2024 Sergeant Practice Exam PDF

1. A peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) of the Criminal Code. Which of these four sections of the Criminal Code allow a peace officer to arrest any person who is found committing or it is believed on reasonable grounds is about to commit...

1. A peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) of the Criminal Code. Which of these four sections of the Criminal Code allow a peace officer to arrest any person who is found committing or it is believed on reasonable grounds is about to commit a breach of the peace? (a) s. 495 (1) (b) s. 524 (2) (c) s. 525 (6) (d) s. 31 (1) 2. A peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) of the Criminal Code. Which of these four sections of the Criminal Code allow a peace officer to arrest any person who has contravened or is about to contravene the terms of a criminal release? (a) s. 495 (1) (b) s. 524 (2) (c) s. 525 (6) (d) s. 31 (1) 3. A peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) of the Criminal Code. Which of these four sections of the Criminal Code allow a peace officer to arrest any person who has committed an indictable offence while on release for a criminal offence? (a) s. 495 (1) (b) s. 524 (2) (c) s. 524(2) and 525(6) (d) s. 31 (1) 4. A peace officer is given additional authorities under s. 495(1), 524(2), 525(6) and 31(1) of the Criminal Code. Which of these four sections of the Criminal Code allow a peace officer to arrest any person who on reasonable grounds, the officer believes is wanted on a warrant of arrest or committal, which is in force within the territorial jurisdiction where the person is found? (a) s. 495 (1) (b) s. 524 (2) (c) s. 525 (6) (d) s. 31 (1) 5. Excited delirium is a condition that can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, psychiatric illness or a combination of both. Which of the following is a symptom displayed by persons suffering from the condition? (a) Shouting (b) Disorientation (c) Panic (d) All of the above 6. Excited delirium is a condition that can be caused by drug or alcohol intoxication, psychiatric illness or a combination of both. Which of the following is not a symptom displayed by persons suffering from the condition? (a) Abnormal tolerance to pain (b) Sweating, fever, heat intolerance (c) Sleeping (d) Sudden Calm 7. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 01 Arrest, what is a police officer not required to do when making an arrest (a) identify themselves as a police officer (b) inform the person of the reason for the arrest (c) take physical control of the person (d) place the person in the rear seat of a marked police vehicle 8. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 01 Arrest, a police officer shall not arrest a person without warrant for summary conviction, dual procedure or 553 indictable offences where there are reasonable grounds to believe the public interest has been satisfied having regard to all the circumstances including the need to: (a) establish the identity of the person (b) ensure the safety and security of any victim or of witness to the offence (c) establish the home address of the person (d) both (a) and (b) 9. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 01 Arrest, as a general rule, police officers are required to obtain a warrant prior to entering a dwelling–house to arrest a person. Which of the following IS not an exception to this rule (a) when there are reasonable grounds to suspect that entry into the dwelling–house is necessary to prevent imminent bodily harm or death to any person (b) when there are reasonable grounds to believe that evidence relating to the commission of an indictable offence is present in the dwelling–house and that entry into the dwelling– house is necessary to prevent the imminent loss or imminent destruction of evidence (c) in circumstances of fresh pursuit (d) when it is reasonable to believe that the evidence is necessary to continue the investigation 10. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons, for a search to be __________, it must be __________ and __________ given all the circumstances and it must be conducted _____________. (a) Lawful, reasonable, justified, to gather evidence of an offence (b) Lawful, reasonable, justified, for a valid reason (c) Justified, required, reasonable, for a valid reason (d) Justified, required, lawful, to gather evidence of an offence 11. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons, as incident to arrest a police officer may search for: (a) Evidence (b) Anything that could assist in a person’s escape (c) Weapons (d) All of the above 12. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons, the right to search as an incident to a lawful arrest is found in common law, and has been upheld by the Supreme Court of Canada, as long as the search is conducted for a valid objective and is not conducted in an abusive fashion. This is pursuant to which SCC case? (a) R v Golden (b) Wood v Schaeffer (c) Cloutier v Langlois (d) R v Grant 13. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons, When reasonable and probable grounds have been satisfied and a Strip search is deemed necessary by the Officer in Charge, the ___________ shall read the arrested party their rights to counsel prior to the Strip search being conducted and ensure they are provided a reasonable opportunity to speak to counsel before the search commences (a) Officer in Charge (b) searching officers (c) booking officer (d) court officer 14. According to the TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons – Appendix B, in 2001, the Supreme Court of Canada, in the matter of __________, while upholding the common law right to search a person incident who had been lawfully arrested, placed restrictions on police officers contemplating Strip searches. (a) R v Golden (b) R v Caslake (c) Cloutier v Langlois (d) R v Grant 15. According to the TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons – Appendix B, the Supreme Court has ruled that Strip searches in the field will only be justified where there is a demonstrated urgency and necessity to search for: (a) Weapons or objects that could be used to threaten the safety of the accused, arresting officers or other individuals (b) Evidence of the offence (c) Items of religious significance (d) Prosthetic Devices 16. According to the TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons – Appendix C Trans Persons, which of the following is not a gender-affirming article or prosthetic device / item? (a) Gaffs (b) Zirs (c) Packers (d) Wigs 17. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons, when conducting a consent search, a police officer must be able to demonstrate that the consent was __________ and __________. (a) Informed, freely given (b) Informed, authorized by statute (c) Informed, incident to a lawful arrest (d) Informed, conducted to search for weapons 18. According to the TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons – Appendix C, for the purpose of search, when an individual has self-identified as trans, the Officer in Charge shall refer to the person in their: (a) Proper name and gender pronoun(s) (b) Chosen name and gender pronoun(s) (c) Dead name and gender assigned at birth (d) Chosen name and gender pronoun(s) as they appear 19. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, a young person under eighteen (18) years of age may be lodged in a divisional cell only to prevent injury or to protect others from aggressive behaviour and (a) When there is no adult present in the cells (b) When there is an adult present in the cells and there is adequate space to isolate the young person from the adult (c) A young person under eighteen (18) is never to be lodged in a divisional cell (d) Both (a) and (b) 20. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, when a person in custody is brought into the station, an Officer in Charge shall do all of the following except: (a) Evaluate the physical and mental state of the person (b) Consider whether the circumstances of the arrest and continued detention is lawful and required (c) Remove all personal property from the person in custody for safe keeping (d) inquire if the person has personal gender-affirming articles or gender-affirming prosthetics on their person or in their possession, and comply with item 30, if applicable 21. When a person in custody has gender-affirming personal items or gender-affirming prosthetics on their person or in their possession shall not: (a) assess whether to permit the person to keep their gender affirming item or gender-affirming prosthetic (b) permit the person to keep their item/device to the point of undue hardship (c) upon determining that a person in custody cannot be accommodated, shall take the item away from the person in custody (d) if removing the item from the person, do so in compliance with Procedure 01-02 Appendix C and Appendix E 22. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, when removing personal property from persons in custody shall ensure the property is removed: (a) Inventoried aloud on camera, placed into a property bag and immediately sealed (b) Inventoried and secured in a property bag in compliance with Procedures (c) Placed into a property bag, except for the money of the person in custody, which is placed into a separate property bag and sealed (d) Placed into a property bag, which is to remain unsealed at all times, but secured 23. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons, members conducting searches of persons shall always treat an item of religious significance in the following manner: (a) With respect and handle the item appropriately (b) As a piece of evidence (c) As a potential mechanism of escape (d) All of the above 24. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 02 Search of Persons, which of the following is accurate when it is deemed necessary to remove an assistive device from a person with a disability to conduct a search? (a) Pursuant to Accessibility for Ontarians with Disabilities Act, an assistive device should never be removed from a person with a disability (b) The assistive device should be properly packaged as evidence, and the member shall ensure that the person with a disability is provided with a TPS property receipt to ensure retrieval at a later date (c) The device should be returned to the person as soon as practicable upon completion of the search (d) Due to the emotional attachment to the assistive device that some people may have, the person being searched should be permitted to maintain control of the assistive device, once removed, during the search 25. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, the decision to permit the retention of prosthetic devices and other personal items that support their gender identity and expression rests with the (a) Court Officer (b) Booking officer (c) Arresting officers (d) Officer in Charge 26. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, when a person in custody has apparently consumed liquor the Officer in Charge shall do all of the following except: (a) Inquire when the person had their last drink (b) Transport the person to the nearest medical facility (c) Ensure the arresting police officer has complied with Procedure 03 – 05, if the person is intoxicated (d) The Officer in Charge shall do all of the above 27. Upon determining a person in custody will be turned over to another law enforcement agency for investigation shall ensure the receiving law enforcement agency is made aware of any pertinent information regarding the person in custody including, but not limited to: (a) accommodations to protect the rights of a trans or gender diverse person (b) assistive devices (c) gender-affirming prosthetic device(s) (d) (a) and (b) only (e) (a) and (c) only 28. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, when there are persons lodged in the police cells, the Officer in Charge shall ensure a target of _______is used between physical cell checks having regard for all the circumstances during the tour of duty. (a) 15 minutes (b) 30 minutes (c) 45 minutes (d) 60 minutes 29. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, when a prisoner complains of symptoms associated with the non-receipt of their prescription, the Officer in Charge shall ensure: (a) A divisional MCIT is dispatched to the cells (b) The person is transported to their local doctor for assessment for short term health risks (c) Medical advice (ie Telehealth Ontario) is sought, or the person is transported to a hospital for assessment by a doctor for short term health risks (d) The person is transported to a medical facility to receive their prescribed dosage 30. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, Appendix A – Medical Advisory Notes, the decision as to whether to send an individual to the hospital should be made based on the assessment of the circumstances by: (a) The MCIT officer and MCIT nurse, jointly (b) The arresting officer and the Officer in Charge, jointly (c) The arresting officer (d) The Officer in Charge 31. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, Appendix A – Medical Advisory Notes, Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome (AWS) is characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Such symptoms may appear within __________ to __________ after a person’s last consumption of alcohol. (a) Five (5) to ten (10) hours (b) Thirty (30) to sixty (60) minutes (c) Six (6) to twelve (12) hours (d) Two (2) to three (3) days 32. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, Appendix A – Medical Advisory Notes, Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome (AWS) is characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Such symptoms can be classified as mild, moderate or severe. Mild symptoms can occur within __________ after discontinuance and should subside within __________. (a) Twenty four (24) hours, forty eight (48) hours (b) Twenty four (24) hours, thirty six (36) hours (c) Six (6) hours, twelve (12) hours (d) Five (5) hours, ten (10) hours 33. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, Appendix A – Medical Advisory Notes, Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome (AWS) is characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Such symptoms can be classified as mild, moderate or severe. Moderate symptoms can occur within __________ to __________ after discontinuance and should subside within __________. (a) Six (6) hours, twelve (12) hours, twenty four (24) hours (b) Twenty four (24) hours, thirty six (36) hours, forty eight (48) hours (c) Five (5) hours, ten (10) hours, twenty four (24) hours (d) Twenty four (24) hours, forty eight (48) hours, seventy two (72) hours 34. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, Appendix A – Medical Advisory Notes, Alcohol Withdrawal Syndrome (AWS) is characterized by physical and mental symptoms that can occur after a person discontinues consuming high doses of alcohol. Such symptoms can be classified as mild, moderate or severe. Severe symptoms can occur within __________ after discontinuance and can cause a person’s condition to deteriorate to a very serious condition known as delirium tremens (DTs). Symptoms of DTs usually occur _________ to __________ after discontinuance. (a) Thirty six (36) hours, forty eight (48) hours, seventy two (72) hours (b) Twenty four (24) hours, thirty six (36) hours, forty eight (48) hours (c) Twenty four (24) hours, forty eight (48) hours, seventy two (72) hours (d) Forty eight (48) hours, forty eight (48) hours, seventy two (72) hours 35. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, Appendix A – Medical Advisory Notes, which of the following injectable medications does not require treatment by a physician: (a) Epinephrine auto-injectors (b) Injectable insulin (c) Transition related hormones (d) All of the above 36. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, Appendix E, Lodging and Transportation of Trans Persons, when interacting with trans persons, officers shall be sensitive to _____and concerns without jeopardizing officer and _______ safety. (a) needs, prisoner (b) requirements, public (c) wants, personal (d) requests, transportation 37. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 03 Persons in Custody, Appendix F, Privacy Shields, who shall inform a person lodged in a divisional cell / bullpen they have the option to use a privacy shield while using the toilet facilities? (a) Accompanying Officer (b) Booking Officer (c) Officer in Charge (d) Both (a) and (b) 38. Methadone is a synthetic opioid used as a replacement therapy for narcotic addiction. Treatment is obtained only by prescription and the prescribed dosage varies between individuals. The short–term ________ to _______ hours effects of abstinence from methadone by a patient are not life–threatening, although the patient may show signs of anxiety. (a) twelve (12), twenty four (24) (b) forty eight (48), seventy two (72) (c) eight (8), twelve (12) (d) twenty four (24), thirty six (36) 39. __________ persons who require methadone treatment should be treated at hospital regardless of the dispensed form of methadone. The Officer in Charge should make arrangements where possible for the issue of a prescription by the originating physician (a) Trans (b) Pregnant (c) Young (d) Female 40. Pursuant to Part XVI of the Criminal Code, the Chief of Police has designated all police officers holding the rank of __________ or a higher rank as an officer in charge, for the purposes of Criminal Code Release. (a) Police Constable/Detective Constable (b) Sergeant/Detective (c) Staff Sergeant/Detective Sergeant (d) All of the above 41. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 08 Criminal Code Release, in addition to the provisions of release set out in a Form 10 or Form 11, an Officer in Charge may also compel an accused to enter into conditions by way of a ___________. (a) Show Cause Hearing (b) Criminal Summons (c) Form 11.1 (d) Form 10/11.1 42. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 08 Criminal Code Release, when releasing an accused from the station on sexual assault, criminal harassment, or an intimate partner violence - related charge the Officer in Charge shall ensure all but the following: (a) The victim is immediately provided with a redacted copy of the case disclosure (b) The victim is immediately notified of all release conditions (c) The victim is immediately notified of the next court date of the accused (d) The victim is advised to engage in a safety plan, including the use of 9-1-1 in emergency situations 43. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 08 Criminal Code Release, when a person has been arrested and brought into a police station, and will be charged with an offence an indictable offence falling within the absolute jurisdiction of a Provincial Court Judge, a dual procedure offence; a summary conviction offence or any offence punishable by imprisonment for five (5) years or less, an Officer in Charge may compel the person’s appearance in court in the following manner (a) Form 7 (b) Form 10 (c) Form 11.1 (d) Form 47 44. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 08 Criminal Code Release, when police officer has arrested a person, and the person is charged with an offence an indictable offence falling within the absolute jurisdiction of a Provincial Court Judge, a dual procedure offence; or a summary conviction offence, a police officer may compel the person’s appearance in court in the following manner (a) Form 6 (b) Form 9 (c) Criminal Summons (d) Both (b) and (c) 45. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 15 Bail Hearings and Detention Orders, the final decision to recommend the opposition of bail is the responsibility of the: (a) Arresting officer (b) Detective Sergeant (c) Staff Sergeant (d) Officer in Charge 46. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 15 Bail Hearings and Detention Orders, the case manager should request an adjournment to the bail hearing when there are unfinished aspects of the investigation pertaining to bail and indicate an approximate time required to complete the investigation. Under s. 516(1) of the CC, a Justice may adjourn these proceedings (Form 19) for a maximum of __________ unless the accused person consents to a lengthier adjournment. (a) Five (5) clear days (b) Three (3) clear days (c) Two (2) clear days (d) Twenty four (24) hours 47. According to TPS Procedure 01 – 15 Bail Hearings and Detention Orders, __________ is the only police facility to be designated for the purpose of having an accused person report to police. (a) Toronto Police Headquarters, 2nd floor (b) Investigating Police Division (c) Organized Crime Enforcement – Bail & Parole (d) Detective Services 48. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 01 Arrest Warrants, a warrant to arrest is a written order signed by a ____________. (a) Judge (b) Justice of the Peace (c) Coroner (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) All of the above 49. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 01 Arrest Warrants, a peace officer, who believes that an offence has been committed by a person not yet apprehended, may seek a warrant in the first instance upon presentation of an Information to a __________. (a) Judge (b) Justice (c) Coroner (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) All of the above 50. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 01 Arrest Warrants, a peace officer, who believes that an offence has been committed by a person not yet apprehended, may seek a warrant in the first instance upon presentation of an Information to a __________. (a) Judge (b) Justice (c) Coroner (d) Both (a) and (b) (e) All of the above 51. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 01 Arrest Warrants, a bench warrant is an arrest warrant in __________ issued by a Justice having jurisdiction when an accused has failed to attend court. (a) Form 5 (b) Form 7 (c) Form 9 (d) From 11 52. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 01 Arrest Warrants, there are two (2) types of civil warrants for arrest, namely: (a) Class Action warrant and Civil Court warrant (b) Small Claims Court warrant and Immigration warrant (c) Immigration warrant and Civil Court warrant (d) Small Claims Court warrant and Civil Court warrant 53. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 01 Arrest Warrants, when a patient either refuses to be confined for treatment or has escaped from a medical facility while undergoing treatment for a contagious, virulent or infectious disease, the __________ gives the Medical Officer of Health (MOH) having jurisdiction the authority to apply for a court order to compel the named person to be detained for treatment. (a) Immigration and Refugee Protection Act (b) Canada Health Act (c) Health Protection and Promotion Act (d) Medical Care Act 54. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 19 Report to a Justice / Order for Continued Detention, a Report to a Justice, (__________) is required by the Criminal Code every time property is seized by a peace officer with or without warrant. (a) Form 5.2 (b) Form 5 (c) Form 7 (d) Form 7.2 55. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 19 Report to a Justice / Order for Continued Detention, when a search warrant has been executed, the officer completing the Report to a Justice and attending the Report to a Justice Hearing may include a common informant. Examples may include: (a) Affiant of the search warrant (b) Case manager (c) Seizing officer (d) All of the above 56. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 19 Report to a Justice / Order for Continued Detention, Police officers are advised that found property is governed by the Community Safety and Policing Act (CSPA). The following are the retention periods for found property: (a) Sixty (60) consecutive days for all general property (b) Motor vehicles as defined in the Highway Traffic Act (HTA) or a bicycle: thirty (30) consecutive days, all other general property: ninety (90) consecutive days (c) Motor vehicles as defined in the Highway Traffic Act (HTA) or a bicycle: sixty (60) consecutive days, all other general property: ninety (90) consecutive days (d) Motor vehicles as defined in the Highway Traffic Act (HTA) or a bicycle: thirty (30) consecutive days, all other general property: sixty (60) consecutive days 57. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 19 Report to a Justice / Order for Continued Detention, found property is governed by the Police Services Act. Finders of property listed above are able to claim the found property within a __________ grace period, provided the retention period has expired and the lawful owner cannot be ascertained. (a) Thirty (30) consecutive day (b) Seven (7) consecutive day (c) Ninety (90) consecutive day (d) Five (5) consecutive day 58. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 19 Report to a Justice / Order for Continued Detention, detention of seized property where no charges are laid shall not exceed __________ from the date of seizure. (a) Thirty (30) consecutive days (b) Ninety (90) consecutive days (c) Three (3) months (d) One (1) year 59. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 19 Report to a Justice / Order for Continued Detention, detention of seized property where no charges are laid shall not exceed __________ from the date of seizure. (a) Thirty (30) consecutive days (b) Ninety (90) consecutive days (c) Three (3) months (d) One (1) year 60. According to TPS Procedure 02 – 19 Report to a Justice / Order for Continued Detention, an Order for Continued Detention is no longer required where charges have been laid. (a) T (b) F 61. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 02 Death Investigations, no person, except a qualified medical practitioner, has the authority to pronounce a person dead. Which of the following is not an exception to this rule? (a) When death appears obvious due to decapitation (b) When death appears obvious due to an outpouring of blood (c) When death appears obvious due to an outpouring of cranial or visceral contents (d) a grossly charred body 62. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 02 Death Investigations, every sudden unexpected death of a child or the death of a child under __________ years of age must be actively investigated as suspicious, and premature conclusions should not be made regarding the cause and manner of death until a thorough investigation has been completed. (a) Two (2) (b) Three (3) (c) Four (4) (d) Five (5) 63. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 02 Death Investigations, the Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate response and, in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. When notified of a suicide where there exists a suicide note or criminal writing the Officer in Charge shall ensure the suicide note, and any other writings made by the deceased relevant to the investigation are: (a) e-transferred to the Office of the Chief Pathologist, by TPS eFax along with a copy of the completed eReports (b) Scanned and attached to the original eReport (c) Fingerprinted by Forensic Identification Services (d) All of the above 64. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 05 Missing Persons, the activation of an AMBER Alert shall be considered in all missing children investigations, and Major Case Management shall be implemented in all cases involving AMBER Alert activation. Before an Amber Alert is initiated, the following guidelines must be met: the investigator must believe that the child is under __________ years of age and has been abducted. (a) Five (5) (b) Twelve (12) (c) Sixteen (16) (d) Eighteen (18) 65. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 05 Missing Persons, when a reportee is situated in the City of Toronto, and is reporting a missing person that is a resident of the City of Toronto, who is responsible for conducting the follow-up investigation? (a) The division where the missing person resides shall conduct the follow-up investigation (b) The division where the missing person is missing from shall conduct the follow-up investigation (c) The division receiving the report of the missing person (d) TPOC will assign the most appropriate division for the follow-up investigation 66. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 05 Missing Persons, when a reportee is situated outside the City of Toronto, and is reporting a person missing who is a resident of the City of Toronto, who is responsible for conducting the follow-up investigation? (a) The division where the missing person resides shall conduct the follow-up investigation (b) The division where the missing person is missing from shall conduct the follow-up investigation (c) The division receiving the report of the missing person (d) TPOC will assign the most appropriate division for the follow-up investigation 67. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 05 Missing Persons, a Level 3 Missing Person Search includes in its definition: (a) The level of search when a missing person is mentally challenged (b) The level of search when there are no extenuating circumstances (c) The level of search when a missing person is over sixty five (65) years of age or infirm (d) The level of search when there is evidence of foul play 68. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 05 Missing Persons, a Level 2 Missing Person Search includes which of the following criteria: (a) The level of search implemented when the missing person is under twelve (12) years of age and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves (b) The level of search implemented when the missing person is under sixteen (16) years of age and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves (c) The level of search implemented when the missing person is under eighteen (18) years of age and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves  (d) The level of search implemented when the missing person is under sixty five (65) years of age and judged likely to be incapable of caring for themselves 69. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 05 Missing Persons, when there are minimal concerns regarding the possibility of being victimized by crime to the person that is missing, what type of search is implemented? (a) Divisional initial investigation (b) Level 1 Search (c) Level 2 Search (d) Level 3 Search 70. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 05 Missing Persons, Divisional Search Box means a portable storage box containing the necessary items essential to the supervisory officer at the scene of a Level 1 or Level 2 search. These items shall be determined by Procedure 04–05 and established practice, and should be located where (a) at the front desk (b) in the trunk of the uniform supervisor’s vehicle (c) in the Detective Sergeant’s office (d) it is easily accessible by the Officer in Charge 71. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 16 Death in Police Custody, an Officer in Charge when notified of a death in police custody shall: (a) Confer with the investigating officer (b) Confer with the Office of the Chief Coroner (c) Attend the scene when appropriate (d) notify the Unit Commander 72. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 16 Death in Police Custody, the Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre, when notified of a death in police custody shall immediately notify the Chief’s SIU On-Call Designate and the: (a) Superintendent of the applicable division (b) Staff Superintendent of the applicable Command (c) Appropriate Deputy Chief of Police (d) Chief of Police 73. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 18 Crime and Disorder Management there are four (4) key steps in establishing the Crime Management Process at the divisional level. Their purpose is to ensure a high level of integration, co-ordination and focus of divisional resources. The four key steps include all of the below except: (a) Long-term strategic planning and evaluation to set direction for the division (b) Targeted debriefing of all prisoners (c) Problem identification (d) Integrated role for divisional CPLCs 74. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 18 Crime and Disorder Management, Appendix A – Guidelines for Divisional Crime Management, Unit Commanders must designate a divisional Crime Manager. Depending on the unit size, this person should be at a minimum the: (a) Detective Sergeant – Detective Office (b) Staff Sergeant – Community Response Unit (c) Staff Sergeant – Primary Response Unit (d) Field Intelligence Officer 75. According to TPS Procedure 04 – 18 Crime and Disorder Management, Appendix A – Guidelines for Divisional Crime Management, the divisional Crime Management Team must meet, at a minimum: (a) Bi-Annually (b) Quarterly (c) Bi-Weekly (d) Weekly 76. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 01 Preliminary Homicide Investigations, as set out in their mandate, Detective Operations - Homicide and Missing Persons Unit (Homicide and Missing Persons) shall lead all of the following investigations except: (a) Lead the investigation of all homicides that occur within the City of Toronto (b) Lead the investigation of all criminal acts which result in serious bodily harm or life threatening injury to a police officer while on duty (c) Lead the investigation of suspicious deaths (d) Lead the investigation of deaths in police custody that are not related to the discharge of a Service firearm 77. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 01 Preliminary Homicide Investigations, the Pediatric Death Review Committee (PDRC) – Child Welfare panel consists of all of the following except: (a) Crown Attorneys (b) Police officers (c) Forensic biologists – Centre of Forensic Sciences (d) Senior officials – Office of the Chief Coroner 78. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 01 Preliminary Homicide Investigations, upon being notified of a suspicious death or possible homicide, the Officer in Charge shall ensure the CYAC is notified, if the death is a sudden unexpected death of a child under __________ years of age. (a) Two (2) (b) Five (5) (c) Twelve (12) (d) Sixteen (16) 79. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 01 Preliminary Homicide Investigations, who is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response? (a) The Divisional Detective (b) The Officer in Charge (c) The first Supervisory Officer (d) The Divisional Crime Manager 80. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 01 Preliminary Homicide Investigations, the ______ shall be responsible for ensuring effective management of the crime scene and that the appropriate notifications are made? (a) The Divisional Detective (b) The Officer in Charge (c) The first Supervisory Officer (d) The Divisional Crime Manager 81. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 01 Preliminary Homicide Investigations, who is responsible for offender management, preservation of the evidence and crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator? (a) The first divisional investigator to arrive at the scene (b) The second police officer to arrive at the scene (c) The first supervisory officer to arrive at the scene (d) The first police officer to arrive at the scene 82. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 02 Robberies / Hold Ups, the Specialized Criminal Investigations – Hold Up Squad (HUS) will take the lead and provide co-ordination throughout the Service for all robberies within their mandate, which includes robberies involving all of the following except: (a) Home invasions (b) Financial institutions (c) Carjacking’s committed with firearms or offensive weapons (d) Retail Businesses 83. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 02 Robberies / Hold Ups, where a hold–up note is located shall, in the absence of HUS officers, hand deliver the original hold–up note and provide the eReport number to FIS – Document Section: (a) Divisional Scenes of Crime Officer (SOCO) (b) Divisional Investigator (c) Divisional Detective – Major Crime Unit (d) First Police Officer 84. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, the goal of the Service is to reduce the incidence of intimate partner violence and homicide in the community through _________ and __________. (a) Investigation, Actions (b) Community Partnerships, Community Referrals (c) Education, Community Partnership (d) Education, Enforcement 85. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, victims and witnesses of crime shall not be asked their immigration status, unless __________. (a) It is likely that they are illegally in the country (b) The individual may be harbouring others that are illegally in the country (c) There are bona fide reasons to do so (d) None of the above 86. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, charges shall be laid in the following circumstances: (a) Charges shall be laid in all cases where reasonable grounds exist (b) Charges shall be laid in all cases where reasonable grounds exist and it is necessary to prevent the continuation of the offence (c) Charges shall be laid in all cases where reasonable grounds exist unless the victim has clearly stated their unwillingness to attend court (d) Charges shall be laid in all cases where reasonable grounds exist unless there are clear denials of violence despite contrary evidence 87. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, Intimate Partner Violence Investigators (IPVI) shall take the lead role in all intimate partner violence investigations except in the following circumstances where: the incident involves an allegation of sexual assault, at which point: (a) The IPVI shall be the lead investigator, but will work in consultation with an accredited sexual assault investigator (b) An accredited sexual assault investigator shall be the lead, but will work in consultation with the IPVI (c) A member of Specialized Criminal Investigations – Sex Crimes shall be the lead (d) A member of the CYAC shall be the lead 88. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, Intimate Partner Violence Investigators (IPVI) shall take the lead role in all intimate partner violence investigations except cases involving a criteria offence as defined in the Ontario Major Case Management (OMCM) Manual, the investigation shall be assigned to: (a) The IPVI shall be the lead investigator, but will work in consultation with an accredited Major Case Manager  (b) The IPVI shall be the lead investigator, but will work in consultation with an accredited Primary Investigator (c) The investigation shall be assigned to an accredited Major Case Manager (d) An accredited Primary Investigator shall be the lead 89. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, all allegations arising from an intimate partner violence situation in which the suspect/accused is a member of another police service shall be reported in a timely manner to __________ by ___________. (a) Duty Senior Officer of that police service, Unit Commander – Intelligence Services (b) Duty Officer of that police service, Unit Commander of the Service division handling the investigation (c) Duty Senior Officer of that police service, Divisional Investigator of the Service division handling the investigation (d) Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre, Unit Commander of the Service division handling the investigation 90. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, in cases of intimate partner violence situations within the City of Toronto where the suspect / accused is a member of this Service, the __________ shall notify __________ who will assume the role of case manager. (a) Unit Commander / Duty Senior Officer, Professional Standards (PRS)) (b) Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre, Unit Commander – Intelligence Services (c) Unit Commander of the Service division handling the investigation, Unit Commander – Intelligence Services (d) Domestic Violence Investigator (DVI), Professional Standards (PRS) 91. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, occurrences of Service member- involved domestic violence outside of Canada shall be __________. (a) Investigated criminally by Professional Standards (PRS) (b) Treated as allegations of discreditable conduct (c) Investigated criminally by Intelligence Services – International Assistance Unit (IAU) (d) None of the above 92. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, a Detective Sergeant in charge of a divisional detective office shall ensure: (a) A minimum of one (1) IPVI accredited detectives, per platoon, is assigned to oversee all domestic violence investigations in the division (b) A minimum of one (1) IPVI accredited detective is assigned to oversee all domestic violence investigations in the division (c) A minimum of two (2) IPVI accredited detectives are assigned to oversee all domestic violence investigations in the division (d) A minimum of two (2) IPVI accredited detectives, per platoon, are assigned to oversee all domestic violence investigations in the division 93. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, a Detective Sergeant in charge of a divisional detective office shall ensure that cases involving high risk offenders are referred to: (a) An accredited Intimate Partner Violence Investigator (IPVI) (b) The Intimate Partner Violence High Risk Review Team at the Divisional Policing Support Unit (c) The Intimate Partner Violence High Risk Review Team at the divisional courthouse (d) The Intimate Partner Violence High Risk Review Team – Domestic Violence Coordinator 94. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, the Officer in Charge is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response and, in the absence of the Detective Sergeant, an appropriate investigative response. Where a Service member is a suspect / accused, the Officer in Charge shall notify the __________ of the circumstances surrounding the incident. (a) Appropriate Unit Commander, or if absent, the Duty Senior Officer (b) Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre, or if absent, the Duty Senior Officer (c) Domestic Violence High Risk Review team – Divisional Policing Support Unit (d) Unit Commander – Professional Standards Unit 95. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 04 Intimate Partner Violence, when a member of this Service is a suspect or an accused, who is responsible for notifying PRS? (a) The Officer in Charge (b) The Unit Commander (c) The Detective Sergeant (d) The Staff Sergeant 96. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 05 Sexual Assault, the divisional sexual assault investigator, or in their absence, a __________, shall take charge of the sexual assault investigation without delay in order to conduct a preliminary investigation. (a) Divisional Domestic Violence Investigator (DVI) (b) Divisional Investigator (c) Divisional Investigator – Major Crime Unit (d) Specialized Investigations Unit – Sex Crimes - Sexual Assault Investigator 97. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 05 Sexual Assault, a Detective Sergeant in charge of a divisional detective office shall ensure: (a) A minimum of one (1) accredited sexual assault investigator, per platoon, is assigned to oversee all sexual assault investigations in the division (b) A minimum of one (1) accredited sexual assault investigator is assigned to oversee all sexual assault investigations in the division (c) Sexual assault investigators are deployed in a manner which maximizes their availability (d) Sexual assault investigators are deployed to each platoon 98. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 05 Sexual Assault, who is responsible for completing the TPS 309 Divisional Sexual Assault Audit for the Unit Commander? (a) Field Intelligence Officer (b) Crime Analyst (c) Divisional Sexual Assault Investigator (d) Divisional Detective Sergeant 99. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 06 Child Abuse, child abuse investigations shall be conducted in accordance with: (a) The Kaufman Report (b) The Specialized Criminal Investigations Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) Joint Protocol (c) The “Protocol for Joint Investigations of Child Physical and Sexual Abuse: Guidelines and Procedures for a Coordinated Response to Child Abuse in the City of Toronto (d) The Major Criminal Investigations Manual – Child Abuse Investigations 100. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 06 Child Abuse, the Child & Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) is staffed by the Service’s designated child abuse investigators, working in collaboration with a number of external organizations including: (a) Fred Victor Centre (b) Boost Child Abuse Prevention and Intervention (c) John Howard Society of Ontario (d) All of the above 101. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 06 Child Abuse, the Child & Youth Advocacy Centre will investigate physical assaults when the victim is under the age of __________ and the suspect is a known adult. (a) Five (5) years (b) Twelve (12) years (c) Sixteen (16) years (d) Eighteen (18) years 102. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 06 Child Abuse, the Child & Youth Advocacy Centre will investigate physical assaults, emotional abuse, or neglect occurrences when the victim is under the age of __________ and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority. (a) Five (5) years (b) Twelve (12) years (c) Sixteen (16) years (d) Eighteen (18) years 103. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 06 Child Abuse, the Child & Youth Advocacy Centre will investigate sexual offences when the victim is under the age of __________, the suspect is known and the offences are not within the mandate of the Sex Crimes investigative office. (a) Five (5) years (b) Twelve (12) years (c) Sixteen (16) years (d) Eighteen (18) years 104. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 16 Hate / Bias Crime, the investigation of hate / bias crime is the responsibility of: (a) Divisional detective office (b) Intelligence Services – Hate Crime (INT – Hate Crime) (c) Divisional detective office but Intelligence Services – Hate Crime (INT – Hate Crime) will provide assistance and expertise to all investigations and prosecutions for these crimes (d) Divisional detective office unless the offences are within the mandate of Intelligence Services – Hate Crime (INT – Hate Crime) 105. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 16 Hate / Bias Crime, the unit that will be the central focus for the dissemination of hate / bias crime information to government agencies and the community is: (a) Corporate Communications (b) Toronto Police Operations Centre – Corporate Communications Officer (c) INT – Hate Crime (d) Access and Privacy – Coordinator 106. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 16 Hate / Bias Crime, when an arrest has been made in a hate / bias crime case involving stalking, threatening or harassing behaviour; and where there is an identifiable target and serious potential for violence, the Detective Sergeant shall contact ___________ for advice, referral or an assessment of risk, if appropriate. (a) INT – Hate Crime (b) BAS (c) Detective Operations – Risk Management Section (d) Intelligence Services – Risk Management Section 107. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 16 Hate / Bias Crime, upon conclusion of the at-scene investigation who is responsible for completing the Hate/Crime Detail Page or its equivalent? (a) INT – Hate Crime (b) The Supervisory Officer (c) The Divisional Hate Crime Investigator (d) The Detective Sergeant 108. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 21 Firearms, who is is responsible for the identification and arrest of criminal gunmen and the identification, arrest and dismantling of any gang, criminal organization, or crime group or its members responsible for violent criminal activity within the community, primarily focusing on illegal firearms, drugs and crimes of violence? (a) The IGGTF – Firearms Enforcement Unit (FEU) (b) Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force (IGGTF) (c) Firearms Enforcement Unit – Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) (d) Intelligence – Major Projects Section 109. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 21 Firearms, the _____________ is mandated to identify and take enforcement action against persons involved in the illegal movement of firearms, ammunition and explosives. This includes the offences of smuggling, trafficking and the possession of “crime guns”. (a) The IGGTF – Firearms Enforcement Unit (FEU) (b) Organized Crime Enforcement – Integrated Gun & Gang Task Force (IGGTF (c) Firearms Enforcement Unit – Firearms Investigation & Analysis Unit (FIAU) (d) Intelligence – Major Projects Section 110. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 21 Firearms, when an illegal firearm comes into police custody, who is responsible for ensuring the IGGTF has been notified? (a) The Divisional / Unit Investigator (b) The Supervisory Officer (c) The Detective Sergeant (d) The Officer in Charge 111. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 26 Child Abductions, the Divisional Detective, in cases of stranger involved abductions shall notify: (a) Specialized Criminal Investigations – Sex Crimes (b) On-call Detective Sergeant - Intelligence Services (c) Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide (d) Both (a) and (b) 112. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 26 Child Abductions, the Divisional Detective Sergeant is responsible for ensuring an appropriate investigative response. Upon being notified of a possible child abduction shall ensure the assistance, where appropriate, of ___________. (a) Sex Crimes (b) Intelligence Services (c) Detective Operations – Homicide and Missing Persons (d) All of the above 113. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 26 Child Abductions, the final decision if an AMBER Alert will be initiated is made by ___________, after being notified by __________. (a) The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC, Officer in Charge (b) The Chief of Police or designate, the Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (c) The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC, Unit Commander (d) The Chief of Police or designate, Unit Commander 114. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 26 Child Abductions, if approved the __________ will initiate the Alert process through the TPOC. (a) Ontario Provincial Police (b) Royal Canadian Mounted Police – Missing Child Registry (c) Duty Senior Officer (d) Corporate Communications 115. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 34 Serious Assaults, Divisional Detectives shall lead the investigation of all aggravated assaults and attempted homicides that occur within the City of Toronto with the exception of: (a) Stabbings during a robbery, where a Major Crime Investigator shall lead (b) Shootings, where Organized Crime Enforcement (OCE) shall lead (c) When the victim is under the age of eighteen (18) and the suspect is a caregiver, parent or a person in a position of trust or authority where an investigator from the Child and Youth Advocacy Centre (CYAC) shall lead (d) Attempted murders during a Hate Crime where INT – Hate Crime shall lead 116. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 34 Serious Assaults, the _________ to arrive at the scene of an aggravated assault and/or attempted homicide shall be responsible for the safety and wellbeing of the victim, offender management as well as preservation of the evidence and crime scene while awaiting the arrival of an appropriate investigator. (a) The Officer In Charge (b) Detective Division (c) Supervisory Officer (d) First Police Officer 117. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 34 Serious Assaults, the _________ to arrive at the scene of an aggravated assault and/or attempted homicide shall be responsible for the quality and thoroughness of the uniform response. (a) The Officer In Charge (b) Detective Division (c) Supervisory Officer (d) First Police Officer 118. According to TPS Procedure 05 – 34 Serious Assaults, who is responsible for ensuring an appropriate uniform response, and in the absence of the detective sergeant, an appropriate investigative response? (a) The Officer In Charge (b) Detective Division (c) Supervisory Officer (d) First Police Officer 119. According to TPS Procedure 06 – 04 Persons in Crisis, __________ of the Mental Health Act (MHA), provides a police officer with the authority to take a person into custody and deliver them to an appropriate place for examination by a physician. (a) Form 1 (b) Section 17 (c) Section 33 (d) Section 47 120. According to TPS Procedure 06 – 04 Persons in Crisis, __________ of the Mental Health Act (MHA), directs a police officer who takes a person in custody to a psychiatric facility shall remain at the facility and retain custody of the person until the facility takes custody of him or her in the prescribed manner. (a) Section 1 (b) Section 17 (c) Section 33 (d) Section 47 121. According to TPS Procedure 06 – 04 Persons in Crisis, there is a requirement for a police officer to actually observe the person’s behaviour in order to form reasonable and probable grounds for apprehension. (a) T (b) F 122. According to TPS Procedure 06 – 04 Persons in Crisis, Officers have access to assistance from the Canadian Mental Health Association (CMHA) via their Community Referral Police Access Line which is available to provide officers with assistance when dealing with individuals that are believed to be experiencing a mental, emotional or substance use crisis; have become involved with police and/or is at risk of involvement with the criminal justice system; who have not been apprehended under the MHA and are: (a) Aged sixteen (16) or older (b) Aged sixteen (16) or younger (c) Aged eighteen (18) or older (d) Aged eighteen (18) or younger 123. According to TPS Procedure 06 – 04 Persons in Crisis, who is responsible for ensuring that hospitals within the division have a sufficient supply of blank TPS 710 forms? (a) The Mobile Crisis Intervention Team (b) Divisional Mental Health Liaison Officer (c) The Unit Commander (d) The Officer in Charge 124. According to TPS Procedure 06 – 04 Persons in Crisis, the Officer in Charge, when requested by the Toronto Emergency Medical Services to transport a violent person in crisis from a residence or hospital to a psychiatric facility shall ensure: (a) An Application for Admission (Form 1 – MHA) has been signed by a physician (b) An Application for Admission (Form 17 – MHA) has been signed by a physician (c) An Application for Admission (Form 33 – MHA) has been signed by a physician (d) An Application for Admission (Form 47 – MHA) has been signed by a physician 125. According to TPS Procedure 07 – 05 Service Vehicle Collisions, service vehicle collisions deemed reportable collisions under HTA criteria, including collisions resulting from intentional contact, shall be recorded on a __________. (a) SRLD401 (b) eReport (c) SRLD401 and eReport (d) None of the above 126. According to TPS Procedure 07 – 05 Service Vehicle Collisions, all service vehicle collisions including those deemed to be non-reportable collisions under the HTA criteria shall be recorded on a: (a) SRLD401 (b) eReport (c) SRLD401 and eReport (d) None of the above 127. According to TPS Procedure 07 – 05 Service Vehicle Collisions, __________ attendance mandatory for collisions involving a Service Vehicle (a) TSV officer (b) Supervisory officer (c) Supervisory officer and a Traffic Services (TSV) officer (d) Divisional Investigator 128. According to TPS Procedure 07 – 05 Service Vehicle Collisions, the Service has a legal requirement to forward all SRLD401s to the Ministry of Transportation within __________ of the vehicle collision. (a) Five (5) days (b) Ten (10) days (c) Fourteen (14) days (d) Thirty (30) days 129. According to TPS Procedure 07 – 05 Service Vehicle Collisions, Service Vehicle Collision Reduction Committee (SVCRC) means a panel consisting of, but not limited to, the Unit Commander and/or Designate from the following units except (a)Toronto Police College (b) Professional Standards Support (c) Traffic Services (d) Legal Services 130. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 01 Employee and Family Assistance (EFAP), the EFAP provider will only breach client confidentiality when required by law, such as: (a) When records are subpoenaed by a court (b) When there is a need to intervene to prevent serious harm to an individual or others (c) When there is suspicion that a child is or may be in need of protection from current or potential physical abuse, sexual abuse, emotional abuse or neglect (d) All of the above 131. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 01 Employee and Family Assistance (EFAP), what shall a supervisor do upon becoming aware of a member who requests assistance for a problem (a) Advise the member of all options available for assistance, including the EFAP provider (b) Permit the member the opportunity to call the EFAP provider, subject to operational requirements (c) Follow–up as necessary with the member for support and encouragement (d) All of the above 132. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 04 Members Involved in a Traumatic Critical Incident the determination of whether or not the Critical Incident Response Team (CIRT) / Peer Support Volunteer (PSV) is immediately contacted will be dependent on the assessment by __________. (a) Officer in Charge (b) Duty Senior Officer Toronto Police Operations Centre (c) Any member (d) Officer in Charge in consultation with the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) 133. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 04 Members Involved in a Traumatic Critical Incident, in determining whether an event should be reported as a “Traumatic Critical Incident”, the decision should be based on: (a) Reactions of involved members (b) Lack of reactions of involved members (c) Nature and circumstances of the event (d) All of the above 134. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 04 Members Involved in a Traumatic Critical Incident, the Traumatic Critical Incident Mitigation Process, a __________ may be required immediately after a traumatic critical incident. (a) Hot-Wash Session (b) Defusing Session (c) Debriefing Session (d) Post-Incident Briefing Session 135. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 04 Members Involved in a Traumatic Critical Incident, the Traumatic Critical Incident Mitigation Process, a __________ may be required, not immediately after a traumatic critical incident, but some time after a traumatic critical incident has occurred. (a) Hot-Wash Session (b) Defusing Session (c) Debriefing Session (d) Post-Incident Briefing Session 136. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 04 Members Involved in a Traumatic Critical Incident, according to the Traumatic Critical Incident Mitigation Process, a __________ can be led by 2 CIRT/PSVs, EFAP provider or Service Psychologist. (a) Hot-Wash Session (b) Defusing Session (c) Debriefing Session (d) Post-Incident Briefing Session 137. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 04 Members Involved in a Traumatic Critical Incident, according to the Traumatic Critical Incident Mitigation Process, a __________ is led by the EFAP provider and / or the Service Psychologist. (a) Hot-Wash Session (b) Defusing Session (c) Debriefing Session (d) Post-Incident Briefing Session 138. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 04 Members Involved in a Traumatic Critical Incident, post incident firearms exposure sessions are mandatory for: (a) Officers who discharge their firearms in the line of duty (except when discharged for the purposes of dispatching an animal, unless circumstances suggest otherwise) (b) Officers determined by their Unit Commander to be directly impacted by the incident (c) All of the above (d) None of the above – post incident firearms exposure sessions are not mandatory 139. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 05 Substance Abuse, when observing that a member is unfit for duty what is the Officer in Charge not required to do? (a) Ensure the member is given immediate medical treatment, if required (b) Discuss performance concerns and expectations with the member (c) Commence an immediate investigation (d) Initiate the appropriate action depending on the circumstances 140. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 11 Workplace Violence, when notified of a member refusing to work as a result of a workplace violence incident, the Officer in Charge shall: (a) Offer the member EFAP and allow the member to book off, tour of duty (b) Ensure the member remains available and in a safe place for the purposes of an investigation (c) Ensure a supervisor transports the member to Medical Advisory Services (d) Initiate a defusing session 141. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 11 Workplace Violence, who is responsible to ensure the workplace is not is not toxic or poisoned? (a) The Detective Sergeant (b) The Officer in Charge (c) The Unit Commander (d) Local Health and Safety Committee 142. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 12 Workplace Harassment, who shall immediately report any incident of workplace harassment to any supervisor? (a) Members (b) Police Officers (c) Special Constables (d) The Officer in Charge 143. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 12 Workplace Harassment, when the source of the workplace harassment is external to the Service who shall ensure the applicable eReports are completed prior to the completion of the tour of duty?  (a) The Officer In Charge (b) The Unit Complaint Coordinator (c) The Supervisor (d) The Unit Commander 144. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 15 Naloxone, Naloxone is a life-saving medication which can be used to temporarily counteract an opioid overdose and prevent an overdose death. In response to an increase in opioid-related overdoses within the City of Toronto, the Toronto Police Service will provide __________ with Naloxone to assist with life-saving efforts until other medical assistance is available. (a) Divisional Response and other Front-line officers (b) Designated members (c) Supervisory officers (d) MCIT officers 145. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 15 Naloxone, Naloxone nasal spray requires storage protection from extreme temperature changes. It must be stored between __________ and __________, with brief excursions permitted between 4°C - 40°C. Naloxone cannot be frozen and must be protected from direct sunlight. (a) 10°C - 25°C (b) 15°C - 25°C (c) 15°C - 30°C (d) 10°C - 35°C 146. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 15 Naloxone, each Naloxone nasal spray kit contains __________ doses of Naloxone nasal spray (4mg/0.1ml). (a) Two (2) (b) Four (4) (c) Six (6) (d) Ten (10) 147. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 15 Naloxone, the Service has obtained a medical delegation from a physician in order for designated members to be able to administer Naloxone to members of the public experiencing an overdose. This medical delegation stipulates that all members being issued Naloxone shall maintain __________. (a) the annual Use of Force qualification (b) the annual In Service Training Program (ISTP) (c) a current Standard First Aid certification (d) the prescribed training to utilize the Naloxone product 148. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 15 Naloxone, the Unit Commander shall ensure that when a police officer’s Standard First Aid certification expires, that their Service issued Naloxone kit is returned to the: (a) Toronto Police College (b) Emergency Task Force (c) FLT – Hanna. (d) Occupational Health and Safety Unit 149. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 15 Naloxone, the Officer in Charge – TPOC, shall notify the following, when Naloxone has been administered to an on-duty Service member who has been critically injured: (a) On-call Wellness Unit member (b) Duty Inspector TPOC (c) On-call Director Director of the Toronto Police Association or the Senior Officers Organization (d) All of the above 150. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 15 Naloxone, for the purposes of the delegation given to members to administer Naloxone, a member’s Standard First Aid certification expires after how long? (a) Twelve (12) months (b) Twenty four (24) months (c) Thirty six (36) months (d) Forty eight (48) months 151. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 16 Fitness for Duty, Fitness for duty assessments of Service members are the responsibility of the (a) Toronto Police College (b) Wellness Unit (c) Professional Standards Unit (d) Equity and Inclusion 152. According to TPS Procedure 08 – 16 Fitness for Duty, members shall not use recreational cannabis for a minimum of ________ prior to attending work (a) Twelve (12) hours (b) Twenty four (24) hours (c) Thirty (30) days (d) Twenty (20) days 153. According to TPS Procedure 09 – 06 Property of Persons in Custody, it is the policy of the Toronto Police Service to remove property from prisoners, aside from seizing property as evidence, for the following which of the following reasons? (a) For the safety of the prisoners  (b) For the safety of members (c) To prevent injury or escape (d) All of the above 154. According to TPS Procedure 09 – 06 Property of Persons in Custody, where should police officers consider placing gender-affirming prosthetic device/items? (a) in a paper bag (b) in a non see-through bag (c) in a property bag with items of religious significance (d) none of the above 155. According to TPS Procedure 09 – 06 Property of Persons in Custody, If valuable property is retained by prisoners who shall ensure the transporting officer is advised? (a) The Booking Officer (b) The Officer in Charge (c) The arresting officer (d) The Divisional Investigator 156. According to TPS Procedure 10 – 05, Incidents Requiring the Emergency Task Force, what is role of first responders at an incident requiring the ETF? (a) Control and contain the scene (b) Enter the scene immediately and update the ETF (c) Position their vehicles as close to the scene as possible (d) Allow access to pedestrians 157. According to TPS Procedure 10 – 10 Emergencies and Pursuits on the TTC Property, it is imperative that officers contact the _________and cut the power to the high voltage power rails prior to entering onto the track level. As an additional precaution, officers must always treat any power rail as if it were live. (a) Emergency Management & Public Order (b) Toronto Transit Commission (c) Transit Control Centre (d) Emergency Task Force 158. According to TPS Procedure 10 – 13 Threats to School Safety, all of the below are categories of movement restriction that may be implemented in an event where there is a threat to school safety, except for:  (a) Lockdown (b) Active Attacker (c) Shelter in Place (d) Hold and Secure 159. According to TPS Procedure 10 – 13 Threats to School Safety, a scenario where there is a person attacking another person with a knife in a school, the following category of movement restriction would apply: (a) Lockdown (b) Active Attacker (c) Shelter in Place (d) Hold and Secure 160. According to TPS Procedure 10 – 13 Threats to School Safety, a scenario where there is a suspect with a weapon in the vicinity of the school, the following category of movement restriction would apply: (a) Lockdown (b) Active Attacker (c) Shelter in Place (d) Hold and Secure 161. According to TPS Procedure 10 – 13 Threats to School Safety, a scenario where there is a hazardous material around the school building and evacuation may not be safe, the following category of movement would apply: (a) Lockdown (b) Active Attacker (c) Shelter in Place (d) Hold and Secure 162. According to TPS Procedure 10 – 13 Threats to School Safety, the person that is responsible to make the decision to invoke one of the categories of movement restriction within the school is: (a) The school principal (b) The Incident Commander (c) The responding police officer (d) The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC 163. According to TPS Procedure 10 – 13 Threats to School Safety, a Supervisor being notified of a Hold and Secure that police have recommended shall (a) Attend the parent staging area (b) Assign a police officer to attend that school if, operationally feasible  (c) Notify the Officer in Charge (d) Request Duty Senior Officer – TPOC to attend 164. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 02 Uniform External Complaint Process, all external complaints made concerning the conduct of a police officer of the Service, or the policies or the services provided by the Service, will be received and managed by: (a) The Office of the Independent Police Review Director (OIPRD) (b) Professional Standards Unit Complaint Intake (c) Professional Standards Conduct Investigations (d) Corporate Risk Management 165. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 02 Uniform External Complaint Process, the __________ will coordinate the Service’s response to the OIPRD. (a) The Duty Senior Officer – TPOC (b) The Unit Commander – Professional Standards Unit (c) The OIPRD Designate Officer (d) The OIPRD Liaison Officer 166. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 02 Uniform External Complaint Process, a Local Resolution is an agreement between all parties prior to an OIPRD complaint being lodged. It must involve a complaint that meets a certain criteria and must be resolved within __________ of the complainant reporting to the police. (a) Fifteen (15) days (b) Thirty (30) days (c) Ninety (90) days (d) One hundred twenty (120) days 203. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 02 Uniform External Complaint Process, an Informal Resolution is an agreement between all parties __________ and involves conduct that is deemed less serious. (a) Prior to a complaint being lodged with the OIPRD (b) After a complaint has been lodged and formalized with LECA (c) After the commencement of a Tribunal Hearing, pursuant to the PSA (d) In lieu of criminal charges 204. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 02 Uniform External Complaint Process, a conduct investigation into an external complaint is required to be concluded within __________ as mandated by LECA.  (a) Fifteen (15) days (b) Thirty (30) days (c) Ninety (90) days (d) One hundred twenty (120) days 205. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 03 Police Officer Internal Complaint Process, _______________ will determine which unit will investigate an internal complaint (a) The Unit Complaint Coordinator (UCC) (b) Professional Standards (PRS) – Complaints Administration (c) The Unit Commander (d) Corporate Risk Management 206. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 03 Police Officer Internal Complaint Process, civilian members in general and police officers of an equal or lesser rank may initiate an internal conduct complaint about a police officer of equal or lesser rank by way of a __________. (a) TPS Form 901 to the subject officer’s supervisor (b) TPS Form 930 to the subject officer’s supervisor (c) TPS 649 to the subject member’s supervisor (d) Completing an OIPRD form in the prescribed manner 207. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 03 Police Officer Internal Complaint Process, a civilian supervisor of the Toronto Police Service may initiate an internal conduct complaint about a police officer in the following manner __________. (a) TPS 901 (b) TPS 930 (c) TPS 649 (d) TPS 931 208. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 03 Police Officer Internal Complaint Process, Unit Commanders shall forward the completed file, including the adjudication/disposition, to PRS - Complaints Administration within __________. (a) Fifteen (15) days (b) Thirty (30) days (c) Ninety (90) days (d) One hundred twenty (120) days 209. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 03 Police Officer Complaint Process, any member, who in good faith, reports a breach of Service or legislative governance or an act of misconduct shall not be subject to __________. (a) A compelled statement (b) The issuance of a Form 901  (c) Reprisal (d) An internal complaint 210. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 02 Police Officer External Complaint Process, When determining that an external complaint cannot be resolved by an informal resolution shall consult with __________ regarding allegations of workplace harassment or discrimination, including any allegation related to a prohibited ground under the Human Rights Code.. (a) Professional Standards – Complaints Administration (b) Equity, Inclusion & Human Rights (c) Strategy Management – Diversity & Inclusion (Diversity & Inclusion) (d) Professionalism & Accountability (PAC) 204. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 06 Uniform Complaint Withdrawal, Internal and external complaints made against police officers may be withdrawn by the complainant. (a) This statement is true (b) This statement is false (c) This statement is true as it pertains to internal complaints only (d) This statement is true as it pertains to external complaints only 205. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, the Chief of Police authorizes the following personnel the power of suspension granted to the Chief pursuant to the Police Services Act, except for: (a) All officers permanently assigned to Professional Standards (PRS) (b) All officers permanently assigned to the Toronto Police Operations Centre (TPOC) (c) All Uniform Senior Officers (d) The Officer in Charge of a unit 206. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, an authorized officer must still meet the following criteria before they are able to suspend a member: (a) An authorized member cannot suspend a member from their own unit (b) An authorized member must be of equal or superior rank than the officer to be suspended (c) The Duty Senior Officer – Toronto Police Operations Centre, must not be available (d) All of the above 207. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, which of the following is not a factor to be considered in determining if immediate suspension from duty is appropriate? (a) The seriousness of the misconduct (b) The strength of the case against the officer to be suspended (c) Impact upon the integrity of the investigation (d) Prevention of workplace violence or workplace harassment 208. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, after an officer has been suspension, the suspension may be reviewed pursuant to the PSA, and may in fact be revoked. Who may revoke the suspension? (a) The Chief of Police (b) The Staff Superintendent – Professionalism & Accountability (PAC) (c) The Deputy Chief – Human Resources Command (d) All of the above 209. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, when suspending a police officer from duty the suspending officer shall do all of the following except: (a) Relieve the suspended officer of the applicable Service issued uniform and equipment (b) Immediately escort the suspended officer off of the police premises (c) Date and sign the suspended officer’s memo book (d) A suspending officer shall do all of the above 210. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, the Unit Commander, upon learning that a police officer under their command has been suspended shall ensure the following have been notified of the circumstances and are forwarded a copy of the TPS 649 detailing the suspension from the suspending officer: (a) The Staff Superintendent – Professionalism & Accountability (PAC) (b) The Unit Commander – Professional Standards (c) The Deputy Chief – Human Resources Command (d) All of the above (e) Both (a) and (b) 211. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, the Unit Commander, upon learning that a police officer under their command has been suspended shall ensure the following have been notified of the suspension: (a) The Chief of Police (b) The suspended officer’s Deputy Chief of Police / Chief Administrative Officer (c) The suspended officer’s Staff Superintendent / Director (d) All of the above (e) Both (b) and (c) 212. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, the Unit Commander, upon being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall ensure that the surrendered eToken is delivered to: (a) Unit Commander – Facilities Management (b) Information Security Officer – Professional Standards Support (PSS) – Information Security (c) Manager – Information Privacy & Security (IPS) (d) Fleet Materials Management (FLT) 213. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, the Unit Commander, upon being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall ensure that the surrendered warrant / identification card is delivered to: (a) Unit Commander – Facilities Management (FCM) (b) Information Security Officer – Professional Standards Support (PSS) – Information Security (c) Unit Commander – Professional Standards (d) Fleet Materials Management (FLT) 214. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, the Unit Commander, upon being advised that the suspension has been confirmed shall ensure that all surrendered use of force equipment is delivered to: (a) Fleet Materials Management (FLT) (b) Staff Superintendent – Corporate Risk Management (c) Unit Commander – Professional Standards (d) Toronto Police College – Armament Section 215. According to TPS Procedure 13 – 08 Uniform Suspension from Duty, when is a suspended officer required to report to their Unit Commander or designate? (a) While suspended with pay (b) While off sick (c) While on annual leave (d) On statutory holidays 216. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, the objectives of the performance improvement process are to _______________ and to _______________ by members? a) correct potential deficiencies, avoid future poor performance b) correct identified work performance deficiencies, achieve an acceptable level of performance c) correct poor performance, correct poor decisions made d) correct poor work behavior, initiate a process to punish decisions made 217. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance procedure, the definition of a member shall only include sworn members only? a) True b) False 218. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, how long is a time frame for a special review? a) 30 business days b) 60 business days c) 90 calendar days  d) 90 business days 219. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, how long will additional review periods be and in what increments and to a maximum of how many calendar days? a) 30 calendar days to a maximum of 90 calendar days b) 60 calendar days to maximum of 120 calendar days c) 20 business days to maximum of 90 business days d) 90 business days to a maximum of 120 business days 220. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, complaints of unsatisfactory work performance may only originate internally? a) True b) False 221. True or false. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, all complaints of unsatisfactory work performance for civilian members shall be administered in the same manner regardless of whether they are external or internal? a) True b) False 222. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, generally, once a supervisor identifies the performance of a member that is less than satisfactory, how can the deficiency be corrected? a) caution, guidance and understanding b) discussion, caution training education c) correcting, guidance or training d) discussion, guidance or training 223. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, what area is not included in the Human Rights Code protected area? a) Citizenship  b) Contracts c) Employment d) Membership in vocational associations and trade unions 224. According to procedure 13-11 Unsatisfactory Work Performance, Systemic Discrimination means, organizational policies or practices that create or perpetuate a position of __________ for some individuals/groups, on the basis of prohibited grounds? a) relative disadvantage b) mistrust in an organization c) moderate disadvantage d) extreme distrust 225. True of False. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), the SIU procedure defines a serious injury includes when a person sustains an injury as a result of which they are seen at a hospital? a) True b) False 226. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), who has the Chief authorized to act in the role of Chief’s SIU On-Call Designated Authority? a) Uniform Senior Officers b) Uniform Senior Officer - authorized in writing by the Chief of Police c) Uniform Senior Officer – Professional Standards d) Duty Senior Officer e) b and d 227. True or False. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), The Chief’s SIU On-all Designated Authority, and or, the Duty Senior Officer are the only person(s) responsible for the release of equipment and documents to the SIU? a) True b) False 228. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), what is the purpose of the Chief’s Administrative Investigation? a) To determine issues related to police practices, or services provided by, the Service  b) To identify issues related to the policies of, or investigations conducted by, the Service c) To determine issues related to the policies of, or services provided by, the Service d) To identify issues related to public policy, or community support provided by, the Service 229. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), what unit oversees Chief’s Administrative Investigations? a) Corporate Communications b) Specialized Criminal Investigations – Homicide c) Professional Standards d) Chief’s Office 230. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), members shall ensure all requests related to an SIU investigation are made to? a) Chief’s SIU On Call Designated Authority b) Duty Senior Officer c) Chief’s SIU Liaison Officer d) Professional Standards – Special Investigations Unit Liaison Section 231. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), when a Supervisory Officer is attending an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked who shall he or she immediately notify? a) OIC-TPOC b) OIC-Divison where incident took place c) Duty Senior Officer d) Radio Supervisor 232. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), what is the definition of Firearm Discharge? a) means when a Service member discharges any firearm or less lethal weapon in the performance of their duty, and/or discharges a Service issued firearm or less lethal device at any time, intentionally or unintentionally, regardless of whether it causes injury or death. b) means when a Service member discharges a firearm in the performance of their duty, and/or discharges a Service issued firearm at any time, intentionally or unintentionally, regardless of whether it causes injury or death. c) means when a Service member discharges a firearm in the performance of their duty, and/or discharges a Service issued firearm at any time, intentionally or unintentionally, only if it causes injury or damage. d) means when a Service member discharges a firearm in the performance of their duty, and/or discharges a Service issued firearm at any time, intentionally or unintentionally, only if it causes significant injury. 233. True or False. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), Special constables are included in the definition of a police officer for the purposes of the SIU? a) True b) False 234. According to procedure 13-16 Special Investigations Unit (SIU), when the OIC-TPOC is notified of an incident where the SIU mandate is or may be invoked, who does he or she immediately notify? a) the Deputy Chief of Police (Deputy Chief) of the command involved b) The Staff Superintendent of the command involved c) the Duty Senior Officer – TPOC d) the Lead Hand at Cranfield garage e) a and c 235. According to Procedure 13-18 Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct, the Toronto Police Service (Service) recognizes that it is in the public interest to foster and maintain confidence in the honesty and integrity of the Service and its members. In order to achieve that goal, s. 1.3 of the Service Standards of Conduct (Standards of Conduct) directs members to report acts of discreditable conduct to a supervisor, a Unit Commander or the Unit Commander – Professional Standards (PRS) as soon as ________. a) possible b) reasonable c) practicable d) allowable 236. According to Procedure 13-18 Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct Members shall not __________, _________ or _____________ any person who makes a report or complaint about their conduct or the conduct of another Service member.  a) ridicule, accost or retaliate b) harass, threaten or retaliate c) harass, intimidate or retaliate d) admonish, intimidate or ridicule 237. According to Procedure 13-18 Anonymous Reporting of Discreditable Conduct, The PRS dedicated, anonymous telephone number 416-343-7090 is available between the hours of ____ and ______ each ____ day? a) 0800 and 1600 each business day b) 0800 and 1600 each calendar day c) 0900 and 1700 each business day d) 0700 and 1500 each calendar day 238. According to Procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, what three components of is the demonstrated performance appraisal based on? a) appearance, behaviour and skills b) behaviour, knowledge and conduct c) professionalism, behaviour and skills d) behaviour, knowledge and skills 239. According to Procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, what month will all service members have their performance reviewed on an annual basis? a) The month of their birth b) The month that at the end of their calendar year since the last appraisal c) The month of their original hire date d) The month they graduated OPC 240. According to Procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, for a supervisor to evaluate a member, what time frame must the supervisor have supervised the member for? a) a minimum period of (90) business days b) a preferred period of (90) days c) a minimum period of (90) calendar days d) a minimum period of (90) days 241. According to Procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, for Constables assigned to the Generalist Constable Development Program, how long will a TPS528 be filed in a member’s unit personnel file for?  a) For two (2) years b) For four (4) years c) For five (5) years d) For six (6) years 242. According to Procedure14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, members may respond to their annual appraisal by preparing a TPS649 within _________ of the appraisal meeting? a) Ten (10) calendar days b) Ten (10) business days c) Ten (10) consecutive days d) Ten (10) days e) 243. According to Procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, for probationary Sergeant/Detective’s, when will the performance appraisal TPS810 be completed by the supervisory officer prior to? a) 3rd, 9th and 12th b) 3rd, 6th and 10th c) 2nd, 6th and 10th d) 3rd, 5th and 9th 244. According to Procedure14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, when a Unit Commander is not confirming a sergeant in the rank, the Unit Commander shall ensure _________ are immediately advised of the recommendation via ___________? a) Director, People and Culture, via e-mail b) Talent Acquisition, via e-mail c) Labour Relations and Employee Services, via telephone d) Labour Relations and Employee Services, via e-mail. 245. True or False. 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, According to procedure 14-02 Evaluations, Reclassifications and Appraisals, Constable who are absent from work due to parental leave, family care leave, long-term disability, central sick bank, suspension, or an off-duty injury will still be considered active service? a) True b) False 246. According to procedure 15-01 Incident Response (Use of Force/De-Escalation), The Toronto Police Service (Service) places the highest value on the ____________ of its members and the public, with a greater regard for human life than the protection of property. a) integrity of the service and public image b) protection of life and the safety c) protection of life and the rights and freedoms d) community support and safety 247. True or False. According to procedure 15-01 Incident Response (Use of Force/De-Escalation), The Ontario Use of Force Model is intended to serve as justification for a member’s use of force? a) True b) False 248. According to procedure 15-01 Incident Response (Use of Force/De-Escalation), when responding as a team, which of the following teams are permitted to submit a Team report in situations where forced is merely displayed? a) Specialized Emergency Response – Emergency Task Force (ETF) b) Mounted Unit c) Marine Unit d) Emergency Management & Public Order – Public Safety (Public Safety) e) a and c 249. According to procedure 15-01 Incident Response (Use of Force/De-Escalation), when in receipt of a court order, subpoena, or prosecutors request for disclosure of a Use of Force Report, where shall such request be directed to? a) Toronto Police College – Armament Section b) Coordinator – Records Management Services – Access and Privacy Section c) Professional Standards d) Legal Services 250. According to procedure 15-01 Incident Response (Use of Force/De-Escalation), when a request is made for a Use of Force Report under the Municipal Freedom of Information & Protection of Privacy Act, and not by a court order, subpoena, or prosecutors request for disclosure of a Use of Force Report, where shall such request be directed to? a) Toronto Police College – Armament Section b) Coordinator – Records Management Services – Access and Privacy Section c) Professional Standards d) Legal Services 251. According to procedure 15-01 Incident Response (Use of Force/De-Escalation), when a supervisor is notified of a firearm discharge incident, who shall they advise at the first available opportunity and provide regular updates? a) the Officer in Charge b) the Duty Senior Officer c) the Officer in Charge of the division where the discharged occurred d) Chief’s SIU designate 252. According to procedure 15-01 Incident Response (Use of Force/De-Escalation), within what time frame shall a Use of Force Report and all applicable forms be forwarded to the Training Analyst – TPC? a) within (96) hours of receipt b) within (5) business days of receipt c) within (72) hours of receipt d) within (24-48) hours of receipt 253. Which of the following does not sit on the Incident Review Committee panel? a) Representative – East Field b) Representative – North Field c) Representative – Analysis and Assessment Section d) Representative – West Field 254. According to procedure 15-06 Less Lethal Shotguns, when notified of a less lethal shotgun discharge, who shall the supervisor notify? a) Officer in Charge b) Officer in Charge – Toronto Police Operations Centre c) Duty Senior Officer d) a and b e) a and c f) a and b 255. According to procedure 15-06 Less Lethal Shotguns, who shall the OIC-TPOC immediately notify of a less lethal shotgun discharge? a) The Duty Senior Officer b) The on-call FDI c) A only d) B only e) Both a and b 256. According to procedure 15-06 Less Lethal Shotguns, a negligent discharge is defined as: An unintentional discharge of a service firearm or less lethal shotgun by a police officer that is not the result of undue care and attention to the prescribed safe handling procedures. a) True b) False 257. According to procedure 15-09 Conducted Energy Weapon, the hand held CEW when applied directly, is specifically designed to ________? a) Deliver a metered pulse b) Gain control through pain compliance c) Deter any further assaultive behaviour d) Gain control of a subject who is assaultive as defined by the Criminal Code. 258. According to procedure 15-09 Conducted Energy Weapon, when CEW contact is made with a subject in Full Deployment, it delivers a metered and pulsed electrical current, which is designed to _____________ and loss of motor control. a) result in involuntary muscle contractions b) incapacitate c) temporarily disrupt the central nervous system d) deliver a metered pulse 259. According to procedure 15-09 Conducted Energy Weapon, which of the following does not allow police officers to use CEW as a force option? a) to prevent themselves from being overpowered when violently attacked b) to disarm an apparently dangerous person armed with an offensive weapon c) to gain psychological advantage during an interview of a suspect d) for any other lawful and justifiable purpose 260. According to procedure 15-09 Conducted Energy Weapon, when issued with a Taser 7 Model CEW is used as a Demonstrated Force Presence, or in Drive Stun Mode or Full Deployment, who does the police officer notify at the first available opportunity? a) Other officers on scene b) Duty Senior Officer c) TPOC d) next level supervisor 261. According to procedure 15-09 Conducted Energy Weapon, when the OIC, upon being notified of a CEW use, and if the discharge is accidental or negligent, who shall he/she submit a TPS901 to and when? a) TPS- College and Armament Section within 7 calendar days b) TPS- College Use of Force Section within 7 calendar days c) The Unit Commander prior to the completion of the tour of duty d) Chief’s SIU Designated authority prior to the completion of the tour of duty 262. According to procedure 15-10 Suspect Apprehension Pursuit, __________ is the paramount consideration factor in any decision to initiate, continue or abandon a suspect apprehension pursuit. a) Public safety b) Officer safety c) Community trust d) The identify of an individual 262. True or False. According to procedure 15-10 Suspect Apprehension Pursuit, no pursuit shall be initiated or continued for a non–criminal offence if the identity of an individual in the motor vehicle is known. a) True b) False 263. According to procedure 15-10 Suspect Apprehension Pursuit, what are unmarked police vehicles commonly known as? a) “Skates” vehicles b) “Stealth” vehicles c) “clean top” vehicles d) “plainclothes” vehicles e) b and c 264. According to procedure 15-10 Suspect Apprehension Pursuit, who authorizes the use of approved methods of terminating the pursuit? a) Pursuit Supervisor b) Road Supervisory Officer c) Duty Senior Officer d) Lead Hand at centr