expectations. (See Socialization, The Socialization Process) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. A dual career ladder refers to which of the following? an employee changes specialties mid-career an employee leaves retirement to pursue a new career an employee pursues both a managerial career track and a technical career track an employee hold two full-time jobs A dual career path allows technical specialist to move up both the managerial ladder and the technical ladder. (See Career Planning and Development, Dual Careers) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. During the establishment career stage, employees strive to protect themselves and secure their position within the organization. create a permanent position within their chosen occupation. solidify their career choices and secure the ideal job. match their interests and abilities with the demands of a job. During the establishment stage (about ages 25 to 44), individuals strive to create a permanent position within their chosen occupation. (See Career Planning and Development, Stages of Career Development) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. When new employees expect a company to have a warm, nurturing workplace, but find that they are expected to function in a combative, highly competitive environment, they often experience reality shock. assimilation. anticipatory socialization. dissimilation. The difference between a person\'s work expectations before and after joining an organization produces reality shock. (See Socialization, Role Transition Process) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. Which statement in an orientation session would MOST LIKELY help a new employee be an outstanding performer? \"Most new employees have a difficult time adjusting, and many don\'t succeed.\" \"We have high expectations that you\'ll be an outstanding employee.\" \"This job is so easy anyone could do it.\" \"We\'re giving you chance, but we doubt you have what it takes to succeed.\" Initial expectations have a profound influence on the behavior and values of new employees because they have a way of becoming self-fulfilling prophecies. For example, employees who are told that they are expected to become outstanding performers often become just that. (See Orientation Training) Points 1 / 1 Correct 1. When developing a graphic rating scale, the best method for selecting the appropriate characteristics is the behavioral nomination method. the critical incidents method. a behavioral profile. a survey of work values. One of the best techniques for identifying the most important dimensions of a job is the critical-incidents method. (See Evaluation Procedures, Critical Incidents) Points 1 / 1 Correct 2. When one characteristic about a person\--positive or negative\--strongly influences all other attitudes about the person, this is called the halo/horn effect. leniency-strictness effect. central tendency effect. inter-rater reliability. A halo/horn effect occurs when one characteristic about a person\--positive or negative\--strongly influences all other attitudes about the person. (See Rating Errors) Points 1 / 1 Correct 3. For peer evaluations to occur successfully, peers must be able to observe each others\' performance, and there must be the right of appeal. anonymity. a competitive environment. high levels of trust. The conditions required for good peer appraisals are (1) a high level of interpersonal trust, 2) a noncompetitive reward system, and (3) opportunities for peers to observe each other\'s performances. (See Appraisers, Peer Appraisals) Points 1 / 1 Correct 4. In selecting the appropriate criteria for performance evaluation, freedom from contamination refers to eliminating the influence of external people such as customers or clients. eliminating the effects of extraneous factors that are beyond the control of the employee. statistically adjusting the evaluations to correct for subjectivity and bias. eliminating subjective impressions of supervisors. Evaluations should measure each employee\'s performance without being contaminated by factors that an employee cannot control, such as economic conditions, material shortages, or poor equipment. (See Criterion Problems, Contamination) Points 1 / 1 Correct 5. The major difference between a behaviorally-anchored rating scale (BARS) and a behavioral observation scale (BOS) is that only BARS is a behaviorally-based evaluation method. with BOS the evaluator uses more categories of effectiveness. with BOS, the evaluator simply records the frequency of behavior without evaluating it. only BARS contains multiple dimensions of performance. An advantage of the BOS method over BARS is that it asks the rater only to describe the frequency of behavior rather than to evaluate the quality of performance. (See Behaviorally-Based Appraisal Methods: Behavioral Observation Scales) Points 1 / 1 Correct 6. Which of the following procedures is least subject to the problems of central tendency and leniency-strictness? graphic rating scales ranking classification BARS Ranking procedures are not subject to the problems of central tendency, leniency-strictness, and halo effect. (See Evaluation Procedures, Ranking) Points 1 / 1 Correct 7. When an organization does not have a formal performance evaluation program, which of the following is likely to occur? There will be less likelihood of legal problems with the evaluation program. Performance will not be evaluated at all. Informal evaluations will continue to occur. Too much time will be spent in trying to evaluate performance. Performance evaluations occur whether or not a formal evaluation program exists. (See Legal Constraints on Performance Appraisal) Points 1 / 1 Correct 8. The factors on which an employee is evaluated are called unbiased characteristics. the criteria of performance. valid characteristics. practical items. The factors on which an employee is evaluated are called the criteria of performance. (See Performance Criteria) Points 1 / 1 Correct 9. Using the paired comparison procedure is a method of ranking. graphic rating scales. classification. behaviorally anchored rating. Paired comparison consist of asking an evaluator to consider only two individuals at one time and to decide which of the two is better. An employee\'s position in the final ranking is determined by the number of times that employee is chosen over the other employees. (See Evaluation Procedures, Ranking) Points 1 / 1 Correct 10. When two evaluators observing the same behavior give different ratings, it is an example of the leniency-strictness effect. the sequencing effect. biased evaluations. low inter-rater reliability. (See Rating Errors) Points 1 / 1