20 Mock Tests 2024 PDF

CAT 2024 20 Full Mock Tests & Explanations Mock Test 1 3 Mock Test 2 52 Mock Test 3 104 Mock Test 4 142 Mock Test 5 178 Mock Test 6 221 Mock Test 7 265 Mock Test 8 307 Mock Test 9 345 Mock Test 10 382 Mock Test 11 422 Mock Test 12 464 M...

CAT 2024 20 Full Mock Tests & Explanations Mock Test 1 3 Mock Test 2 52 Mock Test 3 104 Mock Test 4 142 Mock Test 5 178 Mock Test 6 221 Mock Test 7 265 Mock Test 8 307 Mock Test 9 345 Mock Test 10 382 Mock Test 11 422 Mock Test 12 464 Mock Test 13 515 Mock Test 14 565 Mock Test 15 608 Mock Test 16 659 Mock Test 17 698 Mock Test 18 745 Mock Test 19 789 Mock Test 20 832 2  MOCK TEST - 1 Section - 1 - Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension Directions for Questions 1 to 4: Read the passage given below and answer the questions with the most appropriate choice. Passage 1 Imagine, if it's possible, that Jeremy Paxman and Matthew Parris are recorded on tape advising a corporate lobbyist how to get her favoured MP into the coalition cabinet. Then imagine that this MP is accused of defrauding the national exchequer of billions of pounds. This is the scandal that unfolded in India last week – more disturbing and revealing for the Indian public than anything from WikiLeaks. In addition to this story, in one of the audio recordings intercepted by India's income tax department, Vir Sanghvi, a leading TV host, is heard offering his services to Niira Radia, a lobbyist for two of India's biggest corporate houses, the Tatas and Reliance Industries. "What kind of story do you want?" Sanghvi asks Radia, and goes on to offer a "fully scripted" and "rehearsed" television interview to her client, Mukesh Ambani, India's richest man. Another tape has Barkha Dutt – who hosts a popular TV show called We, the People – can also be heard offering to relay messages from Radia to politicians whom Radia wants to influence in the process of forming a cabinet. Radia's candidate – A Raja – did indeed go on to become the telecommunications minister. He now stands accused of depriving the national exchequer of $39bn by selling mobile phone "2G spectrum" bandwidth cheaply to, among other telecom companies, Tata – represented by Radia. Under pressure from opposition parties and the supreme court, Raja resigned last month. The journalists caught on tape have preferred to brazen it out, insisting that they were only squeezing a likely source for information. At first it seemed they might get away with it when such high-circulation mainstream newspapers as the Times of India and the Hindustan Times refused to cover the scandal. But public anger, amplified by the internet, may now be making the censorship unsustainable. Yesterday Dutt appeared on her own TV channel, claiming she was guilty of nothing more than an "error of judgment". Her prickly defence – that only a naive journalist would see something newsworthy in the oversized influence of corporate lobbyists on political processes – pointed to a deeper rot in the New India beloved of globalised elites. As Sonia Gandhi, the Congress party leader, put it: the country's economy may "increasingly be dynamic, but our moral universe seems to be shrinking... The principles on which Independent India was founded, for which a generation of great leaders fought and sacrificed their all, are in danger of being negated." It is too easy, however, to focus on the moral obtuseness of a few journalists and businessmen. A broader consensus exists within the middle class beneficiaries of India's economy, a wider culture of deference to powerful and wealthy people, and intolerance and meanness towards the poor and defenceless, and their few articulate advocates. Mainstream journalists too have succumbed to this political pathology. What the tapes reveal most vividly is not spectacular corruption – not exactly news – so much as why the supposed watchdogs of democracy have assumed the militant aggressiveness and vanity of the very privileged in a wretchedly poor country. 3 Ratan Tata, whose conversations with Radia were also recorded, now complains that India is turning into a "banana republic". But Tata's own praise of Modi signified the ethical deficit among India's rich and powerful. Certainly, Sanghvi sounded like a Latin American oligarchist when, criticising the US decision to deny Modi a visa, he argued: "Modi may be a mass murderer. But he is our mass murderer." Claiming to speak for the "educated Indian middle class", Sanghvi asserted that "we are entirely justified in being angered" by Arundhati Roy's recent remarks on India's military occupation of Kashmir. Marvelling at a "concept of Indian unity" that endorses extrajudicial execution and torture, the social psychologist Ashis Nandy recently wondered if there was "a large enough section of India's much-vaunted middle class fully sensitive to the demands of democracy". Or could it be that, far from upholding progressive values, many exalted Indians, including journalists, will do anything to protect "their new-found social status and political clout"? Certainly, these revelations and their attempted suppression by mainstream media not only validate Nandy's grim diagnosis. They also confirm his suspicion that, notwithstanding the anarchist culture of WikiLeaks, the future of censorship in India is "very bright". Q. 1. The concluding sentence of the passage is not: A. a despondent remark about the future of Indian media and how he sees no hope for the future. B. a sardonic reference to the current state of affairs and the possibility of information suppression in India through censorship. C. a profound observation regarding the distinction between the Indian Media and WikiLeaks. D. An effort to elucidate the future of the media in India and how it will follow in the footsteps of Wikileaks Q. 2. The principal objective of the author of the passage is: A. to bring attention to the cronyism that pervades the media as a whole and how it undermines the very foundations of democracy. B. to describe the working of Indian democracy and the function of the media in the larger picture. C. to demonstrate how business and the media are working together closely to act as tools of subversion against India's democratic procedures. D. to express his own grievances against the Indian media. Q. 3. Paraphrase: ‘Mainstream journalists too have succumbed to this political pathology’? A. Journalists share the same desires as politicians. B. Journalists have succumbed to the same biases and maladies as politicians. C. Journalists have given in to the mandates of politicians and are now plagued with the same maladies. D. Journalists have lost the ability to distinguish between the good and the evil. Q. 4. What does the author mean by 'watchdogs of democracy'? A. members of the democratic process B. those who safeguard the democratic process C. antagonists of the democratic procedure D. curators of sensitive elements of the democratic process. 4 Directions for Questions 5 to 8: Read the passage given below and answer the questions with the most appropriate choice. Passage 2 It’s time to take a look at the line between “pet” and “animal.” When the ASPCA sends an agent to the home of a Brooklyn family to arrest one of its members for allegedly killing a hamster, something is wrong. That “something” is this: we protect “companion animals” like hamsters while largely ignoring what amounts to the torture of chickens and cows and pigs. In short, if I keep a pig as a pet, I can’t kick it. If I keep a pig I intend to sell for food, I can pretty much torture it. State laws known as “Common Farming Exemptions” allow industry — rather than lawmakers — to make any practice legal as long as it’s common. “In other words,” as Jonathan Safran Foer, the author of “Eating Animals,” wrote to me via e-mail, “the industry has the power to define cruelty. It’s every bit as crazy as giving burglars the power to define trespassing.” Meanwhile, there are pet police. So when 19-year-old Monique Smith slammed her sibling’s hamster on the floor and killed it, as she may have done in a fit of rage last week, an ASPCA agent — there are 18 of them, busily responding to animal cruelty calls in the five boroughs and occasionally beyond — arrested her. In light of the way most animals are treated in this country, I’m pretty sure that ASPCA agents don’t need to spend their time in Brooklyn defending rodents. In fact, there’s no rationality to be found here. Just a few blocks from Ms. Smith’s home, along the M subway line, the city routinely is poisoning rodents as quickly and futilely as it possibly can, though rats can be pets as well. But that’s hardly the point. This is: we “process” (that means kill) nearly 10 billion animals annually in this country, approximately one-sixth of the world’s total. Many, if not most, of these animals are raised (or not, since probably a couple of hundred million are killed at birth) industrially, in conditions that the philosopher Peter Singer and others have compared to concentration camps. Might we more usefully police those who keep egg-laying hens in cages so small the birds can’t open their wings, for example, than anger-management-challenged young people accused of hamstercide? Yet Ms. Smith was charged as a felon, because in New York (and there are similar laws in other states) if you kick a dog or cat or hamster or, I suppose, a guppy, enough to “cause extreme physical pain” or do so “in an especially depraved or sadistic manner” you may be guilty of aggravated cruelty to animals, as long as you do this “with no justifiable purpose.” But thanks to Common Farming Exemptions, as long as I “raise” animals for food and it’s done by my fellow “farmers” (in this case, manufacturers might be a better word), I can put around 200 million male chicks a year through grinders, castrate — mostly without anesthetic — 65 million calves and piglets a year, breed sick animals (don’t forget: more than half a billion eggs were recalled last summer, from just two Iowa farms) who in turn breed antibiotic-resistant bacteria, allow those sick animals to die without individual veterinary care, imprison animals in cages so small they cannot turn around, skin live animals, or kill animals en masse to stem disease outbreaks. All of this is legal, because we will eat them. We have “justifiable purposes”: pleasure, convenience — there are few things more filling per dollar than a cheeseburger — and of course corporate profits. Arguing for the freedom to eat as much meat as you want is equivalent to arguing for treating farm animals as if they could not feel pain. Yet no one would defend Ms. Smith’s cruel action because it was a pet and therefore not born to be put through living hell. Is it really that bad? After all, a new video from Smithfield, the world’s largest pork producer, makes industrial pig-raising seem like a little bit of heaven. But undercover videos from the Humane Society of the United States tell quite a different story, and a repulsive one. 5 Our fantasy is that until the industrial era domesticated animals were treated decently. Maybe that’s true, and maybe it isn’t; but certainly they weren’t turned out by the tens of thousands as if they were widgets. We’re finally seeing some laws that take the first steps toward generally ameliorating cruelty to farm animals, and it’s safe to say that most of today’s small farmers and even some larger ones raise animals humanely. These few, at least, are treated with as much respect as the law believes we should treat a hamster. For the majority of non-pets, though, it’s tough luck. Q. 5. The principal objective of the author of the passage is: A. to demonstrate the disparities between the treatment of pet animals and eating animals, and the need for a standardised approach to both groups. B. to emphasise the absurdity of the treatment of pet owners and the need to repeal the laws governing this treatment. C. to demonstrate the absurdity of industrial farming practises, the hypocrisy of our treatment of pet animals and eating animals, and the need for a more considerate approach. D. to emphasise the problems facing the farming sector and how they are eternally in the centre of the storm, whatever the reason. Q. 6. Which of the following practices are analogous to the reasoning behind the state laws referred to in the passage as "Common Farming Exemptions"? I. If people across the entire state have grown accustomed to taking natural drugs and substances that intoxicate such as weed, it should be legalised. II. If a large percentage of drivers in an area in question regularly commit parking violations and park on the street, these practices should be made legitimate. III. If moonshine products are readily available on the open market for additional money, then selling them ought to be deemed legitimate. A. I & III only B. I only C. II only D. I & II Q 7. The appropriate title for the passage is: A. Animal versus Animal: who will come out on top? B. Animals and their appeal for Equality C. Animals must take matters into their own hands! D. Some Animals Have Greater Equality Than Others Q. 8. Which of the following statements does the author of the passage concur with? A. We ought to advocate for the freedom to consume as much meat as you want, as human consumption is an issue that must be addressed first. B. The inhumane treatment of Miss Smith's pet should not be justified, and she should be seriously admonished. C. We should treat animals with greater respect and raise fewer of them; this would reduce the amount we consume naturally. In general, the situation is better for us, the animals, and the entire globe. D. We have justifiable motives for killing farm animals, such as glee, functionality, and financial gain. 6 Directions for Questions 9 to 12: Read the passage given below and answer the questions with the most appropriate choice. Passage 3 Darwin's work has the property of greatness in that it may be admired from more aspects than one. For some the perception of the principle of Natural Selection stands out as his most wonderful achievement to which all the rest is subordinate. Others, among whom I would range myself, look up to him rather as the first who plainly distinguished, collected, and comprehensively studied that new class of evidence from which hereafter a true understanding of the process of Evolution may be developed. We each prefer our own standpoint of admiration; but I think that it will be in their wider aspect that his labours will most command the veneration of posterity. A treatise written to advance knowledge may be read in two moods. The reader may keep his mind passive, willing merely to receive the impression of the writer's thought; or he may read with his attention strained and alert, asking at every instant how the new knowledge can be used in a further advance, watching continually for fresh footholds by which to climb higher still. Of Shelley it has been said that he was a poet for poets: so Darwin was a naturalist for naturalists. It is when his writings are used in the critical and more exacting spirit with which we test the outfit for our own enterprise that we learn their full value and strength. Whether we glance back and compare his performance with the efforts of his predecessors, or look forward along the course which modern research is disclosing, we shall honour most in him not the rounded merit of finite accomplishment, but the creative power by which he inaugurated a line of discovery endless in variety and extension. Let us attempt thus to see his work in true perspective between the past from which it grew, and the present which is its consequence. Darwin attacked the problem of Evolution by reference to facts of three classes: Variation; Heredity; Natural Selection. His work was not as the laity suppose, a sudden and unheralded revelation, but the first fruit of a long and hitherto barren controversy. The occurrence of variation from type, and the hereditary transmission of such variation had of course been long familiar to practical men, and inferences as to the possible bearing of those phenomena on the nature of specific difference had been from time to time drawn by naturalists. Maupertuis, for example, wrote: "Ce qui nous reste à examiner, c'est comment d'un seulindividu, il a punaîtretantd'espècessidifférentes." And again: "La Nature contient le fonds de toutescesvariétés: mais le hasardoul'art les mettent en œuvre. C'estainsiqueceuxdontl'industries'applique à satisfaire le goût des curieux, sont, pour ainsi dire, créateursd'espècesnouvelles." Such passages, of which many (though few so emphatic) can be found in eighteenth century writers, indicate a true perception of the mode of Evolution. The speculations hinted at by Buffon, developed by Erasmus Darwin, and independently proclaimed above all by Lamarck, gave to the doctrine of descent a wide renown. The uniformitarian teaching which Lyell deduced from geological observation had gained acceptance. The facts of geographical distribution had been shown to be obviously inconsistent with the Mosaic legend. Prichard, and Lawrence, following the example of Blumenbach, had successfully demonstrated that the races of Man could be regarded as different forms of one species, contrary to the opinion up till then received. These treatises all begin, it is true, with a profound obeisance to the sons of Noah, but that performed, they continue on strictly modern lines. The question of the mutability of species was thus prominently raised. Q. 9. The phrase 'veneration of posterity', as used in the passage, alludes to: A. stature and respect acquired in society B. respect of generations to come C. respect of one's contemporaries; D. observable stature and respect earned in current society. 7 Q. 10. It can be inferred from the passage that the author means the following when he states, "Darwin was a naturalist for naturalists": A. Darwin's writing style was organic, making him easy to grasp and assimilate. B. Darwin was a natural in his own discipline, which was apparent in his work. C. Darwin's work was put together in a way that demanded expertise from those around him. D. Darwin's work was so complicated that even his fellow naturalists battled to fathom it. Q. 11. The author uses the passage attributed to Maupertuis to illustrate: A. how Darwin was the first to conceive the theory of natural selection B. how evolution had been thoroughly comprehended by the previous generation of authors C. how the generations before Darwin contributed to the overall depth of the subject. D. Only the authors of the 18th century had a genuine understanding of Evolution's mode. Q.12. Except as noted, the author of the passage adopts each of the following positions regarding Darwin: A. unmitigated acclaim B. informed admiration C. pejorative recognition D. revered acclaim Directions for Questions 13 to 16: Read the passage given below and answer the questions with the most appropriate choice. Passage 4 Every living creature was at some stage of its life nothing more than a single cell. It is generally known that human beings result from the union of an egg-cell and a sperm-cell, but it is not so universally understood that these germ-cells are part of a continuous stream of germ-plasm which has been in existence ever since the appearance of life on the globe, and which is destined to continue in existence as long as life remains on the globe. The corollaries of this fact are of great importance. Early investigators tended naturally to look on the germ-cells as a product of the body. Being supposedly products of the body, it was natural to think that they would in some measure reproduce the character of the body which created them; and Darwin elaborated an ingenious hypothesis to explain how the various characters could be represented in the germ-cell. The idea held by him, in common with most other thinkers of his period, is still held more or less unconsciously by those who have not given particular attention to the subject. Generation is conceived as a direct chain: the body produces the germ-cell which produces another body which in turn produces another germ-cell, and so on. But a generation ago this idea fell under suspicion. August Weismann, professor of zoölogy in the University of Freiburg, Germany, made himself the champion of the new idea, about 1885, and developed it so effectively that it is now a part of the creed of nearly every biologist. Weismann caused a general abandonment of the idea that the germ-cell is produced by the body in each generation, and popularized the conception of the germ-cell as a product of a stream of undifferentiated germ-plasm, not only continuous but (potentially at least) immortal. The body does not produce the germ-cells, he pointed out; instead, the germ-cells produce the body. 8 The basis of this theory can best be understood by a brief consideration of the reproduction of very simple organisms. "Death is the end of life," is the belief of many other persons than the Lotus Eaters. It is commonly supposed that everything which lives must eventually die. But study of a one-celled animal, an Infusorian, for example, reveals that when it reaches a certain age it pinches in two, and each half becomes an Infusorian in all appearance identical with the original cell. Has the parent cell then died? It may rather be said to survive, in two parts. Each of these daughter cells will in turn go through the same process of reproduction by simple fission, and the process will be continued in their descendants. The Infusorian can be called potentially immortal, because of this method of reproduction. The immortality, as Weismann pointed out, is not of the kind attributed by the Greeks to their gods, who could not die because no wound could destroy them. On the contrary, the Infusorian is extremely fragile, and is dying by millions at every instant; but if circumstances are favorable, it can live on; it is not inevitably doomed to die sooner or later, as is Man. "It dies from accident often, from old age never." Now the single-celled Infusorian is in many respects comparable with the single-celled germ of the higher animals. The analogy has often been carried too far; yet it remains indisputable that the germ-cells of men reproduce in the same way—by simple fission—as the Infusorian and other one-celled animals and plants, and that they are organized on much the same plan. Given favorable circumstances, the germ-cell should be expected to be equally immortal. Does it ever find these favorable circumstances? The investigations of microscopists indicate that it does—that evolution has provided it with these favorable circumstances, in the bodies of the higher animals. Let us recall in outline the early history of the fertilized germ-cell, the zygote formed by the union of ovum and spermatozoön. These two unite to form a single cell, which is essentially the same, physiologically, as other germ-cells. It divides in two similar cells; these each divide; the resulting cells again divide, and so the process continues, until the whole body—a fully developed man,—has been produced by division and redivision of the one zygote. Q. 13. The author employs Infusorian as an illustration to: A. demonstrate that germ cells are delicate. B. provide evidence that Weismann's theory is correct. C. contradict Darwin's theory. D. establish a new theory relating the behaviour of germ cells. Q. 14. The tone employed by the author of the passage is A. diligent B. speculative C. scrutinising D. analytical Q. 15. The author of the passage would concur with which of the following conclusions, in addition to those already stated in the passage? A. it is possible to create mortal germplasm. B. it is possible to create immortal germplasm. C. it is possible to create immortal organisms. D. it is possible to create mortal organisms. 9 Q. 16. The passage's principal objective is: A. to propose a new scientific theory B. to settle a controversial matter C. to foster comprehension of a scientific phenomenon D. to highlight scientific mistakes Q. 17. Given below is a short paragraph and a set of four options. Read the paragraph and select the best summary for the paragraph. Under the original Constitution, citizens of the United States were required to be first a citizen of some State - something blacks of the south could not claim. This is why it was imperative for the first section to begin with a definition of citizenship so that no State could refuse recognition of newly freed slaves as U.S. citizens and thereby leaving them with less protection and remedies under State laws of justice compared with a white citizen. It should be pointed out that after the south surrendered there were no longer any organized Southern States belonging to the Union, only federally administered former States that became divided into military districts whose inhabitants were treated primarily as citizens of the United States rather than citizens of a State. The problem with the initial administration of these former rebel States was with President Andrew Johnson's lack of consultation with Congress on his administration plans. A. The first chapter of the Constitution defines citizenship in order to prevent states from recognising newly liberated slaves. In time, the Southern states rendered this irrelevant. B. In the first article of the Constitution, the concept of state citizenship is defined so that states comprehend the necessity of recognising such citizens. C. The first section begins with a definition of citizenship to prevent states from refusing to recognise newly liberated slaves. After the South's surrender, this became irrelevant. D. The first article explains what citizenship is and prohibits states from recognising newly liberated slaves. After the South's surrender, this became irrelevant. Q. 18. Given below is a short paragraph and a set of four options. Read the paragraph and select the best summary for the paragraph. Our group – me, my friend, a couple in their 20s, and a father and his two kids – begin the session in Zone One: a field in which we learn how to balance and lean. Our instructor, Kieran Richards, is on his third season at Segway Unleashed. He got into Segway after a couple of seasons of sphering, where he met Ben, who introduced him to the harder stuff. Confounding my notions of fleece, Kieran is a laid- back skater who says he falls off the Segways all the time, but only because he’s trying to do tricks on them, which even he admits can be foolish. Leaning, he says to the group, is the key to everything. “Be consistent with your leaning,” he tells us. “Don’t be too aggressive with your leaning.” Usain Bolt has made his life a whole lot easier, because people didn’t really think you could fall off a Segway, and then suddenly, a video went around the world proving that you could, and how. Poor Song Tao, I think. Once a noble cameraman, now a “how not to” punchline in an off-road Segway experience on a farm in Surrey. Kieran says that people only fall off when they catch their wheels, like Tao did, or when they get too cocky. A. Beginners may find Segways perplexing unless they learn how to balance and lean forward/backward. A person can easily injure himself if he does not master these skills quickly. B. Segways can be complicated if you do not learn how to balance and sway. A person can easily stumble if they have not learned how to lean correctly. 10  C. Usain Bolt has demonstrated that Segways are essential tools. However, until one learns how to recline, there is always the possibility of embarrassing oneself. D. Segways are difficult for everyone unless they learn how to thrust forward. It is possible to embarrass oneself and become the subject of a viral video if this is not swiftly learned. Q. 19. Given below is a short paragraph and a set of four options. Read the paragraph and select the best summary for the paragraph. However, there are good explanations for why the world has come to believe that oil is now significantly less valuable than it once was. On the supply side of the ledger, we have gas, which is more plentiful than anyone could have thought only a few years ago thanks to the fracking boom, and other fossil fuels that can often substitute for oil. Meanwhile, developments on the demand side have been even more rapid, with a significant downturn in the resource-intensive emerging countries, most notably debt- laden China. Neither the fracking revolution nor the Chinese flu can be stopped at this point. All of this points to the possibility that current low oil prices will persist for some time. A. The significant drop in worldwide oil prices can be attributed to both demand and supply factors. B. Oil prices have been falling as demand has slowed because of the slowdown of resource- intensive economies, and supply has been restricted because of the availability of alternative resources. C. Lower oil prices are a result of the fracking boom limiting oil supplies to debt-ridden China. D. Worldwide oil prices have dropped dramatically due to the fracking boom on the demand side and the Chinese flu on the supply side. Q. 20. Given below is a short paragraph and a set of four options. Read the paragraph and select the option that best completes the paragraph. But as Edward Jay Epstein uncovered, the idea that diamonds make a good investment is a false one. Diamonds, he argued, are nearly impossible to sell once bought because “any gain from the appreciation of the diamonds will probably be lost in selling them.” He recounted one test conducted by a British magazine: the editor bought diamonds in 1970 and tried to sell them in 1978, but could not sell them for a price anywhere close to the one he had originally paid. Epstein also wrote of a wealthy woman who tried to resell a diamond ring she had bought for $100,000 from Tiffany & Co. in New York City. After shopping the jewel around in vain, she gave up. (________________________) A. According to Epstein, the issue with selling diamonds is that vendors, not buyers, determine the price. B. According to Epstein, buying diamonds has the advantage that suppliers, not buyers, choose the price. C. According to Epstein, buying diamonds has the advantage that consumers, not sellers, determine the price. D. According to Epstein, the price of diamond sales is determined by buyers rather than sellers. Q. 21. Given below is a short paragraph and a set of four options. Read the paragraph and select the option that best completes the paragraph. In much of Asia and Europe, engineers are protected by a technology known in the United States as positive train control, or P.T.C. Connected by digital radio waves or GPS signals, P.T.C. transponders in the track maintain constant contact with computers in the cabs of oncoming trains. If the transponders determine a train is traveling too fast, the locomotive’s brakes are triggered automatically. Amtrak has 11 been working on its own in-house version of P.T.C., called the Advanced Civil Speed Enforcement System, or ACSES, for almost a decade. But owing to insufficient funding and a row with the F.C.C., which Amtrak said had been slow to approve the use of the requisite radio bandwidth, its actual implementation has been piecemeal.(________________________) A. PTC would also be quite helpful in this circumstance. B. Nevertheless, PTC would be worthless in this circumstance. C. Frankford Junction and other significant stretches of the Northeast Corridor were not operational at the time of the accident. D. Frankford Junction and a sizable stretch of the Northeast Corridor were operational at the time of the accident. Direction for questions 22 to 24: In the following questions, rearrange the four sentences in order to form a meaningful paragraph. TITA Q. 22. 1. The generic medicine policy of the government was aimed at making it affordable for the poor patients to purchase drugs that were previously out of bounds for them 2. The central government is of the view that the private hospitals are charging more for the drugs but no arrangement has been made to sell the generic drugs at the private hospitals 3. The policy says that all the government hospitals in all the states in the country will have fair price shops for drugs so that the patients can get the required medicine 4. However, it is also true that most of the states have not been able to open as many stores as required under this policy thereby depriving a lot of people from the drugs under their financial limits. TITA Q. 23. 1. In the recent judgment the Supreme Court has observed that a new authority needs to be created in order to formulate a policy regarding the sharing of water between the warring states 2. The Cauvery water dispute has been going on for years in India with the main issue being the distribution of water among all the states that are situated in the basin of the river 3. The solution described by the apex court is a tried and tested route as well in the past and there has been limited success and that is why it seems the court has given the order of constituting a committee in this regard 4. It is not an isolated matter since most of the states in India are facing this hurdle to decide regarding the sharing of water and even India and other countries are also facing this problem. Many water experts have been appointed in this regard but nothing fruitful has been achieved by the governments in the country and also across the border to bring the matter to a logical conclusion TITA Q. 24. 1. And the unlucky victim’s pupils glaze over, turning red and watery as the viewers 2. Outside, there are creatures who will kill you with a gaze; we, the audience, never see them ourselves, but we catch glimpses of their presence: the leaves rustle and the birds squawk. 3. At the start of Susanne Bier’s apocalyptic thriller Bird Box, Sandra Bullock’s face fills the screen, daring the camera to break eye contact. 12 4. Her Mallory is stern and commanding – Bullock’s in drill sergeant mode, not America’s sweetheart – and she doesn’t care about sounding kind. Section - 2 - Data Interpretation and Logical Reasoning Directions for questions 25 to 29 : M/s Deloitte Touche Tohmatsu Limited, one of the top four audit and accounting firms in the world with headquarters at London, UK, and with an operational presence in 153 countries, hires Management Trainees (MT) from all the premier management institutes of India thrice every year, in the months of January, May and September. Each new group of Management Trainees (MT) have to go through a four month rigorous training schedule, after which they have to pass through a test consisting of a written assessment and a case- analysis. The top hundred ranked Management Trainees (MT) based on the performance in the test are confirmed as Management Executives (ME). The rest are given the opportunity of undergoing the training for four months one more time along with the next batch of Management Trainees (MT) and then passing through the subsequent test consisting of the written assessment and case-analysis. The Management Trainee (MT) who fails to get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the second time is fired. The scatter-graph below depicts the number of Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte taking the tests from January 2020 till May 2022, and the vis-à-vis hired Management Trainees (MT) at Deloitte who were fired : 13 It is also known that for the month of September 2019 at Deloitte, 96 hired Management Trainees (MT) failed to be confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the first time, and that 36 hired Management Trainees (MT) were fired. Q 25. In which of the months given in the options was the maximum number of Management Trainees (MT) hired ? A) January 2021 B) January 2020 C) September 2020 D) January 2022 Q. 26 (TITA) What was the maximum number of Management Trainees (MT) who failed to be confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the first time in the above mentioned months ? Q 27 (TITA) In how many four month cycles from January 2020 to January 2022 were less than 120 new Management Trainees (MT) hired ? Q.28 (TITA) If 112 new Management Trainees (MT) were hired in May 2022, how many Management Trainees (MT) could be expected to appear in the test in September 2022 ? Q. 29 In which test did the minimum number of Management Trainees (MT) get confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) in the second attempt ? A) September 2020 B) May 2021 C) January 2021 D) January 2022 Directions for questions 30 to 34: Six sticks of equal lengths were kept in the vertical position in an empty flower-vase, to be arranged at the six corners of a regular hexagon. The two ends of each of the sticks were of different colours. The top ends of the sticks were one of each of the following colours – Red, Cyan, Pink, Brown, Black and Green. The bottom ends were one of each of the following colours – Blue, Yellow, White, Orange, Purple and Grey. Both the sets of colours mentioned were in no particular order. It was also known that : a) The stick with the red colour was opposite to the stick with the blue colour b) There were exactly two sticks whose both ends had colours whose names started with the same letter c) The stick with the grey colour was adjacent to the stick with the white colour d) The stick with the cyan colour was adjacent to both the sticks with the brown colour and the one with the blue colour e) The stick with the purple colour was adjacent to both the sticks with the grey colour and the one with the green colour f) The stick with the white colour was opposite to the stick with the green colour 14 Q. 30 What was the colour of the bottom end of the stick having brown colour at the top end ? A) White B) Yellow C) Black D) Grey Q.31 What was the colour of the top end of the stick having grey colour at the bottom end ? A) Green B) Red C) Blue D) Cyan Q. 32 What was the colour of the bottom end of the stick opposite the stick with blue colour at the bottom end ? A) Black B) Brown C) Grey D) Cannot be determined Q. 33 What was the colour of the bottom end of the stick opposite the stick with brown colour at the top end ? A) Orange B) Yellow C) Black D) Cannot be determined Q. 34 If the stick with the yellow colour at the bottom was opposite to the stick with pink at the top, then which of the following colours was adjacent to the stick with the blue colour at the bottom ? A) Purple B) Grey C) Orange D) White Directions for questions 35 to 39 : In the tertiary manufacturing plant of M/S Rantaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at Sirmour, thirteen–fourteenth of the management employees were either M.Pharm or MBA degree holders, with MBAs being four-ninth of the number of M. Pharms. Out of them the gender ratio was eight by five in favour of men. Of the women seventy percent were M. Pharms and only 15 were MBAs. No management employee held both an M. Pharm and an MBA degree. The number of men and women management employees who were neither an M. Pharm nor an MBA were in the ratio of 3 : 7. 15 From the data provided above, answer the questions below : Q.35 (TITA) How many male management employees in the tertiary manufacturing plant of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at Sirmour were neither an MBA nor an M Pharm ? Q36 (TITA) What was the total number of lady management employees of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd with an M Pharm degree at the Sirmour plant ? Q. 37 (TITA) What was the total strength of the management employees of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at the Sirmour plant ? Q 38 The number of lady management employees of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at the Sirmour plant with an MBA degree, was what percent of the gentlemen there with an M Pharm degree ? A) 35.50% B) 32.75% C) 30.30% D) 27.27% Q. 39 What was the gender ratio of the management employees of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at the Sirmour plant of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd ? A) 8 : 5 in favour of men B) 83 : 57 in favour of men C) 8 : 5 in favour of women D) 87 : 53 in favour of women Directions for questions 40 to 45 : In the recent past in Kolkata, abduction of primary-school children, which was unheard of before, suddenly was on the rise. The Police Commissioner of Kolkata IPS Mr Vineet Kumar Goyal, instructed all the schools in Kolkata to take steps to increase the security of their students during the school hours. St Xavier’s School, Kolkata, already had a security system in place. However, the management, after a survey, decided to beef up the security at Gate D on Short Street, which was rather a secluded area. The management took the decision that there must be two guards guarding Gate D each day of the week from Monday to Saturday. The security agency they did business with sent five top security guards named Ambar, Biplab, Chandan, Dinesh and Ekram for the job. However, they had some constraints while performing their duty : a) None of the guards worked for three consecutive days in a week b) Ambar did not work on Monday, Tuesday, and Wednesday c) Biplab and Dinesh both had a service gun, and hence never worked on the same day d) Biplab worked on alternate days and he worked with Ambar on Friday 16 e) Ekram worked for the maximum number of days in a week amongst all the five guards f) Both Biplab and Dinesh worked for an odd number of days during the week g) Two particular guards out of the five worked for the same number of days in a week h) Each of the rest three guards worked for a distinct number of days Q. 40 If Ekram worked with one particular guard twice during a week, then which guard worked on the same day as Dinesh ? A) Chandan B) Ekram C) Ambar D) Cannot be determined Q. 41 If Ambar worked on a Thursday, which guard did he accompany on that day ? A) Dinesh B) Ekram C) Biplab D) Chandan Q. 42 Which of the following statements could never be true ? A) Chandan and Ekram can work together on Thursday B) Biplab and Chandan can work together on Wednesday C) Chandan and Dinesh can work together on Thursday D) Ambar and Ekram can work together on Saturday Q. 43 If Ekram worked with a different guard every time during the week, then which of the two guards definitely worked on Thursday ? A) Ambar and Ekram B) Dinesh and Ekram C) Chandan and Ekram D) Cannot be determined Q. 44 Who is the one guard that Ekram never could work with, had he worked with one particular guard twice during a week ? A) Ambar B) Chandan C) Dinesh D) Biplab 17 Section - 3 - Quantitative Aptitude Q. 45 (TITA) A motorist embarks on a drive consisting of city and non-city driving conditions after filling up his petrol tank. He uses 12% of his petrol to cover 18% of his total journey in non-city driving conditions. He knows he has to cover another 24% of his total journey in non-city driving conditions. What should be the percentage decrease (rounded till one decimal place) in his fuel efficiency for city driving over non-city driving, so that he just completes the entire journey without a refill ? Q. 46 If x and y are natural numbers, and if 1/x + 1/y < 2, which of the options mentioned below is definitely true ? A) xy > 1 B) x/y + y/x < 1 C) (x + y) > 4 D) (x – y)2 < 0 Q. 47 A shopkeeper bought 120 trousers at Rs 2500 each, and sold them for a special scheme of 1 trouser free with every 4 trousers purchased at Rs x per trouser. He sold 105 trousers by this scheme. The rest of the trousers were slightly damaged, and he was forced to sell them for 1 trouser free with every 2 trousers purchased at two-third of the price per undamaged trouser. He found that he had incurred a profit of Rs 6x overall. Find the value of x ? A) Rs 3975.60 B) Rs 3128.30 C) Rs 3543.20 D) Rs 3591.80 Q. 48 (TITA) Levis, while manufacturing two batches of jeans, discovered that due to raw material calculation errors the second batch had turned out to be slightly lower in quality than the perfect quality control it strictly maintained in production. The CEO decided that rather than discarding the material produced by the second batch it would be better if it was sold at a subsidy for the section of consumers who could not afford Levis Jeans in general. His team found that if the first batch were sold at a 40% profit and the second at a 60% rebate, then they would remain at par. However if the first batch were sold at a 20% profit and the second one at a 20% rebate, then they would gain a total of 6 million USD. What was the total production cost (in million USD) of both the batches of jeans ? Q. 49 Fresh fish contains 59% water by weight, while sun-dried fish contains 5% water by weight. A fisherman caught fresh fish, added salt in the ratio of 4 : 1, and prepared the sun-dried salted fish weighing 150 kg. How many kg of fish had the fisherman caught ? A) 432.70 B) 316.25 C) 237.50 18  D) 170.50 Q. 50 (TITA) Capt. Archibald Haddock wanted to give up drinking in the next 40 days. So he purchased a 750 ml bottle of Loch Lomond whisky. He drank 2.5% of the contents of the bottle and replaced it with water. Next day he drank 5% of the contents of the bottle and replaced it with water. On the third day he drank 7.5% of the contents of the bottle and replaced it with water. Like this on the 40th day he drank 100% of the contents of the bottle and stopped drinking. Find out how much volume of water (in ml) Capt. Haddock had to drink with the whisky to give up drinking ? Q. 51 A 30 litre solution of sugar had 45% sugar in it. It was mixed with a 25 litre solution of sugar having x% sugar, where 40 ≤ x ≤ 50. The sugar concentration in the resulting mixture is y%. Which of the following is not a possible value of y ? A) 42 & 10/11 B) 47 & 4/11 C) 45 & 2/11 D) 46 Q. 52 (TITA) The distance that the apple which had fallen on Sir Issac Newton's head travelling under free fall, varied directly with the square of the time for which it had fallen. It had travelled 21 feet in the fourth second of travel. Find the total distance it had travelled (in feet) in the first four seconds of travel ? Q. 53 In a bag there are coins of three denominations of Re 1, Rs 2 and Rs 5. The first two are in the ratio of 2 : 3 and the last two in the ratio of 4 : 5. If the total number of coins in the bag is less than 100, the total value of coins in the bag can be Rs. _____________. Fill in the blank. A) 107 B) 214 C) 321 D) Cannot be determined Q. 54 (TITA) In the diagram below, AB is // to CD. ∠AQM : ∠MQS = 1 : 3 and ∠CRM : ∠MRP = 2 : 3. Also ∠BQS : ∠QRD = 2 : 1. What is the value of the reflex ∠QMR (in degrees) ? 19 Q. 55 The mid-points of all the sides of a regular hexagon are joined to form another hexagon. The area of the outer hexagon divided by the area of the inner hexagon is equal to ______ ? A) 6.00 B) 3.20 C) 2.00 D) 1.33 Q. 56 The diagram below shows the schematic plan of the Kolkata Metro-railway tunnel below the river Ganges, from the Howrah Maidan to the Burrabazar stations. The cylindrical shaped tunnel has a uniform outer diameter of 15 m. The thickness of the uniform concrete layer making up the tunnel is 0.5 m. The other dimensions are as depicted in the schematic diagram. What would be the volume of concrete used (in cubic m, rounded to the nearest integer) to construct the tunnel from the Howrah Maidan station to the Burrabazar station ? Assume 𝜋 to be 3.14. 20  A) 30724 B) 31356 C) 32675 D) 34944 Q. 57 In the diagram given below ABCD is a square, where PC of length 81 m is a line cutting AB at P. DQ of length 64 m is ⊥ to PC. What is the nearest integral value of the length of the diagonal of the square ABCD (in m) ? A) 122 B) 118 C) 102 D) 98 Q. 58 The Egyptian government found that the famous pyramid at Giza, a national icon for Egypt, was in a bad state due to the erosion of the desert sand and the heat. They decided to repair and restore the pyramid to its former glory. The measurements of the inspection team found that the pyramid had an external rectangular base of 80 m by 60 m, and a height of 43 m. They decided to totally colour the external surface of the pyramid with sand-resistant and heat-resistant white paint. If each sq m required 1 liter of paint and the cost of each kilo-liter of the chosen paint was 1500 Egyptian pounds, what would be the expense of the government for the project (in Egyptian pounds), neglecting any other expense ? (All dimensions of the pyramid were calculated by the inspection team to the nearest integer) 21  A) 20380 B) 11500 C) 14780 D) 17760 Q. 59 A regular octagon ABCDEFGH has the length of the principal diagonal as 2√(2 + √2) m. Find the area of the regular octagon (in sq m) ? A) 4(1 + √2) B) 3(√2 – 1) C) 2√2(1 + √2) D) 5√2 Q. 60 (TITA) In the diagram below AB, BC, DE and EF are chords of a circle with centre O. ∠ABC = 30o and ∠DEF = 45o. DA and FC are extended to meet at P. What is the value of ∠DPF (in degrees) ? Q. 61 (TITA) Mr Mogambo invested a sum of money in the narcotics manufacturing business of his friend Mr Shakaal at a fixed rate of compound interest per annum and interest compounded annually. The investment yielded Mr Mogambo an interest of Rs 2,01,600 in the second year and Rs 2,25,792 in the third year. Find the possible number of factors of the amount invested by Mr Mogambo in the business of his friend Mr Shakaal ? Q. 62 Mr Rocky Balboa and Mr Apollo Creed were joint winners in the world heavyweight boxing championship finals in 1976 and divided the prize money equally between them. While Mr Balboa invested the amount at simple interest, Mr Creed did so at compound interest, interest compounded annually. Both the rate of interests was of the same magnitude per annum. In the next two years, while Mr Balboa earned an interest of 1.6 million dollars, Mr Creed earned 1.7 million dollars interest. What was the prize money (in million dollars) in the world heavyweight boxing championship finals in 1976 ? A) 3.2 B) 6.4 C) 12.8 D) 25.6 22 Q. 63 (TITA) The average of 34 numbers is 53. A few numbers from the set of natural numbers from 47 to 89 is included to create a new average greater than 58. What is the minimum number of natural numbers to be included from the set to fulfil the criteria ? Q. 64 In 2001, the average age of a family of 7 members was 36 years. In 2010 a family member expired and a child was born to the family. In 2018 another family member expired merely a week later after the marriage of the younger son of the family to his bride of age 27 years. It was found that the average age of the family in 2021 was 43 years. Out of the options provided, which could have been the individual age of the two family members when they expired in 2010 and 2018 respectively ? A) 68 & 50 B) 74 & 52 C) 82 & 40 D) 84 & 43 Q. 65 A cocktail shaker has 120 ml of sherry-martini, a cocktail consisting of Amontillado sherry, Smirnoff vodka and Lillet-blanc in the ratio of 2 : 3 : 5. The bar-tender removes 20 ml from the mixture and replaces it with Lillet-blanc. He repeats this one more time. Find the final ratio of sherry, vodka and Lillet-blanc in the sherry-martini ? A) 13 : 18 : 48 B) 10 : 15 : 47 C) 14 : 21 : 37 D) None of the above Q. 66 During the annual sports meet on 25th January 1983, at St Xavier's School, Durgapur, two big jerricans were arranged by the P.T. Sir Mr Shantimoy Biswas for the refreshment purposes of the students participating. One of the jerricans was filled with 20 litres of freshly extracted pure orange juice, while the other was filled with 20 litres of cold drinking water mixed with Electoral ORS powder. Sir Biswas took a 2-litre mug and transferred one mug of orange juice from the first jerrican to the second. He then moved the same amount from the second jerrican to the first. He repeated the whole process one more time, and the two different drinks were ready. The drink in the first jerrican became such a hit among the students that it was named the Shanti-Punch, and the participation in the school sports rose considerably in the subsequent years to be able to have the Shanti-punch. What was the final concentration of pure orange juice in the Shanti-Punch ? A) 100/121 B) 109/121 C) 101/121 D) 10/11 23 ======================================================================== Answer Key - Mock Test 1 Section - Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension 1 - D, 2- C, 3- B, 4 -B, 5-C, 6-D, 7- D, 8-C, 9- B, 10-C, 11-C, 12-C, 13-B, 14-D, 15-C, 16-C, 17-C, 18-B, 19-B, 20-D, 21-C, 22- 1342, 23- 2413, 24- 3421 Section - Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning 25 -D, 26- 96, 27-2, 28-168, 29-D, 30-A, 31-B, 32-C, 33-D, 34-C, 35-3, 36-35, 37-140, 38-D, 39-B, 40-A, 41- B, 42-C, 43-D, 44-C Section - Quantitative Aptitude 45 - 46.3,46- A,47-C, 48- 150,49-C, 50-14625, 51-B, 52-48, 53-D, 54- 297, 55-D, 56-D, 57-C, 58-B, 59-A, 60-15, 61-84, 62-C, 63-6, 64-A, 65-B, 66-C ===================================================================================== Solutions - Mock Test 1 Section - Verbal Ability & Reading Comprehension 1. D The last sentence of the passage is an adverse observation that emphasises the challenges of Indian media and how it could resort to censorship to suppress information in the future. 2. C The question at hand needs an in-depth review of the choices that are available. There are a number of likely answer options, particularly options A and C. Both assessments are true, but answer choice C provides a more precise account of the author's purpose. This option investigates the passage from every conceivable angle and highlights each of the points of the passage. This makes this the best choice possible. 3. B The question explicitly demands an explanation of this line. This is best illustrated by option B. The other alternatives commit the mistake of including information that cannot be justified by this line. 4.B A watchdog is a protector or defender. Consequently, the accurate response is option B. 5. C What is the author of the passage attempting to accomplish? Well, he explains the double standard applied to pets and farm animals, how maltreatment is perpetrated against farm animals, and the need to rectify this approach. Where does this sentiment originate? In option C, this is exemplified flawlessly. 6. D 24 The concept underlying this query is straightforward: if the practice is widespread, it should be legalised. The first and second statements are predicated on this principle. 7. D The passage is about the unfair treatment of particular animals, and answer choice D reflects this precisely. This passage highlights how farm animals are being treated unfairly and on the other hand, the kind of treatment pet animals get. This disparity is highlighted best by option D. 8. C The author of the passage is unequivocally in favour of improving the living conditions and treatment of farm animals. He wants a reduction in the cruelty shown to them and explains the reasons for this. One of these causes is the excessive consumption of meat by humans and the justification that it provides for our treatment of animals. Clearly, option C addresses these issues, and the author would concur with this evaluation. The other choices are opposite to the author's perspective. 9. B You must comprehend the definitions of the terms 'veneration' and 'posterity' in order to determine the correct response. This phrase means: A sense of profound respect for someone or something; veneration Posterity: Each succeeding generation Extending this meaning to the query at hand, we can conclude that option (b) is the correct response. 10. C For the provided question, please read the line that follows the given context. When his writings are used in a critical and more exacting manner, such as when evaluating a business for our own enterprise, we discover their true value and strength. These lines explain how his work was intended to be consumed by his colleagues and how they gained tremendous knowledge from it. 11. C In the provided scenario, let us examine the available options: Option (a): contradicts the passage; the passage by Maupertuis demonstrates that others had similar ideas. Option (b) is incorrect because these authors had not completely grasped the concept of evolution Option (c) is appropriate because it illustrates how these generations made their own share of contribution to the concept of evolution. Option (d): is a clever option that mutilates a portion of the sentence provided in the passage; however, this does not make it the correct option, as it commits the error of using the word 'only', which renders it inaccurate. 12. C Logically, this is the simplest issue for this passage. The only difficulty in this question is vocabulary usage. (A), (B), and (D) are positive answer choices that align with the author's sentiment (who plainly praises Darwin). Option (c) is a negative response option. Pejorative is defined as 'expressing disapproval,' and this sentiment is not seen in the context at hand. 13. B In this instance, options (b) and (c) should be causing you confusion. Are they not identical? In actuality, they are not. The example of Infusorian contributes to the establishment of Weismann's theory and demonstrates that cells are actively dividing and reproducing. This is consistent with Weismann's theory but does not explicitly contradict Darwin's. 25 14. D The finest tone in this case is represented by answer choice (d), which reflects the author's scientific and example-based approach. The author is not simply making a statement or following a logical progression; rather, he is analysing theories and providing a solid foundation for his recommendations. 15. C In this instance, you must provide a conclusion in addition to those provided in the passage. This implies that the conclusion provided in the passage cannot be repeated. This is achieved via option (c). Even though option (b) is also factually accurate, it is already mentioned in the passage and can therefore be ruled out. 16. C In this instance, the primary purpose of the passage is to assist the reader comprehend how cell division works and how it must be understood. The author does not introduce anything new, point out any scientific fallacies, or indicate that this is a controversial topic. Keeping in mind the moderate nature of the passage, we can confidently determine that option (c) is the correct response. 17. C The key ideas explained in the passage are the beginning of the first section as defining citizenship so that states can’t refuse recognition of newly freed slaves and that this was no longer relevant after the south surrendered. These points are mentioned correctly in option 3 only. 18. B The passage emphasises the necessity of maintaining a consistent lean on Segways and the occurrence of accidents when someone leans too aggressively. Consequently, option 2 is the best option. 19. B Choice A does not provide adequate detail. Choice B is the most accurate representation of the text. Choice C is skewed, as supply has not been constrained by the fracking boom. The fracking boom affected supply, while China's decreased demand affects demand, making Option D unrealistic. 20. D The text discusses how challenging it is to turn a profit on diamond investments and concludes by noting how challenging it is to sell the stones. Therefore, since the paragraph discusses a disadvantage rather than an advantage, options 2 and 3 are ruled out. Option 1 is ruled out because, as stated in the option, it would be simple to sell diamonds if sellers were in charge of setting the price. As a result, option 4 is the best one. 21. C The fragmented application of PTC is discussed in the conclusion of the passage. This is consistent with option 3, which also acknowledges that some of the corridor wasn't online. 22. 1342 Exp: Statement 1 is the first sentence of the passage since it is about the context of the whole passage - The generic medicine policy. Statement 3 comes after that since it explains what comes under that policy – having fair price shops for drugs. statement 4 is the next sentence since it explains that in reality the plan to have fair price shops has failed to some extent. Statement 2 is the last sentence in the passage as it moves away from opening fair price shops and talks about the condition in private hospitals 23. 2413 26 Exp: Statement 2 is the first sentence of the passage as it is about the context of the passage. Statement 4 will be the next sentence as it explains the issue in detail, talks about the situation of various other states along with countries in this regard and explains the status of various previous committees in this issue. Statement 1 comes after that with the recent order of the SC being described in this regard. Statement 3 is the note of optimism by the author regarding the success of the new scheme to resolve the issue for good and again mentions the judgement of the Supreme Court, i.e., the apex court 24. 3421 This is a tough question. The passage is about Sandra Bullock’s new movie Bird Box. Obviously statement 3 will open. 4 follows as ‘her Mallory is stern and commanding” talks about her character. From statement 2 the description of the movie starts. 2 is followed by 1 which has the connecting word AND. Hence, the correct order is 3421. Section - Data Interpretation & Logical Reasoning 25.D Tabulating the data given in the scatter graph, we get : MTs eligible Total second Total new Total MTs to retake Test in the Total MT test Total MTs time test test taker selected as test after 4 month of takers (A) fired (B) taker MTs MTs (E = A - MEs (D) months (C = (C) C) A - B - D) Sept 2019 36 100 96 Jan 2020 224 44 100 May 2020 188 36 100 Sept 2020 204 28 100 Jan 2021 216 40 100 May 2021 208 32 100 Sept 2021 180 28 100 Jan 2022 208 44 100 May 2022 192 36 100 Now, for every test, 100 Management Trainees (MT) get confirmed as Management Executives (ME). Thus in September 2019, 100 MTs get confirmed as MEs. Also in the month of September 2019, 96 hired MTs failed to be confirmed as a ME the first time, and 36 hired MTs were fired. So, 96 MTs would retake the test in January 2020. Also 36 MTs failed the test the second time. Hence total MTs taking the test in September 2019 = 100+96+36 = 232. The above 96 MTs retook the test for the second time out of the total 224 who took the test in January 2020. Thus the remaining 224-96 = 128 were the first time test takers in January 2020, who must have been hired as MTs in September 2019. In January 2020, 100 MTs again get confirmed as MEs and 44 MTs get fired. 224-100-44 = 80. Thus 80 MTs would retake the test in May 2020. The above 80 MTs retook the test for the second time out of the total 188 who took the test in May 2020. Thus the remaining 188-80 = 108 were the first time test takers in May 2020, who must have been hired as MTs in January 2020. 27 Continuing in this fashion till May 2022, we can find out the data as tabulated below : MTs eligible Total second Total new Total MTs to retake Test in the Total MT test Total MTs time test test taker selected as test after 4 month of takers (A) fired (B) taker MTs MTs (E = A - MEs (D) months (C = (C) C) A - B - D) Sept 2019 232 36 X 100 X 96 Jan 2020 224 44 96 100 128 80 May 2020 188 36 80 100 108 52 Sept 2020 204 28 52 100 152 76 Jan 2021 216 40 76 100 140 76 May 2021 208 32 76 100 132 76 Sept 2021 180 28 76 100 104 52 Jan 2022 208 44 52 100 156 64 May 2022 192 36 64 100 128 56 From the column of Total new test taker MTs, we can conclude that the number of Management Trainees (MT) hired were as follows : a) January 2020 – 128, b) May 2020 – 108, c) September 2020 – 152, d) January 2021 – 140, e) May 2021 – 132, f) September 2021 – 104, g) January 2022 – 156, and h) May 2022 – 128. Hence, the maximum number of Management Trainees (MT) was hired in January 2022 (156). 26. 96 We already know that : MTs eligible Total second Total new Total MTs to retake Test in the Total MT test Total MTs time test test taker selected as test after 4 month of takers (A) fired (B) taker MTs MTs (E = A - MEs (D) months (C = (C) C) A - B - D) Sept 2019 232 36 X 100 X 96 Jan 2020 224 44 96 100 128 80 May 2020 188 36 80 100 108 52 Sept 2020 204 28 52 100 152 76 Jan 2021 216 40 76 100 140 76 May 2021 208 32 76 100 132 76 Sept 2021 180 28 76 100 104 52 28  Jan 2022 208 44 52 100 156 64 May 2022 192 36 64 100 128 56 From the column of MTs eligible to retake test after 4 months, we can conclude that the number of Management Trainees (MT) who failed to be confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the first time in the above mentioned months were as follows : a) September 2019 – 96, b) January 2020 – 80, c) May 2020 – 52, d) September 2020 – 76, e) January 2021 – 76, f) May 2021 – 76, g) September 2021 – 52, h) January 2022 – 64, and i) May 2022 – 56. Hence, the maximum number of Management Trainees (MT) who failed to be confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) the first time in the above mentioned months was 96 (September 2019) 27. 2 We already know that : MTs eligible Total second Total new Total MTs to retake Test in the Total MT test Total MTs time test test taker selected as test after 4 month of takers (A) fired (B) taker MTs MTs (E = A - MEs (D) months (C = (C) C) A - B - D) Sept 2019 232 36 X 100 X 96 Jan 2020 224 44 96 100 128 80 May 2020 188 36 80 100 108 52 Sept 2020 204 28 52 100 152 76 Jan 2021 216 40 76 100 140 76 May 2021 208 32 76 100 132 76 Sept 2021 180 28 76 100 104 52 Jan 2022 208 44 52 100 156 64 May 2022 192 36 64 100 128 56 From the column of Total new test taker MTs, we can conclude that the number of Management Trainees (MT) hired were as follows : a) January 2020 – 128, b) May 2020 – 108, c) September 2020 – 152, d) January 2021 – 140, e) May 2021 – 132, f) September 2021 – 104, g) January 2022 – 156, and h) May 2022 – 128. 29 Hence, less than 120 new Management Trainees (MT) were hired twice in May 2020 (108) and September 2021 (104). 28. 168 We already know that : MTs eligible Total second Total new Total MTs to retake Test in the Total MT test Total MTs time test test taker selected as test after 4 month of takers (A) fired (B) taker MTs MTs (E = A - MEs (D) months (C = (C) C) A - B - D) Sept 2019 232 36 X 100 X 96 Jan 2020 224 44 96 100 128 80 May 2020 188 36 80 100 108 52 Sept 2020 204 28 52 100 152 76 Jan 2021 216 40 76 100 140 76 May 2021 208 32 76 100 132 76 Sept 2021 180 28 76 100 104 52 Jan 2022 208 44 52 100 156 64 May 2022 192 36 64 100 128 56 In May 2022, 56 MTs became eligible to take the test for the second time after four months. Hence, if total 112 new Management Trainees (MT) were hired in May 2022, then the number of Management Trainees (MT) that could be expected to appear in the test in September 2022 = 112 + 56 = 168 29. D MTs eligible Total second Total new Total MTs to retake Test in the Total MT test Total MTs time test test taker selected as test after 4 month of takers (A) fired (B) taker MTs MTs (E = A - MEs (D) months (C = (C) C) A - B - D) Sept 2019 232 36 X 100 X 96 Jan 2020 224 44 96 100 128 80 May 2020 188 36 80 100 108 52 Sept 2020 204 28 52 100 152 76 Jan 2021 216 40 76 100 140 76 May 2021 208 32 76 100 132 76 Sept 2021 180 28 76 100 104 52 Jan 2022 208 44 52 100 156 64 May 2022 192 36 64 100 128 56 30 Number of Management Trainees (MT) who got confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) in the second attempt = Number of Management Trainees (MT) who were second time test takers – Number of Management Trainees (MT) who got fired. So, the number of Management Trainees (MT) who got confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) in the second attempt were as follows : a) January 2020 : 96 – 44 = 52, b) May 2020 : 80 – 36 = 44, c) September 2020 : 52 – 28 = 24, d) January 2021 : 76 – 40 = 36, e) May 2021 : 76 – 32 = 44, f) September 2021 : 76 – 28 = 48, g) January 2022 : 52 – 44 = 8, and h) May 2022 : 64 – 36 = 28. Hence, the minimum number of Management Trainees (MT) who got confirmed as a Management Executive (ME) in the second attempt was in January 2022 (8) 30.A From (b) we know that there were exactly two sticks whose both ends had colours whose names started with the same letter. The only two possible combinations could be (i) Pink (top) and Purple (bottom) and (ii) Black (top) and Blue (bottom) From (a) and (d), we could get two cases of arrangement of the sticks as shown below : Point (e) says that the stick with the purple colour was adjacent to both the sticks with the grey colour and the one with the green colour Green was the colour of the top of a stick, while purple and grey were colours of the bottom of two different sticks. The purple bottomed stick had pink as the colour of the top. That meant that the stick with pink colour at the top was adjacent to the sticks with green at the top and grey at the bottom. Hence, the two cases of arrangement of the sticks change to as shown below : 31 Now, from (c) we get to know that the stick with the grey colour was adjacent to the stick with the white colour White was the colour of a bottom end. So in both the cases white had to be the colour of the bottom end of the stick with brown colour at the top Hence the colours of orange or yellow could either be the bottom colours of the sticks with top painted cyan and green respectively, or vice versa Hence, the final two cases of arrangements possible are as given below : Hence, the colour of the bottom end of the stick having brown colour at the top end is white 32 31.B The final two cases of arrangements possible are as given below : Hence, the colour of the top end of the stick having grey colour at the bottom end is red 32. C The final two cases of arrangements possible are as given below : Hence, the colour of the bottom end of the stick opposite the stick with blue colour at the bottom end is grey 33.D 33 The final two cases of arrangements possible are as given below : Hence, the colour of the bottom end of the stick opposite the stick with brown colour at the top end could be either orange or yellow. Hence the answer cannot be determined 34. C The final two cases of arrangements possible are as given below : Hence, the colour of the bottom end of the stick opposite the stick with brown colour at the top end could be either orange or yellow. Hence the answer cannot be determined 34 35.C The final two cases of arrangements possible are as given below : If the stick with the yellow colour at the bottom was opposite to the stick with pink colour at the top, then the arrangements would become : Hence, out of the options, the colour adjacent to the stick with the blue colour at the bottom would be orange 36. 3 a) Let the total number of management employees of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at the Sirmour plant be 1400k Hence, the management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree = (1400k*13)/14 = 1300k, and the ones with neither = 100k b) MBAs were 4/9 th of M. Pharms, that is ratio of M Pharms to that of MBAs was 9 : 4 35 Hence, management employees with an M Pharm = (1300k*9)/13 = 900k, and management employees with an MBA = (1300k*4)/13 = 400k c) The gender ratio of the management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree was 8 : 5 in favour of men Hence men : women = 8 : 5 Thus, gentlemen management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA = (1300k*8)/13 = 800k, and lady management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA = (1300*5)/13 = 500k d) Of the lady management employees 70% were M Pharms and only 15 were MBAs Hence, lady management employees with an M Pharm = (500k*70)/100 = 350k, and the same with an MBA = (500k*30)/100 = 150k Hence gentlemen management employees with an M Pharm = 900k – 350k = 550k, and gentlemen management employees with an MBA = 400k – 150k = 250k e) Also, as per data given, 150k = 15 employees or, 10k = 1 employee -------------- (A) f) The number of men and women management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA were in the ratio of 3 : 7 Hence, number of gentlemen management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = (100k*3)/10 = 30k, and number of lady management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = (100k*7)/10 = 70k g) From (A) we can find the exact count of the following employees of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at the Sirmour plant : 1) Total number of management employees = 1400k = 140 2) Management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree = 1300k = 130 3) Management employees with neither an M Pharm nor MBA degree = 100k = 10 4) Lady management employees with an M Pharm = 350k = 35 5) Lady management employees with an MBA = 150k = 15 6) Gentlemen management employees with an M Pharm = 550k = 55 7) Gentlemen management employees with an MBA = 250k = 25 8) Lady management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 70k = 7 9) Gentlemen management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 30k = 3 Hence, gentlemen management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 30k = 3 36. 35 We already know that : 1) Total number of management employees = 1400k = 140 2) Management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree = 1300k = 130 3) Management employees with neither an M Pharm nor MBA degree = 100k = 10 4) Lady management employees with an M Pharm = 350k = 35 5) Lady management employees with an MBA = 150k = 15 6) Gentlemen management employees with an M Pharm = 550k = 55 7) Gentlemen management employees with an MBA = 250k = 25 8) Lady management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 70k = 7 9) Gentlemen management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 30k = 3 Hence, lady management employees with an M Pharm degree = 350k = 35 37. 140 36 We already know that : 1) Total number of management employees = 1400k = 140 2) Management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree = 1300k = 130 3) Management employees with neither an M Pharm nor MBA degree = 100k = 10 4) Lady management employees with an M Pharm = 350k = 35 5) Lady management employees with an MBA = 150k = 15 6) Gentlemen management employees with an M Pharm = 550k = 55 7) Gentlemen management employees with an MBA = 250k = 25 8) Lady management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 70k = 7 9) Gentlemen management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 30k = 3 Hence, the total number of management employees of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at the Sirmour plant = 1400k = 140 38. D We already know that : 1) Total number of management employees = 1400k = 140 2) Management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree = 1300k = 130 3) Management employees with neither an M Pharm nor MBA degree = 100k = 10 4) Lady management employees with an M Pharm = 350k = 35 5) Lady management employees with an MBA = 150k = 15 6) Gentlemen management employees with an M Pharm = 550k = 55 7) Gentlemen management employees with an MBA = 250k = 25 8) Lady management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 70k = 7 9) Gentlemen management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 30k = 3 Lady management employees with an MBA degree = 150k = 15 Gentlemen management employees with an M Pharm degree = 550k = 55 Hence, percentage = (15/35)*100 = 27.27% 39. B We already know that : 1) Total number of management employees = 1400k = 140 2) Management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree = 1300k = 130 3) Management employees with neither an M Pharm nor MBA degree = 100k = 10 4) Lady management employees with an M Pharm = 350k = 35 5) Lady management employees with an MBA = 150k = 15 6) Gentlemen management employees with an M Pharm = 550k = 55 7) Gentlemen management employees with an MBA = 250k = 25 8) Lady management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 70k = 7 9) Gentlemen management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 30k = 3 Gentlemen management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree = 800k = 80 Gentlemen management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 30k = 3 Total gentlemen management employees = 80+3 = 83 Lady management employees with either an M Pharm or MBA degree = 500k = 50 Lady management employees who were neither an M Pharm nor an MBA = 70k = 7 Total lady management employees = 50+7 = 57 Hence, gender ratio of the management employees of M/S Ranbaxy Pharmaceuticals Ltd at the Sirmour plant 37 = 83 : 57 in favour of men 40. A There are in total 6*2 = 12 guard shifts required. That can be only fulfilled along with all the constraints given if Ekram does 4 shifts, Biplab does 3 shifts, Ambar and Chandan does 2 each, and Dinesh does 1 shift, as 4+3+2+2+1 = 12 Given below are all the possible situations of shift combinations. The left hand table A represents Ekram working with one particular guard twice a week, and there are two possible cases which satisfy all the constraints The right hand table B represents Ekram working with a different guard every time during the week, and here too there are two possible cases which satisfy all the constraints A Case 1 Case 2 B Case 1 Case 2 Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Ekram, Ekram, Tuesday Dinesh, Chandan Dinesh, Chandan Tuesday Chandan/Dinesh Chandan/Dinesh Wednesday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Wednesday Biplab, Chandan Biplab, Chandan Ekram, Thursday Ekram, Chandan Ambar, Ekram Thursday Ambar, Ekram Chandan/Dinesh Friday Ambar, Biplab Ambar, Biplab Friday Ambar, Biplab Ambar, Biplab Ekram, Saturday Ambar, Ekram Ekram, Chandan Saturday Ambar, Ekram Chandan/Dinesh Hence, from Table A, which represents Ekram working with one particular guard twice a week, Chandan works on the same day as Dinesh in either of the two possible cases. 41.B We know that all the possible situations of shift combinations as per the constraints are as follows : A Case 1 Case 2 B Case 1 Case 2 Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Ekram, Ekram, Tuesday Dinesh, Chandan Dinesh, Chandan Tuesday Chandan/Dinesh Chandan/Dinesh Wednesday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Wednesday Biplab, Chandan Biplab, Chandan Ekram, Thursday Ekram, Chandan Ambar, Ekram Thursday Ambar, Ekram Chandan/Dinesh Friday Ambar, Biplab Ambar, Biplab Friday Ambar, Biplab Ambar, Biplab Ekram, Saturday Ambar, Ekram Ekram, Chandan Saturday Ambar, Ekram Chandan/Dinesh Hence, from both the tables and their individual two cases each, we can see that if Ambar worked on a Thursday, he always accompanied Ekram. 38 42. C We know that all the possible situations of shift combinations as per the constraints are as follows : A Case 1 Case 2 B Case 1 Case 2 Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Ekram, Ekram, Tuesday Dinesh, Chandan Dinesh, Chandan Tuesday Chandan/Dinesh Chandan/Dinesh Wednesday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Wednesday Biplab, Chandan Biplab, Chandan Ekram, Thursday Ekram, Chandan Ambar, Ekram Thursday Ambar, Ekram Chandan/Dinesh Ambar, Biplab Ambar, Biplab Friday Ambar, Biplab Ambar, Biplab Friday Ekram, Saturday Ambar, Ekram Ekram, Chandan Saturday Ambar, Ekram Chandan/Dinesh Either from Table A or Table B, and their individual two cases each, it can be seen that Chandan and Dinesh could never work together on a Thursday. 43. D We know that all the possible situations of shift combinations as per the constraints are as follows : A Case 1 Case 2 B Case 1 Case 2 Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Ekram, Ekram, Tuesday Dinesh, Chandan Dinesh, Chandan Tuesday Chandan/Dinesh Chandan/Dinesh Wednesday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Wednesday Biplab, Chandan Biplab, Chandan Ekram, Thursday Ekram, Chandan Ambar, Ekram Thursday Ambar, Ekram Chandan/Dinesh Friday Ambar, Biplab Ambar, Biplab Friday Ambar, Biplab Ambar, Biplab Ekram, Saturday Ambar, Ekram Ekram, Chandan Saturday Ambar, Ekram Chandan/Dinesh From Table B, which represents Ekram working with a different guard every time during the week, we can see on Wednesday, either Ambar and E kram, or Ekram and Chandan, or Ekram and Dinesh could work together. Hence, the answer cannot be determined 44. C We know that all the possible situations of shift combinations as per the constraints are as follows : A Case 1 Case 2 B Case 1 Case 2 Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Monday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram 39  Ekram, Ekram, Tuesday Dinesh, Chandan Dinesh, Chandan Tuesday Chandan/Dinesh Chandan/Dinesh Wednesday Biplab, Ekram Biplab, Ekram Wednesday Biplab, Chandan Bipla