3309 Radar Fundamentals PEs (Fillable).pdf

United States Army Aviation Center of Excellence Fort Rucker, Alabama NOVEMBER 2016 PRACTICAL EXERCISES 011-15Q13309 INTERPRET RADAR FUNDAMENTALS USAACE 011 COURSE PROPONENT FOR THIS PRACTICAL...

United States Army Aviation Center of Excellence Fort Rucker, Alabama NOVEMBER 2016 PRACTICAL EXERCISES 011-15Q13309 INTERPRET RADAR FUNDAMENTALS USAACE 011 COURSE PROPONENT FOR THIS PRACTICAL EXERCISE IS: COMMANDER: 1st Aviation Brigade 1st-13th Aviation Regiment Attn: ATZQ-BDE-EO, Air Operations Training Committee Fort Rucker, Alabama 36362-5000 Submit questions concerning this PE to the proponent school. FD1-This training product has been reviewed by the training developers in coordination with the US Army Aviation Center of Excellence Fort Rucker Alabama foreign disclosure officer. This training product can be used to instruct international military students from all approved countries without restriction.  Appendix C - Practical Exercises and Solutions PRACTICAL EXERCISE PE1 Title Interpret Radar Fundamentals Lesson 011-15Q13309 Number Introduction This practical exercise will give you the opportunity to test your knowledge on the instruction you have received so far. This practical exercise will allow you to demonstrate the skills and knowledge that Motivator you have learned in ELOs A, B, and C Terminal NOTE: The instructor should inform the students of the following Terminal Learning Learning Objective covered by this practical exercise. Objective At the completion of this lesson, you[the student] will: ACTION: Correctly answer the following questions pertaining to radar fundamentals. CONDITION: In a classroom environment and given the PE handbook for radar fundamentals that covers the instructions and procedures you have received so far in this course. STANDARD: In accordance with FAAO 7110.65 Safety Risk Level Low - IAW Deliberate Risk Matrix. Requirements Safety Requirements – IAW Deliberate Risk Assessment Worksheet In a training environment, leaders must perform a risk assessment in accordance with ATP 5-19, Risk Management. Leaders will complete the current Deliberate Risk Assessment Worksheet in accordance with the TRADOC Safety Officer during the planning and completion of each task and sub-task by assessing mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops and support available and civil considerations, (METT-TC). Risk None Assessment Level NOTE: It is the responsibility of all Soldiers and DA Civilians to protect the Environmental environment and to participate in the Army’s Environmental Management Considerations System (EMS) at the installation where they are assigned. The key points of an EMS are: a. We are committed to the prevention of pollution. b. We are committed to meeting all applicable legal and regulatory requirements. c. We will strive for continual improvement in environmental management. C-2  A sustainable installation will use resources wisely to support the current mission, without compromising the ability to accomplish future missions. “Environmental protection is not just the law but the right thing to do. It is a continual process and starts with deliberate planning. Always be alert to ways to protect our environment and reduce waste during training and missions. In doing so, you will contribute to the sustainment of our training resources while protecting people and the environment from harmful effects.” At the end of this practical exercise (PE), the instructor will conduct an After Action Evaluation Review (AAR) concerning the PE results. The AAR will focus on your answers to the PE, and provide you with the correct answers and where you need to place emphasis in your studies. Instructional This practical exercise covers your knowledge of Air Traffic Control. Lead-In Resource STUDENT MATERIALS: Requirements Student Handout 011-15Q13309, pen/pencil, and paper. Special 1. This is the written practical exercise covering the instruction you (the student) Instructions have received so far in this lesson. 2. Record your answers on the practical exercise handout. 3. All work must be your own. If you have a question concerning any part of this PE raise your hand and assistance will be provided. 4. Ensure you have the practical exercise and a pen or pencil. 5. You are to circle the number next to the answer that is the best choice for the question being asked or fill in the blanks. 6. The requirements for you to receive a GO on this PE are to correctly answer 19 out of 27 questions. 7. You will have 40 minutes to complete the PE with 10 minutes for an AAR. 8. After completion of the PE, review your answers and await the AAR. THIS SPACE INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK C-3 Procedures 1. What is an electronically displayed map on the radar display that depicts data? A. Trail B. Target C. Video Map D. Main Bang Answer: 2. Radar identification is the process of determining what? A. the correct aircraft call sign and type. B. that the aircraft calling is within radar coverage. C. that radar identification was established by the beacon method. D. that an observed radar target is the radar return of a particular aircraft. Answer: 3. What information must you have to identify an aircraft using the position correlation method? A. aircraft's position and altitude B. a valid pilot request for radar service C. a position report over the fix and the trail is consistent with the reported heading D. aircraft's altitude and the observed track is consistent with the reported heading or route of flight Answer: 4. To use the departure method to identify an aircraft, you must observe a departing aircraft target __________________. A. within one mile of departure runway end B. make a turn of 20 degrees or more within 2 miles of the departure runway end C. make a turn of 30 degrees or more within 3 miles of the departure runway end D. squawking his computer-assigned discrete beacon code just before he makes his departure Answer: 5. Which of the following aircraft is transponder equipped? A. H-47/D B. H-60/M C. H-64/X D. UH-1/T Answer: 6. How do you identify an aircraft squawking your facility’s code? A. Request the aircraft to IDENT. B. Request the aircraft squawk STANDBY. C. Request the aircraft to squawk NORMAL. D. Request the aircraft squawk your facility’s code and IDENT. Answer: C-4 7. An aircraft squawking 1200 is instructed to squawk 0100, the aircraft is considered radar identified when the _________________. A. aircraft IDENTs B. code change is observed C. 1200 code completely disappears D. pilot acknowledges the squawk code Answer: 8. What should be accomplished if radar identification is questionable for any reason? A. Change aircraft code to 0100 B. Have aircraft squawk STANDBY C. Turn the aircraft at least 45 degrees D. Use more than one method to radar identify a target Answer: 9. When would you inform an aircraft of "RADAR CONTACT"? A. when the aircraft is handed off to the final controller B. when aircraft is identified by use of the beacon method C. when the aircraft is given a turn of 20 degrees or more D. when the aircraft target is seen departing at the 2 mile range mark Answer: 10. What is the phraseology to inform an aircraft that its radar return has disappeared? A. RADAR CONTACT B. RADAR CONTACT LOST C. RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED D. NO GLIDE PATH INFORMATION AVAILABLE Answer: 11. The arrival controller has informed an aircraft of radar contact lost. What additional instructions must be issued to this aircraft? A. climbout instructions B. frequency change to tower C. clear to appropriate NAVAID/fix D. lost communications procedures Answer: 12. What information must be provided to an aircraft that has been radar identified using either the turn method or a beacon method? A. position report B. alternate instructions C. clearance for an approach D. a compulsory reporting point Answer: C-5 13. Apply radar separation between: A. VFR aircraft B. SVFR aircraft only C. military aircraft only D. radar identified aircraft Answer: 14. Which of the following is a correct application of target separation between a digitized primary target and a digitized beacon target (less than 40 miles from the antenna)? A. 3 miles between ends of the primary targets B. 3 miles between edge of a beacon target C. 3 miles between the centers of the primary target and beacon target D. 3 miles between a primary target and the center of a beacon Answer: 15. How do you apply radar separation between two radar identified primary targets? A. edge of each primary target B. center of the closest primary target and edge of the other C. centers of each primary target D. edge of the primary control target and the center of the primary target Answer: 16. The minimum for radar separation of aircraft (less than 40 miles from the antenna) is ________. A. 5 miles B. 3 miles C. 2 1/2 miles D. 1 1/2 miles Answer: 17. Laterally separate aircraft from prominent obstructions depicted on a radar scope when LESS than 40 miles from the antenna by a minimum of_____. A. 2 1/2 miles B. 3 miles C. 4 miles D. 5 miles Answer: 18. After an aircraft has passed a prominent obstruction displayed as a permanent echo, vertical separation may be ____________. A. discontinued B. reduced to 1,000 feet C. reduced to 3 miles if less than 40 miles from the antenna D. reduced to 1,000 feet when less than 40 miles from the antenna Answer: C-6 19. What is the minimum required radar separation from the boundary of two radar controlled airspace areas? A. 3 miles B. 5 miles C. 3 miles when 40 miles or less from the antenna D. 1 1/2 miles when less than 40 miles or 2 1/2 miles when 40 or more miles from the antenna Answer: 20. What is the required separation for an aircraft operating near the boundary of adjacent airspace 46 miles from the antenna, in which nonradar separation is being used? A. 5 miles B. 3 miles C. 2 1/2 miles D. 1 1/2 miles Answer: 21. What is the minimum lateral separation of a radar controlled aircraft climbing through the altitude of an aircraft that has been tracked to the edge of a 20 mile scope? A. 4 miles from the other aircraft B. 5 miles from the other aircraft C. 3 miles from the edge of the scope D. 5 miles from the edge of the scope Answer: 22. Vector aircraft only in airspace for which you have control jurisdiction, unless _____________. A. otherwise coordinated B. the aircraft is traveling on an airway C. the turn is only to accomplish radar contact D. the altitude of the aircraft is above the minimum altitude Answer: 23. What is the phraseology to turn an aircraft from the heading of 360 to the heading of 060? A. TURN 0-6-0 DEGREES. B. FLY RIGHT HEADING 0-6-0. C. TURN RIGHT HEADING 0-6-0. D. FLY PRESENT HEADING 0-6-0. Answer: 24. What is the maximum interception angle for a helicopter being vectored to intercept the final approach course, at least 2 miles outside the approach gate? A. 20 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 60 degrees Answer: C-7 25. Vector an aircraft conducting a precision approach (P-A-R) to intercept the final approach course at an altitude ____________________. A. not above the glidepath B. assigned by the approach control C. below the minimum vectoring altitude D. which will allow for descent IAW published procedure Answer: 26. Before departure assign the initial heading to be flown if a departing aircraft is to be vectored ______________. A. within 1 mile of takeoff B. immediately after takeoff C. after departure, but before aircraft reaches 1/2 mile D. when you have time to issue it along with the responsibilities Answer: 27. You may vector a departing IFR aircraft before it reaches the minimum IFR altitude, if the flight path is less than 3 miles from the obstruction and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at least ___________ feet above the obstruction, vector the aircraft to increase lateral separation from the obstruction until the 3 mile minimum is achieved or until the aircraft reports leaving an altitude above the obstruction. A. 500 B. 1000 C. 3 miles D. 5 miles Answer: THIS SPACE INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK C-8  SOLUTION FOR LESSON 011-15Q13309 INTERPRET RADAR FUNDAMENTALS PRACTICAL EXERCISE SHEET PE1 1. C (ELO A, LS 1, PARA n) 2. D (ELO A, LS 2, PARA a) 3. C (ELO A, LS 2, PARA b (2) (a)) 4. A (ELO A, LS 2, PARA b (3)) 5. D (ELO A, LS 3, Note) 6. A (ELO A, LS 3, PARA a (2) (a)) 7. B (ELO A, LS 3, PARA b (2)) 8. D (ELO A, LS 4, PARA b) 9. B (ELO A, LS 4, PARA a) 10. B (ELO A, LS 4, PARA c (2)) 11. C (ELO A, LS 4, PARA c (2) (b)) 12. A (ELO A, LS 5 PARA a) 13. D (ELO B, LS 1, PARA a (1)) 14. C (ELO B, LS 1, PARA b (1)) 15. C (ELO B, LS 1, PARA b (1)) 16. B (ELO B, LS 2, PARA a (1)) 17. B (ELO B, LS 3, PARA a (1)) 18. A (ELO B, LS 3, PARA b (2)) 19. D (ELO B, LS 4, PARA a (1) & (2)) 20. A (ELO B, LS 4, PARA b (2)) 21. C (ELO B, LS 5, PARA a) 22. A (ELO C, LS 1, PARA a) 23. C (ELO C, LS 1, PARA e (1)) 24. C (ELO C, LS 2 PARA b, Table 1) 25. A (ELO C, LS 2, PARA c (1)) 26. B (ELO C, LS 3, PARA a) 27. B (ELO C, LS 3, PARA b (1)) C-9  PRACTICAL EXERCISE SHEET PE2 Title Interpret Radar Fundamentals Lesson 011-15Q13309 Number Introduction This practical exercise will give you the opportunity to test your knowledge on the instruction you have received so far. This practical exercise will allow you to demonstrate the skills and knowledge that Motivator you have learned in ELOs A, B, C, D, E, F, and G Terminal NOTE: The instructor should inform the students of the following Terminal Learning Learning Objective covered by this practical exercise Objective At the completion of this lesson, you[the student] will: ACTION: Correctly answer the following questions pertaining to radar fundamentals CONDITION: In a classroom environment and given the PE handbook for radar fundamentals that covers the instructions and procedures you have received so far in this course. STANDARD: In accordance with FAAO 7110.65 Risk Level Low - IAW Deliberate Risk Matrix. Safety Requirements Safety Requirements – IAW Deliberate Risk Assessment Worksheet In a training environment, leaders must perform a risk assessment in accordance with ATP 5-19, Risk Management. Leaders will complete the current Deliberate Risk Assessment Worksheet in accordance with the TRADOC Safety Officer during the planning and completion of each task and sub-task by assessing mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops and support available and civil considerations, (METT- TC). Risk None Assessment Level It is the responsibility of all Soldiers and DA Civilians to protect the environment, and Environmental to participate in the Army’s Environmental Management System (EMS) at the Considerations installation where they are assigned. The key points of an EMS are: a. We are committed to the prevention of pollution. b. We are committed to meeting all applicable legal and regulatory requirements. c. We strive for continual improvement in environmental management. A sustainable installation will use resources wisely to support the current mission, without compromising the ability to accomplish future missions. C-10  Environmental protection is not just the law but the right thing to do. It is a continual process and starts with deliberate planning. Always be alert to ways to protect our environment and reduce waste during training and missions. In doing so, you will contribute to the sustainment of our training resources while protecting people and the environment from harmful effects. At the end of this practical exercise (PE), the instructor will conduct an After Action Evaluation Review (AAR) concerning the PE results. The AAR will focus on your answers to the PE, and provide you with the correct answers and where you need to place emphasis in your studies. Instructional This practical exercise covers your knowledge of Air Traffic Control Lead-In STUDENT MATERIALS: Resource Student Handout 011-15Q13309, pen/pencil and paper. Requirements 1. This is the written practical exercise covering the instruction you (the student) Special have received so far in this lesson. Instructions 2. Record your answers on the practical exercise handout. 3. All work must be your own. If you have a question concerning any part of this PE raise your hand and assistance will be provided. 4. Ensure you have the practical exercise booklet and a pen or pencil. 5. You are to circle the number next to the answer that is the best choice for the question being asked or fill in the blanks. 6. The requirements for you to receive a GO on this PE are to correctly answer 35 out of 49 questions. 7. You will have 55 minutes to complete the PE with 20 minutes for an AAR. 8. After completion of the PE, review your answers and await the AAR. THIS SPACE INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK C-11 Procedures 1. A radar facility that provides radar final services for an airport within their airspace delegated by approach is _______________. A. Tower B. Center C. Approach Control D. Ground Controlled Approach Answer: 2. Identify a primary target by observing the target making an identifying turn of ___ degrees or more. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 75 Answer: 3. What radar method is used to identify a target whose position in reference to a fix corresponds with the position report and the trail is consistent with the reported heading? A. Position report B. Correlation report C. Correlation position D. Position correlation Answer: 4. The observation of an aircraft target within one mile of departure runway end is what method of radar identification? A. departure B. initial radar C. observation D. the 6,000 foot Answer: 5. How do you identify an aircraft with a transponder, which is not turned on, or is on STANDBY? A. Request the aircraft to IDENT B. Request aircraft turn transponder on C. Request the aircraft to squawk your code D. Request aircraft to squawk your code and IDENT Answer: 6. How do you identify an aircraft squawking a code other than your facility‘s code? A. change your code to his B. have aircraft squawk "IDENT" C. have aircraft squawk "STANDBY" D. have aircraft squawk your facility‘s code Answer: C-12 7. How do you identify an aircraft with a beacon that is unable to change codes? A. Have aircraft squawk any code B. Have aircraft turn at least 20 degrees C. Have aircraft activate the IDENT feature D. Have aircraft change transponder to STANDBY, then after sufficient number of scans, return transponder to normal operation Answer: 8. If identification of a target is questionable because of proximity of targets, what should you do? A. Use the beacon method to radar identify the target. B. Use the departure method to radar identify the target. C. Use more than one method to radar identify the target. D. Use position correlation method to radar identify the target. Answer: 9. When is a aircraft informed of radar contact? A. when radar identification is established B. after confirmation procedures have been completed C. immediately after establishing radio communications D. after advising the pilot of the altimeter setting for your area of control Answer: 10. True or False. Radar contact is considered lost when the complete radar return of a radar-identified aircraft has disappeared. A. false B. true Answer: 11. What action must you take with an aircraft on the downwind leg whose complete radar return disappears? A. cancel IFR clearance B. issue missed approach procedures C. issue lost communications procedures D. issue clearance to an appropriate NAVAID/fix Answer: 12. When issuing a clearance, when would position information not be issued to the aircraft after radar identification is established? A. beacon or turn B. departure or beacon C. turn or position correlation D. departure or position correlation Answer: 13. True or False. Apply radar separation between an aircraft taking off and another radar identified aircraft when the aircraft taking off will be identified within 1 mile of the takeoff runway end. A. True B. False Answer: C-13 14. How is radar separation applied between a two beacon targets? A. end of a beacon target and the edge of a primary target B. between the center of each beacon target C. edge of a beacon target and the center of a beacon target D. center of a beacon target and the leading edge of a beacon target Answer: 15. What is the correct radar separation between aircraft (40 miles or more from the antenna)? A. 1 1/2 miles B. 2 1/2 miles C. 3 miles D. 5 miles Answer: 16. Separate a radar controlled aircraft from a prominent obstruction that is depicted on the radar scope by a minimum of ________ when more than 40 miles from the antenna. A. 5 miles B. 3 miles C. 1 1/2 miles D. 2 1/2 miles Answer: 17. What is the required vertical separation from an obstruction when less than 40 miles from the antenna? A. 5 miles B. 3 miles C. 1500 feet D. 1000 feet Answer: 18. What is the minimum required to separate radar controlled aircraft (operating less than 40 miles from the antenna) from the boundary of adjacent airspace in which radar separation (operating less than 40 miles from the antenna) is also being used? A. 5 miles B. 3 miles C. 2 1/2 miles D. 1 1/2 miles Answer: 19. Which of the following minima is required to separate a radar controlled aircraft from the boundary of adjacent airspace in which nonradar separation is being used? A. 3 miles when less than 40 miles from the antenna, 5 miles when 40 or more miles from the antenna B. 5 miles when less than 40 miles from the antenna, 10 miles when 40 or more miles from the antenna C. 2 1/2 miles when less than 40 miles from the antenna, 5 miles when 40 miles or more from the antenna D. 1 1/2 miles when less than 40 miles from the antenna, 2 1/2 miles when 40 miles or more from the antenna Answer: C-14 20. Separate a radar controlled aircraft (when 40 miles or more from the antenna) climbing or descending through the altitude of an aircraft that has been tracked to the edge of the scope by from edge of scope, until nonradar separation has been established. A. 5 miles B. 3 miles C. 2 1/2 miles D. 1 1/2 miles Answer: 21. When the aircraft's heading is known and no change is required, you should instruct the aircraft to ______________. A. MAINTAIN HEADING B. FLY STRAIGHT AHEAD C. FLY PRESENT HEADING D. MAINTAIN INITIAL HEADING Answer: 22. To vector a no-gyro aircraft you issue the type of vector, direction of turn, and _____________________. A. when to stop turn B. the altitude of the aircraft C. where the aircraft is traveling on an airway D. turn the aircraft only to accomplish radar contact Answer: 23. What is the maximum authorized intercept angle for fixed wing aircraft being vectored to the final approach course more than two miles from the approach gate? A. 15 degrees B. 20 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 45 degrees Answer: 24. Vector an aircraft conducting a surveillance approach to intercept the final approach course at an altitude ________________. A. above the glidepath B. assigned by the approach control C. below the minimum vectoring altitude D. which will allow for descent IAW published procedure Answer: 25. If a departure aircraft is to be vectored immediately after takeoff, when shall you assign the initial heading to be flown? A. after departure B. before departure C. after departure, but before aircraft reaches 1/2 mile D. when you have time to issue it along with the responsibilities Answer: C-15 26. You may vector a departing IFR aircraft before it reaches the minimum IFR altitude, if the flight path is less than 3 miles from the obstruction and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at least 1,000 feet above the obstruction, vector the aircraft to increase lateral separation from the obstruction until the ____ mile minimum is achieved or until the aircraft reports leaving an altitude above the obstruction. A. 1½ B. 2½ C. 3 D. 5 Answer: 27. If recommended altitudes are requested, the altitudes which are at or above the published _________________ will be given for each mile on final. A. decision altitude B. missed approach C. minimum descent altitude D. minimum decision height altitude Answer: 28. If a pilot states that he cannot accept a lost communications procedure, the controller will _____________. A. discontinue the approach B. request the pilot's intention C. tell him to contact base operations D. make the pilot comply with the procedure Answer: 29. When should the aircraft be informed of its position? A. on base leg B. after handoff to the final controller C. at least once before starting final descent D. included with position correlation information Answer: 30. Which of the following is the correct phraseology for issuing a position report? A. SEVEN MILES FROM CAIRNS AIRPORT B. SEVEN MILES NORTHEAST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT C. EIGHT MILES SOUTHWEST FROM CAIRNS HELIPORT D. EIGHT MILES SOUTH OF CAIRNS HELIPORT AIRFIELD Answer: 31. When is a pilot advised to perform the landing check using a complete pattern when a surveillance approach is made? A. before contact with the final controller B. before starting descent on the final approach course C. on downwind leg in time to complete it before turning base D. on base leg in time to complete it before turning to intercept angle Answer: C-16 32. When an aircraft conducting a PAR approach flies an incomplete pattern, arrival must you issue the landing check? A. on base leg B. before handoff to the final controller C. after starting descent on final approach D. on downwind leg in time to complete it before turning base Answer: 33. Providing additional services is ___________________. A. not required B. required regardless of traffic volume C. required when your workload permits D. not required if another controller has responsibility Answer: 34. Which of the following traffic advisories is correct? A. TRAFFIC, TEN O’CLOCK, ONE MILE, ALTITUDE UNKNOWN, NORTHBOUND B. TRAFFIC, TEN O’CLOCK, ONE MILE, NORTHBOUND, ALTITUDE UNKNOWN C. TRAFFIC, ONE MILE, TEN O’CLOCK, NORTHBOUND, ALTITUDE UNKNOWN D. TRAFFIC, ONE MILE, TEN O’CLOCK, ALTITUDE UNKNOWN, NORTHBOUND Answer: 35. In areas of significant weather, plan ahead and suggest the use of alternate routes/altitudes if ____________. A. the pilot requests. B. an alternate route is published. C. the pilot reports the current ATIS code. D. the weather station reports the weather. Answer: 36. When should code 7700 be assigned to an aircraft declaring an emergency? A. as soon as possible B. IFR emergencies only C. all aircraft under your control D. if the aircraft is not radar identified Answer: 37. During an emergency, pilots may be unable to reposition the transponder controls. Requests for transponder change shall be prefixed with the words ______________. A. IF FEASIBLE B. WHENEVER YOU CAN C. AS SOON AS POSSIBLE D. AT YOUR CONVENIENCE Answer: C-17 38. Which technique to the extent possible would you use to provide radar assistance to a pilot not qualified to operate in IFR conditions: A. vector aircraft to VFR conditions. B. request the pilot to change frequency. C. make turns only while in IFR weather. D. climb or descend while in IFR conditions. Answer: 39. Ground testing of ELT's is authorized during the ______________ of each hour. A. first 10 minutes B. last 10 minutes C. last 5 minutes D. first 5 minutes Answer: 40. When attempting to re-establish communication with an H-64/X, what can you have the aircraft do to acknowledge clearances and answer questions? A. Have it make turns B. Use its transponder C. Have aircraft squawk 7600 D. Advise the aircraft to proceed visually, squawk 1200, & contact the Tower Answer: 41. What is the phraseology to acknowledge and confirm receipt of Code 7500? A. (identification) (name of facility) VERIFY SQUAWKING 7500 B. (identification) (name of facility) CONFIRM HIJACK IN PROGRESS C. (identification) (name of facility) RESET TRANSPONDER, SQUAWK 1200 D. (identification) (name of facility) VERIFY SQUAWKING THE HIJACK CODE Answer: 42. Why is it necessary to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another controller (radar handoff)? A. to clear an airway B. to identify an aircraft C. to correct an unsafe situation D. to provide continuous radar service to an aircraft Answer: 43. The action taken by a controller to transfer the radar identification of an aircraft to another controller if the aircraft may enter the airspace of another controller and radio communications will not be transferred is the definition of ___________. A. Handoff B. Point Out C. Radar Contact D. Point Out Approved Answer: C-18 44. When making a handoff by landline communication, relay information to the receiving controller in the following order: A. HANDOFF, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, HEADING 060, 1,500, R12345. B. HANDOFF, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, HEADING 060, R12345, 1,500. C. HANDOFF, R12345, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, HEADING 060, 1,500. D. HANDOFF, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, R12345, 1,500, HEADING 060. Answer: 45. When should the transferring controller should complete a handoff? A. as the aircraft reaches the approach gate. B. after the aircraft has been issued a tower clearance. C. as soon as possible after aircraft begins descent on final. D. prior to the aircraft entering the receiving controller’s area of jurisdiction. Answer: 46. What information must the transferring controller provide to the aircraft when transferring communications? A. name of facility and frequency B. frequency and missed approach point C. name of facility and missed approach point D. name of facility and airport of intended landing Answer: 47 Which statement is correct to accept a handoff from the transferring controller? A. RADAR, HOOK 31, JL B. CONTACT, HOOK 31, JL C. HOOK 31, TURN RIGHT HEADING 0-6-0, JL D. HOOK 31, TURN RIGHT HEADING 0-6-0 RADAR CONTACT, JL Answer: 48. The receiving controller shall assume control of an aircraft, unless specifically coordinated at the time of handoff _____________. A. immediately after handoff. B. after the aircraft identification has been confirmed. C. only after the aircraft enters the receiving controller’s area of jurisdiction. D. only after the aircraft enters the transferring controller’s area of jurisdiction. Answer: C-19  SOLUTION FOR LESSON 011-15Q13309 INTERPRET RADAR FUNDAMENTALS PRACTICAL EXERCISE SHEET PE2 1. D (ELO A, LS 1, PARA c) 2. A (ELO A, LS 2, PARA b (1)) 3. D (ELO A, LS 2, PARA b (2) (a)) 4. A (ELO A, LS 2, PARA b (3)) 5. D (ELO A, LS 3, PARA a (1) (a)) 6. D (ELO A, LS 3, PARA b (1)) 7. D (ELO A, LS 3, PARA c (1) (2) (3)) 8. C (ELO A, LS 4, PARA b) 9. A (ELO A, LS 4, PARA a) 10. B (ELO A, LS 4, PARA c) 11. D (ELO A, LS 4, PARA c (1)) 12. D (ELO A, LS 5, PARA b) 13. A (ELO B, LS 1, PARA a (2)) 14. B (ELO B, LS 1, PARA b (3)) 15. D (ELO B, LS 2, PARA a (2)) 16. A (ELO B, LS 3, PARA a (2)) 17. D (ELO B, LS 3, PARA b) 18. D (ELO B, LS 4, PARA a (1)) 19. A (ELO B, LS 4, PARA b (1) & (2)) 20. A (ELO B, LS 5, PARA b) 21. C (ELO C, LS 1, PARA e (1)) 22. A (ELO C, LS 1, PARA e (2) (b)) 23. C (ELO C, LS 2, PARA b Table 1) 24. D (ELO C, LS 2, PARA c (2)) 25. B (ELO C, LS 3, PARA a) 26. C (ELO C, LS 3, PARA b (2)) 27. C (ELO D, LS 1, PARA d (4)) 28. B (ELO D, LS 1, PARA f (6)) 29. C (ELO D, LS 3, PARA a) C-20 30. B (ELO D, LS 3, PARA b) 31. C (ELO D, LS 4, PARA a) 32. B (ELO D, LS 4, PARA b (1)) 33. C (ELO E, LS 1, PARA d) 34. B (ELO E, LS 2, PARA b (5)) 35. A (ELO E, LS 3, PARA e) 36. D (ELO F, LS 1, PARA d) 37. A (ELO F, LS 1, PARA d (2)) 38. A (ELO F, LS 2, PARA e (6)) 39. D (ELO F, LS 3, PARA a) 40. A (ELO F, LS 4, PARA b (5)) 41. A (ELO F, LS 5, PARA a) 42. D (ELO G, LS 1, PARA a) 43. B (ELO G, LS 1, PARA c (3)) 44. D (ELO G, LS 2, PARA a (5)) 45. D (ELO G, LS 3, PARA a (1)) 46. A (ELO G, LS 3, PARA a (4)) 47. D (ELO G, LS 3, PARA b (1)) 48. C (ELO G, LS 3, PARA b (2)) C-21  PRACTICAL EXERCISE SHEET PE3 Title Interpret Radar Fundamentals Lesson 011-15Q13309 Number Introduction This practical exercise will give you the opportunity to test your knowledge on the instruction you have received so far. Motivator This practical exercise will allow you to demonstrate the skills and knowledge that you have learned in ELOs A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H, I, and J Terminal NOTE: The instructor should inform the students of the following Terminal Learning Learning Objective covered by this practical exercise Objective At the completion of this lesson, you[the student] will: ACTION: Correctly answer the following questions pertaining to radar fundamentals CONDITION: In a classroom environment and given the PE handbook for radar fundamentals that covers the instructions and procedures you have received so far in this course STANDARD: In accordance with FAAO 7110.65 Safety Risk Level Low - IAW Deliberate Risk Matrix. Requirements Safety Requirements – IAW Deliberate Risk Assessment Worksheet In a training environment, leaders must perform a risk assessment in accordance with ATP 5-19, Risk Management. Leaders will complete the current Deliberate Risk Assessment Worksheet in accordance with the TRADOC Safety Officer during the planning and completion of each task and sub-task by assessing mission, enemy, terrain and weather, troops and support available and civil considerations, (METT- TC). Risk None Assessment Level NOTE: It is the responsibility of all Soldiers and DA Civilians to protect the Environmental environment and to participate in the Army’s Environmental Management System Considerations (EMS) at the installation where they are assigned. The key points of an EMS are: a. We are committed to the prevention of pollution. b. We are committed to meeting all applicable legal and regulatory requirements. c. We will strive for continual improvement in environmental management. A sustainable installation will use resources wisely to support the current mission, without compromising the ability to accomplish future missions. Environmental protection is not just the law but the right thing to do. It is a continual process and starts with deliberate planning. Always be alert to ways to protect our environment and reduce waste during training and missions. In doing so, you will contribute to the sustainment of our training resources while protecting people and the environment from harmful effects. C-22 Evaluation At the end of this practical exercise (PE), the instructor will conduct an After Action Review (AAR) concerning the PE results. The AAR will focus on your answers to the PE, and provide you with the correct answers and where you need to place emphasis in your studies. Instructional This practical exercise covers your knowledge of Air Traffic Control. Lead-In Resource STUDENT MATERIALS: Requirements Student Handout 011-15Q13309, pen/pencil and paper. Special 1. This is the written practical exercise covering the instruction you (the student) Instructions have received so far in this lesson. 2. Record your answers on the practical exercise handout. 3. All work must be your own. If you have a question concerning any part of this PE raise your hand and assistance will be provided. 4. Ensure you have the practical exercise booklet and a pen or pencil. 5. You are to circle the number next to the answer that is the best choice for the question being asked or fill in the blanks. 6. The requirements for you to receive a GO on this PE are to correctly answer 80 out of 113 questions. 7. You will have 100 minutes to complete the PE with 25 minutes for an AAR. 8. After completion of the PE, review your answers and await the AAR. THIS SPACE INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK C-23 Procedures 1. G-C-A stands for ________ ________ ________. A. Ground Control Advisory B. Ground Control Approach C. Ground Controlled Advisory D. Ground Controlled Approach Answer: 2. Identify a primary target by observing the target making an identifying turn of ________ degrees or more. A. 30 B. 45 C. 60 D. 75 Answer: 3. What radar method is used to identify an aircraft by observing a target whose position in reference to a fix corresponds with the position report and the trail is consistent with the reported heading? A. Position report B. Position method C. Correlation position D. Position correlation Answer: 4. You may identify a departing primary radar target by observing the aircraft Target ______________. A. within ½ mile of the airport B. within ½ mile of departure runway end C. within 1 mile of departure runway end D. within 1 ½ miles of the takeoff runway end Answer: 5. Which of the following aircraft is not transponder equipped? A. H-64/T B. H-60/X C. C-130/U D. BE-20/B Answer: 6. To identify a transponder equipped aircraft not displaying a beacon target, you would request the aircraft to __________. A. IDENT B. squawk NORMAL C. squawk your facility’s code D. squawk your facility’s code and IDENT Answer: C-24 7. To identify an aircraft that is squawking a code other than your code, have the aircraft ___________. A. IDENT B. squawk NORMAL C. squawk STANDBY D. squawk your facility’s code Answer: 8. When should more than one method of radar identification be used? A. an aircraft is lost B. the aircraft is unable to ident C. an aircraft is transponder equipped D. duplication of observed action which causes doubt Answer: 9. When should an aircraft be informed of radar contact? A. after accepting a handoff B. when transferring radar identification C. when radar identification is established D. upon receipt of handoff from another facility Answer: 10. What action must you take with an aircraft on the base leg whose complete radar return disappears? A. issue missed approach procedures B. issue lost communications procedures C. issue radar communications lost procedures D. issue clearance to an appropriate NAVAID/fix Answer: 11. What must you inform EAGLE 2 when it’s complete radar return has disappeared? A. EAGLE 2, RADAR CONTACT LOST. B. EAGLE 2, RADAR SERVICE TERMINATED. C. EAGLE 2, RADAR CONTACT TERMINATED. D. EAGLE 2, NO GLIDE PATH INFORMATION AVAILABLE. Answer: 12. What methods of identification requires you to inform an aircraft of its position? A. turn or departure method B. radar beacon procedures or turn C. position correlation or departure method D. radar beacon procedures or position correlation Answer: 13. You are only authorized to apply radar separation between____________. A. two IFR aircraft B. radar identified aircraft C. two VFR departure aircraft from your airfield D. a VFR aircraft and a radar identified aircraft Answer: C-25 14. Which of the following is a correct application of target separation between a primary target and a beacon target? A. between the ends of the primary targets B. between the center of the primary target and the center of the beacon target C. end of the primary target and the end of a beacon target D. edge of the primary target and the center of the beacon target Answer: 15. What is the correct radar separation minima between aircraft targets? A. 3 miles when 40 miles from the antenna B. 3 miles when 40 miles or more from the antenna C. 5 miles when less than 40 miles from the antenna D. 3 miles when less than 40 miles, or 5 miles when 40 miles or more from the antenna Answer: 16. What is the minimum lateral separation required between a radar controlled aircraft and a prominent obstruction that is depicted on the radar scope (less than 40 miles from the antenna). A. 3 miles B. 5 miles C. 1000 feet D. 1 ½ miles Answer: 17. When may you discontinue vertical separation of an aircraft above a prominent obstruction displayed as a permanent echo 52 miles from the antenna? A. after the aircraft has passed it B. when the aircraft is 5 miles from the prominent obstruction C. when the aircraft is 3 miles or more from the prominent obstruction D. when the aircraft is 5 miles or more from the prominent obstruction Answer: 18. When coordination has not been effected, separate radar controlled aircraft (operating 47 miles from the antenna) from the boundary of adjacent airspace in which radar separation is also being used by _____. A. 1 1/2 miles B. 2 1/2 miles C. 3 miles D. 5 miles Answer: 19. Separate radar controlled aircraft from the boundary of adjacent airspace in which nonradar separation is being applied by _____________. A. 5 miles if 42 miles from the antenna B. 3 miles if 42 miles from the antenna C. 2 1/2 miles if 32 miles from the antenna D. 1 1/2 miles if 18 miles from the antenna Answer: C-26 20. Separate a radar controlled aircraft (when less than 40 miles from the antenna) climbing or descending through the altitude of an aircraft that has been tracked to the edge of the scope/display by ___ miles from edge of scope until nonradar separation has been established. A. 5 B. 3 C. 2½ D. 1½ Answer: 21. What is the phraseology used to tell an aircraft a heading and no change is required? A. FLY HEADING (degrees) B. FLY PRESENT HEADING C. MAINTAIN PRESENT HEADING D. FLY PRESENT HEADING (degrees) Answer: 22. What three items are included in all initial clearances? A. vector, purpose, and altitude B. position report, vector, and altitude C. position report, vector, and purpose D. position report, purpose and altitude Answer: 23. What is the maximum authorized intercept angle for fixed wing aircraft being vectored to the final approach course more than two miles from the approach gate? A. 15 degrees B. 20 degrees C. 30 degrees D. 45 degrees Answer: 24. What is the maximum authorized intercept angle for a fixed wing aircraft being vectored to the final approach course less than two miles from the approach gate? A. 20 degrees B. 30 degrees C. 45 degrees D. 60 degrees Answer: 25. When is the initial heading assigned to a departing aircraft that will be vectored immediately after departure? A. before departure B. after the aircraft is airborne C. within ½ mile of departure end of runway D. after the aircraft is airborne and reaches a safe altitude to change frequency Answer: C-27 26. You may vector a departing IFR aircraft before it reaches the minimum IFR altitude, if the flight path is ________ miles or more from the obstruction and the aircraft is climbing to an altitude at least 1,000 feet above the obstruction and the aircraft is on a vector to maintain at least 3 miles separation from the obstruction until the aircraft reports leaving an altitude above the obstruction. A. 1½ B. 2½ C. 3 D. 5 Answer: 27. Before starting PAR final approach, inform the aircraft of type of approach and A. recommended altitudes. B. location of missed approach point. C. runway to which the approach will be made. D. runway to which the approach will be made and location of missed approach point. Answer: 28. Request a pilot to confirm assigned altitude on initial contact unless the pilot _________. A. states the altitude leaving B. states the assigned altitude C. is level at the assigned altitude D. states the proper altimeter setting Answer: 29. The phraseology for reconfirming a correct altitude readback is_________. A. 1,500 AFFIRMATIVE B. AFFIRMATIVE 1,500 C. NEGATIVE MAINTAIN 1,500 D. AFFIRMATIVE MAINTAIN 1,500 Answer: 30. When a position report is issued, the report is given in relation to the __________. A. Airport B. Direction C. Distance D. Position in traffic pattern Answer: 31. Which of the following is the correct phraseology for issuing a position report? A. ONE ZERO MILES FROM CAIRNS AIRPORT B. ONE ZERO MILES NORTHEAST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT C. DOWNWIND LEG, ONE ZERO MILES SOUTH OF CAIRNS AIRPORT D. ONE ZERO MILES EAST, DOWNWIND LEG, FROM CAIRNS AIRPORT Answer: C-28 32. What constitutes a complete radar traffic pattern? A. Base and final B. Upwind, base, and final C. Downwind, base, and final D. Downwind, upwind, and base Answer: 33. When an aircraft conducting a surveillance approach flies an incomplete pattern, you must issue the landing check A. on base leg B. before handoff to the final controller C. before starting descent on final approach D. on downwind leg in time to complete it before turning base Answer: 34. Providing additional services is secondary to what? A. your duty priority B. traffic information C. weather advisories D. your operational priority Answer: 35. Providing additional services _____________. A. is not required B. is required at all times C. is required when your workload permits D. is required if traffic information or weather advisories issued Answer: 36. Which of the following would require giving traffic information to an aircraft on your frequency? A. Weather is IFR B. Aircraft are within controlled airspace C. IFR aircraft, where no separation minimum applies D. Aircraft proximity may diminish to less than applicable separation minima Answer: 37. A radar traffic advisory must consist of the following information in the proper order: A. TRAFFIC, 3 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, WESTBOUND, UH-1 B. TRAFFIC, 9 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, UH-1 AT 1500, NORTHBOUND C. TRAFFIC, 11 O’CLOCK, EASTBOUND, 2 MILES, ALTITUDE UNKNOWN D. TRAFFIC, 1 O’CLOCK, 2 MILES, SOUTHBOUND, ALTITUDE UNKNOWN Answer: C-29 38. Provide radar navigational guidance and/or approve deviations around weather areas when _______________. A. requested by the pilot B. no PIREPs have been received C. requested by the controller and approved by the pilot D. the observed edge of the weather phenomenon extends beyond the edge of the scope Answer: 39. Issue vectors to assist your aircraft in avoiding other traffic when _______. A. requested by the pilot B. the aircraft is in IFR conditions C. the aircraft does not see the other aircraft D. your aircraft is in another controller’s area of jurisdiction Answer: 40. In addition to aircraft identification, type and nature of emergency, what is the minimum information that must be obtained from an in-flight emergency? A. pilot's desires B. pilot's desires and fuel remaining in time C. pilot's desires and number of personnel on board D. pilot’s desires, number of personnel on board and fuel remaining in time. Answer: 41. An unidentified transponder equipped aircraft declares an EMERGENCY. How do you identify the aircraft? A. Have aircraft IDENT B. Have aircraft squawk your code and IDENT C. Request aircraft to squawk MAYDAY on 7700 D. Tell aircraft to change the transponder to your code Answer: 42. The code change from 7700 to a terminal code will signify to other radar facilities that the emergency aircraft _______________. A. has terminated the emergency B. has an operational transponder C. is identified and under ATC control D. has lost two-way radio communication Answer: 43. A VFR aircraft has encountered IFR conditions, what must you inform the aircraft? A. current weather information B. lost communications procedures C. type of approach and runway to expect D. appropriate minimum vectoring altitude Answer: C-30 44. When an ELT signal is heard or reported, your first course of action is to Notify ___________. A. tower B. approach control C. appropriate agency D. Rescue Coordination Center Answer: 45. If a transponder equipped aircraft experience a loss of two-way radio capability, the pilot can be expected to squawk what? A. 7700 B. 7600 C. 7500 D. IDENT Answer: 46. In the event of lost communications with an aircraft under your control jurisdiction _________________. A. notify the approach control B. advise the aircraft to proceed with lost communications procedures C. use all appropriate means available to reestablish communications with the aircraft D. advise the aircraft to resume own navigation, squawk 0100, & contact the tower Answer: 47. What is the hijack code? A. 7700 B. 7600 C. 7500 D. 7400 Answer: 48. Why is it necessary to transfer radar identification of an aircraft from one controller to another? A. To provide a safety alerts B. To provide an expeditious flow of traffic C. To provide continuous radar service to an aircraft D. So transferring controller well not violate the receiving controller’s airspace Answer: 49. The term used to inform the controller initiating a handoff that the aircraft is identified and approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace is the definition of ______________. A. Handoff B. Point Out C. Radar Contact D. Traffic Approved Answer: C-31 50. The term used to inform the controller initiating a point out that the aircraft is identified and that approval is granted for the aircraft to enter the receiving controller’s airspace, as coordinated, without a communications transfer is the _____________. A. Handoff B. Point Out C. Radar Contact D. Point Out Approved Answer: 51. When making a handoff by landline communication, relay information to the receiving controller in the following order: A. HANDOFF, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, HEADING 060, 1,500, R12345 B. HANDOFF, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, R12345, 1,500, HEADING 060 C. HANDOFF, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, R12345, HEADING 060, 1,500 D. HANDOFF, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, HEADING 060, 1,500, R12345 Answer: 52. To handoff an aircraft when physically pointing to the target, what information must be given to the final controller? A. HANDOFF, HEADING 060, R21344, 1500. B. HANDOFF, R21344, 1500, HEADING 060. C. HANDOFF, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, R21344, 1500, HEADING 060. D. HANDOFF, R21344, 10 MILES SOUTHWEST OF CAIRNS AIRPORT, 1500, HEADING 060. Answer: 53. When would the transferring controller consider the target being transferred as identified? A. When the transferring controller transfers communications B. When the target enters the receiving controller’s area of jurisdiction C. Prior to the target entering the receiving controller’s area of jurisdiction D. When the receiving controller states RADAR CONTACT or POINT OUT APPROVED Answer: 54. The receiving controller shall accept a handoff after _____________. A. ensuring the arrival controller passes all information B. ensuring the position is consistent with the position of the aircraft on his scope. C. ensuring the aircraft heading is consistent with the heading of the aircraft on his scope. D. ensuring the position and heading, is consistent with the position and heading of the aircraft on his scope. Answer: C-32 55. Which statement is correct to accept a handoff from the transferring controller? A. HOOK 4, TURN RIGHT HEADING 0-6-0, JL B. RADAR CONTACT, HOOK 4, TURN LEFT HEADING 0-6- 0, JL C. RADAR CONTACT, TURN LEFT HEADING 0-6-0, HOOK 4, JL D. HOOK 4, TURN RIGHT HEADING 0-6-0, RADAR CONTACT, JL Answer: 56. Unless specifically coordinated at the time of handoff, the receiving controller shall assume control of an aircraft only after ___________. A. you advise the transferring controller, RADAR CONTACT B. the aircraft enters the receiving controller’s area of jurisdiction C. the aircraft enters the transferring controller’s area of jurisdiction D. the aircraft contacts you, and you have radar identified the aircraft Answer: 57. What must the receiving controller ensure when accepting a handoff? A. The aircraft is in the receiving controller’s airspace B. The aircraft is in the transferring controller’s airspace C. The frequency change is complete prior to entering his airspace D. The position and heading on his scope is consistent with the position and heading given by the transferring controller. Answer: 58. After handoff is accepted, transfer communication to the final controller, to include the _______________ and frequency. A. name of the facility B. type of approach and runway C. missed approach instructions D. location of the missed approach point Answer: 59. Instruct the aircraft to change frequency for final approach guidance __________. A. before the final approach fix B. before the aircraft begins final descent C. after the final controller accepts the handoff D. after issuing the missed approach procedure Answer: C-33 60. When an aircraft makes initial contact with the final controller, the controller will ________________. A. issue lost communications instructions B. ask the aircraft for a communications check C. issue missed approach/climb-out instructions D. advise the aircraft not to acknowledge further transmissions Answer: 61. Trend information describes target movement with respect to the ___________. A. runway B. runway centerline C. missed approach point D. extended runway centerline Answer: 62. Which of the following examples is correct trend information? A. WELL LEFT OF COURSE AND GOING B. GOING SLIGHTLY RIGHT OF COURSE AND HOLDING C. WELL LEFT OF COURSE AND COMING RIGHT SLOWLY D. SLIGHTLY RIGHT OF COURSE AND CORRECTING SLOWLY Answer: 63. An aircraft is conducting a PAR full stop landing. Prior to descent on final approach, during IFR conditions, what must the final controller issue to the aircraft? A. climbout instructions B. minimum descent altitude C. missed approach procedures D. lost communications procedures Answer: 64. _________________________, issue the missed approach procedure if the aircraft will make a full stop landing and weather reports indicate that any portion of the final approach will be conducted in IFR conditions. A. Before final descent B. After beginning final descent C. Before issuing the landing clearance D. After receiving the communications check Answer: 65. What type of approach receives departure instructions? A. P-A-R B. full stop C. touch and go D. P-A-R and surveillance Answer: C-34 66. Except when an aircraft will maintain VFR and contact the tower, the climb out instructions for a low approach must include _____________. A. a heading and frequency B. an altitude and frequency C. a specific altitude and heading D. distance, azimuth, and elevation Answer: 67. Provided the instructions remain the same, when may you omit the departure instructions to an aircraft making repeated low approaches? A. requested by the pilot B. after the first approach C. in VFR weather conditions D. when the aircraft will maintain VFR and contact tower Answer: 68. Instruct an aircraft making a radar approach not to acknowledge further transmissions after contact has been established with the final controller and _____________. A. after final descent B. before final descent C. while on the final approach course D. after the missed approach procedure Answer: 69. If the aircraft __________________________ and radar contact is lost, clear the aircraft to an appropriate NAVAID/FIX for an instrument approach. A. has started final approach B. has not started final approach C. has received lost communications D. has received missed approach procedure Answer: 70. When an aircraft is on final approach to an airport served by a tower, what must be issued to the aircraft? A. clearance to land B. approach clearance C. surface wind and clearance D. missed approach procedure Answer: 71. If a low approach clearance is not obtained, or is canceled by the tower, what must the final controller issue to an aircraft on a low approach? A. non-radar instructions B. alternate instructions C. execute missed approach D. radar contact lost procedures Answer: C-35 72. When should the controller issue the wheels down check to an aircraft on a radar approach? A. after the aircraft reaches the final approach fix. B. before the aircraft reaches the final approach fix. C. when aircraft will encounter IFR weather conditions. D. on downwind leg in time to be completed prior to turning base. Answer: 73. When is it necessary to provide a wheels down check to an aircraft on a radar approach, if he has already stated that his wheels are down? A. not required B. prior to final approach fix C. before the aircraft begins descent on final D. after the final controller has issued landing clearance Answer: 74. Airport surveillance radar approaches provide what information to the pilot? A. azimuth and range B. range and elevation C. azimuth and elevation D. distance and elevation Answer: 75. Approach guidance is provided until the aircraft reaches the __________ for a surveillance approach. A. decision height B. landing threshold C. missed approach point D. minimum descent altitude Answer: 76. Straight-in minimum descent altitude shall be issued to an aircraft when? A. after the landing clearance B. prior to glidepath notification C. at the time of starting descent D. prior to reaching the final approach fix Answer: 77. At 5 miles when issuing advance descent notification to an aircraft conducting a surveillance approach, what information must you provide with the straight-in minimum descent altitude (MDA)? A. where descent will begin B. minimum descent altitude C. location of missed approach point D. approaching glidepath 30 – 10 seconds prior to descent Answer: C-36 78. The phraseology to issue advance descent notification and the MDA is A. APPROACHING GLIDEPATH, MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE 6-8-0 B. MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE 6-8-0, APPROACHING GLIDEPATH C. MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE 6-8-0, PREPARE TO DESCEND IN ONE MILE D. PREPARE TO DESCEND IN ONE MILE, MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE 6-8-0 Answer: 79. An aircraft on a surveillance approach is at the descent point, what instructions shall be issued to this aircraft? A. 4 MILES FROM RUNWAY, BEGIN DESCENT B. 4 MILES FROM RUNWAY, BEGIN DESCENT TO YOUR MINIMUM ALTITUDE C. 4 MILES FROM RUNWAY, DESCEND TO YOUR MISSED APPROACH POINT D. 4 MILES FROM RUNWAY, DESCEND TO YOUR MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE Answer: 80. What is the phraseology to request an aircraft to report when he has the runway environment in sight? A. REPORT TOWER IN SIGHT B. REPORT RUNWAY IN SIGHT C. REPORT BEACON LIGHTS IN SIGHT D. REPORT MISSED APPROACH POINT IN SIGHT Answer: 81. What are the visual references an aircraft conducting a surveillance approach may be instructed to report? A. Airport, runway lights, or runway B. Runway, airport, or missed approach point C. Runway, runway lights, or missed approach point D. Runway, approach lights, or missed approach point Answer: 82. How often should transmissions with aircraft on surveillance final approach occur? A. Every half mile. B. Every 15 seconds C. Approximately every mile. D. Approximately every 15 seconds Answer: C-37 83. What is the phraseology used when furnishing recommended altitudes on final? A. TWO MILES FROM RUNWAY, ALTITUDE WILL BE NINER HUNDRED B. TWO MILES FROM RUNWAY, ALTITUDE SHOULD BE NINER HUNDRED C. TWO MILES FROM RUNWAY, RECOMMENDED ALTITUDE WILL BE NINER HUNDRED D. TWO MILES FROM RUNWAY, RECOMMENDED ALTITUDE SHOULD BE NINER HUNDRED Answer: 84. Recommended altitudes will be provided ________. A. if the pilot requests B. for all surveillance approaches C. at or above the decision height D. at or above the missed approach point Answer: 85. If recommended altitudes are provided, they will be provided with the _________ each mile on final approach. A. distance B. descent altitude C. minimum decision altitude D. minimum descent altitude Answer: 0 86. You shall terminate surveillance approach guidance when the aircraft _________. A. reaches the approach lights B. reaches the decision height C. is passing the landing threshold D. is over the missed approach point Answer: 87. What should an aircraft that has exceeded safety limits prior to missed approach point be instructed to do? A. (Reason), (position), IF RUNWAY NOT IN SIGHT, EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH B. (Reason), (position), EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH, IF RUNWAY NOT IN SIGHT C. (Reason), IF RUNWAY NOT IN SIGHT, PROCEED VISUALLY D. (Reason), PROCEED VISUALLY, IF RUNWAY NOT IN SIGHT Answer: 88 PAR approaches provide what information to the pilot? A. range and elevation B. azimuth and elevation C. azimuth, range, and elevation D. range, azimuth and recommended altitudes Answer: C-38 89. For a PAR approach, approach guidance is provided until the aircraft reaches __________. A. approach lights B. decision height C. landing threshold D. missed approach point Answer: 90. When does a controller issue advance glidepath notification for a PAR approach? A. After the tower clearance. B. Over the final approach fix. C. 10 - 30 seconds prior to final descent. D. Before issuing missed approach instructions. Answer: 91. If the ___________________________________starting a precision approach and an ASR approach is established for the same runway, inform the aircraft that a surveillance approach can be given. A. azimuth portion of the PAR scope is inoperative after B. elevation portion of the PAR scope is inoperative after C. azimuth portion of the PAR scope is inoperative before D. elevation portion of the PAR scope is inoperative before Answer: 92. The phraseology to inform an aircraft to start descent on a PAR approach is A. BEGIN DESCENT B. DESCEND TO YOUR DECISION HEIGHT C. 4 MILES FROM TOUCHDOWN, BEGIN DESCENT D. ON GLIDEPATH, DESCEND TO YOUR DECISION HEIGHT Answer: 93. How often does a pilot expect to receive a transmission from the final controller during a PAR final approach? A. Every 5 seconds B. at least once every half mile C. Approximately every 5 seconds D. Approximately every 60 seconds, then approximately every 5 seconds Answer: 94. Elevation trend information describes target movement with respect to ___________. A. the glidepath B. the courseline C. the azimuth cursor D. above or below glidepath Answer: C-39 95. Which of the following is correct glidepath trend information? A. ON GLIDEPATH AND HOLDING B. GOING WELL ABOVE GLIDEPATH AND HOLDING C. SLIGHTLY BELOW GLIDEPATH AND COMING UP SLOWLY D. SLIGHTLY ABOVE GLIDEPATH AND CORRECTING SLOWLY Answer: 96. Trend information may be modified by the terms _________________ as appropriate. A. RAPIDLY or SLOWLY B. CORRECTING or COMING UP/DOWN C. GOING, HOLDING, or CORRECTING D. GOING, HOLDING, or COMING UP/DOWN Answer: 97. How often must you give an aircraft on a PAR approach the distance from touchdown? A. every 5 seconds B. at least once a mile C. at least once every half mile D. approximately every 5 seconds Answer: 98. Which example is correct to inform an aircraft conducting a PAR approach of its position on final approach? A. 1 MILE FROM RUNWAY B. 2 MILES FROM TOUCHDOWN C. 3 MILES FROM DECISION HEIGHT D. 4 MILES FROM LANDING THRESHOLD Answer: 99. The height at which the pilot must make a decision during a PAR approach to either continue the approach or to execute a missed approach is _________. A. decision height B. decision height point C. missed approach point D. missed approach height Answer: 100. During a PAR approach, inform the aircraft when it reaches the ________. A. runway B. missed approach point C. published decision height D. minimum descent altitude Answer: C-40 101. What information is not provided to the aircraft once it passes decision height? A. course guidance B. course deviation and trend C. glidepath deviation and trend D. course and glidepath deviation and trend Answer: 102. Trend information for glidepath and course is provided until the aircraft passes over ________________. A. decision height B. approach lights C. landing threshold D. missed approach point Answer: 103. Terminate a PAR approach when the aircraft passes over __________. A. decision height B. approach lights C. landing threshold D. missed approach point Answer: 104. An aircraft will be instructed “IF RUNWAY NOT IN SIGHT, EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH” when _____________. A. radar contact is lost and aircraft is full stop B. the aircraft exceeds the safety limits after decision height C. there is elevation failure and aircraft is low approach D. all of the above Answer: 105. If the elevation portion fails during a precision final approach, discontinue PAR instructions, advise the aircraft of its position and tell the aircraft _____________. A. to proceed visually B. execute missed approach C. if runway not in sight, proceed visually D. if runway not in sight, execute missed approach Answer: 106. Which of the following would be considered for terminating PAR approach guidance because continuation of a safe approach is questionable? A. Over landing threshold B. Tower clearance received C. Safety limits are exceeded D. Over missed approach point Answer: C-41 107. Which of the following conditions requires an aircraft to execute a missed approach? A. radar contact lost before decision height B. elevation failure after decision height C. airport conditions preclude approach completion D. the aircraft has exceeded the safety limits before decision height Answer: 108. What is the correct phraseology to inform an aircraft that traffic prevents approach completion? A. EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH, AIRCRAFT ON RUNWAY B. AIRCRAFT ON RUNWAY, EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH C. IF RUNWAY NOT IN SIGHT, EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH, AIRCRAFT ON RUNWAY D. AIRCRAFT ON RUNWAY, EXECUTE MISSED APPROACH, IF RUNWAY NOT IN SIGHT Answer: 109. When communications transfer is required over landing threshold, the pilot will be advised ________________. A. to change frequency immediately B. not to change frequency until after landing C. to change frequency over landing threshold D. not to change frequency until over landing threshold Answer: 110. Why is the communications transfer delayed after landing threshold? A. To meet the 5 second transmission interval requirement. B. To keep pilot from diverting his attention at decision height. C. To keep pilot from diverting his attention over landing threshold. D. To keep pilot from diverting his attention during transition and touchdown. Answer: 111. When a communications transfer is required before landing threshold, the phraseology to inform an aircraft to change frequency is ____________. A. MONITOR TOWER ON 2-4-1.0 B. CONTACT TOWER ON 2-4-1.0 C. MONITOR TOWER ON 2-4-1.0, AFTER LANDING D. CONTACT TOWER ON 2-4-1.0, AFTER LANDING Answer: C-42  112. The phraseology to issue advance glidepath notification is ____________. A. APPROACHING GLIDEPATH B. MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE 6-8-0, APPROACHING GLIDEPATH C. APPROACHING GLIDEPATH, MINIMUM DESCENT ALTITUDE 6-8-0 D. PREPARE TO DESCEND IN ONE MILE, APPROACHING GLIDEPATH Answer: THIS SPACE INTENTIONALLY LEFT BLANK C-43  SOLUTION FOR LESSON 011-15Q13309 INTERPRET RADAR FUNDAMENTALS PRACTICAL EXERCISE SHEET PE3 1. D (ELO A, LS 1, PARA c) 2. A (ELO A, LS 2, PARA b (1)) 3. D (ELO A, LS 2, PARA b (2) (a)) 4. C (ELO A, LS 2, PARA b (3)) 5. B (ELO A, LS 3, Note) 6. D (ELO A, LS 3, PARA a (1) (a)) 7. D (ELO A, LS 3, PARA b (1)) 8. D (ELO A, LS 4, PARA b (1) (2) (3)) 9. C (ELO A, LS 4, PARA a) 10. D (ELO A, LS 4, PARA c (1)) 11. A (ELO A, LS 4, PARA c (2)) 12. B (ELO A, LS 5, PARA a (1) & (2)) 13. B (ELO B, LS 1, PARA a (1)) 14. B (ELO B, LS 1, PARA b (2)) 15. D (ELO B, LS 2, PARA a (1) & (2)) 16. A (ELO B, LS 3, PARA a (1)) 17. A (ELO B, LS 3, PARA b (2)) 18. B (ELO B, LS 4, PARA a (2)) 19. A (ELO B, LS 4, PARA b (2)) 20. B (ELO B, LS 5, PARA a) 21. B (ELO C, LS 1, PARA e (1)) 22. A (ELO C, LS 1, PARA g) 23. C (ELO C, LS 2, PARA b, Table 1) 24. A (ELO C, LS 2, PARA b, Table 1) 25. A (ELO C, LS 3, PARA a) 26. C (ELO C, LS 3, PARA b (1)) 27. C (ELO D, LS 1, PARA d (1) (2)) 28. B (ELO D, LS 1, PARA g (1)) 29. B (ELO D, LS 1, PARA g (3) (a)) C-44 30. A (ELO D, LS 3, PARA b) 31. B (ELO D, LS 3, PARA b) 32. C (ELO D, LS 4, PARA a) 33. C (ELO D, LS 4, PARA b (2)) 34. A (ELO E, LS 1, PARA a) 35. C (ELO E, LS 1, PARA d) 36. D (ELO E, LS 2, PARA a (1) (a)) 37. D (ELO E, LS 2, PARA b (1) (2) (3) (4) & (5)) 38. A (ELO E, LS 3, PARA c) 39. A (ELO E, LS 2, PARA c (1)) 40. A (ELO F, LS 1, PARA b (3)) 41. C (ELO F, LS 1, PARA d) 42. C (ELO F, LS 1, PARA d (3)) 43. D (ELO F, LS 2, PARA c) 44. C (ELO F, LS 3, PARA c) 45. B (ELO F, LS 4, PARA a) 46. C (ELO F, LS 4, PARA b (1)) 47. C (ELO F, LS 5, PARA a) 48. C (ELO G, LS 1, PARA a) 49. C (ELO G, LS 1, PARA c (2)) 50. D (ELO G, LS 1, PARA c (4)) 51. B (ELO G, LS 2, PARA a (1) (2) (3) (4) & (5)) 52. B (ELO G, LS 2, PARA b (1) (2) (3) (4) & (5)) 53. D (ELO G, LS 3, PARA a (2)) 54. D (ELO G, LS 3, PARA b (1)) 55. D (ELO G, LS 3, PARA b (1) (a) (b) (c) & (d)) 56. B (ELO G, LS 3, PARA b (2)) 57. D (ELO G, LS 3, PARA b (1)) 58. A (ELO G, LS 3, PARA a (4)) 59. C (ELO G, LS 3, PARA a (4)) 60. B (ELO H, LS 1) C-45 61. D (ELO I, LS 5, PARA b) or (ELO J, LS 5, PARA b) 62. D (ELO I, LS 5, PARA b (1) (2) (3)) or (ELO J, LS 5, PARA b (1) (2) (3)) 63. C (ELO H, LS 2, PARA b) 64. A (ELO H, LS 2, PARA b) 65. C (ELO D, LS 2 PARA a) 66. C (ELO D, LS 2, PARA b) 67. B (ELO D, LS 2 PARA c) 68. C (ELO H, LS 3, PARA a) 69. B (ELO H, LS 4, PARA a) 70. C (ELO H, LS 5, PARA a & b) 71. B (ELO H, LS 5, PARA c) 72. B (ELO H, LS 6, PARA a) 73. A (ELO H, LS 6, PARA b) 74. A (ELO I, LS 1, PARA a (1) (2)) 75. C (ELO I, LS 1, PARA b) 76. D (ELO I, LS 2, PARA b) 77. A (ELO I, LS 2, PARA a & b) 78. D (ELO I, LS 2, PARA b) 79. D (ELO I, LS 3, PARA a) 80. B (ELO I, LS 4) 81. A (ELO I, LS 4) 82. D (ELO I, LS 3, PARA b) 83. B (ELO I, LS 6, PARA a & b) 84. A (ELO I, LS 6, PARA b) 85. A (ELO I, LS 6, PARA b) 86. D (ELO I, LS 7, PARA a) 87. A (ELO I, LS 7, PARA b (a) 1 2 3 & 4 & (b) 1 2 3 & 4 88. C (ELO J, LS 1, PARA a (1) (2) & (3)) 89. B (ELO J, LS 1, PARA b) 90. C (ELO J, LS 3) 91. D (ELO J, LS 2) C-46 92. A (ELO J, LS 4, PARA a) 93. C (ELO J, LS 4, PARA b) 94. A (ELO J, LS 6, PARA b) 95. C (ELO J, LS 6, PARA b (1) (2) & (3)) 96. A (ELO J, LS 6, PARA b (3)) 97. B (ELO J, LS 7) 98. B (ELO J, LS 7) 99. A (ELO J, LS 8, PARA a (1)) 100. C (ELO J, LS 8, PARA b) 101. A (ELO J, LS 9, PARA a) 102. C (ELO J, LS 9, PARA a) 103. C (ELO J, LS 10, PARA a) 104. A (ELO J, LS 10, PARA b (1) (a), 1, 2, & 3) 105. D (ELO J, LS 10, PARA b (2) (a) 1, 2, 3, & 4) 106. C (ELO H, LS 10, PARA b (3) (a) 1, 2, 3, & 4) 107. C (ELO J, LS 10, PARA c) 108. A (ELO J, LS 10, PARA c (2) (a)) 109. B (ELO J, LS 11, PARA b) 110. D (ELO J, LS 11, PARA b) 111. B (ELO J, LS 11, PARA a) 112. A (ELO J, LS 3) C-47