JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 - Physics PDF

JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2 PART I-PHYSICS SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)...

JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2 PART I-PHYSICS SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)  This section contains SIX (06) questions.  Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).  For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.  Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen. Partial Marks : If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. Partial Marks : If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. Partial Marks : If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks : In all other cases.  For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in ‐2 marks. Q.1 A particle of mass is initially at rest at the origin. It is subjected to a force and starts moving along the -axis. Its kinetic energy changes with time as / , where is a positive constant of appropriate dimensions. Which of the following statements is (are) true? (A) The force applied on the particle is constant (B) The speed of the particle is proportional to time (C) The distance of the particle from the origin increases linearly with time (D) The force is conservative 1/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.2 Consider a thin square plate floating on a viscous liquid in a large tank. The height of the liquid in the tank is much less than the width of the tank. The floating plate is pulled horizontally with a constant velocity. Which of the following statements is (are) true? (A) The resistive force of liquid on the plate is inversely proportional to (B) The resistive force of liquid on the plate is independent of the area of the plate (C) The tangential (shear) stress on the floor of the tank increases with (D) The tangential (shear) stress on the plate varies linearly with the viscosity of the liquid Q.3 An infinitely long thin non-conducting wire is parallel to the -axis and carries a uniform line charge density. It pierces a thin non-conducting spherical shell of radius in such a way that the arc subtends an angle 120° at the centre of the spherical shell, as shown in the figure. The permittivity of free space is. Which of the following statements is (are) true? (A) The electric flux through the shell is √3 / (B) The -component of the electric field is zero at all the points on the surface of the shell (C) The electric flux through the shell is √2 / (D) The electric field is normal to the surface of the shell at all points 2/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.4 A wire is bent in the shape of a right angled triangle and is placed in front of a concave mirror of focal length , as shown in the figure. Which of the figures shown in the four options qualitatively represent(s) the shape of the image of the bent wire? (These figures are not to scale.) (A) (B) (C) (D) 3/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.5 In a radioactive decay chain, Th nucleus decays to Pb nucleus. Let and be the number of and particles, respectively, emitted in this decay process. Which of the following statements is (are) true? (A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 2 (D) 4 Q.6 In an experiment to measure the speed of sound by a resonating air column, a tuning fork of frequency 500 is used. The length of the air column is varied by changing the level of water in the resonance tube. Two successive resonances are heard at air columns of length 50.7 and 83.9. Which of the following statements is (are) true? (A) The speed of sound determined from this experiment is 332 (B) The end correction in this experiment is 0.9 (C) The wavelength of the sound wave is 66.4 (D) The resonance at 50.7 corresponds to the fundamental harmonic 4/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)  This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.  For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30) using the mouse and the on‐ screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.  Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : 3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases. Q.7 A solid horizontal surface is covered with a thin layer of oil. A rectangular block of mass 0.4 is at rest on this surface. An impulse of 1.0 is applied to the block at time / 0 so that it starts moving along the -axis with a velocity , where is a constant and 4. The displacement of the block, in , at is __________. Take 0.37. Q.8 A ball is projected from the ground at an angle of 45° with the horizontal surface. It reaches a maximum height of 120 and returns to the ground. Upon hitting the ground for the first time, it loses half of its kinetic energy. Immediately after the bounce, the velocity of the ball makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal surface. The maximum height it reaches after the bounce, in , is ___________. Q.9 A particle, of mass 10 and charge 1.0 , is initially at rest. At time 0, the particle comes under the influence of an electric field sin ̂, where 1.0 and 10. Consider the effect of only the electrical force on the particle. Then the maximum speed, in , attained by the particle at subsequent times is ____________. Q.10 A moving coil galvanometer has 50 turns and each turn has an area 2 10. The magnetic field produced by the magnet inside the galvanometer is 0.02. The torsional constant of the suspension wire is 10. When a current flows through the galvanometer, a full scale deflection occurs if the coil rotates by 0.2. The resistance of the coil of the galvanometer is 50. This galvanometer is to be converted into an ammeter capable of measuring current in the range 0 1.0. For this purpose, a shunt resistance is to be added in parallel to the galvanometer. The value of this shunt resistance, in , is __________. 5/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.11 A steel wire of diameter 0.5 and Young’s modulus 2 10 carries a load of mass. The length of the wire with the load is 1.0. A vernier scale with 10 divisions is attached to the end of this wire. Next to the steel wire is a reference wire to which a main scale, of least count 1.0 , is attached. The 10 divisions of the vernier scale correspond to 9 divisions of the main scale. Initially, the zero of vernier scale coincides with the zero of main scale. If the load on the steel wire is increased by 1.2 , the vernier scale division which coincides with a main scale division is __________. Take 10 and 3.2. Q.12 One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes an adiabatic expansion in which its volume becomes eight times its initial value. If the initial temperature of the gas is 100 and the universal gas constant 8.0 , the decrease in its internal energy, in , is__________. Q.13 In a photoelectric experiment a parallel beam of monochromatic light with power of 200 is incident on a perfectly absorbing cathode of work function 6.25. The frequency of light is just above the threshold frequency so that the photoelectrons are emitted with negligible kinetic energy. Assume that the photoelectron emission efficiency is 100%. A potential difference of 500 is applied between the cathode and the anode. All the emitted electrons are incident normally on the anode and are absorbed. The anode experiences a force 10 due to the impact of the electrons. The value of is __________. Mass of the electron 9 10 and 1.0 1.6 10. Q.14 Consider a hydrogen-like ionized atom with atomic number with a single electron. In the emission spectrum of this atom, the photon emitted in the 2 to 1 transition has energy 74.8 higher than the photon emitted in the 3 to 2 transition. The ionization energy of the hydrogen atom is 13.6. The value of is __________. 6/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)  This section contains FOUR (04) questions.  Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II.  FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.  For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.  For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : 3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks : 1 In all other cases. Q.15 The electric field is measured at a point 0, 0, generated due to various charge distributions and the dependence of on is found to be different for different charge distributions. List-I contains different relations between E and. List-II describes different electric charge distributions, along with their locations. Match the functions in List-I with the related charge distributions in List-II. LIST–I LIST–II P. is independent of 1. A point charge at the origin 2. A small dipole with point charges at Q. ∝ 0, 0, and – at 0, 0,. Take 2 ≪ R. ∝ 3. An infinite line charge coincident with the -axis, with uniform linear charge S. ∝ density 4. Two infinite wires carrying uniform linear charge density parallel to the - axis. The one along 0, has a charge density and the one along 0, has a charge density –. Take 2 ≪ 5. Infinite plane charge coincident with the -plane with uniform surface charge density (A) P → 5; Q → 3, 4; R → 1; S→2 (B) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 4; S→2 (C) P → 5; Q → 3; R → 1, 2; S→4 (D) P → 4; Q → 2, 3; R → 1; S→5 7/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.16 A planet of mass , has two natural satellites with masses and. The radii of their circular orbits are and respectively. Ignore the gravitational force between the satellites. Define , , and to be, respectively, the orbital speed, angular momentum, kinetic energy and time period of revolution of satellite 1; and , , and to be the corresponding quantities of satellite 2. Given / 2 and / 1/4, match the ratios in List-I to the numbers in List-II. LIST–I LIST–II P. 1. 2. 1 Q. 3. 2 4. 8 R. S. (A) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S→3 (B) P → 3; Q → 2; R → 4; S→1 (C) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S→4 (D) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S→1 8/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.17 One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes four thermodynamic processes as shown schematically in the -diagram below. Among these four processes, one is isobaric, one is isochoric, one is isothermal and one is adiabatic. Match the processes mentioned in List-1 with the corresponding statements in List-II. LIST–I LIST–II P. In process I 1. Work done by the gas is zero Q. In process II 2. Temperature of the gas remains unchanged 3. No heat is exchanged between the gas and R. In process III its surroundings S. In process IV 4. Work done by the gas is 6 (A) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S→2 (B) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S→4 (C) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S→2 (D) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S→1 9/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.18 In the List-I below, four different paths of a particle are given as functions of time. In these functions, and are positive constants of appropriate dimensions and. In each case, the force acting on the particle is either zero or conservative. In List-II, five physical quantities of the particle are mentioned: is the linear momentum, is the angular momentum about the origin, is the kinetic energy, is the potential energy and is the total energy. Match each path in List-I with those quantities in List-II, which are conserved for that path. LIST–I LIST–II P. ̂ ̂ 1. Q. cos ̂ sin ̂ 2. R. cos ̂ sin ̂ 3. S. ̂ ̂ 4. U 5. E (A) P → 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; Q → 2, 5; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S→5 (B) P → 1, 2, 3, 4, 5; Q → 3, 5; R → 2, 3, 4, 5; S → 2, 5 (C) P → 2, 3, 4; Q → 5; R → 1, 2, 4; S → 2, 5 (D) P → 1, 2, 3, 5; Q → 2, 5; R →2, 3, 4, 5; S → 2, 5 10/10 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 JEE (ADVANCED) 2018 PAPER 2 PART II-CHEMISTRY SECTION 1 (Maximum Marks: 24)  This section contains SIX (06) questions.  Each question has FOUR options for correct answer(s). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are) correct option(s).  For each question, choose the correct option(s) to answer the question.  Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen. Partial Marks : If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen. Partial Marks : If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen, both of which are correct options. Partial Marks : If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is a correct option. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks : In all other cases.  For Example: If first, third and fourth are the ONLY three correct options for a question with second option being an incorrect option; selecting only all the three correct options will result in +4 marks. Selecting only two of the three correct options (e.g. the first and fourth options), without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +2 marks. Selecting only one of the three correct options (either first or third or fourth option) ,without selecting any incorrect option (second option in this case), will result in +1 marks. Selecting any incorrect option(s) (second option in this case), with or without selection of any correct option(s) will result in ‐2 marks. Q.1 The correct option(s) regarding the complex [Co(en)(NH3)3(H2O)]3+ (en = H2NCH2CH2NH2) is (are) (A) It has two geometrical isomers (B) It will have three geometrical isomers if bidentate ‘en’ is replaced by two cyanide ligands (C) It is paramagnetic (D) It absorbs light at longer wavelength as compared to [Co(en)(NH3)4]3+ Q.2 The correct option(s) to distinguish nitrate salts of Mn2+ and Cu2+ taken separately is (are) (A) Mn2+ shows the characteristic green colour in the flame test (B) Only Cu2+ shows the formation of precipitate by passing H2S in acidic medium (C) Only Mn2+ shows the formation of precipitate by passing H2S in faintly basic medium (D) Cu2+/Cu has higher reduction potential than Mn2+/Mn (measured under similar conditions) 1/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.3 Aniline reacts with mixed acid (conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4) at 288 K to give P (51 %), Q (47%) and R (2%). The major product(s) of the following reaction sequence is (are) (A) (B) (C) (D) 2/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.4 The Fischer presentation of D-glucose is given below. The correct structure(s) of β-L-glucopyranose is (are) (A) (B) (D) (C) 3/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.5 For a first order reaction A(g) → 2B(g) + C(g) at constant volume and 300 K, the total pressure at the beginning ( = 0) and at time are and , respectively. Initially, only A is present with concentration [A]0, and 1/3 is the time required for the partial pressure of A to reach 1/3rd of its initial value. The correct option(s) is (are) (Assume that all these gases behave as ideal gases) (A) (B) (C) (D) 4/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.6 For a reaction, A ⇌ P, the plots of [A] and [P] with time at temperatures T1 and T2 are given below. If > , the correct statement(s) is (are) (Assume ∆ Ɵ and ∆ Ɵ are independent of temperature and ratio of lnK at to lnK at is greater than. Here H, S, G and K are enthalpy, entropy, Gibbs energy and equilibrium constant, respectively.) Ɵ Ɵ (A) ∆ < 0, ∆ 0 Ɵ Ɵ (C) ∆ < 0, ∆ 0 5/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 SECTION 2 (Maximum Marks: 24)  This section contains EIGHT (08) questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE.  For each question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second decimal place; e.g. 6.25, 7.00, ‐0.33, ‐.30, 30.27, ‐127.30) using the mouse and the on‐ screen virtual numeric keypad in the place designated to enter the answer.  Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : 3 If ONLY the correct numerical value is entered as answer. Zero Marks : 0 In all other cases. Q.7 The total number of compounds having at least one bridging oxo group among the molecules given below is ____. N2O3, N2O5, P4O6, P4O7, H4P2O5, H5P3O10, H2S2O3, H2S2O5 Q.8 Galena (an ore) is partially oxidized by passing air through it at high temperature. After some time, the passage of air is stopped, but the heating is continued in a closed furnace such that the contents undergo self-reduction. The weight (in kg) of Pb produced per kg of O2 consumed is ____. (Atomic weights in g mol1: O = 16, S = 32, Pb = 207) Q.9 To measure the quantity of MnCl2 dissolved in an aqueous solution, it was completely converted to KMnO4 using the reaction, MnCl2 + K2S2O8 + H2O  KMnO4 + H2SO4 + HCl (equation not balanced). Few drops of concentrated HCl were added to this solution and gently warmed. Further, oxalic acid (225 mg) was added in portions till the colour of the permanganate ion disappeared. The quantity of MnCl2 (in mg) present in the initial solution is ____. (Atomic weights in g mol−1: Mn = 55, Cl = 35.5) 6/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.10 For the given compound X, the total number of optically active stereoisomers is ____. Q.11 In the following reaction sequence, the amount of D (in g) formed from 10 moles of acetophenone is ____. (Atomic weights in g mol1: H = 1, C = 12, N = 14, O = 16, Br = 80. The yield (%) corresponding to the product in each step is given in the parenthesis) 7/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.12 The surface of copper gets tarnished by the formation of copper oxide. N2 gas was passed to prevent the oxide formation during heating of copper at 1250 K. However, the N2 gas contains 1 mole % of water vapour as impurity. The water vapour oxidises copper as per the reaction given below: 2Cu(s) + H2O(g)  Cu2O(s) + H2(g) is the minimum partial pressure of H2 (in bar) needed to prevent the oxidation at 1250 K. The value of ln is ____. (Given: total pressure = 1 bar, R (universal gas constant) = 8 J K−1 mol−1, ln(10) = 2.3. Cu(s) and Cu2O(s) are mutually immiscible. Ɵ At 1250 K: 2Cu(s) + ½ O2(g)  Cu2O(s); ∆ = − 78,000 J mol−1 Ɵ H2(g) + ½ O2(g)  H2O(g); ∆ = − 1,78,000 J mol−1; G is the Gibbs energy) Q.13 Consider the following reversible reaction, A g B g ⇌ AB g. The activation energy of the backward reaction exceeds that of the forward reaction by 2 (in J mol−1). If the pre-exponential factor of the forward reaction is 4 times that of the reverse Ɵ reaction, the absolute value of ∆ (in J mol−1) for the reaction at 300 K is ____. (Given; ln(2) = 0.7, = 2500 J mol−1 at 300 K and G is the Gibbs energy) Q.14 Consider an electrochemical cell: A(s) | An+ (aq, 2 M) || B2n+ (aq, 1 M) | B(s). The Ɵ Ɵ value of ∆ for the cell reaction is twice that of ∆ at 300 K. If the emf of the cell is zero, Ɵ the ∆ (in J K−1 mol−1) of the cell reaction per mole of B formed at 300 K is ____. (Given: ln(2) = 0.7, (universal gas constant) = 8.3 J K−1 mol−1. H, S and G are enthalpy, entropy and Gibbs energy, respectively.) 8/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 SECTION 3 (Maximum Marks: 12)  This section contains FOUR (04) questions.  Each question has TWO (02) matching lists: LIST‐I and LIST‐II.  FOUR options are given representing matching of elements from LIST‐I and LIST‐II. ONLY ONE of these four options corresponds to a correct matching.  For each question, choose the option corresponding to the correct matching.  For each question, marks will be awarded according to the following marking scheme: Full Marks : 3 If ONLY the option corresponding to the correct matching is chosen. Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i.e. the question is unanswered). Negative Marks : 1 In all other cases. Q.15 Match each set of hybrid orbitals from LIST–I with complex(es) given in LIST–II. LIST–I LIST–II P. dsp2 1. [FeF6]4− Q. sp3 2. [Ti(H2O)3Cl3] R. sp3d2 3. [Cr(NH3)6]3+ S. d2sp3 4. [FeCl4]2− 5. Ni(CO)4 6. [Ni(CN)4]2− The correct option is (A) P → 5; Q → 4,6; R → 2,3; S → 1 (B) P → 5,6; Q → 4; R → 3; S → 1,2 (C) P → 6; Q → 4,5; R → 1; S → 2,3 (D) P → 4,6; Q → 5,6; R → 1,2; S → 3 9/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.16 The desired product X can be prepared by reacting the major product of the reactions in LIST-I with one or more appropriate reagents in LIST-II. (given, order of migratory aptitude: aryl > alkyl > hydrogen) The correct option is (A) P → 1; Q → 2,3; R → 1,4; S → 2,4 (B) P → 1,5; Q → 3,4; R → 4,5; S → 3 (C) P → 1,5; Q → 3,4; R → 5; S → 2,4 (D) P → 1,5; Q → 2,3; R → 1,5; S → 2,3 10/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.17 LIST-I contains reactions and LIST-II contains major products. Match each reaction in LIST-I with one or more products in LIST-II and choose the correct option. (A) P → 1,5; Q → 2; R → 3; S→4 (B) P → 1,4; Q → 2; R → 4; S→3 (C) P → 1,4; Q → 1,2; R → 3,4; S → 4 (D) P → 4,5; Q → 4; R → 4; S → 3,4 11/12 JEE (Advanced) 2018 Paper 2 Q.18 Dilution processes of different aqueous solutions, with water, are given in LIST-I. The effects of dilution of the solutions on [H+] are given in LIST-II. (Note: Degree of dissociation () of weak acid and weak base is