GEOG/ENST 1150/1170 Midterm Exam 1A PDF

1 of 10 Course: GEOG/ENST 1150/1170 Name: ______________________ Instructor: Dr. A. Cornwell ID#:_________________________ Date: Oct. 9, 2024, 4:05 – 5:20 Midterm Examination 1A Instructions: Th...

1 of 10 Course: GEOG/ENST 1150/1170 Name: ______________________ Instructor: Dr. A. Cornwell ID#:_________________________ Date: Oct. 9, 2024, 4:05 – 5:20 Midterm Examination 1A Instructions: The midterm consists of 10 pages. There are 75 multiple choice questions worth 1 mark each, for a total of 75 marks. Please mark both the test paper and your score sheet using a pencil. Make sure that your ‘Student ID’ is marked correctly, and that the ‘Version’ is marked ‘A’. You will have 75 minutes to complete the exam, so plan your time accordingly. 1. This is an example of potential energy. a) Sunlight on a leaf b) Running water in a river c) A collision between hockey players d) Water stored behind a dam 2. The ‘environment’ includes what components? a) the biosphere, hydrosphere, and atmosphere b) the lithosphere, biosphere, and hydrosphere c) the atmosphere, lithosphere, hydrosphere, biosphere, and cryosphere d) the atmosphere, cryosphere, and biosphere 3. The belief that ecosystem components have value unrelated to humans is a: a) technocentric view b) ecocentric view c) existential view d) anthropocentric view 4. The Trans Mountain expansion is building a pipeline in order to ________. a) increase capacity to move heavy petroleum products from Alberta to the BC coast b) connect offshore oilfields in Newfoundland to the oil sands in Northern Alberta c) connect the oil sands to refinery plants in the United States d) bring natural gas from BC to consumers in Eastern Canada 5. Rapid human population growth began when: a) medical care became wildly available b) people began to accumulate greater amounts of wealth c) humans learned how to exploit energy stored in Earth’s crust d) All of the above  2 of 10 6. Most water use worldwide is for: a) agricultural use b) industrial use c) residential use d) commercial use 7. ‘Systems thinking’ requires: a) Considering how individual components fit together b) Large computer models c) Focussing on the smallest level of detail d) all of the above 8. The shape of the population ‘pyramid’ for a country with low life expectancy and a high birth rate has what shape? a) circular b) pyramid c) upside-down pyramid d) barrel-shaped 9. Planetary carrying capacity is compromised by such pressures as: a) over-population b) poverty c) over-consumption and pollution d) All of the above 10. Which of the following arises when resource abundance and human consumption don’t match? a) poverty b) degradation c) pollution d) extinction e) all of the above 11. Which of the following is NOT a method for encouraging compliance with international agreements? a) Peer pressure b) Trade sanctions c) Negative publicity d) Criminal charges 12. One function of inequality is that: a) not all populations have the same ecological footprint b) irreversible change brings enormous impacts c) pollution rises as consumption increases d) all of the above 13. Which of the following is NOT a reason that we seem less concerned about the ozone layer today? a) The Montreal Protocol set targets to phase out ozone-depleting CFCs b) The ozone layer has fully recovered c) CFC emissions have gone down d) The ozone layer turned out to be unimportant  3 of 10 14. As the human population increases, the number of hectares available per person will ________. a) decrease in area but improve in quality b) increase c) remain the same d) decrease 15. Lichens are often the first colonizers in primary succession a) True b) False 16. One way science can try to understand the complexity of natural systems is by the use of ________. a) biodiversity b) simplified models c) community cooperation d) policies 17. Resilience is best described as _____________. a) the ability of a surface to resist puncture b) the ability of a system to absorb disturbance and still retain its basic function c) the ability of a system to react to stimulus by forcing the extinction of undesirable species d) the ability of a system to change in response to disturbance 18. Researchers suggest that the most important reason why overall human welfare is improving on a global scale and yet ecosystems continue to be degraded is that ________. a) due to a time lag, the worst is yet to come regarding the full impacts of global degradation b) human welfare is mainly tied to food production, which has increased c) humans are worse off than our indexes seem to show d) humans have averted the worst consequences of environmental degradation through technology 19. The assessment of Millenium Development Goal targets suggests that: a) we are improving the environment but not the lot of humanity b) we are improving the lot of humanity but not the environment c) we are not meeting most of the goals d) we are reaching all of the goals 20. The portion of the ecosphere that contains all ice on Earth is called the ________. a) cryosphere b) lithosphere c) atmosphere d) thermosphere 21. The term “light living” means: a) living in an enlightened state of being b) being more active and eating out less c) treading lightly to minimize our ecological footprints d) None of the above  4 of 10 22. Canada is a federated state, which means its power and authority are: a) mostly held by the provinces and municipalities b) mostly held by the federal government c) shared between the federal and provincial governments d) dictated by municipalities 23. Ecological redundancy provides resilience because: a) the habitat remains undisturbed, allowing the population to grow without limit b) reduction or extinction of one species can be compensated for by others c) environmental protective legislation can designate conservation areas d) species can become endemic to only one area 24. Common characteristics of living organisms include: a) they react to their environment b) they use energy to maintain internal order c) they increase in size and complexity over time d) all of the above 25. The Law of Everybody suggests that: a) when many individuals act for the environment, the resulting change is cumulative b) small changes make a difference if everybody takes part c) individuals don’t have a large enough effect to make a difference d) Both (a) and (b) 26. The principle that tells us that there is always a decrease in usable energy when it is transformed from one form to another is described by ________. a) ecosystem homeostasis b) the law of conservation of energy c) the second law of thermodynamics d) the first law of thermodynamics 27. The approach used by Indigenous peoples to develop knowledge is referred to as: a) field knowledge b) non-Western knowledge c) oral knowledge d) traditional ecological knowledge 28. The following component of the hydrosphere with the least amount of water is the _________. a) oceans b) groundwater c) ice caps d) wetlands 29. Organisms that capture energy from other organisms are called: a) chemoautotrophs b) heterotrophs c) colonizers d) photoautotrophs  5 of 10 30. Which of the following is not an output of respiration? a) energy b) carbon dioxide c) water d) carbohydrates 31. These two gases account for 99 per cent of the gaseous volume of the troposphere. a) Hydrogen; carbon dioxide b) Carbon dioxide; nitrogen c) Nitrogen; oxygen d) Oxygen; carbon dioxide 32. Specialist species are more susceptible to population fluctuations because: a) they have a wide range of food sources, making disease more likely b) their immune system is often weaker c) they have relatively narrow niches d) all of the above 33. Photosynthesis requires: a) solar energy b) carbon dioxide c) water d) All of the above 34. Biome distribution is principally determined by: a) temperature and precipitation b) number of sunlight hours received c) latitude and longitude d) all of the above 35. What is the limiting factor that makes the open ocean an unproductive biome? a) Water b) Nutrients c) Energy d) Carbon dioxide 36. Net community productivity (NCP): a) is GPP minus NPP b) is GPP plus NPP c) is GPP plus total respiration d) is GPP minus total respiration 37. The O-Horizon of the soil contains: a) Mineral particles b) Air pockets c) Organic material d) All of the above  6 of 10 38. Which of the following is not an auxiliary energy flow? a) fertilizers b) the sun c) gasoline d) pesticides 39. Biodiversity is recognized at the following levels: a) population, community, and ecosystem b) organism, species, and population c) genetic, species, and ecosystem d) organism, population, and community 40. The realized niche for a population is smaller than the fundamental niche for that species because of: a) physiological stress b) interactions with other species c) degrees of specialization d) habitat islands 41. The Sustainable Development Goals build upon the Millennium Development Goals and have a broader environmental scope. a) True b) False 42. Some people recommend that scientists should avoid advocacy of any particular solution: a) because advocacy likely leads to flawed experimental design b) for fear that the scientist will be perceived as being biased c) to generate appropriate definitions of problems for environmental managers d) to ensure the scientists’ work is relevant for decision-makers 43. The soil component having the smallest particle size is: a) silt b) clay c) gravel d) sand 44. The “parent material” of soil is: a) rock and/or gravel b) living plants c) liquid water d) all of the above 45. Optimal foraging theory suggests that: a) focussing on larger prey is the best strategy b) species can only forage in one area c) predators will switch prey when their main prey becomes scarce d) foraging strategies are a balance of costs and benefits  7 of 10 46. Commensalism is a relationship that is ________. a) harmful to one species b) beneficial to neither species c) beneficial to one species d) beneficial to both species 47. The niche of a species is: a) the chemical conditions required for its growth b) the biological conditions required for its growth c) the physical conditions required for its growth d) all of the above 48. In interference competition, two species are competing _____________. a) to acquire the same resources b) to possess the same territory c) to escape the same predator d) any of the above 49. Which of the following is/are NOT an abiotic ecosystem component. a) Precipitation b) Sunlight c) Soil pH d) Autotrophs 50. Lichens: a) are partnerships between a moss and a plant b) are the same as mosses c) only grow on bare rock d) are partnerships between fungi and photosynthetic algae 51. What type of succession occurs where a community frequently returns to earlier seral stages due to disturbance? a) Cyclic succession b) Primary succession c) Climax succession d) Seral succession 52. The richer zones that occur between communities and have the highest species diversity are known as: a) ecotones b) biomes c) seral stages d) climax zones  8 of 10 53. Ecosystems with these qualities can best withstand human interference without experiencing serious damage. a) high inertia and low resilience b) high inertia and high resilience c) low inertia and low resilience d) low inertia and high resilience 54. The forest biome is characterized by: a) Continuous tree cover b) Widely spaced trees with low vegetation in between c) Continuous layer of shrubs d) Widely spaced shrubs with grasses in between 55. Canada has experienced a serious alien invasion of: a) Zebra mussel b) Dutch elm disease c) Knapweed d) All of the above 56. Mature ecosystems are not characterized by: a) high species diversity b) efficient nutrient cycling c) high community organization d) high net productivity 57. The sea otter was extirpated from the BC coast due to: a) disease b) overhunting c) predation by orcas d) habitat loss 58. Invasive species are organisms that are: a) parasitic b) found outside their normal range c) ecological keystones d) all of the above 59. This is a behaviour of K-strategists: a) have a low level of parental care b) produce few offspring c) live in unpredictable environments d) reproduce at an early age 60. Many aquatic invasive species are introduced: a) in ballast water b) in firewood transport c) intentionally d) in food shipments  9 of 10 61. The process where species develop different or new traits as a result of human pressure is: a) genetic mutation b) alien invasion c) contemporary evolution d) adaptive radiation 62. A feedback loop that counteracts existing change is a: a) negative feedback loop b) neutral feedback loop c) positive feedback loop d) stable feedback loop 63. The smallest particles that still exhibit characteristics of an element are called: a) neutrons b) protons c) electrons d) atoms 64. r-strategists: a) produce few offspring b) succeed in unpredictable environments c) reproduce at a late age d) are very sensitive to disturbance 65. The process whereby a species is eliminated because it can no longer survive under new conditions. a) Range of tolerance b) Exspeciation c) Extinction d) Adaptive radiation 66. A current measure being taken to prevent invasive species from arriving in the Great Lakes/St. Lawrence seaway is: a) limiting the number of ships entering the St. Lawrence River b) preventing the importation of drinking water c) restricting the discharge of ballast water d) all of the above 67. The chemical elements that are necessary for living things are referred to as: a) nutrients b) compounds c) proteins d) carbohydrates 68. The fossil record suggests that almost ________ of species that have lived on Earth are now extinct. a) 99 per cent b) 82 per cent c) 75 per cent d) 89 per cent  10 of 10 69. An example of a non-point source of pollution would be: a) discharge from a factory b) runoff from agricultural land c) a sewage plant effluent pipe d) a pipe discharging heated water 70. Which of the following is not true of matter? a) It cannot be created nor destroyed. b) It has an infinite supply. c) It cannot be consumed so that it no longer exists. d) It has mass and takes up space. 71. Large amounts of carbon can be stored in: a) forests b) coral reefs c) peat bogs d) All of the above 72. The phosphorus cycle lacks the ________ phase. a) solid b) liquid c) sedimentary d) gaseous 73. Atmospheric sulphur often comes from: a) combustion of coal b) photosynthesis c) plant respiration d) All of the above 74. Acid deposition is due mainly to human interference in the: a) sulfur and nitrogen cycles b) carbon and sulfur cycles c) phosphorus and sulfur cycles d) carbon and phosphorus cycles 75. Saturation vapour pressure is: a) the point at which no more salt will dissolve b) the vapour pressure of water at equilibrium c) the pressure for water to evaporate d) lowest in the summer