Karnataka 2024-25 II PU Biology Past Paper PDF

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Summary

This is a model question paper for the Karnataka II PU Biology exam, 2024-2025. Exam includes multiple choice questions and diagrams related to various biological concepts. The paper is suitable for secondary school students.

Full Transcript

GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESEMENT BOARD MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 1 (2024 - 25) II PU SUBJECT – BIOLOGY (36) Duration: 3hr Max. Marks: 70 General Instruction: ...

GOVERNMENT OF KARNATAKA KARNATAKA SCHOOL EXAMINATION AND ASSESEMENT BOARD MODEL QUESTION PAPER - 1 (2024 - 25) II PU SUBJECT – BIOLOGY (36) Duration: 3hr Max. Marks: 70 General Instruction:  This Question paper consists of parts A, B, C, D and E  Part – A consists of I and II and Part D consists of V and VI  All the parts are compulsory  The answers for Part – A, written in the first two pages of the answer booklet are only considered for evaluation  Part – E consists of questions for visually challenged students only PART – A I. Select the correct alternative from the choices given below: 15 x 1 = 15 1. Statement I: Apomixis is the production of seeds from unfertilized ovules Statement II: Embryos produced from apomictic seeds are not generally identical to the parent plant. a) Statement I is true, statement II is false b) Statement I is false, statement II is true c) Statement I and statement II both are true d) Statement I and statement II both are false 2. Choose the correct option from the table given below for the formation and dissolution of the labeled part in the given diagram. Formed by Dissolved a) Primary oocyte before fertilisation b) Primary oocyte after fertilisation c) Secondary oocyte before fertilisation d) Secondary oocyte after fertilisation 3. Out of the options given below choose the correct stage for transfer to the fallopian tube for successful IVF results. a) Embryo up to 8 blastomeres b) embryo up to 16 blastomeres c) Embryo up to 32 blastomeres d) Embryo up to 32 blastomeres 4. 37.2% recombinant Drosophila progeny obtained in the T. H. Morgan’s dihybrid cross experiment with the phenotypes red eye color, normal body and white eye color, miniature body is due to; a) Loosely linked and shorter distance between genes b) Tightly linked and shorter distance between genes c) Loosely linked and longer distance between genes d) Tightly linked and longer distance between genes 5. The number of nucleotide pairs present in the DNA of the primary oocyte of a new born in human a) 3.3 x 109 b) 6.6 x 109 c) 13. 2 x 109 d) 3.3 x 107 6. The factors that affect Hardy – Weinberg equilibrium are listed below; i) Crossing over, Independent assortment ii) Crossing over, Mutation, iii) Genetic drift, Crossing over iv) Independent assortment, Mutation Choose the correct options: a) i, ii and iii b) ii, iii and iv c) i, iii and iv d) i, ii, iii and iv 7. Interferons are most effective in making non-infected cells resistant against the spread of which of the following diseases in humans? a) AIDS b) Ascariasis c) Ringworm d) Amoebiasis 8. The human host cells in which the gametocytes of malarial parasite develop are a) Thrombocytes b) Liver cells c) Erythrocytes d) Leucocytes 9. Which of the following water samples in the table given below will have a higher concentration of organic matter? Water Sample Level of pollution Value of BOD a) High High b) Low Low c) Low High d) High Low 10. The steps of Recombinant DNA technology are given below: i) Insertion of recombinant DNA into the host organism ii) Amplification of gene of interest using PCR iii) Cutting of DNA at specific locations iv) Obtaining the foreign product v) Downstream processing vi) Isolation of DNA Choose the correct option for the sequential steps of Recombinant DNA technology. a) vi, ii, iii, iv, v, i b) vi, i, iii, iv, v, ii c) vi, ii, iii, iv, v, i d) vi, iii ii, i, iv,, v, 11. DNA in a clone of cells followed by detection using autoradiography is called a) Template b) Probe c) Transcript d) Cistron 12. Jeeva was growing a bacterial colony in a culture flask under ideal laboratory conditions where the resources sooner or later become limiting. Which of the following equations will represents the correct growth in this case? a) dN/dt = rN b) dN/dt = KN c) dN/dt = rN (K – N/K) d) dN/dt = rN (K +N/K) 13. Which of the following food chains is the major conduit for the energy flow in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems respectively? Terrestrial Aquatic a) Grazing Grazing b) Detritus Detritus c) Detritus Grazing d) Grazing Detritus 14. Which of the following is not an example of in-situ conservation? a) National park and seed bank b) National park and Zoological parks c) Seed bank and sacred groove d) Seed bank and Botanical gardens 15. Exploration of molecular, genetic and species level diversity for novel products of economic importance is a) Biofortification b) Bioprocessing c) Bioprospecting d) Biodiversity II. Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word/Words from those given below: 5x1=5 (Competent cells, Bacteria, non-living molecule, vectors, Competent cells, Recombinant cells) 16. The interstitial space in seminiferous tubules consists of immunologically ------------- 17. The version of biogenesis is accepted by majority, as the first form of life arose slowly through evolutionary forces from ----------. 18. Filariasis pathogens are transmitted to a healthy person through ----------- 19. Swiss cheese with large holes is produced from ------------ 20. The host cells which have the ability to incorporate foreign DNA within them are called ------------ PART - B III. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 3 – 5 sentences wherever applicable: 5 x 2 = 10 21. Complete the tabular column given below with respect to the male gametophyte of angiosperms Cells of the male gametophyte Shape of nucleus of the cells 22. Mention the two medical grounds on which the pregnancies are subjected to termination. 23. Derive the phenotypic and genotypic ratio of a cross between AB blood group parents. 24. Which sequences of bases transcribed from DNA are found both in hnRNA and mRNA? 25. “Potato tubers and Sweet potato tubers are the result of convergent evolution”. Justify the statement. 26. What are biofertilizers? Mention its significance. 27. Name any four recent extinct organisms as per IUCN Red list. PART - C IV. Answer any FIVE of the following questions in 40 – 80 words each wherever applicable: 5 x 3 = 15 28. Draw a labeled diagram of the fertilised female gametophyte and mention the ploidy of any one of the products of double fertilization. 29. Parturition is induced by complex neuroendocrine mechanism. Comment. 30. The popular and effective contraceptives include IUDs. Mention the types of IUDs with an example of each. 31. Write the salient feature of the following human ancestors; i) Dryopithecus ii) Ramapithecus iii) Australopithecus iv) Homo habilis v) Neanderthal man vi) Homo erectus 32. Describe any three properties of Cancerous cells. 33. Complete the below given tabular column with appropriate answers. Name of the Microbe Name of the Product Uses A Lactic acid B Methanogens C D E F Treatment of bacterial diseases 34. Represent diagrammatically the pyramid of number in a Terrestrial ecosystem. PART – D V. Answer any FOUR of the following questions in about 200–250 words each wherever applicable: 4x5 = 20 35. Flowering plants have developed many devices to discourage self-pollination and encourage cross- pollination. Comment. 36. Draw a labeled diagrammatic sectional view of the human female reproductive system. 37. Few autosome linked recessive gene blood diseases occur in human population. Among them some are related to qualitative and quantitative problem of synthesizing blood proteins. Explain. 38. DNA replication is fast, accurate, energetically expensive, substrate and enzyme dependent, initiated from specific site and cannot uncoil on its entire length. Explain the process of DNA replication considering all these features. 39. Some drug bottles had their name labels missing in a drug store of a hospital. The staff needs to identify the drugs with their actions still written on them. Analyse their actions listed below and identify the name of each drug and also the source of each one of them. DRUG EFFECT Drug 1 Used by doctors as sedative and pain killer Drug 2 Help patients to cope with insomnia and depression Drug 3 Increases blood pressure and heart rate of consumer Drug 4 Act as depressant and slows down body functions Drug 5 Affects cardiovascular system of the body 40. Transgenic animals provide innumerable benefits to human beings. Justify the statement with common reasons. 41. Explain the fascinating forms of interactions in; a) Brood parasitism (3M) b) Sexual deceit (2M) VI. Answer any ONE of the following questions in about 200–250 words each wherever applicable: 1 x 5= 5 42. Results of a Mendelian dihybrid cross are represented in the form of Punnett square. Answer the following questions with respect to the results of a dihybrid cross. a) Number of parental types progeny b) Number of recombinant progeny c) Number of homozygous recessive progeny d) Number of homozygous dominant progeny e) Number of homozygous progeny for both the traits f) Number of heterozygous progeny for both the traits g) Number of pure line progeny h) Number of homozygous progeny for single trait i) Number of heterozygous progeny for single trait j) Number of recessive progeny for single trait 43. Given below are sequences of nucleotides in a particular mRNA and amino acids coded by it; 5’- AUG UUU UUC GAG UUA GUG UAA-3’ met phe phe glu leu val Write the properties of genetic code that can be correlated from the above given data 44. Given below are the diagrams of plasmids A and B, observe meticulously and answer the questions that follows; a) Which plasmid is/are you select for cloning and why? (1M) b) What is insertional inactivation? (1M) c) Will the number of culture plating you should make is same or different to select recombinant if insertional inactivation is possible. Comment (3M) PART – E (FOR VISUALLY CHALLENGED STUDENTS ONLY) 2. Choose the correct option for the formation and dissolution of the zona pellucida. Formed by Dissolved a) Primary oocyte before fertilisation b) Primary oocyte after fertilisation c) Secondary oocyte before fertilisation d) Secondary oocyte after fertilisation 42. Represent schematically the results of incomplete dominance in snapdragon plant taking the flower color character. 44. a) Mention the tools of genetic engineering. (2M) b) What is insertional inactivation? Mention its significance. (2M) c) What is a recombinant protein? (1M) *************************************************

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