2820MED Kahoot MCQs PDF

2820MED Kahoot MCQs Which is NOT a contraindication of Methoxyflurane? A) Allergy and/or ADR B) History of malignant hyperthermia C) History of significant liver or renal disease D) Patients < 2 years According to the QAS DTP, which is NOT a side effect of morphine administ...

2820MED Kahoot MCQs Which is NOT a contraindication of Methoxyflurane? A) Allergy and/or ADR B) History of malignant hyperthermia C) History of significant liver or renal disease D) Patients < 2 years According to the QAS DTP, which is NOT a side effect of morphine administration? A) Hypotension B) Euphoria C) Dilated pupils D) Drowsiness E) Both A & B The aim of a State Trauma System is to: A) Get a patient to a regional trauma service within 30 minutes B) Get a patient to a major trauma service within 45 minutes C) Get a patient to a metropolitan trauma service within 60 minutes D) Get a patient to a major trauma service within 60 minutes Components of a well-organized State Trauma System include: A) Retrieval, transfer, audit, quality control, emergency department B) Triage, communications, education, and training C) Air transport, research, nursing director of trauma D) Trauma system structure, ambulance to hospital communication, system quality The main cause of injury in Australia is: A) Self-inflicted B) Inflicted by other persons C) Transportation D) Falls The number of patients sustaining penetrating trauma identified in the Victorian Prehospital Trauma Triage study was: A) 1.2% B) 1.5% C) 1.4% D) 1.6% The onset time for IM Midazolam is: A) 1-3 minutes B) 3-5 minutes C) 5-15 minutes D) 5-10 minutes The angle that outlines a space over the kidneys is known as:  A) Costo-vertebral angle B) Costal margin C) McBurney’s point D) Costal-sternal angle A 6-year-old does not know how much they weigh, using the Luscombe age weight calculation, how much may this child weigh? A) 18kg B) 23kg C) 25kg D) 28kg A 24-month-old child is complaining of nausea, your management would include: A) Administer 4mg of ondansetron orally B) Administer 2mg of ondansetron orally C) Administer 2mg of ondansetron IM D) Administer 100 mcg of ondansetron IV In the Zero Point Survey, S: self refers to: A) T: team B) Physical readiness, I’m safe C) Psychological readiness: breath, talk, see, focus D) E: environment E) Both B & C In the Zero Point Survey, Egg-timer model of disparity, where is the patient identified? A) Top of the egg-timer B) Bottom of the egg-timer C) In the middle of the egg-timer D) At the end of the egg-timer in the settlement pathway A pulse is a good predictor of major trauma A) True B) False Prolonged scene times should be avoided when managing trauma patients A) True B) False Paediatric patients are: A) More susceptible to more severe injuries given the same amount of force B) More significant internal organ damage C) Proportionately larger surface area to their weight D) All of the above A paediatric patient has the capacity to maintain a normal blood pressure despite loss of up to 25% to 30% of total blood volume A) True B) False In a paediatric patient, solid organs are the least commonly injured in blunt trauma A) True B) False Organs in elderly patients: A) Are less tolerable to hypoxia B) Maintain higher blood volume C) Are more tolerant to hypoxia D) Maintain lower blood pressure In trauma, elderly patients have an impaired coronary response to increased O 2 demand, causing ischaemia, AMI, and arrhythmias A) True B) False In pregnant patients, which trimester does foetal development, and the uterus move into the abdomen? A) First B) Second C) Third ECG changes in pregnancy includes A) Flattened t-waves in lead III B) Possible t-wave inversion in lead III C) Possible Q-waves in lead III D) Increase in ectopic beats E) All of the above Blunt and penetrating trauma on pregnant patients can lead to A) Placenta abruption B) Headaches and joint pain C) Injury to organs not normally susceptible D) Both A & C E) Both B & C What are the locations for a patient >12 years of age, an IO needle can be inserted? A) Proximal tibia B) Humeral head C) Distal tibia D) All of the above What is your loading dose and follow up dose of lignocaine when using an IO via QAS DTPs?  A) 40mg (4ml) initially over 2 minutes, followed by 20mg (2mL) over 1 minute B) 60mg (6ml) initially over 2 minutes, followed by 20mg (2mL) over 1 minute C) 50mg (5ml) initially over 2 minutes, followed by 10mg (1mL) over 1 minute D) 30mg (3ml) initially over 2 minutes, followed by 30mg (3mL) over 1 minute What is the boney part on the tibia called, used as a reference point when locating your proximal IO injection site? A) Medial malleolus B) Tibial plateau C) Tibial tuberosity D) Humeral head Cushing’s triad demonstrating middle brain compression in a patient with a traumatic brain injury is characterised by A) Hypertension, bradycardia, pinpoint pupils, with minimal cluster breathing B) Increasing bradycardia, deep rapid respirations, widening pulse pressure C) Hypotension, dilated, non-responsive pupils, irregular pulse, erratic ventilation D) None of the options are correct When palpating the spinal column along a patient’s back, you are palpating which part of the vertebral column? A) The vertebral body B) The invertebral disk C) The transverse process D) The spinous process A motorbike rider falls off at high speed. You discover the person is unable to fell you touch his big toe on his left foot. What could this indicate? A) Spinal cord lesion at T12 B) Spinal cord lesion at L2 C) Spinal cord lesion at L5 D) Spinal cord lesion at S1 One pupil dilated and nonreactive with the other pupil being a normal size and reacting to light is indicative of A) Drug-induced reaction, probably opiods B) Sympathetic stimulants or parasympathetic blocking agents C) Transtentorial herniation D) Uncal herniation A patient is found to be hypotensive after an isolated spinal injury. The hypotension in this case may be related to: A) Over stimulation of the vagus nerve B) Loss of sympathetic outflow through the thoracic segment C) Increase in parasympathetic stimulation resulting in peripheral vasodilation D) Lack of sympathetic stimulation A 100kg patient with a TBI requires ventilation at 20 VPM with a TV of 800ml. The effect on cerebral blood would be: A) No effect on cerebral blood flow B) Increase in cerebral blood flow C) Decrease in cerebral blood flow D) a mild increase in cerebral blood flow Decerebrate posturing usually presents with extended upper extremities, pronation, and extended lower extremities A) true B) false What can cause unequal pupils? A) Brain injury B) Raised ICP C) Drugs/chemicals D) All of the above When providing cervical spine immobilisation for a suspected spinal injury it is important that you: A) Avoid repeating the movement that caused the injury B) Immobilise the head and neck in the position found C) Tape the head to the spine board before securing the torso and legs D) Omit a collar if you are concerned that the patient might vomit A patient with a spinal cord injury that produces localised injury to the anterior portion of the spinal cord may have: A) Paralysis below level of injury, sparing sensation of touch/proprioception B) Loss of motor control, proprioception/sensation, same side of the injury C) Priapism and evidence of neurogenic shock D) Flaccid paralysis that resolves within several weeks as spinal shock abates Dermatomes are A) Areas of skin innervated by a spinal nerve B) Areas of skin innervated by a cranial nerve C) Areas of muscle innervated by a spinal nerve D) Areas of muscle innervated by a cranial nerve A patient with blunt chest trauma is thought to be developing a cardiac tamponade. A significant clinical finding can be A) Tachycardia and paradoxical pulse B) Increased JVP and hypertension C) Arrhythmias that are refractory to pharmacological intervention D) Chest pain associated with muffled breath sounds Damage to the anterior spinal artery may cause  A) Central cord syndrome B) Brown Sequard syndrome C) Anterior cord syndrome D) Sacral sparing Which IS NOT a secondary mechanism of spinal cord damage? A) Sodium release B) Glutamate release C) Disautoregulation D) Neurogenic shock Which of the following is the least likely site of vertebral injury following trauma? A) C1-2 B) T1-L2 C) C4-7 D) L3-L5 Which IS NOT an effect of spinal shock? A) Flaccid paralysis B) Absence of reflexes C) Hemiplegia D) Bowel and bladder dysfunction A cord transection at the level of C2-C3 will cause A) Loss of accessory muscle use due to paralysis of muscles of respiratory B) Loss of function of the phrenic C) Loss to brace the chest wall when there's an increase in intrathoracic pressure D) All of the above Paraplegia is classified as a spinal cord injury affecting which level and below? A) T1 B) T2 C) T3 D) T4 Which IS NOT an incomplete spinal cord injury? A) Posterior cord syndrome B) Sacral sparing C) Cauda equina D) Central cord syndrome What size IO needle would you use on a patient who is 3kgs? A) 25mm B) 55mm C) 15mm D) 45mm Examples of minor chest injuries are A) Contusion B) Penetrating C) Crush D) Strain E) A&D F) B&D Two types of blunt mechanisms for pelvic injury include A) Forces and high energy B) Low energy and high energy C) Forces and sources D) Sources and low energy Two types of penetrating mechanisms for pelvic injury include: A) Forces and high energy B) Low energy and high energy C) Forces and sources D) Sources and low energy Visceral pain is caused by the stretching of fibres in walls/capsules of hollow/solid organs A) True B) False Parietal pain is an irritation of nerves in the parietal peritoneum, usually in the anterior abdominal wall A) True B) False Parietal pain is pain presenting in an area away from the noxious stimuli A) True B) False You can lose up to how many litres of blood from a pelvic injury? A) 2 litres B) 4 litres C) 3 litres D) 5 litres What type of injury involves the break of the pubic symphysis? A) Anteroposterior fracture B) Vertical shear C) Lateral compression D) Inverted shear What injury of the pelvis involves a complete split of one side vertically?  A) Anteroposterior fracture B) Lateral compression C) Reversed anteroposterior fracture D) Vertical shear 8-year-old paediatric dose of TXA is A) 420mg / 4.2mL B) 465mg / 4.7mL C) 330 mg / 3.3mL D) 510 mg / 5.1mL What is the second dose of 10% glucose for a patient non-responsive to your first dose? A) 15g / 150mL B) 20g / 200mL C) 10g / 100mL D) 30g / 300mL What is the midazolam dose for a 5-year-old patient? A) 4400 mcg / 0.9mL B) 5000 mcg / 1mL C) 3800 mcg / 0.8mL D) 3200 mcg / 0.6mL What is the initial dose of lignocaine for a 6-year-old patient? A) 9.5mg / 0.95mL B) 12.5mg / 1.25mL C) 17mg / 1.7mL D) 18.5mg / 1.85mL A preferred adult burn formula used in QAS is A) Parklands B) PHIFTEEN-B C) Rule 10 D) Prehospital ABI-S Early management of burns increases mortality by A) 30% B) 40% C) 50% D) 60% Cling wrap is wrapped tightly around the whole circumferential area of a burn? A) True B) False Avulsion is the forcible tearing away of a body part A) True  B) False What is the initial IV dose of fentanyl for a 10 year old patient? A) 13 mcg / 0.3mL B) 19 mcg / 0.4mL C) 22 mcg / 0.4mL D) 25mcg / 0.5mL GTN can be used in the management of burns related to pulmonary oedema A) True B) False Which of the following IS NOT a danger sign in a patient with a fracture or dislocation? A) Pallor – pale skin distal to the injury B) Poikilothermic - the limb distal to the injury is the same temp as the air temp C) Paralysis – inability to move distal to the injury D) Pulses – diminished or absent distal to the injury In the management of an avulsed part, you should A) Secure the tissue in the position you find it B) Place a moist piece of gauze between the two pieces of tissue C) Place the tissue back in its normal location if possible D) None of the above options are correct What type of fracture normally occurs in young children? A) Pathological B) Prosthetic C) Greenstick D) Colles’s Which IS NOT an effect of traction in managing a fractured femur A) Decrease muscle spasm B) Has minimal effect on pain C) Decreases pressure on the bone ends D) Assists in realignment of the bone ends A dislocation to the shoulder may cause damage to which nerve? A) Subclavian B) Brachial C) Axillary D) Ulnar Subluxation refers to A) A partial dislocation of the articulating surfaces of a joint B) A detachment of a tendon from its point of insertion C) A dislocation that also involves fracture of the joint D) A joint injury that results from extending a joint beyond its normal range Joint injuries are A) Only realigned if there is no distal sensation B) Only realigned if there is no distal pulse or sensation C) Only realigned if there is no distal pulse D) Should not be realigned 5-year-old child with 25% TBSA burns, what is our hourly fluid rate for this patient? A) 101mL/hr B) 102mL/hr C) 103mL/hr D) 104mL/hr 30-year-old patient with 25% TBSA burned, who weighs 65kg, how much fluid do we infuse in an hour for this patient? A) 440mL/hr B) 450mL/hr C) 460mL/hr D) 470mL/hr What is the IV ketamine dose for a 6-year-old child? A) 2.2mg / 2.2mL B) 2.5mg / 2.5mL C) 2.8mg / 2.8mL D) 3.4mg / 3.4mL Which IS NOT a phase of the inflammatory response A) Acute phase B) Remodeling phase C) Repair phase D) Strengthening phase Testing for a ruptured ACL DOES NOT include: A) Palpation for swelling B) Pain on the lateral malleolus C) Movement testing flexion and extension D) Movement testing collaterals When referring to the HOTT pneumonic, what does “O” stand for A) Open B) Oxygenation C) Outside What does low BP, muffled heart sounds and distension of jugular veins possibly indicate? A) Cardiac arrest B) Cardiomyopathy C) Cardiac tamponade  D) Transitional atrial fibrillation A crush injury is A) The manifestation of muscle cell damage resulting from pressure/crushing B) A direct injury resulting from a crush C) A force causing constant pressure of unstable levels to a key constant D) A direct non-translational injury, unpredicted by natural causes A crush syndrome is A) The manifestation of muscle cell damage resulting from pressure/crushing B) A direct injury resulting from a crush C) A force causing constant pressure of unstable levels to a key constant D) A direct non-translational injury, unpredicted by natural causes Myoglobin is directly toxic to the renal tubular cells A) True B) False A hangman’s fracture, fractures A) C1 B) C2 C) C3 D) C4 The estimated time before cardiac arrest with hanging is between A) 10 to 30 mins B) 10 to 15 mins C) 10 to 20 mins D) 5 to 10 mins What are/is the mechanism for blast-related injuries A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) All of the above Compartment syndrome is defined as A) A direct injury resulting from crush B) Systemic manifestation of muscle cell damage resulting from pressure/crush C) When an extremely high pressure builds up in a closed fascia space D) Occurs when capillary blood perfusion is decreased Which IS NOT an intracellular metabolite released from the cell as a result of a crush injury? A) Potassium B) Myoglobin C) Phosphate D) Calcitrate Which IS NOT a result of the influx of sodium, water, and extracellular calcium into the sarcoplasm? A) Cellular swelling B) Increased intracellular calcium C) Disrupted cellular function and respiration D) Increased ATP production What causes muscle death within an hour A) Hypovolemia B) Hyperkalemia C) Hypercalcemia D) Hyperphosphatemia Air emboli result from which phase of an explosion? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Primary and secondary Burns result from which phase of an explosion? A) Primary B) Secondary C) Tertiary D) Primary and secondary The Elapid family are front-fanged snakes and this family includes the Australian dangerous land snakes A) True B) False The colubrids are a group of solid-toothed and rear-fanged snakes that lack a sophisticated venom-delivery system A) True B) False The mouse spider’s venom is similar to the funnel webs’ A) True B) False Cutaneous necrotic lesions observed after spider bites are seen from which species of spider A) White-tailed spider B) Black house spider C) Wolf spider D) All of the above Which IS NOT an effect of a myotoxin? A) Indirect effect on muscle B) Pain on contracting muscles against resistance C) Muscle weakness (may mimic paralytic signs) D) Dark urine which tests positive for blood (myoglobin) Which snake venom DOES NOT affect presynaptically? A) Elapids B) Vipers C) Crotalids D) Pit viper What IS NOT a clinical feature of Western Brown snake envenomation? A) Headache B) Nausea C) Cardiac toxicity D) Abdominal pain With taipan envenomation, convulsions occur especially in children A) True B) False Ptosis refers to A) Bad breath B) Progressive weakness and paralysis C) Drooping eyelid D) Drooping facial muscles Piloerection, muscle spasms, tachycardia, hypertension, nausea, vomiting, are effects of which spider envenomation? A) Red back B) Mouse spider C) Funnel web spider D) White tailed spider Which spider envenomation/bite is the pressure immobilisation bandage recommended? A) Funnel web spider B) Red back C) Huntsman spider D) White tailed spider Blue-ringed octopus venom has which effect? A) Blockade of voltage-gated Na+ channels, stopping action potentials B) Blockade of voltage-gated K+ channels, affecting action potentials C) Completely blocking the NMJ D) None of the above are correct