W01 Award in General Insurance 2023/2024 PDF

Examination Guide W01 Award in General Insurance Based on the 2023/2024 syllabus examined from 1 May 2023 until 30 April 2024  Examination Guide Award in General Insur...

Examination Guide W01 Award in General Insurance Based on the 2023/2024 syllabus examined from 1 May 2023 until 30 April 2024  Examination Guide Award in General Insurance Based on the 2023/2024 syllabus examined from 1 May 2023 until 30 April 2024 Contents Introduction to Examination Guide 3 W01 Syllabus 7 Specimen Examination 10 Specimen Examination Answers and Learning Outcomes Covered 26 This PDF document is accessible through screen reader attachments to your web browser and has been designed to be read via the speechify extension available on Chrome. Speechify is a free extension that is available from https://speechify.com/. If for accessibility reasons you require this document in an alternative format, please contact us at [email protected] to discuss your needs. The CII Qualifications accessibility and special circumstances policy and guidance document can be viewed on the CII Rules and Policies page www.cii.co.uk/learning/qualifications/assessment- information/before-the-exam/rules-and-policies/ Published in February 2023 by: The Chartered Insurance Institute Email: [email protected] Copyright © 2023 The Chartered Insurance Institute. All rights reserved. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 2  Examination Guide Award in General Insurance Based on the 2023/2024 syllabus examined from 1 May 2023 until 30 April 2024 Introduction This examination guide has been produced by the Examinations Department at the Chartered Insurance Institute to assist students in their preparation for the W01 examination. It contains a specimen examination with answer key. Ideally, students should have completed the majority of their studies before attempting the specimen examination. Students should allow themselves two hours to complete the examination. They should then review their performance to identify areas of weakness on which to concentrate the remainder of their study time. Although the specimen examination in this guide is typical of a W01 examination, it should be noted that it is not possible to test every single aspect of the syllabus in any one particular examination. To prepare properly for the examination, candidates should make full use of the tuition options available and read as widely as possible to ensure that the whole syllabus has been covered. They should also endeavour to keep as up-to-date as possible with developments in the industry by reading the periodicals listed in the W01 reading list, which is located on the syllabus in this examination guide and on the CII website at www.cii.co.uk. Background Information CII examination questions undergo a rigorous writing and editing process before reaching an examination. The questions are written to strict guidelines by practitioners with relevant technical knowledge and experience. Questions are very carefully worded to ensure that all the information required to answer the question is provided in a clear and concise manner. They are then edited by an independent panel of experienced practitioners who have been specifically trained to ensure that questions are technically correct, clear and unambiguous. As a final check, each examination is scrutinised by the Senior Examiner and a CII assessment expert. Occasionally a question will require amendment after the examination guide is first published. In such an event, the revised question will be published on the CII website: 1) Visit www.cii.co.uk/learning/qualifications/unit-award-in-general-insurance-non-uk-w01/ 2) Select ‘exam guide update’ on the right hand side of the page. Candidates should also refer here for the latest information on changes to law and practice and when they will be examined. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 3  Examination Guide Syllabus The W01 syllabus is published on the CII website at www.cii.co.uk. Candidates should note that the examination is based on the syllabus, rather than on any particular tuition material. Of course, the tuition material will provide the vast majority of the information required to perform well in the examination, but the CII recommends that students consult other reference materials to supplement their studies. Supporting information for the syllabus which contains a detailed overview of the areas covered can be found on the unit page. Select Supporting information for the 2023/2024 syllabus on the right-hand side of the page. Skill Specification The skill level tested in each examination question is determined by the syllabus. Each learning outcome specifies the level of skill required of candidates and thus the level at which candidates may be tested. Learning outcomes for W01 begin with know or understand. Different skill levels lead to different types of question, examples of which follow. Know - Knowledge-based questions require the candidate to recall factual information. Typically questions may ask ‘What’, ‘When’ or ‘Who’. Questions set on a know learning outcome can only test knowledge. Understand - To answer questions based on understanding, the candidate must be able to link pieces of information together in cause-and-effect relationships. Typically questions may ask ‘Why’. Questions set on an understand learning outcome can test either knowledge or understanding or both. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 4  Examination Guide Examination Information The method of assessment for the W01 examination is 100 multiple choice questions (MCQs). 2 hours are allowed for this examination. The W01 syllabus provided in this examination guide will be examined from 1 May 2023 until 30 April 2024. Candidates will be examined on the basis of practice in a non-regulated environment. The general rule is that industry changes will not be examined on earlier than 3 months after they come into effect. When preparing for the examination, candidates should ensure that they are aware of what typically constitutes each type of product listed in the syllabus and ascertain whether the products with which they come into contact during the normal course of their work deviate from the norm, since questions in the examination test generic product knowledge. A multiple choice question consists of a problem followed by four options, labelled A, B, C and D, from which the candidate is asked to choose the correct or best response. Each question contains only one correct response to the problem posed. One mark is awarded for each correct response identified by the candidate. No mark is awarded if the candidate chooses an incorrect response, chooses more than one response or fails to choose any response. No marks are deducted for candidates choosing an incorrect response. If you bring a calculator into the examination room, it must be a silent battery or solar-powered non-programmable calculator. The use of electronic equipment capable of being programmed to hold alphabetic or numerical data and/or formulae is prohibited. You may use a financial or scientific calculator, provided it meets these requirements. Candidates are permitted to make rough notes. Candidates are not permitted, in any circumstances, to remove any papers relating to the examination from the examination room. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 5  Examination Guide Examination Technique: Multiple Choice Questions The best approach to multiple choice examinations is to work methodically through the questions. The questions are worded very carefully to ensure that all the information required is presented in a concise and clear manner. It cannot be emphasised too strongly that understanding the precise meaning of the question is vital. If candidates miss a crucial point when reading the question it could result in choosing the wrong option. Candidates should read carefully through the question and all the options before attempting to answer. Candidates should pay particular attention to any words in the question which are emphasised in bold type, for example, maximum, minimum, main, most, normally and usually. Negative wording is further emphasised by the use of capital letters, for example NOT, CANNOT. Candidates should not spend too much time on any one question. If they cannot make up their mind, they should leave the question and come back to it later. When all of the questions have been answered, it is prudent to use any remaining time to go through each question again, carefully, to double-check that nothing has been missed. Altering just one incorrect response to a correct response could make the difference between passing and failing. Before the Examination Before sitting the examination, please visit the preparation page on the CII website to familiarise yourself with the different requirements for sittings via remote invigilation and at an exam centre www.cii.co.uk/learning/qualifications/assessment-information/before-the-exam/ After the Examination Rigorous checks are made to ensure the correctness of the results issued. A pre-defined quota of passes to be awarded does not exist. If all candidates achieve a score of at least the pass mark, then all candidates will be awarded a pass grade. Individual feedback on the candidate’s examination performance is automatically provided and will indicate the result achieved and, for each syllabus learning outcome, the percentage of questions in the examination that were answered correctly. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 6  Award in General Insurance Objective At the end of this unit, candidates should be able to understand the: basic principles of insurance; main legal principles related to insurance contracts; main regulatory principles related to insurance business; key elements to protect consumers. Summary of learning outcomes Number of questions in the examination* 1. Understand the nature and main features of risk and insurance. 20 2. Know the structure and main features of the insurance market. 22 3. Understand the main legal principles governing insurance contracts. 42 4. Understand the main regulatory and legal principles applicable to the 14 transaction of insurance business. 5. Know key aspects of ethics, corporate governance and internal controls. 2 * The test specification has an in-built element of flexibility. It is designed to be used as a guide for study and is not a statement of actual number of questions that will appear in every exam. However, the number of questions testing each learning outcome will generally be within the range plus or minus 2 of the number indicated. Important notes Method of assessment: 100 multiple choice questions (MCQs). 2 hours are allowed for this examination. This syllabus will be examined from 1 May 2023 until 30 April 2024. This PDF document is accessible through screen reader attachments to your web browser and has been designed to be read via the speechify extension available on Chrome. Speechify is an extension that is available from https://speechify.com/. If for accessibility reasons you require this document in an alternative format, please contact us on [email protected] to discuss your needs. Candidates should refer to the CII website for the latest information on changes to law and practice and when they will be examined: 1. Visit www.cii.co.uk/qualifications 2. Select the appropriate qualification 3. Select your unit from the list provided 4. Select qualification update on the right hand side of the page Published February 2023 ©2023 The Chartered Insurance Institute. All rights reserved. W01 1. Understand the nature and main features 4.3 Understand the importance of combating financial of risk and insurance. crime. 1.1 Explain the concept of risk and risk perception. 4.4 Explain fraud and how it impacts the insurance industry. 1.2 Explain how different risks are categorised. 1.3 Explain the risk management function and process. 5. Know key aspects of ethics, corporate 1.4 Explain the components of risk. governance and internal controls. 1.5 Apply the principles of risk to a given set of 5.1 Explain the functions of the Chartered Insurance circumstances. Institute (CII). 1.6 Explain the need for insurance. 5.2 Explain the importance of the fair treatment of 1.7 Explain what is meant by co-insurance, dual customers and positive customer outcomes. insurance and self-insurance. 5.3 Understand the objectives of ‘fit and proper’ 1.8 Explain the main classes of insurance in outline. requirements and the risks of unsuitability. 5.4 Understand the importance of internal control 2. Know the structure and main features of systems. the insurance market. 2.1 Explain the way in which the insurance market is structured. 2.2 Explain the different types of insurers. 2.3 Explain the unique structure and main features of Lloyd’s. 2.4 Explain the different distribution channels used for the selling of insurance. 2.5 Explain the key roles within the insurance profession. 3. Understand the main legal principles governing insurance contracts. 3.1 Explain the essentials of a valid contract of insurance. 3.2 Explain how contracts of insurance can be terminated. 3.3 Explain the creation of an agency and how it is binding. 3.4 Describe the duties of an agent and the duties of a principal. 3.5 Explain the requirements for insurable interest in insurance contracts. 3.6 Explain how the principles of disclosure and representation apply to contracts of insurance. 3.7 Explain the definition of proximate cause and how it is applied to non-complex claims. 3.8 Explain the principle of indemnity and how it is provided under most insurance contracts. 3.9 Explain how the principle of indemnity can be modified by insurance contracts. 3.10 Explain underinsurance and average. 3.11 Explain the basic principle of contribution and how it applies to the sharing of claim payments in straightforward property cases. 3.12 Explain the principle of subrogation. 4. Understand the main regulatory and legal principles applicable to the transaction of insurance business. 4.1 Explain the importance of the regulation of the insurance industry. 4.2 Understand the importance of establishing and maintaining capital adequacy. Published February 2023 2 of 3 ©2023 The Chartered Insurance Institute. All rights reserved.  Reading list Examination guide If you have a current study text enrolment, The following list provides details of further reading which may assist you with your the current examination guide is included studies. and is accessible via Revisionmate (ciigroup.org/login). Details of how to access Note: The examination will test the syllabus alone. Revisionmate are on the first page of your study text. It is recommended that you only The reading list is provided for guidance study from the most recent version of the only and is not in itself the subject of the examination. examination guide. The resources listed here will help you keep up-to-date with developments and Exam technique/study skills provide a wider coverage of syllabus topics. There are many modestly priced guides available in bookshops. You should choose CII study texts one which suits your requirements. Award in General Insurance. London: CII. Coursebook W01. Books (and ebooks) A beginner's guide to the insurance profession. Johnsie Gladney. New Delhi: World Technologies, 2012.* Handbook of insurance. Georges Dionne. New York: Springer, 2013.* Insurance claims. 5th ed. Alison Padfield. Bloomsbury Professional, 2021. Insurance theory and practice. Rob Thoyts. Routledge, 2010.* Insurance law: an introduction. Robert Merkin. London: Routledge, 2014.* Research handbook on international insurance law and regulation. Julian Burling, Kevin Lazarus. London: Edward Elgar Publishing, 2011.* World insurance: the evolution of a global risk network. Peter Borscheid, Niels Viggo Haueter. Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2012.* Periodicals The Journal. London: CII. Six issues a year. Reference materials Concise encyclopedia of insurance terms. Laurence S. Silver, et al. New York: Routledge, 2010.* Dictionary of insurance. C Bennett. 2nd ed. London: Pearson Education, 2004. The insurance manual. Stourbridge, West Midlands: Insurance Publishing & Printing Co. Looseleaf, updated. The insurance manual. Sadler, John. Stourbridge, Worcs: Insurance Publishing & Printing Co. Looseleaf updated annually. Published February 2023 3 of 3 ©2023 The Chartered Insurance Institute. All rights reserved.  Examination Guide 1. Which type of risk arises from a cause outside the control of any one individual and affects a large number of people? A. A fundamental risk. B. A particular risk. C. A pure risk. D. A speculative risk. 2. By operating a pooling of risk system, the law of large numbers assists insurers to make reliable A. claim payment predictions. B. investment return predictions. C. new business predictions. D. sales income levels. 3. Lloyd’s syndicate A underwrites 60% of a risk, syndicate B underwrites 25% and syndicate C underwrites the remaining 15%. Collectively the syndicates are acting as A. coinsurers. B. composite insurers. C. dual insurers. D. reinsurers. 4. From an insurer’s point of view, risk can be defined as the A. certainty of loss. B. frequency of loss. C. measure of loss. D. possibility of loss. 5. Which category of risk has the three possible outcomes of a loss, a break even or a gain? A. A fundamental risk. B. A particular risk. C. A pure risk. D. A speculative risk. 6. Why do underwriters regard risk management as being important? A. It reduces the potential for loss and assists in quantifying risks. B. It is a fee-earning opportunity and always encourages customer loyalty. C. It is the only way to assess and quantify the sums insured at risk. D. It is the only way for an insurer to gain an understanding of a policyholder’s business. 7. In terms of frequency and severity, the risk of an explosion aboard an oil rig is classed by insurers as A. high frequency, high severity. B. high frequency, low severity. C. low frequency, low severity. D. low frequency, high severity. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 10  Examination Guide 8. In order to insure a risk in the general insurance market, a risk must be A. avoidable. B. fortuitous. C. inevitable. D. unavoidable. 9. What is the key factor which distinguishes a pure risk from a speculative risk? A. A pure risk excludes the possibility of a gain. B. A pure risk excludes consequential loss. C. A speculative risk excludes social and economic factors. D. A speculative risk excludes non-financial losses. 10. A hazard is defined as something which A. can adversely affect the risk to be insured. B. does not affect the risk to be insured. C. is always covered by an insurance policy. D. is always excluded from an insurance policy. 11. In relation to insurance, a peril is A. an event which may give rise to a loss. B. the chance of an event which may give rise to a loss. C. an internal feature that increases the chance of an event which may give rise to a loss. D. an external feature that increases the chance of an event which may give rise to a loss. 12. What is the presence of flammable composite panels in the construction of a factory building best described as? A. A fundamental risk. B. A hazard. C. A peril. D. A pure risk. 13. In financial terms, why is insurance, as a means of risk transfer, attractive to a policyholder? A. The policyholder’s premiums are never liable to be taxed. B. The policyholder is able to swap an unknown future loss with a specified cost now. C. The policyholder’s cash flow is always improved by the upfront payment of the premium. D. The policyholder’s premium is always less than potential future claims. 14. How does the provision of insurance help the cash flow of a business? A. It lessens the need for the business to keep cash reserves. B. It prevents losses from occurring which could interrupt business operations. C. It provides for the payment of cash if the business makes a trading loss. D. It underwrites the debts owed by the business. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 11  Examination Guide 15. The main benefit to an individual when insuring his house is that A. it reduces the chance of damage to the property. B. mortgage or rental costs are lower. C. maintenance costs are covered. D. the risk of a loss is transferred. 16. A large company has decided to set aside money to settle frequent small losses that occur. This is known as A. coinsurance. B. dual insurance. C. reinsurance. D. self-insurance. 17. A comprehensive policy is an example of which class of insurance? A. Motor insurance. B. Pecuniary insurance. C. Property insurance. D. Travel insurance. 18. Which type of insurance policy provides cover in the event of the misappropriation of goods by an employee? A. An employers’ liability insurance policy. B. A fidelity guarantee insurance policy. C. A money insurance policy. D. A business interruption insurance policy. 19. Dual insurance exists when A. more than one insurer shares the same risk. B. more than one policy covers the same risk. C. part of the risk is carried by a reinsurer. D. part of the risk is carried by the insured. 20. Which basic principle ensures the premium payable under a contents insurance policy is equitable and reflects the level of risk brought to the insurer? A. Contribution. B. Indemnity. C. Pooling. D. Subrogation. 21. What type of risk has widespread impact and the associated loss is often catastrophic? A. Fundamental risk. B. Particular risk. C. Pure risk. D. Speculative risk. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 12  Examination Guide 22. From whom might an individual seek assistance to place insurance? A. An insurance broker. B. A loss assessor. C. A risk manager. D. An underwriter. 23. A policyholder will employ a loss assessor primarily to A. advise on risk management issues. B. negotiate renewal terms. C. prepare and present an insurance claim. D. review his insurance cover. 24. Direct insurance companies operate via the internet, telephone or mail to which specific target audience A. advisers. B. agents. C. brokers. D. consumers. 25. A purchaser of a new refrigerator wishes to obtain extended warranty insurance cover for it. From where is he most likely to obtain the cover? A. A direct insurer. B. An insurer’s representative. C. A local insurance broker. D. The shop where the purchase was made. 26. When motor insurance is purchased directly from the internet, what is usually the main disadvantage to the policyholder when submitting a claim? A. A courtesy car is not available. B. The policy excess will be higher. C. There is no intermediary to assist him. D. The risk of losing a no claims discount will be greater. 27. The surplus funds of a mutual insurer may be distributed to the insurer’s A. intermediaries. B. policyholders. C. shareholders. D. third party suppliers. 28. Which type of insurer does NOT provide insurance to the general public? A. A captive insurer. B. A composite insurer. C. A mutual insurer. D. A proprietary insurer. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 13  Examination Guide 29. What are public limited companies who underwrite business within the Lloyd’s market otherwise known as? A. Corporate members. B. Lloyd’s broker. C. Managing Agents. D. Underwriting names. 30. What is the main financial advantage for insurers that operate on a direct basis? A. They do not have to pay commission charges. B. They incur smaller advertising costs. C. They receive fewer claims. D. They can charge higher premiums because they offer a faster service. 31. What does it mean when an insurance policy is reinsured? A. The insurer has replaced an insured’s existing policy with a new one. B. The insurer has passed on all or part of an insured’s risk to another insurer. C. The insured has renewed a policy with the same insurer for a subsequent year. D. The insured has taken out a second policy with another insurer on the same subject matter. 32. What type of business do reinsurers usually accept? A. Business from individuals who have already insured the risk with an insurer. B. Business from non-insurance companies with large insurance needs. C. Business originally underwritten by an insurer. D. Business which insurers have refused to underwrite. 33. Which insurance professional decides whether a proposed risk is accepted by an insurer? A. An actuary. B. A reinsurer. C. A risk manager. D. An underwriter. 34. Lloyd’s is A. a Government body. B. an insurance company. C. an insurance market. D. an insurance syndicate. 35. What is the main initial function of a call centre operative dealing with motor claims? A. Arranging ex-gratia payments. B. Assessing the extent of the damage to the insured’s vehicle. C. Recalculating premium levels if the insured driver was at fault. D. Taking down the first notification of loss details. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 14  Examination Guide 36. One of the main functions of claims personnel is to settle claims with a minimum of wastage or avoidable overpayments. What are these overpayments known as? A. Consideration. B. Leakage. C. Proximate cause. D. Subrogation. 37. What is the main function of an actuary? A. To apply mathematical techniques to assess the probability of an event occurring. B. To develop new insurance products based on market research data. C. To manage the insurer’s investment portfolio. D. To negotiate claim settlement with the insured on behalf of the insurer. 38. Who is specifically responsible for identifying areas within a business where potential losses could be controlled or eliminated? A. An actuary. B. A loss adjuster. C. A loss assessor. D. A risk manager. 39. What is a compliance officer’s primary responsibility? A. Delivering sales training to customer facing areas. B. Ensuring a firm complies with regulatory requirements. C. Identifying and analysing market trends. D. Ensuring accuracy of premium rates. 40. When presenting a client’s completed proposal form for home insurance to an insurer, the intermediary is acting as the agent of the A. broker. B. insurer. C. proposer. D. third party. 41. After investigating a liability claim for injury, from whom does the loss adjuster usually receive payment of fees? A. The insured. B. The insurer. C. The negligent third party. D. The third party insurer. 42. An insurer who has accepted a risk too large to retain can choose to insure part of the risk with A. an assignee. B. a cedant. C. a loss adjuster. D. a reinsurer. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 15  Examination Guide 43. What is the main function of an insurance broker? A. To assess the risk before cover is provided. B. To decide on what terms a proposed risk should be accepted by an insurer. C. To determine the validity and value of a large insurance claim. D. To place insurance business on behalf of a client. 44. Which insurance principle seeks to place the insured in the same position after an insured loss as existed immediately before? A. Contribution. B. Indemnity. C. Subrogation. D. Insurable Interest. 45. To whom does the principle of good faith apply in relation to insurance contracts? A. The proposer only. B. The insurer only. C. Both the insurer and the proposer. D. Any interested third party. 46. Under which insurance principle can an insurer assume the rights of the insured against a third party to recover money paid out under a claim? A. Arbitration. B. Average. C. Contribution. D. Subrogation. 47. The essentials of a valid contract of insurance are A. invitation to treat, acceptance and consideration. B. invitation to treat, offer and acceptance. C. invitation to treat, offer and consideration. D. offer, acceptance and consideration. 48. Who, if anyone, may terminate a household insurance policy? A. The insured only. B. The insurer only. C. Both the insured and the insurer. D. Neither the insured nor the insurer. 49. If a principal agrees to be bound by the actions of an agent after they have acted outside the terms of the agency agreement, what type of agency has been created? A. Agency by apparent authority. B. Agency by consent. C. Agency by necessity. D. Agency by ratification. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 16  Examination Guide 50. The actions of an agent have been written into the terms of an agency agreement. What authority, if any does this give the agent? A. Implied authority. B. Express authority. C. Ostensible authority. D. No authority. 51. Under the cancellation of risks section of an agency agreement, a statement is usually included requiring the intermediary to pay the insurer A. an early termination fee. B. a refund of any tax liability. C. an unexpired premium charge. D. any unearned commission. 52. What is insurable interest? A. The investment income received from insurance premiums. B. The interest from an investment, the loss of which can be insured against. C. The financial interest which a person has in an item. D. The interest payable on insurance instalments. 53. When must insurable interest first exist in order for a private motor insurance policy to be enforceable by law? A. At the time of the quotation. B. At the time the proposal form is completed. C. At the time the policy is issued. D. At the time of a claim. 54. An individual borrows his friend’s car on the condition that he arranges comprehensive insurance cover on the vehicle for himself. The individual’s broker informs him that he is unable to do so as he has no financial relationship with the vehicle. This is an example of the application of the A. contra proferentem rule. B. material damage proviso. C. principle of insurable interest. D. principle of good faith. 55. In what three ways can insurable interest arise? A. Common law, contract or statute. B. Common law, mediation or reinstatement. C. Conciliation, contract or mediation. D. Indemnity, statute or warranty. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 17  Examination Guide 56. The insurance principle which imposes a duty on the parties of a contract ‘not to misrepresent any matter relating to the insurance’ is known as A. assignment. B. insurable interest. C. legal personality. D. fair presentation. 57. In connection with an insurance policy, at what point does the duty of fair presentation first arise? A. At the beginning of negotiations. B. On the making of an offer. C. On the acceptance of an offer. D. At policy inception. 58. The requirement to notify a change of vehicle under a motor insurance policy is an example of a policy wording modifying the principle of A. contribution. B. indemnity. C. subrogation. D. good faith. 59. Under the duty of fair presentation, what is required to be disclosed by the proposer in relation to an insurance policy? A. Facts of law which affect the assessment of the risk. B. Financial details upon which ability to pay the premium can be assessed. C. Relevant information which affects the assessment of the risk. D. Personal requirements upon which the suitability of the policy can be assessed. 60. On an application for a theft insurance policy, the proposer advised the insurer that he only had a single Yale lock on the main entrance to the property to be insured. This information is an example of A. best advice. B. common interest. C. contract consideration. D. a fair presentation of risk. 61. In what circumstances may an insurer have the right to avoid paying a claim and to void a household contents insurance policy from inception? A. When a fraudulent non disclosure is discovered. B. When a premium instalment is not paid. C. When a second insurer is used by the insured. D. When the value of contents is mistakenly underestimated by the insured. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 18  Examination Guide 62. An insurer is in the process of settling a claim and has already made three interim payments of £300,000 each. Prior to payment of the final amount of £300,000, the loss adjuster discovers that the insured deliberately withheld relevant information pertinent to the claim. What is the maximum amount the insurer can recover from the insured? A. £300,000 B. £600,000 C. £900,000 D. £1,200,000 63. The proximate cause of a loss will always be the A. dominant cause. B. first cause. C. last cause. D. only cause. 64. An individual falls from his horse resulting in a minor injury. He is taken to hospital where he dies due to an infection caught at the hospital. What is the proximate cause of his death? A. The fall from his horse. B. The infection. C. Riding his horse. D. His stay in hospital. 65. In a road traffic accident a truck hits a tree, causing the tree to be deemed unsafe. The next day, before action can be taken to remove the tree, a gale blows it over onto a house. What is the proximate cause of the damage to the house? A. The location of the tree. B. The road traffic accident. C. The delay in tree removal. D. The gale. 66. Following a football match, 200 rival fans riot in the street setting fire to cars and breaking shop windows. The window of a boutique is broken and smoke from a burning car outside damages the stock. What is the proximate cause of the stock damage? A. The football match. B. The riot. C. The fire from the cars. D. The breakage of the boutique window. 67. Two personal accident insurance policies are effected. In respect of loss of limb cover, the first policy provides £25,000 and the second policy provides £30,000. What is the total amount that the insured will receive in the event of a valid loss of limb claim? A. £25,000 B. £27,500 C. £30,000 D. £55,000 W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 19  Examination Guide 68. Assuming that the sum insured is adequate, what is the measure of indemnity used in the case of the total loss of a building? A. The cost of reconstruction at the time of the loss. B. The cost of reconstruction at the time of policy inception. C. The original purchase price. D. The original purchase price less an allowance for wear and tear. 69. A machine, which is adequately insured on an indemnity basis, is destroyed by an insured peril. A new machine costs £1,000 and a second-hand machine £700. In both cases the cost of transport and installation is £100. How much will the insured receive? A. £700 B. £800 C. £1,000 D. £1,100 70. An aircraft is insured on an agreed value basis of £20,000,000. At policy inception the market value is £18,000,000 which then increases to £21,000,000 on the day the aircraft crashes and is a total loss. However, when the claim is agreed it has fallen to £19,000,000. How much is the airline entitled to receive for the loss? A. £18,000,000 B. £19,000,000 C. £20,000,000 D. £21,000,000 71. A supplier’s total stock, valued at £100,000, is insured against theft on a first loss basis with a sum insured of £20,000. If stock valued at £40,000 is stolen, what is the maximum amount payable, if any, by the insurer? A. Nil. B. £10,000 C. £20,000 D. £40,000 72. Under a household insurance policy, the reinstatement basis of cover is more commonly known as A. agreed value cover. B. first loss cover. C. new for old cover. D. underinsurance cover. 73. Garage buildings are valued at £200,000 and insured for £150,000 under an insurance policy which is subject to average. If a £50,000 insured loss is incurred, how much will the insurer pay? A. £12,500 B. £33,333 C. £37,500 D. £50,000 W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 20  Examination Guide 74. A factory contains £20,000 of stock and a fire destroys £12,000 of it. Under the standard fire insurance policy, which has a sum insured on stock of £10,000, what maximum amount, if any, will the insured receive after the application of average? A. £6,000 B. £8,000 C. £10,000 D. £12,000 75. A material fact is defined as a fact which A. an insurer would regard as likely to influence the acceptance and assessment of the risk. B. is relevant to the risk and which is not classed as confidential or sensitive. C. is specifically requested on the proposal form and which must be answered truthfully and comprehensively. D. the insured would not normally be expected to disclose. 76. Which insurance principle gives an insurer the right to call upon other insurers to share in the settling of a claim? A. Average. B. Contribution. C. Subrogation. D. Insurable Interest. 77. A building valued at £250,000 is jointly owned by Companies A and B, who each individually arrange insurance on it. Company A insures the building for £100,000, whilst Company B insures it for £150,000. How much of the valid claim is each insurer liable to pay if a loss of £55,000 occurs? A. Company A’s insurer is liable for £22,000 and Company B’s for £33,000. B. Company A’s insurer is liable for £27,500 and Company B’s for £27,500. C. Company A’s insurer is liable for £33,000 and Company B’s for £22,000. D. Company A’s insurer is liable for £55,000 and Company B’s for £55,000. 78. A cottage is valued at £100,000 and is covered by two fire insurance policies, one with a sum insured of £50,000 and the other with a sum insured of £100,000. Under the principle of contribution, what payment will the insured receive from the first policy if a fire causes damage costing £60,000 to repair? A. £20,000 B. £25,000 C. £30,000 D. £50,000 W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 21  Examination Guide 79. When a claim is made under a motor insurance policy following an accident, at what stage can an insurer begin to exercise subrogation rights? A. As soon as a valid claim is notified. B. As soon as any third party admits liability. C. As soon as settlement has been agreed. D. As soon as the insured has been paid. 80. An insurer pays a policyholder to repair the damage to his car caused by a vandal, who is later identified. What option can the insurer exercise to recover the claim paid? A. The arbitration clause. B. The average clause. C. The contribution condition. D. Its subrogation rights. 81. A television bought for £600 five years ago is insured on a new for old basis. It was recently damaged beyond repair, halfway through its useful life. An equivalent replacement would cost £450. How much would the insurer pay in the event of a valid claim? A. £225 B. £300 C. £450 D. £600 82. Prior to the inception of a motor insurance policy an insurer provided the policyholder with a list of exclusions, but failed to warn of one extra exclusion which subsequently appeared in the policy document. What principle of insurance has the insurer breached? A. Caveat emptor. B. Good faith. C. Proximate cause. D. Subrogation. 83. If an insured suffers a loss covered under his insurance policy, the measure of indemnity will ensure that he will be A. able to make a profit from the loss. B. in a worse financial position than before the loss. C. placed in the same financial position as he was before the loss. D. provided with replacement items in all cases. 84. The regulator is about to carry out a fit and proper assessment. This is most likely to relate to which specific aspect of its regulatory role? A. Authorisation. B. Compensation. C. Consumer education. D. Market discipline. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 22  Examination Guide 85. What term is given by the International Association of Insurance Supervisors (IAIS) to insurance professionals welcomed to this association? A. Insureds. B. Observers. C. Regulators. D. Third parties. 86. The four stated objectives of the Financial Action Task Force relate to clarifying standards, implementing standards, dealing with new threats and A. compensating relevant victims. B. reviewing money laundering and terrorist financing techniques. C. improving consumer awareness. D. recommending legislative changes. 87. What type of regulation, if any, requires the completion of tasks within a stated maximum number of days? A. No such regulation. B. Prescriptive-based regulation. C. Principles-based regulation. D. Risk-based regulation. 88. The two overriding objectives of the market conduct regulations in the general insurance market are to provide policyholders with a high level of security and to A. deter any attempts at money laundering activity. B. ensure the capital adequacy of intermediaries. C. help maintain confidence in the industry. D. maximise the professional knowledge of sales advisers. 89. Once action has been taken by an institution as a direct result of the regulator utilising a remedial tool, what is typically the next step in this process? A. Enforcement action. B. Investigation of cause. C. Public censure. D. Report on progress. 90. When the regulator carries out an inspection at an intermediary’s premises in order to identify any problems, what type of tool is this action normally described as? A. Diagnostic. B. Prescriptive. C. Quantitative. D. Remedial. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 23  Examination Guide 91. What key objective should an insurer satisfy to support the regulator’s capital adequacy requirements? A. Address the reasonable expectations of its shareholders. B. Avoid the need for reinsurance cover. C. Meet its obligations to policyholders. D. Minimise the risk of an underwriting loss. 92. Compared to other approaches, what is generally considered to be the main advantage of using the fixed ratio model method of determining capital adequacy levels? A. It focuses on the future rather than the present. B. It focuses on the severity rather than the likelihood of loss. C. It is relatively tax-efficient. D. It is simple to calculate and apply. 93. For the insurer concerned, the benefit of using internal models to calculate capital adequacy is A. a lack of flexibility. B. primarily being able to tailor it to their needs. C. it being simple to calculate and describe. D. the use of a ratio formula. 94. According to the Financial Action Task Force’s definition of money laundering, the aim of money laundering is to disguise what specifically in relation to the criminally obtained proceeds? A. Its current location. B. Its future destination. C. Its origin. D. Its size. 95. Fraud by brokers against an insurer or a policyholder is known as A. complaints-related fraud. B. intermediary fraud. C. internal fraud. D. policyholder fraud. 96. In the general insurance market, internal fraud means fraud normally committed by whom? A. Corporate stakeholders. B. Directors or employees of the insurer. C. Directors or employees of the intermediary. D. Policyholders. 97. What is the Chartered Insurance Institute? A. An arbitration authority. B. A professional body. C. A regulatory body. D. A trade association. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 24  Examination Guide 98. Best practice states that the head of an insurer’s internal audit department should be ultimately accountable to the A. appointed actuary. B. board of directors. C. compliance department. D. operational risk manager. 99. Which fit and proper requirement applies to key functionaries but NOT to significant owners? A. Financial soundness. B. Integrity demonstrated in personal behaviour and business conduct. C. Soundness of judgement. D. Sufficient degree of knowledge, experience and professional qualifications. 100. As part of an insurer’s complaints handling procedures, which complaints received should be logged? A. Only the complaints classed as serious or significant. B. Only the written complaints. C. All of the complaints except the ones which cannot be resolved. D. All of the complaints. W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 25  Examination Guide Specimen Examination Answers and Learning Outcomes Covered Learning Learning Learning Question Answer Question Answer Question Answer Outcome Outcome Outcome Learning Outcome 1 Learning Outcome 3 Learning Outcome 4 1 A 1.2 44 B 3.8 84 A 4.1 2 A 1.6 45 C 3.6 85 B 4.1 3 A 1.7 46 D 3.12 86 B 4.3 4 D 1.1 47 D 3.1 87 B 4.1 5 D 1.2 48 C 3.2 88 C 4.1 6 A 1.3 49 D 3.3 89 D 4.1 7 D 1.4 50 B 3.4 90 A 4.1 8 B 1.2 51 D 3.4 91 C 4.1 9 A 1.2 52 C 3.5 92 D 4.2 10 A 1.4 53 C 3.5 93 B 4.2 11 A 1.4 54 C 3.5 94 C 4.3 12 B 1.4 55 A 3.5 95 B 4.4 13 B 1.6 56 D 3.6 96 B 4.4 14 A 1.6 57 A 3.6 13 Questions 15 D 1.6 58 D 3.6 16 D 1.7 59 C 3.6 Learning Outcome 5 17 A 1.8 60 D 3.6 97 B 5.1 18 B 1.8 61 A 3.6 98 B 5.4 19 B 1.7 62 C 3.6 99 D 5.3 20 C 1.6 63 A 3.7 100 D 5.4 21 A 1.2 64 B 3.7 4 Questions 21 Questions 65 B 3.7 66 B 3.7 Learning Outcome 2 67 D 3.9 22 A 2.4 68 A 3.8 23 C 2.5 69 B 3.8 24 D 2.4 70 C 3.9 25 D 2.1 71 C 3.9 26 C 2.4 72 C 3.9 27 B 2.2 73 C 3.10 28 A 2.2 74 A 3.10 29 A 2.3 75 C 3.10 30 A 2.4 76 B 3.11 31 B 2.1 77 A 3.11 32 C 2.1 78 A 3.11 33 D 2.5 79 A 3.12 34 C 2.3 80 D 3.12 35 D 2.5 81 C 3.9 36 B 2.5 82 B 3.6 37 A 2.5 83 C 3.8 38 D 2.5 40 Questions 39 B 2.5 40 C 2.1 41 B 2.5 42 D 2.1 43 D 2.4 22 Questions W01 Examination Guide 2023/2024 26