CBSE Class 10 Social Science MCQs (2021) PDF

2021 Prepared by Mr.Sasi Krishnan HOD, Social Science ********************************************************************************** Sanjay Ghodawat International School , Kolhapur SOCIAL SCIENCE MCQs for CBSE CLASS 10 1. Who among the following formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’? 1 (a) Otto von Bismarck (b) Giuseppe Mazzini (c) Metternich (d) Johann Gottfried Herder Ans : (b) 2. Elle, the measuring unit in Germany was used to measure: 1 (a) cloth (b) thread (c) land (d) height Ans : (a) 3. Zollevrein started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a: 1 (a) Trade Union (b) Customs Union (c) L abour Union (d) Farmer’s Union Ans : (b) 4. What do the saints, angels and Christ symbolise in the Utopian vision? 1 (a) Equality among people (b) Fraternity among nations (c) Freedom of nations (d) Resentment against nations Ans : (b) 5. Who were the ‘Junkers’? 1 (a) Soldiers (b) L arge landowners (c) Aristocracy (d) Weavers Ans : (b) 6. Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation? 1 (a) Treaty of Constantinople, 1832 (b) Treaty of Vienna, 1815 (c) Treaty of Versailles, 1871 (d) None of these MCQ Booklet MCQ BOOKLET Ans : (a) 7. By which of the following treaties was the United Kingdom of Great Britain formed? 1 (a) Treaty of Versailles (b) Act of Union (c) Treaty of Paris (d) Treaty of Vienna Ans : (b) 8. Which of the following group of powers collectively defeated Napoleon? BARP 1 (a) England, France, Italy, Russia (b) England, Austria, Spain, Russia (c) Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain (d) Britain, Prussia, Russia, Italy Ans : (c) 9. Romanticism refers to a: 1 (a) cultural movement (b) religious movement (c) political movement (d) literary movement Ans : (a) 10. Austrian Chancellor _____________ hosted the Congress of Vienna. 1 Ans : Duke Metternich 11. The ﬁrst clear expression of nationalism came with the_________________. 1 Ans : French revolution 12. The Civil Code of 1804 was known as the__________. 1 Ans : Napoleonic Code 13. _______________ became the allegory of the German nation. 1 Ans : Germania 14. Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were democratic in nature. (True/False) 1 Ans : False MCQ Booklet 15. A direct vote by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal is known 1 as la patrie. (True/False) Ans : False 16. In 1861, Friedrich Wilhelm IV was proclaimed the king of united Italy. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 17. The term ‘absolutist’ referred to monarchical government. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 18. Match the columns. 1 Column A Column B (i) brought the (a) French conservative regimes Revolution back to power (ii) ensured right to (b) Liberalism property for the privileged class (iii) recognised Greece (c) Napoleonic as an independent Code nation (iv) transfer of sovereignty (d) The Treaty of from monarch to the Vienna French citizens (v) individual freedom (e) Treaty of and equality before Constantinople law Ans : (a) (iv), (b) (v), (c) (ii), (d) (i), (e) (iii) 19. Which one of the following types of government was functioning in France before the revolution 1 of 1789? (a) Dictatorship (b) Military (c) Body of French Citizen (d) Monarchy Ans : (d) 20. Which of the following countries is considered as the ‘cradle of European civilization’? (a) 1 England (b) France (c) Greece (d) Russia MCQ Booklet Ans : (c) 21. Frederic Sorrieu was a _________________. 1 Ans : French artist 22. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the_____________ Empire. 1 Ans : Ottoman 23. The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 24. Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals. 1 (True/False) Ans : True 25. Who was Frederic Sorrieu? 1 Ans : Frederic Sorrieu was a French artist who visualised a world, made up of democratic and social republics, and put his dream down in a series of four prints. 26. What is referred to as Absolutism? 1 Ans : Unrestricted, despotic and authoritarian monarchial system of rule or government is referred to as absolutism. 27. Deﬁne Nation. 1 Ans : A body of people who are united by same past, culture, political system and common interests can be deﬁned as a Nation. 28. What was the concept of a nation-state? 1 Ans : The concept of a nation-state was one in which people and rulers of land came together to develop a sense of common identity and shared history. 29. Deﬁne Plebiscite. 1 Ans : Plebiscite is a system of direct vote by which the people of a region, themselves decide to accept or reject a proposal. MCQ Booklet What was the major change that occured in the political and constitutional scenario due to 30. French Revolution in Europe? 1 Ans : The French Revolution led to the transfer of sovereignty from the monarchy to a body of French citizens. It proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny. 31. Name the provinces under the Habsburg Empire. 1 Ans : The Habsburg Empire ruled over Austria-Hungary. It included the Alpine region of Tyrol, Austria, Sudetenland as well as Bohemia along with Italian speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia. 32. What was the strong demand of the emerging middle class in Europe during the 19th century? 1 Ans : The emerging middle class of Europe demanded constitutionalism with national uniﬁcation. 33. What was elle? 1 Ans : Elle was the measure of cloth. It was different for each of the 39 states of German confederation. 34. What was the basic philosophy of the conservatives? 1 Ans : The basic philosophy of the conservatives was to preserve the traditional institutions such as church, monarchy, social hierarchies, property and family etc. 35. Who hosted the Congress of Vienna in 1815? 1 Ans : Duke Metternich hosted the Congress of Vienna in 1815. 36. What was main aim of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815? 1 Ans : The main aim of the Treaty of Vienna of 1815 was to undo the changes brought about in Europe during the Napoleonic wars. 37. What was the major issue taken up by the liberal nationalists? 1 Ans : The liberal nationalists took up the issue of freedom of press. 38. What was the main aim of the revolutionaries of Europe? 1 Ans : The European revolutionaries aimed at opposing the monarchial order established after the Vienna Congress and struggle for liberty and freedom. MCQ Booklet 39. Who remarked “When France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold”? 1 Ans : These words were said by Duke Metternich. 40. How did Lord Byron contribute to the Greek war of Independence? 1 Ans : Lord Byron, an English poet, organised funds for the Greek struggle against the Ottoman Empire and also participated in the war. 41. What is Romanticism? 1 Ans : Romanticism refers to cultural movement that sought to develop a particular form of nationalist sentiment through emotions, folk songs, poetry and dances. What is meant by das volk? 1 Ans : Das volk is a German word meaning common people. 43. Where was the Frankfurt Parliament convened? 1 Ans : The Frankfurt Parliament was convened at the Church of St Paul. 44. Why did the middle class lose its support after the failure of the Frankfurt Parliament? 1 Ans : The middle class lost its support after the failure of the Frankfurt Parliament because they resisted the demands of the workers and the artisans. 45. Who were referred as ‘Junkers’ in Prussia? 1 Ans : Junkers, in Prussia, the large land owning class. 46. Which state led the uniﬁcation of Germany? 1 Ans : Prussia led the uniﬁcation of Germany. 47. Who holds the credit of unifying Germany? 1 Ans : Otto von Bismarck holds the credit of unifying Germany. 48. Who was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871? 1 Ans : Kaiser William I was proclaimed as the emperor of Germany after its uniﬁcation in 1871. 49. Who headed Sardinia-Piedmont? MCQ Booklet 1 MCQ BOOKLET Social Science Ans : King Victor Emmanuel II headed Sardinia-Piedmont. 50. What was the result of the Act of Union (1707)? 1 Ans : The Act of Union 1707 resulted in the formation of United Kingdom of Great Britain with the incorporation of Scotland. 51. Which Italian patriot organised a group of soldiers known as ‘Red Shirts’? 1 Ans : Giuseppe Garibaldi, an Italian patriot, organised a group of soldiers known as Red Shirts. 52. What was Germania? 1 Ans : It was an allegory of Germany. 53. Who were the Slavs? 1 Ans : The inhabitants of the regions under the Ottoman Empire like modern-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro were called the Slavs. 54. What made the Balkan area explosive? 1 Ans : The spread of romantic nationalism and disintegration of Ottoman Empire made the Balkan area very explosive. 55. What do you mean by nationalism? 1 Ans : Devotion, love, and patriotic feelings for one’s own nation is called nationalism. It is a feeling of political consciousness and unity among the people of a state. 56. Duke metternich was the Chancellor of which country? 1 Ans : Duke Metternich was the Chancellor of Austria. 57. What decisions were taken at the Congress of Vienna? 1 Ans : In France, the Bourbon dynasty was restored to power with a number of states set up on its boundaries. Prussia was given important new territories, Austria got control of northern Italy and Russia was given part of Poland. 58. Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation? 1 MCQ Booklet Ans : The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation. 59. Why 1830s were the years of great economic hardship in Europe? 1 Ans : 1830s were the years of great economic hardship in Europe because of increase in population, unemployment, migration, price rise, stiff competition in the market and bad condition of peasants. 60. What was the allegory of France called? 1 Ans : Allegory of France was called Marianne. 61. Why did Gandhiji organise Satyagraha in 1917 in Kheda district of Gujarat? 1 (a) To support the plantation workers (b) To protest against high revenue demand (c) To support the mill workers to fulﬁl their demand (d) To demand loans for the farmers Ans : (b) 62. Why was Satyagraha organised in Champaran in 1916? 1 (a) To oppose the British laws (b) To oppose the plantation system (c) To oppose high land revenue (d) To protest against the oppression of the mill workers Ans : (b) 63. Why was the Simon Commission sent to India? 1 (a) To look into the Indian constitutional matter and suggest reform (b) To choose members of Indian Council (c) To settle disputes between the government and the Congress leaders (d) To set up a government organisation Ans : (a) 64. Why was Alluri Sitarama Raju well known? 1 (a) He led the militant movement of tribal peasants in Andhra Pradesh. (b) He led a peasant movement in Avadh. (c) He led a satyagraha movement in Bardoli. (d) He set up an organisation for the uplifment of the dalits. Ans : (a) 65. Why did General Dyer open ﬁre on peaceful crowd in Jallianwalla Bagh? Mark the most important 1 factor. (a) To punish the Indians (b) To take revenge for breaking martial laws MCQ Booklet MCQ BOOKLET Social Science (c) To create a feeling of terror and awe in the mind of Indians (d) To disperse the crowd Ans : (c) 66. What kind of movement was launched by the tribal peasants of Gudem Hills in Andhra Pradesh? 1 (a) Satyagraha Movement (b) Militant Guerrilla Movement (c) Non-Violent Movement (d) None of the above Ans : (b) 67. Who among the following two leaders led the Khilafat Movement? 1 (a) Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali (b) Gandhiji and Sardar Patel (c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Abul Kalam Azad (d) Abul Kalam Azad and Jawaharlal Nehru Ans : (a) 68. Why did Gandhiji withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? 1 (a) Gandhiji realised that people were losing interest in the movement. (b) Gandhiji felt that the movement was turning violent in many places. (c) Some Congress leaders wanted to participate in elections to Provincial Councils. (d) Some Congress leaders wanted more radical mass agitations. Ans : (b) 69. Who were the ‘Sanatanis’? 1 (a) Saints (b) Dalits (c) Labours (d) High-caste Hindus Ans : (d) 70. The main problem with the Simon Commission was that: 1 (a) It was an all British commission. (b) It was formed in Britain. (c) It was set up in response to the nationalist movement. (d) It supported the Muslim League. Ans : (a) 71. ‘Hind Swaraj’ was written by: 1 (a) Abul Kalam Azad (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Sardar Patel (d) Subhas Chandra Bose Ans : (b) MCQ Booklet 72. Why did the Indians oppose the Rowlatt Act? 1 (a) It introduced the Salt Law. (b) It increased taxes on land. (c) It gave the British the power to arrest and detain a person without a trial. (d) It put a ban on the Congress party. Ans : (c) 73. Gandhiji’s march from Sabarmati to Dandi is called the _______________. 1 Ans : Salt March 74. The Depressed Classes Association was formed by _______________. 1 Ans : Dr. B.R. Ambedkar 75. The Muslim League was started by _______________. 1 Ans : Muhammad Ali Jinnah 76. The Statutory Commission that arrived in India in 1928 was led by _______________. 1 Ans : John Simon 77. The Swaraj Party was set up by _______________ and _______________. 1 Ans : Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das 78. During the First World War, the Indian Industrialists suffered huge loss. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 79. Gandhiji’s idea which emphasized truth and nonviolence is referred as Swaraj. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 80. Khilafat Movement was led by the Ali Brothers. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 81. Baba Ramchandra and JawaharLal Nehru headed Oudh Kisan Sabha. (True/False) 1 Ans : True MCQ Booklet 82. The term ‘begar’ means homeless labour. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 83. Match the columns. 1 Column A Column B (a) Bankim Chandra (i) Depressed Classes Chattopadhyay Association (ii) Famous image of (b) B.R Ambedkar Bharat Mata (c) Sir Mohammad (iii) The Folklore of Iqbal Southern India (d) Abanindranath (iv) President of the Tagore Muslim League (e) Natesa Sastri (v) Vande Matram Ans : (a) (v), (b) (i), (c) (iv), (d) (ii), (e) (iii) 84. Due to the effect of the Non-Cooperation movement on the plantation workers in Assam, they: 1 (a) left the plantations and headed home. (b) went on strike. (c) destroyed the plantations. (d) None of these Ans : (a) 85. The resolution of Purna Swaraj was adopted at which session? 1 (a) Karachi Congress (b) Haripur Congress (c) Lahore Congress (d) Lucknow Congress Ans : (c) 86. Which one of the following Viceroys announced a vague offer of dominion status for India in 1 October 1929? (a) Lord Mount batten (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Irwin (d) None of these Ans : (c) 87. The Indian tricolor was ﬁrst designed at the time of _______________. 1 Ans : Swadeshi Movement MCQ Booklet 88. _____________ presided over the Lahore session of Congress in 1929. 1 Ans : Jawaharlal Nehru 89. Alluri Sitarama Raju could perform miracles. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 90. The four volume collection of Tamil folktales – “The folklore of Southern India” was published by 1 Natesa Sastri. (True/False) Ans : True 91. Violation of Salt Tax by Gandhi led to the Civil Disobedience Movement. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 92. Match the columns. 1 Column A Column B (i) Refused to deal with or (a) Hartal associate with someone or with something (ii) To strike off work, a (b) Boycott form of demonstration (c) Begar (iii) Form of salutation (iv) Deprive some one of (d) Salam the service of washer man (v) Forced or bonded (e) Dhobi- labour bandh without payment Ans : (a) (ii), (b) (i), (c) (v), (d) (iii), (e) (iv) 93. People livelihood and local economy of which one of the following was badly affected by the 1 disease named Rinderpest. (a) Asia (b) Europe (c) Africa (d) South America Ans : (c) 94. Which of the following places was an important destination for indentured migrants? 1 (a) Florida (b) Melbourne MCQ BOOKLET MCQ BookletSocial Sciencee 93. Which of the following statements is/ are true about the Dandi March of Mahatma Gandhi? (a) It started on 11 March, 1930 and ended on 6 April, 1930 (b) Mahatma Gandhi marched over 240 miles with 78 of his trusted followers covering 10 miles a day (c) On 6th April, Gandhiji ceremonially violated the Salt Law, manufacturing salt by boiling seawater. (d) All the above Ans. (d) 94. Who was the first writer to create the image of 'Bharat Mata' as an identity of India and how? a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay in 1870, by writing the song “Vande Mataram" and later including it in his novel 'Anand Math' b) Rabindranath Tagore through his collection of ballads, nursery rhymes and myth c) Mahatma Gandhiji during his salt march and satyagraha. d) Ravi Verma 95. Certain events are given below. Choose the appropriate chronological order: I. Coming of Simon Commission to India II. Demand of Purna Swaraj in Lahore Session of INC III. Government of India Act 1919 IV. Champaran Satyagraha a) i—iv—iii—ii b) iv—iii—i—ii c) iv—i—ii-iii d) iii—iv—ii—i 96. Arrange the following historical events in a chronological sequence I. Rowlatt Act II. Kheda Satyagraha III. Champaran Movement IV. Ahmedabad Mill Strike Choose the Correct option: a) I, II, III, IV b) II, I, III, IV c) III, I, IV, II d) III, II, IV, I 97. Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi, was the leader of which of the following movements? (a) Khilafat Movement (b) Militant Guerrilla Movement of Andhra Pradesh (c) Peasants’ Movement of Awadh (d) Plantation Workers’ Movement in Assam 98. The Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement began in (a) January 1921 (b) February 1922 (c) December 1929 (d) April 1919 99. Under the presidency of Jawahahar Lai Nehru, the Lahore Congress Session of 1929 formalised the demand of (a) abolition of Salt Tax (b) ‘Puma Swaraj’ or complete independence (c) boycott of Simon Commission (d) separate electorate for the ‘dalits’ 100. Who formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ within the Congress? (a) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Motilal Nehru (b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Mahatma Gandhi (c) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose (d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru 101. Who founded the ‘Depressed Classes Association’ in 1930? (a) Alluri Sitaram Raju (b) C.R. Das (c) M.R. Jayakar (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar 102. Which party did not boycott the Council elections held in the year 1921? (a) Swaraj Party (b) Justice Party (c) Muslim League (d) Congress Party 103. Why did General Dyer order to open fire on a i peaceful demonstration at Jallianwala Bagh? Choose from the given options. (a) He wanted to show his power. (b) Firing was ordered because it was an unruly crowd. (c) Because his object, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’ to create fear in the minds of ‘satyagrahis’. (d) He ordered to fire because he noticed a j sudden unrest in the crowd. 104.Why did Gandhiji organize Satyagraha in 1917 in Kheda district of Gujarat? (a) To support the plantation workers (b) To protest against high revenue demand (c) To support the mill workers to fulfill their demand (d) To demand loans for the farmers 105.Why was Satyagraha organized in Champaran in 1916? (a) To oppose the British laws (b) To oppose the plantation system (c) To oppose high land revenue (d) To protest against the oppression of the mill workers 106.Why was the Simon Commission sent to India? (a) To look into the Indian constitutional matter and suggest reform (b) To choose members of Indian Council (c) To settle disputes between the government and the Congress leaders (d) To set up a government organization 107. Why was Alluri Sitarama Raju well known? (a) He led the militant movement of tribal peasants in Andhra Pradesh. (b) He led a peasant movement in Avadh. (c) He led a satyagraha movement in Bardoli. (d) He set up an organisation for the uplifment of the dalits. 108.Why did General Dyer open fire on peaceful crowd in Jallianwalla Bagh? Mark the most important factor. (a) To punish the Indians (b) To take revenge for breaking martial laws (c) To create a feeling of terror and awe in the mind of Indians (d) To disperse the crowd 109.What kind of movement was launched by the tribal peasants of Gudem Hills in Andhra Pradesh? (a) Satyagraha Movement (b) Militant Guerrilla Movement (c) Non-Violent Movement (d) None of the above 110.Who among the following two leaders led the Khilafat Movement? (a) Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali (b) Gandhiji and Sardar Patel (c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Abul Kalam Azad (d) Abul Kalam Azad and Jawaharlal Nehru 111.Why did Gandhiji withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? [Delhi 2011] (a) Gandhiji realised that people were losing interest in the movement. (b) Gandhiji felt that the movement was turning violent in many places. (c) Some Congress leaders wanted to participate in elections to Provincial Councils. (d) Some Congress leaders wanted more radical mass agitations. 112.Who were the ‘Sanatanis’? (a) Saints (b) Dalits (c) Labours (d) High-caste Hindus 113.The main problem with the Simon Commission was that: (a) It was an all British commission. (b) It was formed in Britain. (c) It was set up in response to the nationalist movement. (d) It supported the Muslim League. 114.‘Hind Swaraj ’ was written by: (a) Abul Kalam Azad (b) Mahatma Gandhi (c) Sardar Patel (d) Subhas Chandra Bose 115.Why did the Indians oppose the Rowlatt Act? (a) It introduced the Salt Law. (b) It increased taxes on land. (c) It gave the British the power to arrest and detain a person without a trial. (d) It put a ban on the Congress party. 116.Due to the effect of the Non-Cooperation movement on the plantation workers in Assam, they: (a) left the plantations and headed home. (b) went on strike. (c) destroyed the plantations. (d) None of these 117.The resolution of Purna Swaraj was adopted at which session? (a) Karachi Congress (b) Haripur Congress (c) Lahore Congress (d) Lucknow Congress 118. Which one of the following Viceroys announced a vague offer of dominion status for India in October 1929? [All India 2012] (a) Lord Mount batten (b) Lord Dalhousie (c) Lord Irwin (d) None of these 119.Which of the following was Mahatma Gandhi’s novel method of fighting against the British? (a) He used violent method of stone pelting. (b) He used arson to bum down government offices. (c) He fought with the principle of ‘an eye for i an eye’. (d) He practised open defiance of law, ; peaceful demonstration, satyagraha and non-violence. 120.What does satyagraha mean? Choose one from the following options. (a) ‘Satyagraha’ means use of physical force to inflict pain while fighting. (b) ‘Satyagraha’ does not inflict pain, it is a : non-violent method of fighting against oppression. (c) ‘Satyagraha’ means passive resistance and is a weapon of the weak. (d) ‘Satyagraha’ was a racist method of mass agitation.. 121.What was the purpose of imposing the Rowlatt Act? (a) The Rowlatt Act forbade the Indians to : qualify for administrative services. (b) The Rowlatt Act had denied Indians the right to political participation. (c) The Rowlatt Act imposed additional taxes on Indians who were already groaning under the burden of taxes. (d) The Rowlatt Act authorised the government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law 122.Where did the brutal ‘Jallianwala Massacre’ take place? (a) Amritsar (b) Meerut (c) Lahore (d) Lucknow 123.Khilafat Committee was formed in 1919 in the city of (a) Bombay (b) Calcutta (c) Lucknow (d) Amritsar 124.The Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement began in (a) January 1921 (b) February 1922 (c) December 1929 (d) April 1919 125.Which of the following was the reason for calling off the Non-cooperation Movement by Gandhiji? (a) Pressure from the British Government (b) Second Round Table Conference (c) Gandhiji’s arrest (d) Chauri-Chaura incident 126.Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi, was the leader of which of the following movements? (a) Khilafat Movement (b) Militant Guerrilla Movement of Andhra Pradesh (c) Peasants’ Movement of Awadh (d) Plantation Workers’ Movement in Assam 127.Who set up the ‘Oudh Kisan Sabha’? (a) Alluri Sitaram Raju (b) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Baba Ramchandra (c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Shaukat Ali (d) Mahatma Gandhi 128.Under the presidency of Jawahahar Lai Nehru, the Lahore Congress Session of 1929 formalised the demand of (a) abolition of Salt Tax (b) ‘Puma Swaraj’ or complete independence (c) boycott of Simon Commission (d) separate electorate for the ‘dalits’ 129.The ‘Simon Commission’ was boycotted because (a) there was no British Member in the Commission. (b) it demanded separate electorates for Hindus and Muslims. (c) there was no Indian Member in the Commission. (d) it favoured the Muslims over the Hindus. 130.A form of demonstration used in the Non-cooperation Movement in which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office is (a) Boycott (b) Begar (c) Picketing (d) Bandh 131.Who formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ within the Congress? (a) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Motilal Nehru (b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Mahatma Gandhi (c) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose (d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru 132.Who founded the ‘Depressed Classes Association’ in 1930? (a) Alluri Sitaram Raju (b) C.R. Das (c) M.R. Jayakar (d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar 133.Which party did not boycott the Council elections held in the year 1921? (a) Swaraj Party (b) Justice Party (c) Muslim League (d) Congress Party 134.What do you mean by the term ‘Begar’ (a) An Act to prevent plantation workers to leave the tea gardens without permission. (b) The forced recruitment of soldiers in rural areas during World War I. (c) Labour that villagers were forced to contribute without any payment. (d) Refusal to deal and associate with people, or participate in activities as a form of protest. 135.Where did Mahatma Gandhi start his famous ‘Salt March’ on 12th March 1930? (a) Dandi (b) Chauri-Chaura (c) Sabarmati (d) Surat 136.Which industrialist attacked colonial control over Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement? (a) Dinshaw Petit (b) Purshottamdas Thakurdas (c) Dwarkanath Tagore (d) Seth Hukumchand 137.Who visualised and depicted the image of ‘Bharat Mata’ through a painting? (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (b) Rabindranath Tagore (c) Natesa Sastri (d) Abanindranath Tagore 138.Who was the President of Muslim League in 1930? (a) Sir Muhammad Iqbal (b) Shaukat Ali (c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah (d) Maulana Azad 139.Civil Disobedience Movement started with which main demand. a) Abolition of Dowry b) Abolition of Untouchability c) Abolition of Salt Law d) None of the above options 140.Which of the following in true with reference of Satyagraha? (A) It emphasized the muscle power (B) It emphasized the Power of truth (C) Gandhiji successfully fought the racist regime of South Africa with the novel method. a) Only A is true b) Only B is true c) Both A and B are true d) Both B and C are true 141.At which place congress session of September 1920 held. a) Nagpur b) Calcutta C) Lahore d) Madras 142.Who was the leader of the Peasant Movements of Awadh? a) Alluri sitaram Raju b) Baba Ramchandra c) Mahatma Gandhi d) None of the above 143.Under which act the Plantations workers of Assam were not permitted to leave the tea garden? a) The Rowlatt Act b) Cripps Mission c) The Inland Migration act d) The Inland Emigration act 144.Name the leaders who founded Swaraj Party? a) CR Das and Motilal Nehru b) CR Das and Jawaharlal Nehru c) CR Das and Gandhiji d) CR Das and Dr B.R Ambedkar 145At which of the following place did Gandhiji make salt out of sea water (a) Ahmedabad (b) Wardha (c) Sabarmati (d) Dandi 146.Who wrote 'Hind Swaraj? a) Subhas Chandra Bose b) Jawaharlal Lal Nehru c) Mahatma Gandhi d) Sardar Patel 147. Which incident forced Gandhiji to halt the Non – cooperation movement? A) Jallianwala Bagh massacre b) The Rowlett act c) Chauri Chaura d) Arrest of Alluri Sitaram Rammaya 148.Who among the following led the civil disobedience movement in Peshawar ? a) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad b) Mohamad Ali c) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan d) None of the above 149.Who first created the image of Bharatmata? (a) Abanindranath Tagore (b) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (C) Rabindra nath Tagore d) None of the above 150. Which of the following method was not adopted by Dr B.R. Ambedkar to uplift the Dalits? (a) He signed Poona pact (b) He called them Harijans (C) He demanded separate electorates for them (d) He organized them into Depressed classes association in 1930 151. ‘Forced recruitment’ means a process by which (a) Indians were forced by the British rulers to finance the British army (b) The Indian princes had to supply soldiers to fight for the British (c) The colonial state forced people in rural areas to join the army (d) None of the above Ans. (c) 152. The growth of modern nationalism in India, as in Vietnam, is closely connected to : (a) A sense of oppression under colonialism (b) An anti-colonial movement (c) A discovery of unity in their struggle against colonialism (d) All the above Ans. (d) 153. Which of the following statements is not true about the Jallianwalla Bagh incident? (a) General Dyer blocked all exit points, and opened fire on the peaceful crowd, killing hundreds (b) Gandhiji went on indefinite fast to stop the repression by the British (c) As a reaction, crowds took to the streets in many Indian towns, attacking the police and government buildings. (d) Dyer’s aim was to produce a moral effect of great terror and awe in the minds of the satyagrahis Ans. (b) 154. Which of the following was not a part of Gandhiji’s satyagraha? (a) Emphasis on the power of truth and search for truth (b) Satyagraha as a pure soul-force (c) A physical force which sought destruction of the enemy (d) Not a weapon of the weak but a weapon which forced the adversary to accept the truth without violence Ans. (c) 155. The first three successful Satyagraha movements by Gandhiji in India were : (a) Against the Rowlatt Act, Civil Disobedience Movement and Quit India (b) Non-Cooperation Movement, Civil Disobedience and Khilafat (c) Peasants Movements in Champaran in Bihar, Kheda district in Gujarat and in Ahmedabad by cotton mill workers (d) Khilafat movement, Non-Cooperation and Quit India movement Ans. (c) 156. When was the Non-Cooperation programme adopted by the Congress? (a) At Surat in December 1920 (b) At Nagpur in December 1920 (c) At Calcutta in January 1921 (d) At Bombay in December 1920 Ans. (b) 157. The various social groups that joined the Non-Cooperation-Khilafat Movement of 1921, were : (a) The rich in the cities, the poor in the villages and the workers in plantations (b) The middle class in cities, the peasants and the tribals in the countryside and plantation workers (c) The students in cities, the farmers in villages and the workers in the plantations (d) The Brahmans in cities, the peasants in the villages and workers in plantations Ans. (b) 158. Why did Gandhiji urge the Congress to join the Khilafat Movement? (a) He wanted to support the Khilafat (b) He saw this as an opportunity to bring the Muslims under the umbrella of a unified national movement (c) He knew that without Hindu-Muslim unity no broad-based movement could be launched (d) Both (b) and (c) Ans. (d) 159. The Non-Cooperation Movement was started by Mahatma Gandhi in support of : (a) Khilafat (b) Swaraj (c) Khilafat and Swaraj (d) None of the above Ans. (c) 160. Why was the tribals’ chanting of Gandhiji’s name and raising slogans demanding “Swatantra Bharat” important ? (a) It showed the greatness of Mahatma Gandhi (b) They were going beyond their own locality and emotionally identifying with an all-India movement (c) They were a unifying force of the Non-Cooperation Movement (d) The various ways in which ‘Swaraj’ was interpreted by different people Ans. (b) MCQ BOOKLET Social Science 161.“There is enough for everybody’s need but not for anybody’s greed”. Who said this? 1 (a) Jawahar Lal Nehru (b) Atal Bihari Vajpai (c) M. K. Gandhi (d) Sunder Lal Bahuguna Ans : (c) 162.Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for 1 utilisation are known as (a) Potential resources (b) Stock (c) Developed resources (d) Reserves Ans : (c) 163.Which one of the following statements is correct as regard to international resources? 1 (a) Resources which are regulated by international institutions. (b) Resources which lie beyond the territorial waters. (c) Resources which are found along the international frontier. (d) Resources which are not yet developed. Ans : (a) 164.The ﬁrst International Earth Summit was held in 1 (a) Geneva (b) New York (c) Japan (d) Rio de Janeiro Ans : (d) 165.The most widespread relief feature of India is 1 (a) Mountains (b) Forests (c) Plains (d) Plateaus Ans : (c) 166.Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised 1 (a) Renewable (b) Developed (c) National (d) Potential Ans : (d) 167.Which one of the following statements is true about the term resources? [CBSE 2011] 1 (a) Resources are free gifts of nature. MCQ Booklet MCQ BOOKLET Social Science MCQ BOOKLET Social Science (b) They are the functions of human activities. (c) All those things which are found in nature. (d) Things which cannot be used to fulﬁll our needs. Ans : (b) 168.____________ and ___________ are the methods of soil conservation in hilly areas. 1 Ans : Terrace farming and contour ploughing 169.Old alluvial soil is called____________. 1 Ans : bangar 170.__________ is a method of growing rows of trees in arid regions. 1 Ans : Shelter belts 171.Landuse pattern of India is lopsided. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 172.The Alluvial Soil is the most widespread soil of India. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 173.Red soils are found in Thar Desert. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 174.Fossil fuels are examples of non-recyclable resources. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 175.Matching the columns. 1 Column A Column B (a) Uppermost layer of soil (i) Black soil (b) New alluvial (ii) Topsoil (c) Regur soil (iii) Over grazing MCQ Booklet MCQ BOOKLET Social Science MCQ BOOKLET Social Science (d) Land with many (iv) Khadar gullies and ravines (e) Land degradation (v) Bad Land Ans : (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(v), (e)–(iii) 176.The red soil is red in colour because 1 (a) it is rich in humus. (b) it is rich in iron compounds. (c) it is derived from volcanic origin. (d) it is rich in potash. Ans : (b) 177.Soil formed by intense leaching is 1 (a) Alluvial soil (b) Red soil (c) Laterite soil (d) Desert Ans : (c) 178._____________ soil has high water retaining capacity. 1 Ans : Black 179.Land consisting of many gullies and ravines are called ______________. 1 Ans : bad lands 180.Protection of soil from erosion is called soil conservation. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 181.Solar energy is an example of non-recyclable resource. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 182.Which of the following crops are grown with the onset of monsoons and are harvested in the 1 months of September-October? (a) Rabi (b) Kharif (c) Zadi (d) None of the above Ans : (b) MCQ Booklet 183.‘Slash and burn’ agriculture is a 1 (a) Shifting agriculture (b) Intensive agriculture (c) Commercial agriculture (d) None of these Ans : (a) 184.Grapes are mainly produced in the state of ________. 1 (a) Meghalaya (b) Himachal Pradesh (c) Mizoram (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans : (d) 185.Bhoodan – Gramdan movement was initiated by 1 (a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Vinoba Bhave (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Ans : (c) 186.Grouping of small land holdings into a bigger one is called 1 (a) ceiling on land holdings. (b) collectivisation. (c) cooperative farming. (d) consolidation of land holdings. Ans : (d) 187.Oranges are mainly produced in the state of ________. 1 (a) Madhya Pradesh (b) Maharashtra (c) Kerala (d) Tamil Nadu Ans : (b) 188.Intensive subsistence farming is practised in area of _______. [CBSE 2012] 1 (a) high population (b) low population (c) deserts (d) thick forests Ans : (a) 189.Which one of the following statements is incorrect as regards to commercial farming? 1 (a) Use of heavy doses of modern inputs. (b) Crops are grown for sale. (c) Family members are involved in growing crops. (d) Practised on large land holdings. Ans : (c) MCQ Booklet 190.Which one of the following is a rabi crop? 1 (a) Rice (b) Wheat (c) Bajra (d) Jowar Ans : (b) 191.The largest tea producing state of India is 1 (a) Karnataka (b) Assam (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Arunachal Pradesh Ans : (b) 192.A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is __________. 1 (a) Bajra (b) Rajma (c) Jowar (d) Ragi Ans : (d) 193.India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after _____________. 1 Ans : Brazil 194.___________ is the Golden ﬁbre of India. 1 Ans : Jute 195.______________ is a programme introduced by the Government that has resulted in increased 1 production of food grains. Ans : Green Revolution 196.Kerala is the largest producer of ______________ in India. 1 Ans : rubber 197.The crop grown in black soil is Rice. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 198.Castor seed is grown both as Rabi and Kharif crop. 1 (True/False) Ans : True MCQ Booklet MCQ BOOKLET Social Science 199. 1 Ans : True 200.Watermelon is grown during Zaid season. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 201.Match the columns 1 Column A Column B (a) Leading producer of (i) Kerala Maize (b) Leading rice producing (ii) Karnataka state (c) Leading sugarcane (iii) West producing state Bengal (d) Leading producer of (iv) Uttar rubber Pradesh Ans : (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (iv), (d) (i) 202.Specialised cultivation of fruits and vegetables iscalled 1 (a) Agriculture (b) Horticulture (c) Sericulture (d) Pisciculture Ans : (b) 203.Punjab and Haryana grow rice mainly due to 1 (a) availability of cheap labour. (b) development of canals irrigation and tubewells. (c) fertile soil. (d) development of transport network. Ans : (b) 204.Rabi crops are sown in 1 (a) Winter (b) Summer (c) Autumn (d) Spring Ans : (a) 205.The slash and burn agriculture is known as ________________ in the north–eastern states of 1 India. MCQ Booklet MCQ BOOKLET Social Science MCQ BOOKLET Social Science Ans : Jhumming 206.India is the largest producer and consumer of ______________ in the world. 1 Ans : pulses 207.Terrace cultivation leads to increase in the level of soil erosion. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 208.Minerals need to be conserved because 1 (i) They are renewable. (ii) They are depleting rapidly. (iii) They are needed for country’s industrial development. (iv) Their formation is very fast. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) All of the above Ans : (b) 209.Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to placer deposits? 1 (i) They occur as alluvial deposits. (ii) They are corroded by water. (iii) They occur in ocean beds. (iv) They are found in sands of the valley ﬂoors and the base of hills. (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (ii) and (iii) (c) (iii) and (iv) (d) (i) and (iv) Ans : (b) 210.The Hazira – Vijaipur – Jagdishpur pipeline does not pass through this state. 1 (a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Gujarat (c) Madhya Pradesh (d) Maharashtra Ans : (d) 211.Low grade brown coal is called 1 (a) Magnetite (b) Bauxite (c) Lignite (d) Limonite Ans : (c) 212.Which of the following states is the oldest producer of oil? 1 (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Assam (c) Andhra Pradesh (d) Gujarat MCQ Booklet Ans : (b) 213.Metallurgical coal used in the smelting of iron ore is 1 (a) Anthracite (b) Bituminous (c) Lignite (d) Peat Ans : (b) 214.Which one of the following states is the leading producer of Iron ore? 1 (a) Chhattisgarh (b) Jharkhand (c) Karnataka (d) Madhya Pradesh Ans : (c) 215.Kakrapara nuclear power station is located in the state of 1 (a) Maharashtra (b) Andhra Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Gujarat Ans : (d) 216.Nearly 10 kg of ___________ is required to manufacture one tonne of steel. 1 Ans : manganese 217.___________ in India has ideal conditions for utilising tidal energy. 1 Ans : Gulf of Kuchchh 218.________________ is the most important lignite mine of Tamil Nadu. 1 Ans : Neyveli 219.Kalpakkam is the nuclear power plant located in Tamil Nadu. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 220.The plant using cow dung is known as Gobar Gas Plant. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 221.Parvati Valley is the leading producer of Solar energy. (True/False) 1 Ans : False MCQ Booklet 222.Which one of the following is a non-metallic mineral? 1 (a) Lead (b) Copper (c) Tin (d) Limestone Ans : (d) 223.Kudremukh is an important Iron Ore mine of 1 (a) Kerala (b) Madhya Pradesh (c) Karnataka (d) Andhra Pradesh Ans : (c) 224.Which of the following minerals is mined at Balaghat mines? 1 (a) Manganese (b) Aluminium (c) Copper (d) Limestone Ans : (a) 225.Which of the following is an offshore oil ﬁeld? 1 (a) Ankaleshwar (b) Digboi (c) Kalol (d) Mumbai High Ans : (d) 226.Minerals are generally found in _____________. 1 Ans : ores 227.About 63% of India’s petroleum production comes from _______________. 1 Ans : Mumbai High 228.The Bailadila Hills look like the hump of a camel. 1 (True/False) Ans : False 229.The full form of CNG Compressed Natural Gas. 1 (True/False) Ans : True 230.Match the columns 1 Column A Column B (a) Manganese (i) Electrical industries MCQ Booklet (b) Copper (ii) Karnataka (c) Mica (iii) West Bengal (d) Limestone (iv) Madhya Pradesh (e) Coal (v) Cement Ans : (a) (ii), (b) (iii), (c) (i), (d) (v), (e) (iv) 231.Which one of the following cities has emerged as the ‘electronic capital’ of India? [All India 1 2012] (a) Delhi (b) Kolkata (c) Bengaluru (d) Hyderabad Ans : (c) 232.Which one of the following factors plays the most important role in the location of an industry in 1 a particular region? (a) Raw material (b) Market (c) Least production cost (d) Transport Ans : (c) 233.Which of the following industries is not a heavy industriy. 1 (a) Cotton textile (b) Cement (c) Iron and Steel (d) Ship building Ans : (a) 234.Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer, etc.? 1 (a) Cement (b) Iron and Steel (c) Electronic (d) Chemical Ans : (c) 235.Which one of the following public sector plants is located in Chhattisgarh? 1 (a) Bokaro Steel Plant (b) Bhilai Steel Plant (c) Durgapur Steel Plant (d) Rourkela Steel Plant Ans : (b) MCQ Booklet 236.Which one of the following agencies, markets steel for the public sector plants? 1 (a) HAIL (b) SAIL (c) TATA Steel (d) MNCC Ans : (b) 237.Which one of the following is not a centre of Automobile industry ? 1 (a) Chennai (b) Bengaluru (c) Jamshedpur (d) Coimbatore Ans : (d) 238.SAIL is an example of _______________industry. 1 Ans : Public Sector 239.The ﬁrst textile mill was set up at _____________. 1 Ans : Mumbai 240.India exports jute goods to ________________. 1 Ans : France 241.Silencers can be used to control______________. 1 Ans : Noise pollution 242.The sugar industry is well suited to the cooperative sector. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 243.Coir industry is an example of cooperative sector. 1 (True/False) Ans : True 244.India is the largest producer of Sponge Iron. 1 (True/False) Ans : True 245.Match the columns 1 Column A Column B (a) Leading centre of (i) Mumbai Automobile industry (b) A software technology park (ii) Gurgaon (c) Software Technology (iii) Chhattisgarh Park in Kerala (d) A leading centre of cotton textile (iv) Bhubaneswar industry (v) (e) Bhilai Steel Plant Thiruvananthapuram Ans : (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (v), (d) (i), (e) (iii) 246.Leading centre of woollen textile industry in Punjab 1 (a) Kanpur (b) Ludhiana (c) Murshidabad (d) Panipat Ans : (d) 247.TISCO is 1 (a) Joint Sector Industry (b) Private Sector Industry (c) Co-operative Sector Industry (d) Public Sector Industry Ans : (b) 248.Iron and Steel industry requires Iron ore, coking coal and limestone in which of the following 1 proportions? (a) 2 : 3 : 1 (b) 4 : 2 : 1 (c) 1 : 2 : 3 (d) 2 : 3 : 4 Ans : (b) 249.The employees employed in the manufacturing of the car belongs to the _____________. 1 Ans : Secondary Sector 250._____________region has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industries. 1 Ans : Chhotanagpur region. 251.The Dabur industry is a public sector industry. 1 (True/False) MCQ Booklet Ans : False 252.Edible oil industry is an example of the agro based industry. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 253.What is the name given to the International Airport at Kolkata? 1 (a) Jawaharlal Nehru (b) Meenambakkam (c) Rajiv Gandhi (d) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Ans : (d) 254.Which one of the following means of transport is used for carrying solids in a slurry form? 1 (a) Trucks (b) Railways (c) Pipelines (d) Ships Ans : (c) 255.Which one of the following is an inland riverine port? 1 (a) Kandla (b) Kolkata (c) Mumbai (d) Tuticorin Ans : (b) 256.Which one of the following is not the means of mass communication? 1 (a) Cards and envelopes (b) Radio (c) Newspaper (d) Films Ans : (a) 257.The longest pipeline connects 1 (a) Hazira to Kanpur (b) Salaya to Jalandhar (c) Hazira to Jagdishpur (d) Koyali to Haldia Ans : (c) 258.Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched? 1 Column I Column II (a) First port (i) Kandla MCQ Booklet (b) Biggest port (ii) Mumbai (c) A port located at the (iii) Tuticorin entrance of a lagoon (d) An inland riverine port (iv) Kolkata (e) Oldest artiﬁcial port (v) Chennai Ans : (c) 259.Difference between the total value of exports and imports is called ___________. 1 (a) Balance of Payment (b) Balance of Trade (c) Surplus Budget (d) Deﬁcit Balance Ans : (b) 260.Which one of the following countries has the largest telecom network in Asia? 1 (a) China (b) Japan (c) Pakistan (d) India Ans : (d) 261.STD refers to 1 (a) Suburban Telephone Dialing (b) Subscriber Trunk Dialing (c) Social Telephone Distributor (d) Speed Telephone Dialing Ans : (b) 262.The ﬁrst train was steamed off from 1 (a) Mumbai to Kalyan (b) Mumbai to Delhi (c) Mumbai to Thane (d) Mumbai to Satara Ans : (c) 263._______________is the largest producer of feature ﬁlms in the world. 1 Ans : India 264._______________ has the lowest density of roads in India. 1 MCQ Booklet Ans : Jammu and Kashmir 265.The two important navigable rivers of India are the ______________ and the ______________. 1 Ans : Ganga and Yamuna 266.The Raja Sansi is the southernmost International Airport. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 267.Marmagao is the premier iron ore exporting port of Goa. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 268.International Trade is considered as economic barometer for a country. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 269.Match the columns 1 Column A Column B (a) Indira Gandhi International Airport (i) Odisha (b) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose (ii) Mumbai (c) Chhatrapati Shivaji (iii) Kolkata (d) Kandla (iv) Gujarat (e) Paradwip (v) Delhi Ans : (a) (v), (b) (iii), (c) (ii), (d) (iv), (e) (a) 270.Which one of the following is a subsidiary port of Kolkata? 1 (a) Tuticorin (b) Jawaharlal Nehru (c) Haldia (d) Vishakhapatnam Ans : (c) 271.The ﬁrst class mail includes which one of the following? 1 (a) Book packets (b) Registered newspapers (c) Envelopes and cards (d) Periodicals and journals MCQ Booklet Ans : (c) 272.The people who make the products come to the consumers by transportation are called _______. 1 (a) Businessman (b) Retailers (c) Traders (d) Industrialists Ans : (c) 273.Which one of the following commodities does not belong to items of export? 1 (a) Gems and jewellery (b) Agriculture and allied products (c) Fertilizers (d) Engineering Goods Ans : (c) 274.______________maintains the District Roads. 1 Ans : Zila Parishad 275.Maximum numbers of newspapers published in India are in ___________. 1 Ans : hindi 276.Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, medical tourism, adventure tourism and 1 business tourism. (True/False) Ans : True 277.Andhra Pradesh has the maximum road density in India. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 278.Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power? 1 (a) Power sharing between different states. (b) Power sharing between different organs of the government. (c) Power sharing between different levels of the government. (d) Power sharing between different political parties. Ans : (b) 279.Who elects the community government in Belgium? 1 (a) People belonging to one language community only. (b) By the leader of Belgium. (c) The citizens of the whole country. (d) The community leaders of Belgium. MCQ Booklet Ans : (a) 280.The Community Government signiﬁes: 1 (a) The powers of government regarding community development. (b) The powers of the government regarding law making for the community. (c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational and language related issues. (d) The government enjoys privileges to safeguard the interest of a particular community. Ans : (c) 281.The word ‘ethnic’ signiﬁes: 1 (a) different religions. (b) social division on shared culture. (c) a violent conﬂict between opposite groups. (d) a careful calculation of gains and losses. Ans : (b) 282.Power sharing is: 1 (a) the very spirit of democracy (b) separation of powers at different levels. (c) system of checks and balances. (d) a type of balancing powers. Ans : (a) 283.Sinhala was recognised as the only ofﬁcial language by the _______________. 1 Ans : Act of 1956 284.A government for the entire country is usually called _______________. 1 Ans : Federal Government 285.A belief that the majority community should be able to rule country in whichever way they want, 1 by disregarding the wishes and needs of minority is known as ________________. Ans : Majoritarianism 286.Power sharing is the distribution of powers at only one level of government. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 287.Power sharing arrangement among the different organs of the government is known as 1 horizontal sharing. (True/False) MCQ Booklet Ans : True 288.Belgium successfully solved its problem by Community Government. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 289.Match the columns 1 Column A Column B (i) Each organ of the (a) Coalition Government government checks the other (ii) Government of more (b) Civil War than two political parties (iii) Power may also (c) Check and Balance be shared among different social groups (iv) A violent conﬂict (d) Community Government between opposing groups Ans : (a) (ii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii) 290.Choose the correct option: 1 Power sharing is desirable because it helps: (a) To increase pressure on government. (b) To reduce possibilities of conﬂicts. (c) To generate awareness among people. (d) To increase percentage of voters. Ans : (b) 291.System of ‘checks and balances’ means: 1 (a) Horizontal distribution of powers. (b) Separation of powers. (c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among various institutions. (d) Federal division of powers Ans : (c) 292.________________ is referred to as social division based on culture and language. 1 MCQ Booklet Ans : Ethnic group 293.Community government is a very speciﬁc type of government in ________________. 1 Ans : Belgium 294.________________ was amended four times between 1970 and 1993. 1 Ans : Belgium Constitution 295.Two languages spoken in Sri Lanka are English and Sinhalese. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 296.The System of Panchayati Raj involves 1 (a) The village, block and district levels (b) The village, and state levels (c) The village district and state levels (d) The village, state and Union levels Ans : (a) 297.In case of a clash between the laws made by the centre and a state on a subject in the 1 concurrent list: (a) the state law prevails. (b) the central law prevails. (c) both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions. (d) the Supreme Court has to intervene to decide. Ans : (b) 298.Match the following: 1 Column A Column B (i) Decision-making body (A) Union Territory for the entire village (ii) An alliance of more (B) Local self than government two parties (iii) Representatives’ (C) Coalition government body at the district level (iv) Area which is run by (D) Zila Parishad the Union / Central government MCQ Booklet (a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv) and D – (i) (b) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii) and D – (ii) (c) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii) and D – (iii) (d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii) and D – (i) Ans : (c) 299.Which of the following subjects is not included in the state list? 1 (a) Law and order (b) National defence (c) Education (d) Agriculture Ans : (b) 300.In India’s federal system, the state governments have the power to legislate on all those 1 subjects which are included in the: (a) Union list (b) State list (c) Concurrent list (d) Residuary subjects Ans : (b) 301.The Constitution of India 1 (a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists. (b) divided powers between centre and states in two lists. (c) listed the powers of the states and left the undeﬁned powers to the state. (d) Speciﬁed the powers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre. Ans : (a) 302.The system of government in which there is only one level of government is known as 1 ___________. Ans : Unitary Government 303.Banking and Defence are the subjects of ________________. 1 Ans : Union list 304.In 1947 the boundaries of several old states were changed on the basis of_______________. 1 Ans : language 305.Local self-government exists only in urban areas. 1 (True/False) Ans : False MCQ Booklet 306.The popular name of rural government is Panchayati Raj. 1 Ans : True 307.The chairperson of the municipal corporation is known as the Sarpanch. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 308.Match the columns 1 Column A Column B (a) National Defence (i) rural areas (b) Education (ii) District (c) Local selfgovernment (iii) urban areas (d) Municipal Corporation (iv) State list (e) Zila Parishad (v) Union list Ans : (a) (v), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (iii), (e) (ii) 309.Which of the following government has two or more levels? 1 (a) Community Government (b) Coalition Government (c) Federal Government (d) Unitary Government Ans : (c) 310.Which of the following countries is an example of “coming together federation”? 1 (a) U.S.A (b) India (c) Spain (d) Belgium Ans : (a) 311.The highest institution of Panchayati Raj in rural areas is _______________. 1 Ans : Zila Parishad 312.The chairperson of the municipal corporation is known as the___________. 1 Ans : Mayor 313.Union Territories are the areas run by both the Union and the State Government. (True/False) 1 MCQ Booklet Ans : False 314.‘Feminist movements’ are aimed at: 1 (a) Liberty (b) Equality (c) Participation (d) Power Ans : (b) 315.Which one of the following is not a cause of communalism? 1 (a) Religion is taken as the basis of the nation (b) When one religion is discriminated against other (c) State has no ofﬁcial religion (d) Demands of one religious group are formed in opposition to another Ans : (c) 316.Which of the following divisions is unique to India? 1 (a) Gender division (b) Caste division (c) Economic division (d) Religious division Ans : (b) 317.Select the laws enacted by the Parliament for the welfare of women. 1 (a) Special Marriage Act of 1955 (b) Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961 (c) Equal Remuneration Act of 1976 (d) All the above Ans : (d) 318.Women in India are discriminated in; 1 (a) Political life (b) Social life (c) Economic life (d) All of the above Ans : (d) 319.“Sexual Division of labour signiﬁes, that 1 (i) Gender division emphasises division on the basis of nature of work. (ii) Division between men and women. (iii) Caste is the basis of Gender Division. (iv) Work decides the division between men and women. (a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iv) (c) (i) and (iii) (d) (iv) and (i) Ans : (b) 320.In local self-government institutions, atleast one third of all positions are reserved for: 1 (a) men (b) women MCQ Booklet (c) children (d) scheduled tribes Ans : (b) 321.Shift from ______________ areas to urban areas is known as occupational mobility. 1 Ans : rural 322._______________________ needs to be expressed in politics. 1 Ans : Gender Division 323.At present, caste continues to be closely linked to ______________________. 1 Ans : economic status 324.Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community. 1 (True/False) Ans : True 325.People within the same caste or community have different interests depending on their 1 economic condition. (True/False) Ans : True 326.Communalism signiﬁes an ideology which stands for regional harmony and economic equality. 1 (True/False) Ans : False 327.Inequality of women states equal treatment to women as compared to men. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 328.Match the columns 1 Column A Column B (a) Number of girl children per thousand (i) Secularist boys in a given period (b) Laws that deal with family (ii) related matters such as marriages, Communalist divorce, etc. (c) A person who does not (iii) Family MCQ Booklet discriminate laws others on the basis of religious beliefs (d) A person who says that religion (iv) Child sex is the ratio principal basis of community Ans : (a) (iv), (b) (iii), (c) (i), (d) (ii) 329.“A woman or a man who believes in equal rights and opportunities for men and women.” Select 1 the correct option for the deﬁnition. (a) Feminist (b) Patriarchy (c) Caste hierarchy (d) Social change Ans : (a) 330.‘Equal Wages Act’ signiﬁes; 1 (a) Law that deals with family related matters. (b) Law provides that equal wages should be paid for equal job for both men and women. (c) An Act which signiﬁes that all work inside the home is done by the women of the family. (d) A radical law against the discriminatory attitude and sexual division of labour. Ans : (b) 331.Which leaders worked for the elimination of caste system in India? 1 (a) Jotiba Phule, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Mahatma Gandhi and Periyar Ramaswami Naicker (b) Raja Ram Mohun Roy, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi (c) Jotiba Phule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Mahatma Gandhi (d) Swami Vivekanand, Jotiba Phule and Raja Ram Mohan Roy Ans : (a) 332.The concept of ______________ refers to a system that values men more and gives them power 1 over women. Ans : patriarchy 333.Social division based on_______________________ is peculiar to India. 1 Ans : Caste 334.Shifting of population from rural areas to urban areas for better opportunity is called 1 ____________. Ans : urbanisation MCQ Booklet 335.Indian Constitution advocates an ofﬁcial language for India. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 336.Gandhiji used to say that religion can never be separated from politics. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 337.Give the meaning of ‘Alliance’. 1 (a) Two parties together form the government. (b) Leftist and Rightist together form the government. (c) When state and national parties together form the government. (d) When several parties in a multi-party system join for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power. Ans : (d) 338.The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is 1 (a) Nationalist Congress Party. (b) Communist Party of India. (c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK) (d) Bahujan Samaj Party Ans : (b) 339.Which one of the following is considered the best form of government? 1 (a) Democracy (b) Dictatorship (c) Monarchy (d) Military Rule Ans : (a) 340.Select the statement related to the advantages of multi-party system 1 (a) Multi-party system provides limited choice to voters. (b) There is a chance of conﬂict. (c) Provides choice to the voters. (d) In Multi-party system regional parties get the representation. Ans : (c) 341.Political parties are allotted symbols by ________. 1 (a) The government of India (b) The constitution of India (c) The party leaders (d) The Election Commission Ans : (d) MCQ Booklet 342.A recognised political party is one that 1 (a) is registered with the Election Commission of India. (b) is given a unique Election symbol (c) gets some other facilities recognised by the Election Commission (d) All of these Ans : (d) 343.A government is expected to base its policies on the line taken by the___________. 1 Ans : ruling party 344.The UK and USA have _______________ party system. 1 Ans : two party 345.The Constitution was amended to stop ____________. 1 Ans : defection 346.Communist Party of India is the oldest political party. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 347.Opposition parties are known as political minority. 1 (True/False) Ans : True 348.Trinamool congress is a regional party of Odisha. 1 (True/False) Ans : False 349.An Afﬁdavit signiﬁes (Legal); 1 (a) Signed document where a person makes a sworn statement regarding his or her antecedents. (b) A law to check the menace. (c) Legal document to declare the academic qualiﬁcation. (d) All of the above Ans : (a) 350.What is an ideological one-party system? 1 (a) Party based on suppression of other parties. (b) Party based on coercion. MCQ Booklet (c) Party based on ideological reasons; coercion and suppression of other parties. (d) Party based on communist ideology. Ans : (c) 351.Name the oldest political party of India. 1 (a) Bahujan Samaj Party (b) Indian National Congress (Congress Party) (c) The Communist Party (d) Bharatiya Janata Party Ans : (b) 352.Recognised political parties stand for: 1 (a) Parties recognised by the Election Commission with all the privileges and facilities. (b) Parties that are present in only one of the federal units. (c) Parties that are present in several and all units of the federation. (d) Communal parties based on regional diversities. Ans : (a) 353._______________ is the tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view on an issue. 1 Ans : Partisan 354.One of the demerits, of multiparty is that it often appears very messy and leads to political 1 ______________. Ans : instability 355.Bahujan Samaj Party was founded by Kanshi Ram in 1984. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 356.The UK and USA have a Two Party system. 1 (True/False) Ans : True 357.Economic growth depends on which of the following? 1 (a) Size of the population of the country (b) Territory or area of the country (c) Global scenario (d) Co-operation among various nations Ans : (d) MCQ Booklet 358.Social outcomes cover the areas like 1 (i) Dignity and freedom of citizens (ii) Untouchability and discrimination (iii) Gender equality (iv) Ban on child labour (a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (ii), (i) and (iv) (c) (ii) and (iv) (d) (i) only Ans : (b) 359.The basic outcome of democracy is 1 (a) Political, social and economic outcome (b) Military outcome (c) Restricted and limited welfare policies. (d) Elimination of poverty Ans : (a) 360.If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the process of decision, it is 1 (a) An accountable government (b) A responsible government (c) A transparent government (d) A stable government Ans : (a) 361.What do democracies ensure regarding decision making? 1 (a) Process of transparency (b) Decisions taken by the head of the country (c) Decision by the Council of Ministers (d) Restricted popular participation in decision making Ans : (a) 362.Which of the following is not true about democracy? 1 (a) It always worries about majorities and public opinion. (b) It improves the quality of decision making. (c) Decision making is faster and quicker. (d) It allows a room to correct mistakes. Ans : (c) 363.Why is democracy considered as the better form of government than dictatorship? 1 (a) Promotes equality and enhances dignity of the individual. (b) Never allows room to correct mistakes. (c) Majority community rule (d) Provides methods to resolve conﬂicts Ans : (a) MCQ Booklet 364.Growth and development of the country in the way of providing better facilities and services to 1 the individual signiﬁes _______________. Ans : economic development 365.Denial of opportunities to lead a long health, creative life and to enjoy a decent standard of 1 living is related to_____________. Ans : poverty 366.Decisions taken through the correct procedure by involving the people is known 1 as_____________. Ans : transparency 367.A democratic government is an accountable government. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 368.Democracies have successfully eliminated conﬂicts among people. (True/False) 1 Ans : False 369.The disadvantaged and discriminated castes have gained in strength due to democracy. 1 (True/False) Ans : True 370.Match the columns 1 Column A Column B (i) idea of (a) A democratic political government is a inequality (ii) improves the (b) A democracy is quality of attentive to the needs of decision making (c) Democracies (iii) legitimate have successfully eliminated government (d) Democracy is considered a better form of (iv) all citizens government as it MCQ Booklet Ans : (a) (iii), (b) (iv), (c) (i), (d) (ii) 371.Political outcome signiﬁes: 1 (i) Accountable and responsible government (ii) Military rule (iii) Legitimate government (iv) Restricted popular participation (a) (i), (iii) and (iv) (b) (iii), (i) and (ii) (c) (i) and (ii) (d) (i) and (iii) Ans : (d) 372.A government that takes decision by following norms and a proper procedure is: 1 (a) An accountable government (b) A responsible government (c) A transparent government (d) A stable government Ans : (c) 373.A democratic government is: 1 (a) An accountable government (b) A responsive government (c) A legitimate government (d) All of the above Ans : (d) 374.The government ruled by the monarch or king of the country is known as ____________. 1 Ans : monarchy 375.Privileges and rights to be valuable and important for the functioning of democratic society are 1 called ________________. Ans : civil liberties 376.Political outcome signiﬁes Military rule. 1 (True/False) Ans : False 377.Development of a country can generally be determined by its: 1 (a) per capita income (b) average literacy level (c) health status of its people (d) none of these MCQ Booklet Ans : (a) 378.Different persons could have different as well as conﬂicting notions of a country’s development. 1 A fair and just path for all should be achieved. Interpret the concept being discussed here. (a) Social development (b) Cultural development (c) National development (d) Economic development Ans : (c) 379.Countries with higher income are ________ than others with less income. 1 (a) Less developed (b) More developed (c) Less stronger (d) More organized Ans : (b) 380.Total income of the country divided by its total population is known as: 1 (a) Capital Income (b) National Income (c) Per capita income (d) GDP Ans : (c) 381.Proportion of literate population in the 7 and above age group is called as: 1 (a) Knowledge rate (b) Literacy rate (c) Attendance rate (d) Excellence Rate Ans : (b) 382.Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio? 1 (a) 6 – 10 (b) 7 – 11 (c) 5 – 9 (d) 14 – 15 Ans : (d) 383.For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person is divided by the: 1 (a) Square of the weight (b) Square of the height (c) Square root of the height (d) Square of the sum of height and weight Ans : (b) 384.___________ is a comprehensive term which includes increase in real per capita income, 1 improvement in living standard of people, reduction in poverty, illiteracy, crime rate, etc. MCQ Booklet Ans : Development 385.___________ indicates the number of years a new born is expected to live. 1 Ans : Life expectancy at birth 386.The development that should take place without damaging the environment, and development 1 in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations is known as ___________. Ans : Sustainable Economic Development 387.___________ means sustained increase in real per capita income that promotes economic 1 welfare by reducing poverty, unemployment and inequalities in distribution of income. Ans : Economic development 388.Two important aspects of our lives other than income are ___________ and ___________. 1 Ans : Equal treatment; freedom 389.___________ ensures availability of essential commodities like wheat, rice, sugar, edible oils and 1 kerosene, etc. to the consumers through a network of outlets or fair price shops. Ans : Public Distribution System (PDS) 390.Economic development is a wider term as compared to human development. (True/False) 1 Ans : False, as economic development is a narrower term. 391.According to recent World Development Report, countries which had per capita income of US 1 dollar 12236 per annum are rich countries. (True/False) Ans : True 392.Kerala has low infant mortality rate. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 393.A decent standard of living is a variable of Human Development Index. (True/False) 1 Ans : True MCQ Booklet 394.If BMI is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered: 1 (a) over weight (b) long height (c) under nourished (d) short height Ans : (c) 395.What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves? 1 (a) One-Fourth (b) One-Tenth (c) One-Third (d) half Ans : (c) 396.Resources which will get exhausted after years of use are: 1 (a) Renewable resources (b) Non-durable resources (c) Non-renewable resources (d) Competing resources Ans : (c) 397.The two developmental goals of landless rural labourers are ___________ and ___________. 1 Ans : More days of work; better wages 398.The level of efﬁciency and productivity is low in a ___________ country. 1 Ans : Developing 399.Longevity implies how long a newborn is expected to live. (True/False) 1 Ans : True 400.The Human Development Index (HDI) rank of India in the world is 151 as per 2016. (True/False) 1 Ans : False, as the HDI rank of India in the world is 131 as per 2016. 401.The sectors are classiﬁed into public and private sector on the basis of: 1 (a) Employment conditions (b) The nature of economic activities (c) Number of workers employed (d) Ownership of enterprises Ans : (d) 402.When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the: 1 (a) Secondary sector (b) Tertiary sector MCQ Booklet (c) Primary sector (d) Organised sector Ans : (c) 403.The service sector includes activities such as: 1 (a) agriculture, dairy, ﬁshing and forestry (b) making sugar, gur and bricks (c) transport, communication and banking (d) None of these Ans : (c) 404.Choose the correct meaning of organised sector: 1 (a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular. (b) It is outside the control of the government. (c) Jobs are not regular. (d) It provides low salaries. Ans : (a) 405.Which of the following is included in tertiary sector? 1 (a) ATM booths (b) Call centres (c) Internet cafe (d) All of them Ans : (d) 406.Government owns most of the assets and provides all the services: 1 (a) Private Sector (b) Public Sector (c) Organised Sector (d) Tertiary Sector Ans : (b) 407.The value of all ﬁnal goods and services produced within a country during a particular year is 1 called as: (a) Gross Domestic Product (b) Net Domestic Product (c) National Product (d) Production of Tertiary Sector Ans : (a) 408.___________ refers to the activities which are undertaken by people with the object of earning 1 money. Ans : Economic activities 409.A housewife looking after the household is an example of ___________. 1 MCQ Booklet Ans : non-economic activities 410.All goods which are used as raw material for further production of other goods or for resale in 1 the same year are called ___________. Ans : intermediate goods 411.The Act guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year or unemployment allowances to the 1 people should be provided by the government is known as ___________. Ans : Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA 2005) 412.___________ sector is governed by various laws such as Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act etc. 1 Ans : Organised 413.There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays etc. in unorganized sector. (True/False) 1 Ans : True, as the jobs are not regular and lack in security. 414.The objective of public sector is to maximize proﬁts. 1 (True/False) Ans : False, as the objective of public sector is to promote public welfare and not to maximize proﬁts. 415.Railways comes under public sector. (True/False) 1 Ans : True, as the government owns them. 416.Capital is the only factor of production. (True/False) 1 Ans : False, as labour and land are also factors of production. 417.A situation in which more persons are employed on a job than are optimally required is: 1 (a) Structural unemployment (b) Disguised unemployment (c) Cyclical unemployment MCQ Booklet (d) Seasonal unemployment Ans : (b) 418.Out of 200 million children in the school going age group, how many are attending schools? 1 (a) One-fourth (b) Half (c) Two-thirds (d) One-ﬁfth Ans : (c) 419.Central government in India made a law, implementing the Right to Work in how many districts 1 of India? (a) 150 districts (b) 200 districts (c) 250 districts (d) 625 districts Ans : (d) 420.___________ includes production by exploiting natural resources. 1 Ans : Primary sector 421.___________ and ___________ are the two factors of production. 1 Ans : Capital; labour 422.The goods which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by ﬁrms are 1 called ﬁnal goods. (True/False) Ans : True, as they are produced either for consumption or investment. 423.Under NREGA 2005, the government guaranteed 120 days of work to rural household. 1 (True/False) Ans : False, as under NREGA 2005, the government guaranteed 100 days of work to rural household. 424.When more persons are employed in a job rather than optimally required is seasonal 1 unemployment. (True/False) Ans : False, as when more persons are employed in a job rather than optimally required it is a case of disguised unemployment. 425.Which one of the following statements is most appropriate regarding transaction made in 1 money? (a) It is the easiest way. MCQ Booklet (b) It is the safest way. (c) It is the cheapest way. (d) It promotes trade. Ans : (a) 426.Which one of the following is a modern form of currency? 1 (a) Gold (b) Silver (c) Copper (d) Paper notes Ans : (d) 427.Which among the following authorities issues currency notes on behalf of the government? 1 (a) Government of India (b) The State Bank of India (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (d) Reserve Bank of India Ans : (d) 428.In which of the following systems exchange of goods is done without use of money? 1 (a) Credit system (b) Barter system (c) Banking system (d) Collateral system Ans : (b) 429.Banks provide a higher rate of interest on which of the following accounts? 1 (a) Saving account (b) Current account (c) Fixed deposits for long period (d) Fixed deposits for very short period Ans : (c) 430.Banks use the major portion of the deposits to: 1 (a) Keep as reserve so that people may withdraw (b) Meet their routine expenses (c) Extend loans (d) Meet renovation of bank Ans : (c) 431.According to Crowther, “___________ can be deﬁned as anything that is generally accepted as a 1 means of exchange and at the same time acts as a measure and as a store of value.” Ans : Money 432.The modern forms of money include ___________ and ___________. MCQ Booklet 1 Ans : Paper notes; coins 433.A _____________ is the apex institution of monetary system of a country. 1 Ans : Central Bank (RBI in case of India) 434.Currency (coins and notes) is a ___________ which cannot be refused in payment for 1 transactions. Ans : Legal tender money 435.The deposits in a bank which are payable on demand are called ___________. 1 Ans : Demand deposits 436.___________ is an agreement whereby a ﬁnancial institution agrees to lend a borrower a 1 maximum amount of money over a given period of time. Ans : Credit 437.Money eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants. (True/False) 1 Ans : True, as money acts as the medium of exchange. 438.Credit card is a paper instructing the bank to pay a speciﬁc amount from the person’s account to 1 the person in whose name it has been made. (True/False) Ans : False, as it is cheque which is a paper instructing the bank to pay a speciﬁc amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name it has been made. 439.Informal sector credit includes loans from banks and cooperatives. (True/False) 1 Ans : False, as informal sector credit includes loans from friends, relatives, moneylenders, traders etc. 440.Rich households largely depend on informal sources of credit. (True/False) 1 Ans : False, as rich households largely depend on formal sources of credit. 441.In formal sector, higher rate of interest is charged. (True/False) 1 Ans : False, as higher rate of interest is charged in informal sector and not in the formal sector. MCQ Booklet 442.What percentage of their deposits is kept as cash by the banks in India? 1 (a) 25% (b) 20% (c) 15% (d) 10% Ans : (c) 443.The informal source of credit does not include which one of the following? 1 (a) Traders (b) Friends (c) Cooperative Societies (d) Moneylenders Ans : (c) 444.Which one of the following is the new way of providing loans to the rural poor? 1 (a) Co-operative societies (b) Traders (c) Relatives and friends (d) SHGs Ans : (d) 445.‘Low rate of interest’ is a feature of ___________ credit. 1 Ans : Formal 446.___________ includes details regarding interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, 1 and the mode of payment. Ans : Terms of Credit 447.The situation when it becomes impossible to repay the loan and the borrower adds on a new 1 debt to pay the existing one is known as ___________. Ans : Debt-trap 448.In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for building houses. (Tru

CBSE Class 10 Social Science MCQs (2021) PDF

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