Credit 1 Neurology Past Paper PDF

CREDIT 1 NEUROLOGY 1. Smell pseudohalucinations are present or smell pseudohallucinations are present a. In patients with uncus gyri parahipokampi lesion b. In patients with psychiatric disorders c. In patients with damage of nasal mucosa d. In patients with Parkinson disease a. In patients with un...

CREDIT 1 NEUROLOGY 1. Smell pseudohalucinations are present or smell pseudohallucinations are present a. In patients with uncus gyri parahipokampi lesion b. In patients with psychiatric disorders c. In patients with damage of nasal mucosa d. In patients with Parkinson disease a. In patients with uncus gyri parahipokampi lesion 2. Which clinical features belong to the clinical picture of parkinsonism: a. Postural instability b. Rigidity c. Ataxia d. Bradykinesia 3. Ischemic stroke in the territory of an anterior cerebral artery (ACA) manifests by: a. Homonymous hemianopia contralaterally b. Homonymous hemianopia ipsilaterally c. Changes of behaviour – prefrontal syndrome d. Contralateral hemiparesis – more prominent on an upper limb 4. Evoked potentials BAEP the most common pathological findings are… a. absence or prolonged latency of P100 wave b. absence or prolonged latency of wave I , III or V c. absence or prolonged latency of wave IV d. absence or prolonged latency of N20 wave 5. Hypoglossal nerve palsy on the left side in the case of presence spastic hemiparesis on the right : a. hemiplegia/hemiparesis alternans inferior b. internal capsule syndrome on the left side c. hemiplegia/hemiparesis alternans superior d. hemiplegia/hemiparesis alternans media 6. Which of the following statement is true (intracranial brain vessels) a. Anterior cerebral artery is not a terminal branch of internal carotid b. Middle cerebral artery supply mostly medial part of frontal and par.. c. Anterior communicating artery connects both anterior cerebral art… d. Posterior communicating arteries are terminal branches of basilar artery 7. Hypoglossal nerve palsy on the right side in the case of presence spastic hemiparesis on the left side could raise from: A. Lesion in Pons B. Lesion in Medulla oblongata C.Internal capsule syndrome 8. Mark correct answer a. Corticospinal pathway terminates in dorsal horns of spinal cords b. Corticospinal pathway crosses between pons and medulla oblongata c. Corticospinal pathway passes through internal capsule d. Corticospinal pathway crosses between midbrain and pons 9. Dysdiadochokinesia means an inability of a. Staying stable without a swing, if eyes are closed b. To control strength, distance and speed of accurate movements c. Fast alternating movements d. Tandem gait 10. Functional examination of brain is or functional examinations of brain is a. Standard brain MRI b. Positron emission tomography (PET) c. Brain CT d. Brain angiography 11. What is the clinical features of meningeal syndrome a. Photophobia b. Romberg sign c. Neck opposition d. Kernig sign 12. Severity of subarachnoid hemorrhage is scaled by (clinical symptoms): a. Glasgow coma scale b. NHSS scale c. Hunt-Hess scale d. EDSS scale 13. Sign of a cerebellar lesion is a. Diadochokinesia b. Rigidity c. Ataxia d. Anisocoria 14. Tabic dissociation of sensation can clinically manifest with: a. Spinal ataxia b. Negative Romberg sign c. Loss of proprioception d. Falls dependent on head position 15. Tabic dissociation of sensation means or tabic disociation of sensation means a. Defect of deep sensation b. Defect of tactile sensation c. Defect in temperature sensation d. Defect in pain sensation 16. Alexia a. is unability to count b. is unability to understand to written text c. is vision disorder d. is unability to write 17. Mark correct statement for neurinoma (Schwannoma) e. Occurs mostly in childhood f. Is a malignant, rapidly growing tumor g. Treatment by gamma-knife is not indicated h. Commonly occurs in vestibular part of n. VIII 18. Chipault rule. If patient has a sensation deficit in Th4, lesion is located in the level of (or use the Chipault’s rule – if patient suffers from sensory loss in Th4 dermatoma the lesion of a spinal colum is located at the level of vertebra): a. Th 2 b. Th 8 c. Th 6 d. Th 4 19. The evoked potential (EP) test is based on a. registration of pulse propagation in the muscle it is a response of the nerve structures to a precisely b. registration of impulse propagation within the muscle c. registration of pulse propagation in the neuro muscular junction, it is response to a precisely defined peripheral nerve stimulation d. registration of impulse propagation along the nerve pathway, it is the response of the nerve structures to a precisely defined stimulus 20. Typical features of NREM sleep are not a. K-complexes, vertex sharp waves b. Delta frequency band c. Rapid eye movements d. Sleep spindels 21. Mark incorrect statement about plegia a. It can be caused be a lesion of a lower motor neuron b. It can be caused be a lesion of an upper motor neuron c. It is a complete loss of a muscle’s strength d. It is a partial loss of a muscle’s strength 22. Neocerebellum includes the a. Flocculonodular lobe b. Cerebellar hemispheres c. No statement is correct d. Vermis 23. Mark the incorrect statement about sonography of extracranial vessels a. It is not used for diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke b. Can visualise atherosclerotic plaque, as well as assess the nature of a plaque c. It is a combination of both B-mode and doppler examination d. It is a non-invasive method, without radiation 24. Mark correct answer (written also “protein-cytological) e. Protein-cytological dissociation means increased protein in the cerebrospinal fluid without increase in cell count f. Protein-cytological association means increased protein in the cerebrospinal fluid without increase in cell count g. Bacterial meningitis is characterized by decreased level of proteins and increase in polymorphonuclear cells h. Viral meningitis has no typical finding in CFS 25. Mark the correct statement regarding brain ischemia and CT a. In acute stage, ischemia of the brain may not be visible b. In acute stage, has a density as cerebrospinal fluid c. In acute stage, ischemia has a density as a bone d. In acute stage, brain ischemia is hyperdense 26. Evoked potentials: BAEP (Brainstem auditory EP) - the most common pathological findings are a. complete absence of V. wave, or prolonged latency of I. wave b. complete absence of some evoked response (wave), or prolonged latency of wave I., III. or V. c. complete absence of N20 wave or prolonged latency of N20 wave d. complete absence of wave IV. or prolonged latency of IV. Wave 27. Facial nerve (VII) lesion –peripheral type is manifested with a. unability to open eye and having reduced nasolabial wrinkle on the lips… b. mouth angle drop is present on contralateral side c. bilateral lost of facial mimic movements and taster perception deficyt d. unability to make forehead wrinkles, elevate eyebrow, close the eye a……………… localization, also taste deficyt can be present 28. Occipital brain herniation (occipital conus) a. Occurs when frontal lobe moves down into the foramen occipitale magnum b. Can lead to the compression of medulla oblongata c. Is clinically silent with no symptoms d. Is present in patients with transversal myelitis 29. Hypokinetic movement disorder is a. Myoclonus b. Dystonia c. Parkinsonism d. Chorea 30. A complete transversal spinal cord lesion at the level of the C2-3 segment is manifested by a. Flaccid quadruparesis b. Bulbar syndrome c. Spastic quadruparesis d. Flaccid hemiparesis 31. Vestibular ataxia: when testing a patient's posture (Rhomberg) or Vestibular ataxia: in patient’s posture test: e. Ataxia doesn’t change when closing eyes, Romberg’s sign is negative f. Ataxia doesn’t change when closing eyes, Roberg’s sign is positive g. Ataxia is worsens when closing eyes, Roberg’s sign is negative h. Ataxia is worsens when closing eyes, Roberg’s sign is positive 32. Mark the correct statement a. Hemisection of spinal cord is manifested by ipsilateral motor paralysis and contralateral loss of proprioception b. Hemisection of spinal cord (Brown-Sequard syndrome) is manifested by ipsilateral motor paralysis and no loss of sensitivity c. Hemisection of spinal cord, also called Brown-Sequard syndrome is manifested by ipsilateral motor paralysis and ipsilateral loss of proprioception d. Hemisection of spinal cord (Brown-Sequard syndrome) is manifested only by loss of sensitivity 33. Transversal complete spinal cord lesion on the level Th12 manifests with: a. Spastic paraparesis b. Flaccid paraparesis c. Cauda equine syndrome d. Loss of sensation in the levels below the lesion 34. Which of the following statements is true for fluctuation in Parkinson’s disease? a. They are most severe at the beginning of the disease b. They typically occur and worsen over the course of the disease c. Motor fluctuations typically do not respond to any therapeutic interventions d. Hyperkinetic features (dyskinesia), such as chorea, are never part of motor fluctuations 35. Willis circle is formed by a. anterior communicating artery b. vertebral arteries c. middle meningeal artery d. perforating arteries 36. In lesion of left n.II a. On the left side is not present direct FR and on the right side is not present consensual FR b. On the left side is present direct FR and on the right side is not present consensual FR c. On the left side is not present direct FR and the right side is present consensual FR d. On the left side is present direct FR and on the right side is present consensual FR 37. Dysdiadochokinesis means a. Problem with aiming b. Problem with coordination between muscle groups in a more complex movement c. Tremor of a limb before reaching the target d. Problem with rapid alternating movements 38. Brain CT is not a method of choice in diagnosis of a. Multiple sclerosis b. Acute ischemic stroke c. Epidural bleeding d. Hemoragic stroke 39. Parkinsonian syndrome is a. Resting tremor in combination with rigidity and/or bradykinesia b. Action tremor in combination with rigidity and/or bradykinesia c. Bradykinesia in combination with rigidity and/or resting tremor d. Rigidity in combination with resting tremor and/or bradykinesia 40. What density has an acute intracerebral bleeding on CT a. Hypodense, comparing to brain tissue b. Desnity as cerebrospinal fluid c. We cannot see acute intracerebral bleeding on CT d. Hyperdense, comparing to brain tissue 41. Which of the following statement is true considering duplex ultrasound examination of extracranial vessels: a. uses mechanic vibration with frequency below 16KHz b. it is not possible to visualize atheroslerotic plaque or other blood vessel pathology c. it is an invasine neuroimaging method without radiation d. uses B mode and Doppler mode for dispaly of blood vessels 42. Which of the following does not belong to the cerebellar symptoms? a. Intentional tremor (also kinetic) b. Dysarthria (also ataxic, scanning, speech) c. Balance problems d. Paresis 43. Typical feature of the NREM sleep are: a) sleeping (which is often referred to as "slow wave," "delta" or "deep" sleep.) b) k-komplex with pointy waves c) muscle atonia, saw tooth waves d) pointy waves 44. Mark correct statement for dystonia: A. Is consequence of a flaccid palsy B. Application of botulinum toxin is contraindicated C. Has constant pattern D. The underlying cause is bradykinesia 45. Which of the following symptoms is a feature of neocerebellar syndrome? a. Hypermetria b. Passivity (lower muscle tone) c. All statements are correct d. Oculomotor abnormalities 46. Cerebellar Dysfunction may present with a. Gait with narrow basis and decreased armswing b. Paresis c. Passivity (decreased muscle tone) d. Hemihypesthesia 47. In lesion of right n.III a. On the right side is present direct FR and consensual FR (photo reaction)on the left side b. On the right side is present direct FR and on the left is not present consensual FR c. On the right side is not present direct FR and on the left is not present consensual FR d. On the right side is not present direct FR and on the left side is present consensual FR 48. Typical features of the bulbar palsy are a. Dysartia, dysphagia, increased masseter reflex b. Dysartia, dysphagia, tongue atrophy and faciculations c. Dysartia, alebo dysphasia/ aphasia, increased corneal reflex d. Aphasia, positive pathological axial reflexes 49. Mark the correct statement a. Lesion to dorsal column affect pain-and thermic sensation b. Lesion to dorsal column is also called syringomyelic dissociation of sensitivity c. Lesion to dorsal column occurs in case of anterior spinal artery compression d. Lesion to dorsal column leads to spinal ataxia 50. What are the causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome? a. Lacunar ischemic stroke b. Optic neuritis c. Myelitis d. Brain tumor 51. Transcranial sonography of cerebral arteries a. Basilar and vertebral arteries cannot be viewed through ultrasound b. The examination is carried out through the so-called acoustic bone windows c. We cannot assess stenosis or occlusion of the middle cerebral artery d. We cannot asses’ spasms of the arteries of Willis circuit 52. Hyperkinetic movement disorder is a. dysmetria b. ataxia c. spasticity d. dystonia 53. Category of primary headaches doesn’t include: a. Cluster headache b. Paroxysmal hemicrania c. Migraine without aura d. Drug-induced headache 54. Mark correct answer a. spectrophotometric analysis of CSF can not confirm the diagnosis of subarachnoid bleeding b. lymphocytic pleocytosis is present predominantly in patients with viral meningitis c. hyperproteinorachia combined with increased count of polymorphonuclear cells is present in patients with viral infections of central nervous system typical for bacteria d. hyperproteinorachia combined with an increased count of cells is called proteino-cytological 55. Neurophatic pain: a. Is only related to cns damage / eg. Stroke, multiple sclerosis b. Anticonvulsant and antidepressant have fine effect c. Does not occur in neuralgia of trigeminal nerve d. It respond well to common painkillers in case of early treatment 56. Which of the following hyperkinetic movements is characterized as a complex patterned movement/posture? a. Myoclonus b. Tremor c. Chorea d. Dystonia 57. MRI angiography a. can be made in patients with implanted iron metal material b. it is an imagining method without radiation c. is always done with CT angiography d. Its accessibility makes it method of first choice in case of acute ischemic... 58. Structural abnormality in case of bulbar palsy is localised a. The right brain hemisphere b. Bilateral damage of the hemispheres c. Cranial nerves IX – XII ncc. Localised in the bulbar brain stem d. White matter of the hemispheres 59. Routinely we use ultrasound examination in diagnosis of a. Brain tumors b. Movement disorders c. Back pain d. Cerebrovascular diseases 60. Postural and kinetic tremor is most associated with a. Parkinson’s disease b. Stroke c. Essential tremor d. Cerebellar dysfunction 61. Bradykinesia means a. Deceleration of repeated movements – decrement of their frequency b. Decreased amplitude of movements c. Difficulties to initiate voluntary movements d. Deceleration and instability of a gait 62. Typical sign of parkinsonian syndrome is a. Postural tremor b. Intentional tremor c. Action tremor d. Resting tremor 63. In case of bulbar paralysis in the brain lesion is located a. In the medulla oblongata b. In the right cerebral hemisphere c. In both cerebral hemispheres d. In dorsal midbrain 64. Every child with dystonia and diurnal fluctuations (better in the morning and worse in the evening) should try a trial with a. Levodopa b. Analgetics c. Benzodiazepins d. Anticonvulsants 65. The most common genetic disorder primarily associated with chorea is a. Creutzfeldt-Jacob disease b. Parkinson’s disease c. Huntington’s disease d. Wilson’s disease 66. Mark correct statement about rigidity a. it worsens by the movement of contralateral limb b. catch is present during passive movement of the limb c. it depends on velocity of passive movement of the limb d. it improves by the movement of contralateral limb 67. Millard-Gubler syndrome is also called a. Middle alternating hemiplegia b. Superior alternating hemiplegia c. Inferior alternating hemiplegia d. There is no such syndrome 68. What are the clinical features of meningeal syndrome? (MULTIPLE RIGHT) a. Positive Juster sign b. Neck opposition c. Romberg sign d. Positive Hanzal sign e. Photophobia f. Kernig sign 69. Which of the following statements are true for rigidity? a. It is a consequence of tremor b. Rigidity is dependent on speed of pasive movements – resistance is higher with slower movements c. Rigidity is dependent on speed of pasive movements – resistance is higher with slower movements d. Rigidity worsens with co-activation of contralateral limbs 70. What are the causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Polyradiculoneutitis c. Alzheimer disease d. Brain abscess 71. Which finding does not belong to ictal/interictal epileptic abnormality? a. focal rhytmic theta activity b. K-complexes c. focal epileptic discharges- spike and wave complexes d. generalized discharges of spike-wave complexes 72. Which of the following symptoms is typical for multiple system atrophy? a. Autonomic dysfunction (e.g., orthostatic hypotension) b. Apraxia c. Abnormal vertical occur saccades d. Dementia 73. Peripheral lesion of n.VII cranial nerve is present in a. Inferior alternating hemiplegia b. It does not occur with any syndrome c. Middle alternating hemiplegia d. Superior alternating hemiplegia 74. In parietal lobe syndrome of nondominant hemisphere is not present a. Speech problem b. Astereognosia c. Anosognosia d. Autotopagnosia 75. Mark the correct statement: vestibular nerve and cochlear nerve (n.VIII) a. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the cortex in the area of the medulla oblongata b. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the trunk in the mesencephallon (brainstem) c. they emerge from the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus externus at the ponto- cerebellar angle d. they emerge through the meatus acusticus internus and enter the brainstem in the ponto- cerebellar angle 76. Key clinical feature of Parkinson’s disease (must be present in 100% of patients) is a. Resting tremor b. Rigidity c. Chorea d. Bradykinesia 77. EEG cannot be used to differenciate a. loss of consciousness in hepatal coma b. epilepsy c. headache d. cognitive decline in Creutzfeldt Jacob disease 78. The lesion of the cochlear nerve is manifested by a. Nystagmus to the opposite side of the cochlear nerve lesion b. Dizziness and vomitus c. Imbalance, especially manifestation of vestibular ataxia ipsilaterally d. Hearing deficit - from hypacusis to anacusis 79. Hypokinetic movement disorder is: a. Myoclonus b. Dystonia c. Parkinsonism d. Chorea 80. Mark the most specific (clinical) symptom of prodromal Parkinsin’s disease: a. Depression b. REM sleep behavior disorder (RBD) c. Constipation d. Orthostatic hypotension 81. Which of the following symptoms is not a feature of neocerebellar syndrome? a. Passivity (lower muscle tone) b. Oculomotor abnormalities c. Hypermetria d. Trunk asynergy 82. Half side spinal cord lesion in c3 presented with a. ipsilateral spastic hemiparesis and respiratory problems b. contralateral spastic hemiparesis c. contralateral flaccid hemiparesis d. ipsilateral flaccid hemiparesis 83. Brain MRI is essential in diagnosis of, or Brain MRI is the first choice for: a. hemorrhagic stroke b. multiple sclerosis c. skull fracture d. head injuries 84. What is the most virulent cause of meningitis? a. B. Burgdorferi b. S. Pneumoniae c. N. Meningitides d. H. Influence 85. The EMG (electromyography) method, called STEMG (repetitive nerve stimulation EMG), is used in a case of suspected a. myelopathy - there is pathological decrement of the amplitude of the action potential of the response b. myasthenic syndrome – there is pathological decrement of the action potential amplitudes in the repeated muscle response c. amyotrophic lateral sclerosis - there is pathological increment of the amplitude of the action potential of the muscle response d. myopathy - there is pathological decrement of the velocity of the muscle response 86. Electromyographic nerve conduction studies (NCS) in case of axonal lesion of a peripheral nerve show: a. Decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of lower amplitude b. Normal conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of lower amplitude c. Decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of higher amplitude d. Accelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of lower amplitude 87. Which from the following statements is true considering Duplex ultrasound examination of extracranial: a. Uses mechanic vibration with frequency below 14 b. It is not possible to visualize atherosclerotic … c. Uses B-mode and Doppler mode for display (of blood vessels) – doppler for the velocity 88. Neuropathic pain a. Is not presented in diabetic patients or in case of trigeminal neuralgia b. Is well treated by common analgesics/painkillers c. Can appear in lesion of both the central and peripheral nervous systems d. Does not respond well to anticonvulsants 89. In the case of Weber 's syndrome, the lesion located in: a. Medulla oblongata b. Thalamus c. Pons d. Midbrain 90. Upper brainstem lesion manifests as or Upper brainstem lesion is manifests as: a. Only deep sensation deficit on contralateral side of the body b. Only superficial sensation deficit on contralateral side of the body c. Deficit of both sensation modalities on contralateral half of body including the face. d. Deficit of both sensation modalities on contralateral half of body and homolateral half of the face. 91. Frequent causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome are: a. Brain tumors b. Encephalitis c. Hemorrhagic stroke d. Optic neuritis 92. Isolated defect in deep sensitivity occurs within a. Lesion of the posterior columns b. Lesion of lateral columns c. Lesion in area of the central spinal canal d. Lesions of anterior spinal artery 93. Right side hemianopsia is present in lesion of a. left optic nerve b. right optic nerve c. left optic tract d. right optic tract 94. Which part of a tongue is innervated by the Facial nerve (n. VII) regarding the taste? (neuro1) chorda tympani a. Ipsilateral posterior third of a tongue b. Ipsilateral anterior third of a tongue c. Contralateral half of a tongue d. Ipsilateral anterior two thirds of a tongue 95. Bicipital reflex a. Is performed by tapping on distal part of radius b. Is integrated in C7 spinal cord level c. Reflex response is forearm flexion d. Reflex response is forearm extension 96. Plane x-ray of the spinal column is indicated or plane Xray a. In diagnosis of myelitis b. For diagnosis of prolapse of the disc c. In diagnosis of spinal cord bleeding d. In present is not used very frequently 97. Which of the following statements are NOT true for freezing in Parkinson’s disease? a. Freezing of gait is often not very responsive to dopaminergic medication b. Freezing usually affects all types of locomotion, not only automatic walking c. It is a problem with automatic walking, voluntary walking is spared d. Patients can overcome freezing by using different sensory tricks 98. Autoimmune chorea is typical for which age? a. Infancy b. Late adulthood c. Adolescence d. Prevalence is the same in every age 99. Short steps and decreased arm swing during the gait is typical for: a. Parkinsonism b. central vestibular syndrome c. cerebellar syndrome d. peripheral vestibular syndrome 100. Tics may be differentiated from the hyperkinetic movement by the following statement a. They may partially voluntarily suppressible, are preceded by inner urge and followed by relief of inner tension b. They are never associated with vocalizations c. The never have a jerky component d. They never have a complex character 101. A lesion of half of the spinal cord (right or left) at the level of the spinal cord segment C3, is manifested by a. Mixed (flaccid and spastic) hemiparesis ipsilaterally b. Flaccid hemiparesis ipsilaterally c. Contralateral spastic hemiparesis d. Spastic hemiparesis ipsilaterally 102. Lesions of the vermis will be primarily related to ataxia of a. Standing and walking b. Contralateral limbs c. Speech d. Ipsilateral limbs 103. Body of the upper motor neuron lies in a. Precentral gyrus b. Supplementary motor cortex c. Internal capsule d. Postcentral gyrus 104. Clinical picture of pseudobulbar palsy shows, or pseudobulbar palsy shows: a. Dysarthria, dysphagia, decreased masseter reflex, present nasopalpebral reflex b. Aphasia, dysphasia, emotional instability, decreased masseter reflex, absent nasopalpebra c. Dysartria, dysphagia, increased masseter reflex, positive pathological axial reflexes d. Emotional instability, aphasia, increased masseter reflex 105. Hemiparesis/hemiplegia means the weakness of a. All four limbs b. Lower limbs c. Right/left limbs d. Upper limbs 106. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) a. Is imagining technique without X Ray radiation b. Is imagining technique in which iodine contrast medium is not used c. Is invasive diagnostic method of brain arteries d. Is the least invasive imaging technique for display of brain arteries 107. Which pathway crosses in area of central spinal canal (comissura alba anterior)? a. Pathway for deep sensitivity b. Pathway for temperature c. Corticospinal tract d. No track crosses there 108. Which of the following is a typical feature of palleocerebellar syndrome? a. All statements are correct b. Ataxia of stance and gait c. Trunk asynergy d. Falls, usually backwards 109. Which imagine technique will show acute ischemic stroke: a. MRI b. CT c. MRI-DWI d. X-RAY 110. Middle alternating hemiplegia is characterized by a. Contralateral central n. VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis b. Ipsilateral central n. VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis c. Ipsilateral peripheral n.VII lesion and contralateral hemiparesis d. Ipsilateral peripheral n. VII lesion and ipsilateral hemiparesis 111. Mark incorrect statement about spasticity a. Is caused by the lesion of the upper motor neuron b. Physiotherapy is effective c. Is associated with increased deep-tendon reflexes d. Deep brain stimulation is therapy of a choice 112. Dysarthria and dysphagia are present within the following syndrome: a. Brocas aphasia b. Wernickes aphasia c. Pseudobulbar palsy d. Bulbar palsy 113. In lesion of left n. II a. On the left side is present direct FR and on the right side is present consensual FR b. On the left side is present direct FR and on the right side is not present consensual FR c. On the left side is not present direct FR and the right side is present consensual FR d. On the left side is not present direct FR and on the right side is not present consensual FR 114. Tetraparesis/tetraplegia means the weakness of a. all four limbs b. lower limbs c. right/left limbs d. upper limbs 115. Pathway for temperature sensation: a. Do not cross on the level of spinal cord b. Crosses behind central canal c. Crosses in front of central canal in comissura anterior alba d. Crosses in decussatio lemniscorum 116. Mark correct statement a. Primary motor cortex is localized in praecentral gyrus b. Corticospinal pathway has 2 neurons c. Motor funiculus represents specific part of the body over the d. Corticospinal pathway passes through external capsule 117. Mark incorrect statement for chorea: a. is sign of a lesion in the circuits of basal ganglia b. is visible also during walking c. the most common hereditary cause is Hungingtons disease d. has constant, stereotypic pattern 118. Vestibular (n.VIII) nerve a. Conduct information from receptors in the labyrinth b. Conducts information about waves coming into the ear c. Conducts information from the labyrinth rostrally through the posterior spinal cord d. Conducts information from the brainstem to the auditory cortical perception area 119. Transtentorial brain herniation (temporal conus): a. is manifested by loss of the consciousness and contralateral mydriasis b. occurs with the lesions localised in the infratentorial space c. is a benign sign of meningeal syndrome d. occurs when the uncal area is moved downward through the tentorium cerebelli 120. Which statement about right hemianopsia is correct? a. Both temporal parts of visual fields are lost b. Perimeter on the left eye shows loss of medial half of the optic field c. Could be connected with the stroke in the left hemisphere d. Is connected with the stroke in the right hemisphere 121. Regarding C5 radiculopathy, which of the following statements is correct? a. Pain is localized to the medial aspect of arm, forearm and the third digit b. Pain is localized to the lateral aspect of arm c. Sensory deficit is localized to the fourth and fifth digits d. There is weakness of forearm extension 122. Nystagmus is defined as a. rapidly repetitive, rhythmic movement of the eyes, or twitch of the eyeballs which occurs in lesions of the vestibular nerve or vestibular pathways b. rhythmic twitch of mimic muscles ipsilaterally on half of the face c. rapidly repetitive, regular, rhythmic movement of the eyes and muscles around the mouth d. an inability to look up and is associated with diplopia 123. Patients with cerebellar dysfunction have gait dysfunction with a. Narrow basis b. Character of dancing c. Pulling forward d. Wider basis 124. Body of the lower motor neuron which innervates the limbs lies in a. Anterior roots of spinal cord b. Posterior horn of spinal cord c. Anterior horn of spinal cord d. Posterior roots of spinal cord 125. Vestibular ataxia: when testing a patient's posture (Rhomberg) or Vestibular ataxia: in patient’s posture test: a. closing the eyes does not worsen the ataxia, therefore the Romberg test is positive b. the ataxia worsens when the eyes are closed, the Romberg test is positive c. closing the eyes does not change the ataxia, Romberg's test is still negative d. the ataxia worsens when the eyes are closed, the Romberg test is negative 126. Devic’s disease. Neuromyelitis optica (NMO) is: a. A demyelinating disease manifesting with optic neuritis and myelitis b. An autoimmune disease of the eye and muscles c. A hereditary degenerative spinal cord disease d. A post-infection complications in children manifesting as a monophasic inflammatory disease of the brain 127. Lesion to the XII. cranial nerve on the left side manifests as a. Atrophy and fasciculations of the whole tongue b. Aphasia c. Hypotrophy of the left half of the tongue, paralysis of the left half of the tongue, tip of the tongue deviates to the left side d. Hypotrophy of the right half of the tongue, paralysis of the right half of the tongue, tip of the tongue deviates to the right side 128. Central palsy is characterized by a. Areflexia b. fibrillations verified by needle EMG c. bradykinesia d. muscles’ hypertonia 129. Facial nerve (VII) lesion –peripheral type is manifested with or Facial nerve lesion – peripheral type is manifested with: A. inability to open eye and having reduced nasolabial wrinkle on the ipsilateral side and mouth angle….. lesion localization, also taste defect can be present B. Mouth angle drop is present on contralateral side C. Bilateral loss of facial mimic movements and taster perception deficit D. Inability to make forehead wrinkles, elevate eyebrow, close the eye and nasolabial wrinkle is re.. mouth angle drop is present, and related to lesion localization, also taste deficit can be present 130. Hypoglossal nerve palsy on the right-side manifests as a. Atrophy and fasciculation of the overall tongue b. Hypotrophy of the left half of the tongue, while protruded … c. Hypertrophy of the right half of the tongue, while protruded the apex turns to the right d. Aphasia 131. Syringomyelic dissociation of sensitivity is manifested by a. Damage of deep-, pain- and thermic sensitivity b. Lesion of pain and thermic sensitivity c. Lesion of deep sensitivity - no d. It is not manifested by sensitivity disorder 132. Central palsy is characterized by a. hyporeflexia b. Babinski sign is present c. marked muscles’ d. atrophies e. fasciculations 133. Spastic paraparesis could come from: a. Parasagittal growing tumor b. Tumor growing in the left hemisphere c. Tumor growing in the right hemisphere d. Tumor growing outside the spinal channel 134. Chorea is: a. A simple jerky movement b. Occurs with low dopamine brain levels c. The most common symptom of Parkinson’s disease d. An involuntary unpredictable complex hyperkinetic movement 135. Which statement is true for Essential tremor? a. It is associated with action (postural and kinetic) tremor b. Patients usually have concomitant parkinsonism c. Patients usually have concomitant ataxia d. It is associated with resting tremor 136. In the facial nerve (n.VII) lesions, innervation of facial muscles, upper branch, is clinically manifested by a. Inability to close the eye, raise eyebrows and wrinkle the forehead on the side of the lesion b. Inability to open the eye and raise eyebrows on the side of the lesion c. Inability to wrinkle the forehead and brush the teeth on the side of the lesion d. Inability to open the eye, raise eyebrows and wrinkle the forehead on the side of the lesion 137. Genetic origin of movement disorders should be considered especially if a. Symptoms start in early childhood, adolescence, or early adulthood b. Symptoms start in late adulthood c. Family history is negative d. Symptoms started immediately after initiation of a new medication 138. Electromyographic nerve conduction studies (NCS) in case of demyelinated axonal lesion of a peripheral nerve show: a. decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potential are of normal amplitude b. decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potential are of higher amplitude c. accelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potential are of higher amplitude d. decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve’s segment, action potential is of lower amplitude 139. What is not a clinical feature of meningeal syndrome? a. Photophobia b. Neck stiffness c. Kernig’s sign d. Hanzal’s sign 140. Nerve VII consists of mixed fibers a. Sensorics (taste), motor and sensitive b. Sensorics (taste), vegetative (salivation, lacrimation) and motor c. Sensorics (taste), vegetative (slinenie, sizenie), motor and sensitive d. Vegetative (salivation, lacrimation) motor and sensitive 141. Divergent stabism is present in lesion of or divergent strabismus: a. n. IV b. n. III c. n. Vi d. chiasma opticum 142. Anterior spinal artery syndrome is not manifested by a. Bowel and urogenital problems b. Lesion of dorsal column pathway c. Motor paralysis below the lesion d. Lesion of spinothalamic pathway 143. Choose the correct statement a. The vagus nerve carries the parasympathetic fibers b. The vagus nerve carries the sympathetic fibers c. The vagus nerve carries both parasympathetic and sympathetic fibers d. The vagus nerve does not carry any fibers of the autonomic nervous system 144. Myoclonus may originate: a. Only from spinal cord b. Only from basal ganglia c. Only from the cortex d. Can be cortical, subcortical, or spinal 145. What method is used for objective measurement of hearing impairment? a. Perimetry examination b. Snellen´s optotypes c. Electronystagmography (ENG d. Audiometric examination 146. Mark the correct statement a. anterior communicating artery connects both anterior cerebral arteries b. posterior cerebral artery is most commonly a branch of internal carotid artery c. middle cerebral artery supplies mainly the medial part of the frontal and parietal lobe d. posterior communicating arteries are terminal branches of the basilar artery 147. Mark correct answer a. -positive oligoclonal bands (OCB) in cerebrospinal fluid are present in patients with epilepsy b. - positive oligoclonal bands (OCB) in cerebrospinal fluid are present in patients with Alzheimer c. - positive oligoclonal bands (OCB) in cerebrospinal fluid are present in patients’ multiple sclerosis d. - positive oligoclonal bands (OCB) in cerebrospinal fluid are present in patients Parkinson 148. Which of the following symptoms is typical for a neocerebellar disorder? a. Spasticity b. Myoclonus c. Limb hypometria d. Limb hypermetria 149. Which of following findings is present in inferior alternating hemiplegia? a. Protruded tongue is deviated to contralateral side b. Protruded tongue is deviated to ipsilateral side c. Ipsilateral lesion of n XII is present d. Contralateral hemiplegia is present 150. Mark the correct statement regarding brain CT: a. Brain CT is sensitive for visualization of posterior fossa structures b. Is used primarily for diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke c. Acute bleeding cannot be seen on brain CT d. Brain CT does not associate with radiation exposure 151. Which of the following symptoms of Parkinson’s disease is often resistant to levodopa treatment? a. Postural instability b. Bradykinesia c. C. Resting tremor d. D... Rigidity 152. Carotid sonography cannot reveal: a. The presence of calcified plaques in common carotid artery b. The course of vertebral arteries in the neck area c. The presence of a soft atherosclerotic plaque in the cervical part of internal carotid artery d. The presence of stenosis of internal carotid artery below the bifurcation 153. Brocca center is in: a. right frontal lobe b. left frontal lobe c. left temporal lobe d. right temporal lobe 154. What diagnoses are presented by meningeal syndrome? Which disorder typically manifests by meningeal syndrome? a. Myelitis b. Polyradiculoneuritis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Subarachnoid bleeding 155. Uncinate crisis is present in lesion of: a. n.I b. frontal lobe c. n. VIII. d. temporal lobe 156. Vestibular nerve: a. Leads information from receptor organ – labyrinth (sacculus, utriculus, canales semicirculares) b. Leads informations from spinal dorsal columns c. Leads informations from middle ear d. Leads informations of acustic waves coming into the ear 157. Positive Chvostek’s sign means or A positive Chvostek’s sign means that the patient has a. Ipsilateral facial nerve palsy b. Bilateral facial nerve palsy c. Tetania – tetanic syndrome d. Neuroinfection – tetanus e. Lesion of the facial nerve in area of the nucleus at the level of the brainstem 158. Dysmetria means a. Problem with rapid alternating movements b. Problem with coordination between muscle groups in a more complex movement c. Tremor of a limb before reaching the target d. Problem with aiming 159. If we find a smooth nasolabial line on one side during a neurological examination of the facial nerve innervation and a drop of mouth angle it means: a. Central type of trigeminal nerve lesion – the lower branch b. Central type of facial nerve (n. VII) lesion c. Peripheral type of facial nerve (n.VII) lesion d. Both, central and peripheral type of facial nerve (n.VII) lesion 160. Inferior alternating hemiplegia is called: a. Millard – Gubler’s b. Jackson II syndrome c. Weber syndrome d. Opper… syndrome 161. In case of complete transversal spinal cord lesion in level C5 which of following cannot be present: a. quadriparesis – flaccid of mixed on upper limbs, spastic on lower limb b. quadriplegia c. spastic quadriparesis d. defect of deep and superficial sensation below lesion 162. Cerebellar disorder manifests: a. At contralateral side of a body b. By bradykinesia c. At ipsilateral side of a body d. By vestibular ataxia 163. XI.cranial nerve innervates a. Neck’s muscles (m. sternocleidomastoideus, m. trapezius) b. Does not innervate any muscles c. Tongue’s muscles d. M. masseter 164. An abnormal painful sensitive perception is called: a. Allodynia b. Hyperpathia c. Dysesthesia d. Paresthesia 165. Bradykinesia is typical sign of: a. Chorea b. Essential tremor c. Parkinson’s disease d. Cervical dystonia 166. In case of superior alternating hemiplegia a lesion of which cranial nerve is present? a. VI. cranial nerve b. IV. cranial nerve c. III. cranial nerve d. II. cranial nerve 167. Which type of tremor is characteristic for Parkinson’s disease a. Resting b. Kinetic c. Intentional d. Postural 168. Mark correct statements: a. patellar reflex is performed by tapping on patellar tendon and reflex responses flexion b. Chaddock sign is elicited by stroking of the lateral tibia c. Oppenheim sign is dorsifelxion of big toe elicited by irritation of external malleolus d. positive Babinski sign is extension of big toe elicited by irritation of lateral part of foot 169. Epidural bleeding on CT is seen as: a. Hypodense semicircle lesion b. Hyperdense semcircle lesion c. Hyperdense biconvex lens-like shape lesion d. Hypodense biconvex lens-like shape lesion 170. Weber's syndrome is characterized by a. Contralateral III. nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis b. Hemiparesis is not present c. Ipsilateral III. nerve palsy and Ipsilateral hemiparesis d. Ipsilateral III. nerve palsy and contralateral hemiparesis 171. Transtentorial brain herniation (temporal conus) a. Is manifested by loss of the consciousness and ipsilateral mydriasis b. Is manifested by loss of the consciousness and bilateral c. Occurs when the cerebellar tonils move downward d. Is manifested by loss of the consciousness and con… 172. Axon of the lower motor neuron terminates at the a. Dendrites of the upper motor neuron b. Smooth muscle c. Axon of the upper motor neuron d. Striated muscle 173. The nuclei of the cranial nerves IX., X., XI. XII. are in a. Pons b. Above the cerebellar tentorium c. Midbrain d. Medulla oblongata 174. Which of the following statements for cerebellum is true? a. It has strictly a motor function b. Cerebellar dysfunctions are not associated with tremor c. It has functions also in cognition and mood d. Cerebellar dysfunctions are not associated with oculomotor problems 175. Mark the correct statement a. The internal carotid artery divides into the middle cerebral artery and anterior cerebral artery b. The internal carotid artery is a branch of the common carotis and most often bifurcation lies in a level C6 / C7 c. The left internal carotid artery is a direct branch of aortic arch d. The right internal carotid artery is a branch of the brachiocephalicus truncus 176. Electromyographic nerve conduction studies (NCS) are used to measure action potentials a. After stimulation of peripheral nerve, recording is over the spinal cord and cerebral cortex b. After stimulation of peripheral nerve, recording is over the nerve or muscle c. In disorders of neuro d. In order to diagnose myopathy 177. Mark correct statement about spasticity a. Muscle’s tone is increased by the movement of a contralateral limb b. Muscle’s tone is decreased by the movement of a contralateral limb c. Botulinum toxin is used in the treatment of spasticity d. It is not present in patients after the stroke 178. Syringomyelic dissociation of sensitivity occurs within: a. Lesion to spinothalamic tract in the area of central spinal canal b. Lesion to the dorsal horn of spinal cord c. Lesion to the thalamus d. Lesion to the posterior columns of spinal cord 179. Mark correct answer (written also “protein-cytological) a. Proteino-cytological association is present in patients with bacterial CNS infections b. Proteino-cytological dissociation is present in patients with viral infections of CNS c. Proteino-cytological association is characterised by the increased level of proteins and normal level of cells count in CSF d. Proteino-cytological dissociation is characterised by the decreased level of proteins and increased level of cells count in CSF 180. Intentional tremor is typical for: a. Parkinson’s disease b. Stroke c. Cerebellar dysfunction d. Essential tremor 181. Vertebro-basilar stroke is not manifested by: a. Dysphagia b. Diplopia c. Aphasia d. Vertigo 182. Which of the following is not a feature of cerebellar dysfunction? a. Dysphagia b. Oculomotor problems and nystagmus c. Kinetic and intentional tremor d. Rigidity 183. A lesion of half of the spinal cord (right or left) at the level of the Th8 spinal cord segment is manifested by: a. sensory disturbance below the lesion site ipsilaterally due to deep sensitivity and spastic monoparesis of LL ipsilaterally b. quadruparesis and impaired perception of deep sensitivity c. sensitivity disturbance below the lesion site ipsilaterally for superficial and less also for deep sensitivity and LL monoparesis d. spastic or mixed contralateral monoparesis of the lower limb 184. Vestibular ataxia in the peripheral vestibular syndrome a. The patient has tonic deviations of the limbs on the side of the affected vestibular apparatus, it is also called "vestibular harmonic syndrome" b. The patient has deviated limbs to the opposite side of the affected vestibular apparatus, this condition is also called "vestibular harmonic syndrome" c. The patient has deviated limbs to the opposite side of the affected vestibular apparatus, this condition is also called "vestibular dysharmonic syndromea" d. Is not manifested by imbalance, only nausea and inability to recognize sounds is present 185. Vestibular nerve lesion presents with: a. Deafness and ipsilateral side tinnitus b. Nausea, vomit, vertigo, and spinal ataxia c. Deafness d. Nausea, vomit, vertigo, nystagmus, and vestibular ataxia 186. Typical features of REM sleep are: a. sleep spindles b. muscle atonia, saw tooth waves c. vertex sharp waves d. K- complexes 187. Typical tremor in Parkinson’s disease is (typical temporal Parkinson’s disease is) a. Intentional b. Resting c. Postural d. Kinetic 188. Which of the following belongs to hyperkinetic movement disorders? a. Hypokinesia b. Bradykinesia c. Rigidity d. Myoclonus 189. Which of the following is pathognomonic for functional tremor? a. Tremor changes character or disappears with mental or motor distraction b. None of the statements is true c. Tremor gets worse with mental or motor distraction d. Distraction does not make any difference in character or amplitude of functional tremor 190. In the case of half spinal cord (right or left) lesion in the level of Th10 which of following is not present a. homolateral spastic monoparesis of lower limb b. superficial ipsilateral sensation deficit below the lesion c. superficial contralateral sensation deficit below the lesion d. brown sequard syndrome 191. Convergent strabismus is present in lesion of: a. n. IV b. n. VI c. chiasma opticum d. n. III 192. Digital subtraction angiography (DSA) is not used for diagnosis of a. the source of epidural bleeding b. extracranial stenoses of blood vessel – gold standard for renal a. stenosis c. intracranial bleeding d. intracranial stenoses of blood vessel 193. Mark correct answer: a. cerebrospinal fluid flows from the third ventricle through cerebral aqueduct into the fourth ventricle b. cerebrospinal fluid is predominantly secreted in the fourth ventricle c. most of the cerebrospinal fluid volume is present within subdural space ventricular & subarachnoid compartments d. the mean cerebrospinal fluid volume is 800ml 150ml, 25ml in ventricles and 125ml in subarachnoid spaces 194. Duplex sonography of extracranial brain vessels a. In pregnant women b Has no significant contraindication c. Is contraindicated in patients with allergy to iodinated contrast media d. Is contraindicated in patients in terminal stage of renal failure 195. Weber’s syndrome is also called: a. Middle alternating hemiplegia b. Syndrome does not exist c. Inferior alternating hemiplegia d. Superior alternating hemiplegia 196. Mark INCORRECT statement for rigidity a. Is increased by any movements of a contralateral limb b. Occurs in Parkinson’s disease c. Occurs in atypical parkinsonian syndromes d. Depends on velocity of a passive movement of a limb 197. What diagnoses are not causes of intracranial hypertension syndrome? a. intracerebral haematoma (also epidural & subdural) b. atrophy of hippocarpal area c. brain metastases d. hydrocephalus 198. Dyssynergy means: a. Problem with rapid alternating movements b. Problem with aiming c. Tremor of a limb before reaching the target d. Problem with coordination between muscle groups in a more complex movement 199. Mark correct statement: vestibular nerve and cochlear nerve (VIII) a. both nerves came out of the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and they enter the brain stem on the midbrain level b. both nerves came out of the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus externus and they enter the brain stem in the ponto-celebellar angle c. both nerves came out of the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and they enter the brain stem on the midbrain level d. Both nerves came out of the pyramid bone through the meatus acusticus internus and they enter the brain stem on the medulla oblongata level 200. Paraparesis/ paraplegia means the weakness of or paraparesis/paraplegia means the weakness of a. Lower limbs b. Right/left limbs c. All four limbs d. Upper limbs 201. CSF examination is indicated: a. In patients with multiple sclerosis b. In patients with ischemic stroke c. In patients with Guillain-Barré syndrome d. In patients with neuroborelliosis 202. Bilateral pyramid tract lesion in C3 level of spinal cord presents with: a. spastic quadruparesis/quadruplegia b. spastic paresis of both upper limbs and flaccid or mixed paresis of both lower limbs c. mixed paresis of both upper and lower limbs d. flaccid or mixed paresis of both upper limbs and spastic paresis of both lower limbs 203. Magnetic resonance imaging is the method of first choice: a. In the diagnosis of acute cerebral hemorrhage b. In the diagnosis of CNS demyelinating diseases c. In the diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke d. In the diagnosis of epidural and subdural hemorrhage 204. CT angiography. Which of following statement is true: a. It is a minimal invasive examination b. In examination no contrast medium is needed c. Nowadays is seldom used in neuroradiology d. Examination is without radiation exposure 205. Mark the correct statement regarding Doppler effect or Which from the following statement considering Doppler affect is true: a. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave does not change b. Based on Doppler effect, we do not measure the frequency of reflected wave c. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave decreases d. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave increases 206. Which of the following is not a typical feature of palleocerebellar syndrome? a. Ataxia of stance and gait b. Trunk assynergy c. Falls, usually backwards d. Intentional tremor 207. Which of the following statement is not true (DSA- digital subtraction angiography): a. DSA uses Xray radiation b. DSA is not using X-ray radiation c. In DSA iodine contrast medium is used d. In DSA diagnostic catheter is inserted, most commonly through femoral artery 208. Mark the false statement regarding Doppler effect a. Based on Doppler effect we do not assess frequency of reflected wave b. If the blood moves towards the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave increases c. If the blood moves away from the probe, the frequency of the reflected wave decreases d. Based on Doppler effect, we can determine the direction and speed of particles within blood vessel 209. Glasgow coma scale examines: a. Consciousness, breathing, cardiac functions b. Eye, verbal, and motor response c. Consciousness, eye, and motor response d. Motor response, breathing and cardiac functions 210. Chorea is defined as: a. Problems with coordination of movements b. Complex involuntary, often twisting movements that do not have a typical pattern and are unpredictable movement c. Complex patterned twisting movements or postures d. Simple jerky movements 211. Mark incorrect statement about paresis: a. It can be caused be a lesion of an upper motor neuron b. It is a complete loss of a muscle’s strength c. It can be caused be a lesion of a lower motor neuron d. It is a partial loss of a muscle’s strength 212. Transversal complete spinal cord lesion at the level of L3 segment doesn’t present a. Spastic paraparesis of lower limbs b. Sphincter disorders c. Flaccid (or mixed) paraparesis if lower limbs d. Sensation deficit 213. Right cerebellar hemisphere lesions will be primary related to: a. Paresis on the ipsilateral side b. Ataxia in ipsilateral limbs c. Paresis on the contralateral side d. Ataxia in contralateral limbs 214. Maintenance of stability normal function of the following is not required for: A. Proprioception B. V. cranial nerve C. Cerebellum D. VIII cranial nerve 215. Non-modifiable risk factor of stroke is: a. Coagulopathy b. Hypercholesterolemia c. Diabetes mellitus d. Race/ethnicity 216. A complete transversal spinal cord lesion at the level of Th10 segment is manifested by a. Ipsilateral spastic paraparesis of LL with impaired sphincter control b. Impairment of only superficial sensitivity below the lesion c. Disorder of sphincter control disorder of superficial sensitivity below the lesion on both sides and paraparesis of LL d. Brown-Séquard syndrome below the Th10 level with sphincter control disorder 217. Archicerebellum includes the: a. No statement is correct b. Cerebellar hemispheres c. Flocculonodular lobe d. Vermis 218. Nuclear and/or infranuclear lesion of the cranial nerves IX., X., XII. manifests as: a. Bulbar paralysis b. Pseudobulbar paralysis c. Do not manifest at all d. Aphasia 219. Ptosis is present in a. n. II b. n.III c. n.V 220. Which of the following symptoms is typical for progressive supranuclear palsy? a. Abnormal vertical vertical ocular saccades b. Autonomic dysfunction (e.g., orthostatic hypotension) c. Dementia d. Apraxia 221. Evaluation of the brainstem reactivity in coma patient we do not use a. Gag reflex b. vestibuloocular reflex c. oculocephalic reflexes d. Babinski sign 222. Which from following statement is true a. right common carotid artery diverge directly from aortic arch b. right internal carotid artery diverge from brachiocephalic trunk c. left internal carotid artery diverge directly from aortic arch d. right common carotid artery diverges from brachiocephalic trunk 223. For detection of amyloid angiopathy we use: a. Brain MRI with contrast b. Brain MRI gradient echo sequence c. Brain MRI DWI sequence d. Brain MRI Flair sequence 224. Mark the correct statement about common carotid artery: a. It is a direct branch of aortic arch on the left side b. Subclavian artery is a branch of common carotid artery c. It is a direct branch of the brachiocephalic trunk on the left side d. Its terminal branches are middle cerebral artery and anterior cerebral artery 225. Palleocerebellum includes the a. Cerebellar hemispheres b. Flocculonodular lobe c. Vermis d. None statement is correct 226. The most frequent clinical form (disease course) of multiple sclerosis is: a. Monophasic episode b. Relapsing-remitting form c. Primary-progressive form d. Secondary-progressive form 227. Electromyographic nerve conduction studies (NCS) in case of demyelinative lesion of a peripheral nerve show: a. Accelerated conductivity of particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of normal amplitudes b. Decelerated conductivity of particular nerve’s segment, action potentials are of normal amplitudes c. Action potentials are of lower amplitude, or they are even absent d. decelerated conductivity of a particular nerve segment, action potential is of lower amplitude 228. Mark correct answer: a. -the mean cerebrospinal fluid volume is 500ml b. -cerebrospinal fluid is predominantly secreted in the third ventricle c. -villi arachnoidales are considered to be sites of cerebrospinal fluid absorption d. -cerebrospinal fluid is predominantly secreted in the fourth ventricle e. There is about 125mL of CSF at any one time, and about 500 mL is generated every day. 229. Which statement is true for Essential tremor? a. It has a good therapeutic response to alcohol b. Many patients have positive family history of tremor c. Resting tremor is the most important clinical feature d. Tremor is the only clinical manifestation of the disease 230. Which statement about meningeal syndrome is correct? a. The presence of meningeal symptoms may not always indicate meningitis or subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Nuchal rigidity/neck stiffness is a part of the clinical picture c. Signs of meningism include the presence of positive Kernig’s sign or Brudzinski sign d. Meningeal syndrome is always accompanied by fever 231. Early ischemic changes on brain CT does not involve: a. Dense artery sign b. Loss of loss of grey-white matter differentiation c. Subcortical hyperdense lesion d. Dilation of subarachnoid space 232. We routinely do not use duplex ultrasound exam of extracranial blood vessels a. In patients with intracerebral bleeding b. In patients with stroke in vertebrobasilar territory c. In patients with carotid artery dissection d. For control exam of patients after carotid artery stenting or carotid endarterectomy 233. Which of the following do not suggest brain structural abnormality in the origin of coma? a. anisocoria b. quadriplegia c. drops of the mouth angle d. hemiplegia 234. Patients with cerebellar dysfunction typically fall: a. To the contralateral side of the affected cerebellar hemisphere b. Backwards c. Forwards d. To the side of the affected cerebellar hemisphere 235. Signs of upper alternating hemiparesis (Weber’s syndrome) include: a. divergent strabismus b. miosis c. flaccid hemiparesis on the limbs d. loss of a smell (anosmia) 236. Mark incorrect answer a. MRI is indicated in patients with suspected inflammatory affection of spinal cord b. brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T1 hyperintense lesions c. MRI is indicated in patients with suspected demyelinating disease d. brain MRI of patients with multiple sclerosis shows T2 hyperintense lesions 237. In the treatment of multiple sclerosis (relapse) attack are recommended to use: a. Thrombolysis b. Corticosteroids c. Anticonvulsants d. Triptans 238. Central palsy is characterized by: a. marked muscles’ atrophies b. Babinski sign is present c. fasciculations d. hyporeflexia 239. Signs of lower alternating hemiparesis (Jackson’s syndrome) include a. flaccid hemiparesis on the limbs b. protruded tongue deviates to the ipsilateral side to the lesion c. central palsy of n.VII. d. protruded tongue deviates to the contralateral side to the lesion – is for motoric and sensory contralateral disturbs of the trunk limbs. 240. Mark correct answer: a. MRI has 3 main weighted sequences T1 T2 T3 b. Gadolinium is not used as contrast medium in MRI c. Diffusion weighted imaging (DWI) is not used in diagnosis of early stroke d. Diffusion weighted imaging (DWI) is used in diagnosis of early Alzheimer disease e. MRI has 3 main weight sequences: T1 T2 FLAIR f. MRI is a gold standard for diagnosis of acute ischemic stroke 241. Which of the following symptoms is typical for progressive supranuclear palsy? a. Abnormal vertical vertical ocular saccades b. Autonomic dysfunction (e.g., orthostatic hypotension) c. Dementia d. Apraxia 242. Temporal (uncal, transtentorial) herniation manifests with: a. Anisocoria: mydriasis of contralateral pupil b. Anisocoria: mydriasis of ipsilateral pupil c. Contralateral hemianesthesia, dysesthesia d. Ipsilateral hemiparesis 243. Regarding S1 radiculopathy, which of the following is incorrect? a. Pain and sensory deficit is localized to dorsal aspect of thigh and leg and plantar aspect of foot b. There is weakness of ankle plantar flexion c. Achilles tendon reflex is decreased d. Pain and sensory deficit is localized to lateral aspects of thigh, leg, and dorsal aspect of foot 244. Mark correct answers: a. CSF is resorbed through the choroid plexus (arachnoid granulationes) into the venous sinuses b. hydrocephalus leads to enlargement of epidural space c. clinical presentation of hydrocephalus is contralateral hemiparesis d. obstruction of CSF circulation can lead to hydrocephalus 245. Syringomyelic sensation deficit occurs when lesion is located in: a. Dorsal spinal columns b. Anterior half of spinal cord c. Dorsal spinal roots d. Nucleus posterolateralis ventralis thalami 246. Complete oculomotor nerve (n.III) palsy on the left side is manifested with: a. Absence of consensual pupillary light reaction on the right eye b. Absence of direct pupillary light reaction on the left eye c. Absence of consensual light pupillary reaction on the left side d. Absence of direct pupillary light reaction on the right eye 247. Diplopia, nasal deviation of the left eyebulb looking straight ahead are caused by: a. Oculomotor palsy on the right side b. Damage of the oculomotor nucleus in mesencephalon on the right side c. Abducent palsy on the right side d. Abducent palsy on the left side 248. Mark incorrect statement for cluster headache: a. There is a good effect of oxygen inhalation b. Is more prevalent in women c. Is localised in periobital area, might propagate to frontal or temporal region d. Is accompanied by lacrimation and rhinorrhea 249. Evoked potentials: BAEP are indicated in case where the patient is complaining about: a. Visual problems e.g., scotoma b. Abnormal smell perception c. tingling or numbness in the limb or trunk d. Dizziness, hearing loss or tinnitus 250. Myoclonus is: a. Supressible simple or complex movements b. Regular rhythmic oscillation of a body part around a joint, with changing contraction c. Simple involuntary jerky movements d. Complex involuntary twisting movements 251. Early ischemic changes on brain CT does not involve: a. Dense artery sign b. Loss of loss of grey-white matter differentiation c. Subcortical hyperdense lesion d. Dilation of subarachnoid space 252. Mark correct answers a. Kernig sign is positive when a flexion of the neck causes involuntary flexion of the knee and hip b. Meningeal syndrome can be present in patients with subarachnoidal bleeding c. Brudzinski sign is positive when extension of upper limbs causes involuntary flexion of the knee and hip d. Neck opposition is not a clinical feature of the meningeal syndrome 253. Afferent pathways of deep sensation enters a. into ventral spinal horns b. into dorsal spinal horns c. into lateral spinal fascicles d. into dorsal spinal columns 254. Regarding C6 radiculopathy, which of the following is correct? a. there is weakness of deltoid muscle b. There is hyporeflexia of brachioradial reflex c. There is atrophy of deep finger flexor muscles d. Pain and sensory deficit is localized to the medical aspect of arm, forearm and the fifth digit 255. MRI- angiography of brain arteries or In MRI angiography of brain arteries or in MRI-angiography of brain vessels: a. Iodine contrast medium is used b. Is not possible to visualize brain venous sinus c. Injection of gadolinium contrast medium is necessary d. It is possible to visualize brain arteries, without using contrast medium 256. Mark correct statement for needle EMG(electromyography) finding in case … a. myopathic pattern means reduced duration of motor units action b. myopathic pattern means prolonged duration of motor unit’s action c. myopathic pattern means increased number of muscle fibers d. myopathic pattern – action potentials called duplets or triplets 257. Mark correct answer: a. MRI is contraindicated in pregnancy b. MRI in comparison to CT is more sensitive in depicting of a bone tissue’s pathology c. MRI in comparison to CT is more sensitive in depicting of a soft tissue’s pathology d. Contrast agents used in MRI contain iodium 258. Multiple sclerosis is typically manifested at the beginning under the image of: a. Epileptic seizure b. Lower limbs polyneuropathy c. Optic neuritis d. Headache 259. Mark a false statement regarding CT angiography: a. Is performed in case of subarachnoid bleeding b. Is used in the diagnosis of cerebral aneurysms c. Is used to assess carotid artery stenosis d. Is not recommended in patients with ischemic stroke 260. The principle of the investigation of evoked potentials (EP) is: a. Registration of the nerve impulse propagation in the neuromuscular junction, it is a response to a precisely defined stimulus from the peripheral nerve b. Registration of nerve impulse propagation in a well- defined muscle c. Registration of the nerve impulse propagation along a certain neural path, it is a response of nerve to a precisely defined stimulus d. Registration of the nerve impulse propagation along the muscle, it is a response of the muscle to a precisely defined stimulus 261. Evoked potentials – BAEP are used for: a. The detection of visual pathway disorders b. The detection of trigeminal nerve disorders c. The detection of medulla oblongata disorders d. The detection of auditory (hearing) pathway disorders