10 Đề 2024 Practice Test
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This document is a set of English language practice questions, likely from a secondary school exam preparation. The questions cover vocabulary, grammar, and comprehension skills using various question types like multiple choice questions (MCQs) to test understanding of pronunciation, stress, and word meanings.
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ĐỀ SỐ 01 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. stale B. bake C. faith D. fair Question 2: A. h...
ĐỀ SỐ 01 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. stale B. bake C. faith D. fair Question 2: A. horn B. hour C. help D. health Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. plastic B. cartoon C. package D. standard Question 4: A. holiday B. journalist C. attention D. document Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: Denmark ranks first in the list of ______ countries in the world. A. cleaner B. the cleanest C. more clean D. as clean Question 6: They ______ a large amount of money in developing this city last year. A. investment B. investing C. investor D. invested Question 7: That single dad is working hard to support his family and ______ his children alone. A. take back B. bring up C. turn down D. put on Question 8: Could we ______ a meeting to discuss technical issues of the project tomorrow? A. open B. hold C. take D. give Question 9: The students finished their assignment on time, ______ their teacher happy. A. is made B. to make C. making D. made Question 10: The first award in the competition ______ by Jennifer Hawkins last week. A. won B. was won C. was winning D. has won Question 11: Working back-to-back shifts at the hospital ______ her energy, leaving her no time for rest. A. trickled B. drained C. exuded D. sucked Question 12: The coach wants his team to feel confident ______ winning the game. A. of B. at C. with D. on Question 13: The kids are getting in my ______ today, so I need you to watch them for a little bit. A. hair B. nose C. mouth D. tongue Question 14: We chose group 4 ______ with us to complete the project lesson on climate change. A. to collaborate B. collaborated C. collaborating D. collaborate Question 15: Tom burnt his hand when he ______ a cake in the kitchen. A. had baked B. bakes C. was baking D. baked Question 16: This charity organisation helped handicapped children ______ their difficulties. A. recover B. surpass C. overcome D. outweigh Question 17: I'm looking for______ apartment in the city center. A. the B. an C. ∅ (no article) D. a Question 18: ______ , she will let you know. A. When Linda found out the truth B. When Linda was finding out the truth C. When Linda had found out the truth D. When Linda finds out the truth Question 19: His parents are hospitable, ______? A. aren’t they B. are they C. don’t they D. do they 1 1 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 20: Leo and Tim are talking about food. - Leo: “I think it is true to say that the quickest way to a man’s heart is through his stomach.” - Tim: “______. Sometimes a man cares more about his feelings rather than food” A. That’s great B. I refuse to believe that C. I totally agree with you D. I guess you’re right Question 21: Mary and her friend, Lily, are in a coffee shop. - Mary: “Would you like Matcha ice-cream or Caramel with jam?” - Lily: “ ______” A. Neither is fine. They are good. B. I like eating them all. C. Yes, I’d love to. D. It doesn’t matter. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: She took her time to assimilate the complex concepts, ensuring she truly understood them. A. integrate B. contribute C. associate D. understand Question 23: The teacher will demonstrate how to solve complex exercises on the board, which helps students understand the lessons easily. A. show B. confuse C. hide D. forget Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: My best friend is a reckless driver. He has been fined for speeding and has his license suspended for six months. A. enormous B. dangerous C. cautious D. famous Question 25: I tried to be friendly with her, but I was told she’s a hard nut to crack. A. a person who is very difficult to understand B. a person who is sociable C. a situation to deal with D. a complicated problem to solve Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: It is impossible for us to finish the research in a month. A. We must finish the research in a month. B. We needn’t finish the research in a month. C. We can’t finish the research in a month. D. We would finish the research in a month. Question 27: Linda last went to the university library three months ago. A. Linda went to the university library for three months. B. Linda didn’t go to the university library for three months. C. Linda has gone to the university library for three months. D. Linda hasn’t gone to the university library for three months. Question 28: “It is not easy for my son to overcome his shyness in class,” she told the teacher. A. She told the teacher that it was not easy for her son to overcome her shyness in class. B. She told the teacher that it was not easy for her son to overcome his shyness in class. C. She told the teacher that it is not easy for her son to overcome his shyness in class. D. She told the teacher that it was not easy for his son to overcome his shyness in class. 2 2 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 29: Press photographers are banned from taking photographs backstage. There is not any exception whatsoever. A. On no account are press photographers allowed to take photographs backstage. B. In no way were press photographers allowed to take photographs backstage. C. Under no circumstances are press photographers prohibited to take photographs backstage. D. On no occasion are press photographers banned from taking photographs backstage. Question 30: We were nearly out of petrol. That’s why we stopped at the service station. A. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we would have stopped at the service station B. If we weren’t nearly out of petrol, we would stop at the service station. C. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we wouldn’t have stopped at the service station D. If we hadn’t been nearly out of petrol, we wouldn’t stop at the service station. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 31: Our country could successfully fight against COVID-19 pandemic thanks to the government’s imaginary approaches. A. fight against B. approaches C. imaginary D. thanks to Question 32: My grandmother can remember things which happens many years ago. A. happens B. My C. things D. can Question 33: Some of my friends are going to spend his holidays by the sea. A. spend B. his C. the sea D. Some Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 40. A pandemic is a worldwide outbreak of disease. It happens when a bacterium or virus becomes capable of spreading across a large region, continent, or worldwide. It causes severe contagious illnesses which can spread quickly from one person to another. Throughout history, there have been many pandemics that have had significant effects on various populations. Pandemics have the capability of killing large portions of people in a place. In 1347, the Black Death, a plague in Europe, spread and killed 75 million people, a whopping one-third of Europe's population. When European explorers began encountering other places in the world, they tended to spread diseases to the local population. One notable example is the complete destruction of the Guanches on the Canary Islands. The majority of tribe members were killed by disease brought by Spanish invaders in the 15th century. In fact, many countries and cultures faced deadly pandemics after international exploration became possible. It is believed that Columbus and his crew brought a strain of syphilis back with them to Europe from the New World. In Europe, the virus was able to mutate because of the location's different conditions. Additionally, European people that were sent to work in Asia were killed by disease. Intercultural mixing, exposure to new viruses, and the transportation of diseases led to many pandemics across the world. Today, the COVID-19 pandemic is an ongoing global pandemic of coronavirus disease. It is caused by severe acute respiratory syndrome SARS-CoV-2. This epidemic first broke out in Wuhan, China, in December 2019. Many efforts to control its spread have failed, which allows the virus to reach almost every country. The World Health Organization (WHO) declared a Public Health Emergency of International Concern on 30th January 2020 and a pandemic on 11th March 2020. By 10th April 2022, the pandemic had caused more than 498 million cases and 6.17 million deaths, making it one of the deadliest pandemics in human history. 3 3 Question 34: The word “contagious” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. healthy B. infectious C. expressible D. dangerous Question 35: Why did the Guanches in the Canary Islands disappear? A. The tribe caught a bad strain of syphilis. B. The tribe was uninformed about pandemics. C. Europeans intentionally exposed native populations to the disease. D. They were infected with the illness spread by the Spanish Question 36: The word “them” in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. strains of syphilis B. Columbus and his crew C. destructive pandemics D. Europe and the New World Question 37: The word “ongoing” in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _______. A. continuing B. past C. future D. over Question 38: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. The Black Death in medieval Europe was caused by exploration and conquest. B. WHO upgraded the Covid-19 warning level twice within two months. C. The efforts by WHO brought an end to the COVID-19 pandemic. D. The Guanche population in the Canary Islands disappeared due to the malady from the Spanish intruders. Question 39: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. Coronavirus disease is trouble-free to control in its early stages. B. People hadn't witnessed the Covid-19 pandemic before 2019. C. The number of people killed in pandemics has made up a small percentage. D. The popularity of cultural exchange led to the deadly pandemics in many nations and cultures. Question 40: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. The Spread of Covid-19 B. Europeans Creating Pandemics C. Infection and the Death of Africans D. The Killing Effects of Pandemics in Human History Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 41 to 45. If you are interested in having a trip of a lifetime, but also doing something useful at the same time, then why not try joining a Greenforce expedition as a volunteer. Greenforce, (41)______ was set up in 1997, is an international research agency that gathers information about wildlife and natural habitats in various parts of the world. There is a qualified biologist in charge of each team of volunteers and these carry out surveys all year round in some of the world remote and most beautiful places. Volunteers come from all walks of life. No previous experience is necessary as Greenforce provides full (42)______ in animal identification and survey methods. However, you will need to be a person who enjoys the outdoor life (43)______ working in remote locations can be challenging. You’ll also need to be passionate about wildlife and prepare to learn a lot about the place you visit. (44)______ expedition lasts for ten weeks, and training begins in the UK with a residential weekend where you can get a taste of expedition life and meet up with some of your teammates, as well as learning about first-aid and basic survival skills. Each volunteer (45)______ £2,550 to the total cost of the expedition, but past volunteers say it is worth every penny. Question 41: A. who B. which C. that D. whose Question 42: A. operation B. performance C. production D. training Question 43: A. but B. moreover C. since D. although Question 44: A. Many B. Much C. Other D. Each 4 4 Question 45: A. contributes B. compensates C. pays D. offers Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 46 to 50. In the next decade, population growth will probably add to world hunger problems. As the population grows, according to the World Hunger Programme, so will the number of malnourished people. The world's population, estimated at 5.6 billion in 1994, may reach 11.5 billion by the year 2150, and most of that growth is occurring in the world's poorest countries. At least 95 percent of the global population growth over the next thirty-five years will take place in the hunger-belt regions of Africa, Asia, and Latin America. For countries that already have a hard time feeding their populations, growth on a scale of even 3 percent a year could add significantly to their food problems. This level of growth is already occurring in Namibia and in South Africa, and many other countries are not far behind. In 1981, the United States recorded a population on the African continent of 481 million people. This number topped 800 million by the year 2000. Africa would have to increase its food production by 4 percent a year to meet the food needs of its increased population. But Africa's food production is growing by only 1 percent a year, which means that nations already struggling to meet their people's food needs will have an even greater struggle as populations grow. “When food supply grows slower than population,” says Professor De- Gregori, “a country is in trouble.” (Source: Basic IELTS Reading) Question 46: What does the passage mainly discuss? A. Population growth as a factor of hunger B. Prediction of world population C. The consequences of hunger D. Population of the world Question 47: The word malnourished in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. hungry B. disadvantaged C. needy D. poor Question 48: According to paragraph 2, which is true about the food production in Africa? A. It has greatly increased in recent years. B. It can eventually meet the needs of the population. C. It has dramatically decreased since 1981. D. It is growing more slowly than the population. Question 49: All of the following mentioned in the passage are about population growth and its effect on world hunger EXCEPT ______. A. when population grows faster than food supply, a country will suffer. B. the biggest increase in population will be recorded in poor countries. C. a country’s population will not starve if its annual growth reaches 3 percent. D. the number of people in Africa is increasing faster than its ability to feed them. Question 50: The word its in paragraph 2 refers to ______. A. The United States B. Africa C. a population D. a country ------ THE END ------ 5 5 ĐỀ SỐ 02 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. influence B. demonstrate C. encourage D. penalize Question 2: A. strengthen B. attract C. destroy D. succeed Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 3: It is expensive to take down and ______ the tent, so they do not remove it during winter. A. push up B. put down C. push down D. put up Question 4: The students looked a little confused ______ the teacher’s questions. A. at B. of C. with D. in Question 5: You will visit Cuc Phuong National park next weekend, ______? A. don’t you B. won’t you C. will you D. would you Question 6: When Mrs. Wilson got home, her son ______ with his girlfriend on the phone. A. chatted B. chats C. was chatting D. is chatting Question 7: After 20 days of premiere, “Mai” has become ______ grossing film projects. A. the highest B. higher C. the higher D. high than Question 8: ______the letter, Tom will have left for Paris. A. By the time we receive B. Before we received C. After we receive D. When we received Question 9: The teacher tries her best to make sure that her students can ______ her explanations. A. understandably B. understandable C. understand D. understanding Question 10: During the discussion, he suddenly ______ red when someone criticized his work, and the meeting quickly became tense. A. met B. watched C. looked D. saw Question 11: I don’t want her to smell ______. She has never had a surprise party before. A. a rat B. a pig C. a thief D. a culprit Question 12: House prices are expected ______ sharply in the next few months. A. rising B. rise C. to rise D. to rising Question 13: VigilEASE, Inc. has made a huge profit of $1,000 million, ______ its branches to expand across the continent. A. allowing B. allows C. to allow D. is allowed Question 14: My husband's family speaks ______ Polish. A. the B. ∅ (no article) C. an D. a Question 15: The unexpected thunderstorm ______ the flight, causing passengers to wait anxiously at the gate. A. detained B. apprehended C. bagged D. collared Question 16: Whenever you’re planning to ______ a new product, it’s essential to provide excellent customer service. A. start B. launch C. declare D. initiate Question 17: The top-secret document ______ by one of the supervisors of the company in 2020. A. was leaked B. leaks C. was leaking D. has leaked Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. 6 6 Question 18: Tom and Peter are talking about extreme sports. -Tom: “People should be encouraged to take part in dangerous sports.” -Peter: “______. They are prone to both minor and severe injuries.” A. For sure B. I completely disagree with you C. Come on, that’s surely the case D. I couldn’t agree with you more Question 19: Mr. Collins is asking to see the menu at a restaurant. - Mr. Collins: “Could we see the menu, please?”- Waiter: “______.” A. I’ll be your server, Sir B. Here you are, Sir C. My pleasure, Sir D. You get a 2% discount Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 20: A. system B. historical C. landscape D. business Question 21: A. bathe B. tank C. plane D. fame Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The conservation efforts aim to protect vulnerable species from extinction. A. endangered B. harmful B. dangerous D. abundant Question 23: The professor provided adequate resources for the research project to ensure that students have necessary materials. A. abundant B. sufficient C. limited D. lack Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: We need detailed information to determine exactly why these cancers are occurring. A. discover B. precede C. doubt D. estimate Question 25: I hate to speak in public, but she'll get up on stage at the drop of a hat. A. immediately B. hesitantly C. instantly D. confidently Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: Perhaps she will get the yard mowed before it rains. A. She should mow the yard before it rains. B. She must get the yard mowed before it rains. C. She must have the yard mowed before it rains. D. She may get the yard mowed before it rains. Question 27: It last rained in my town a month ago. A. It hasn’t rained in my town for a month. B. It rained in my town for a month. C. It didn’t rain in my town for a month. D. It has rained in my town for a month. Question 28: "I was watching the stars all night," she said. A. She said she was watching the stars all night. B. She said she had been watching the stars all night. C. She said she has been watching the stars all night. D. She said she watched the stars all night. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. 7 7 Question 29: Last week, a team of foreign volunteers launches a campaign to help students with disabilities. A. to help B. launches C. with D. week Question 30: If you have a problem, you are welcome to discuss it with me before you try to resolve them. A. them B. have C. before D. with Question 31: This was due to the shortage of males at the marital ages and was further aggravated by heavy male unemployment at ages 20-34. A. aggravated B. unemployment C. shortage D. marital Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 32: Spectators are not permitted to bring alcohol into the stadium. There is no exception for any individual. A. On no condition are spectators allowed to bring alcohol into the stadium. B. On no account are spectators banned from bringing alcohol into the stadium. C. In no way were spectators allowed to bring alcohol into the stadium. D. In all cases are spectators banned from bringing alcohol to the stadium. Question 33: Nam was seriously ill for two weeks. He couldn’t take part in the School Festival. A. If Nam hadn’t been seriously ill for two weeks, he could have taken part in the School Festival. B. If Nam wasn’t seriously ill for two weeks, Nam could take part in the School Festival C. If it weren’t for his serious illness for two weeks, Nam would take part in the School Festival. D. If Nam hadn’t been seriously ill for two weeks, he couldn’t have taken part in the School Festival Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 34 to 38. A team of social psychologists from California has spent six years studying the reactions of people in cities around the world to different situations. The results show that cities where people have less money generally have friendlier populations. Rio de Janeiro in Brazil, which is often known for its crime, comes out top, Vientiane ranks second, and the capital of Malawi, Lilongwe, comes third. But what makes one city friendlier than another? The psychologists from California State University say it has got more to do with environment than culture or nationality. They carried out a study into the way locals treated strangers in 23 cities around the world. The team conducted their research through a series of tests, where they dropped pens or pretended, they were blind and needed help crossing the street. The study concludes that people are more helpful in cities with a more relaxed way of life such as Rio. While they were there, researchers received help in 93 percent of cases, and the percentage in Lilongwe was only a little lower. However, richer cities such as Amsterdam and New York are considered the least friendly. Inhabitants of Amsterdam helped the researchers in 53 percent of cases and in New York just 44 percent. The psychologists found that, in these cities, people tend to be short of time, so they hurry and often ignore strangers. (Adapted from Complete IELTS by Guy Brook- Hart and Vanessa Jakeman) Question 34: What is the passage mainly about? A. What makes a city friendlier than another. 8 8 B. An action research on city inhabitants’ behavior. C. How to conduct a survey in a city. D. An interesting survey about cities. Question 35: The word “they” in paragraph 2 refers to _______. A. the team B. tests C. locals D. strangers Question 36: According to paragraph 3, Amsterdam and New York’s inhabitants _______. A. pay less attention to strangers B. have more relaxed lifestyles C. don’t have much money D. often commit crimes Question 37: All of the following are mentioned in the study conducted by social psychologists from California EXCEPT ______. A. the study took six years to complete. B. Rio de Janeiro, Vientiane, and Lilongwe are the top three friendliest cities according to the study. C. friendliness in a city is more dependent on the environment than culture or nationality. D. the research shows that people are more helpful in richer cities. Question 38: The word “helpful” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. supportive B. serious C. honest D. polite Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 39 to 43. THE SECRETS OF LONG LIFE Marge Jetton is speeding down the motorway in her purple car. Marge, (39)______ recently turned 101, is late for one of several volunteer commitments she has today. Already this morning, she has eaten breakfast, walked 1.6 km, and lifted weights. Like (40)______other residents of Loma Linda, California, Marge is a member of a religious community that has always supported healthy living. It (41)______ smoking and drinking alcohol, and discourages the (42)______ of most meat, rich foods, and caffeinated drinks as well as most spices. Instead, they enjoy beans, nuts, whole wheat bread, soy milk, tomatoes, and other fruits as well as five glasses of water a day. All of these lower the risk of developing certain diseases. (43) ______, they get together and socialize with each other to relieve stress every Saturday. A study has revealed that members of this community live four to ten years longer than other Californians. (Adapted from Close up B1-Student’s book) Question 39: A. which B. that C. who D. whom Question 40: A. many B. few C. each D. much Question 41: A. excludes B. prevents C. halts D. forbids Question 42: A. digestion B. consumption C. storage D. intake Question 43: A. However B. Because C. Moreover D. Although Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. Learning to speak is automatic for almost all children, but learning to read requires elaborate instruction and conscious effort. Well aware of the difficulties, educators have given a great deal of thought to how they can best help children learn to read. No single method has triumphed. Indeed, heated arguments about the most appropriate form of reading instruction continue to polarize the teaching community. Three general approaches have been tried. In one, called whole-word instruction, children learn by rote how to recognize at a glance a vocabulary of 50 to 100 words. Then they gradually acquire other words, often through seeing them used over and over again in the context of a story. 9 9 Speakers of most languages learn the relationship between letters and the sounds associated with them (phonemes). That is, children are taught how to use their knowledge of the alphabet to sound out words. This procedure constitutes a second approach to teaching reading – phonics. Many schools have adopted a different approach: the whole-language method. The strategy here relies on the child’s experience with the language. For example, students are offered engaging books and are encouraged to guess the words that they do not know by considering the context of the sentence or by looking for clues in the storyline and illustrations, rather than trying to sound them out. Many teachers adopted the whole-language approach because of its intuitive appeal. Making reading fun promises to keep children motivated, and learning to read depends more on what the student does than on what the teacher does. The presumed benefits of whole-language instruction – and the contrast to the perceived dullness of phonics – led to its growing acceptance across America during the 1990s and a movement away from phonics. (Adapted from https://mini-ielts.com) Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. The Challenges of Learning to Read B. A Debate Among Educators: Approaches to Teaching Reading C. The Benefits of Whole-Language Instruction D. The Triumph of Phonics over Whole-Word Instruction Question 45: The word appropriate in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. proper B. unsuitable C. important D. essential Question 46: The word them in paragraph 4 refers to ______. A. illustrations B. books C. words D. clues Question 47: According to paragraph 4, the whole-language method depends on ______. A. the child’s awareness of vocabulary B. the child’s engagement with books C. the language experience of the child D. the way the child pronounces words Question 48: The word appeal in paragraph 5 is closest in meaning to ______. A. attraction B. refusal C. purpose D. drawback Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. Educators have tried three approaches to teach children to read. B. The whole-language approach is applied because of its intuitive appeal. C. Educators can use only one method to teach children to read. D. Most children learn to speak automatically. Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the passage? A. In most languages, speakers learn the connection between letters and the words. B. In whole-word instruction, children learn how to use the knowledge of the alphabet. C. The influence of the teacher’s activities on student’s learning to read is more important than anything else. D. The abandonment of the phonics approach in American schools was assumed to be due to its boredom. ------ THE END ------ 10 10 ĐỀ SỐ 03 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. ill B. ink C. high D. fish Question 2: A. wear B. swim C. wife D. row Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. natural B. different C. negative D. electric Question 4: A. exist B. offer C. carry D. answer Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: The members of the ______ to the South Pole will carry out a number of scientific experiments. A. journey B. trip C. expedition D. travel Question 6: I am about to drop ______ on my parents by telling them that I’m going to quit law school and pursue a career in art. A. a brick B. a stone C. a log D. a plank Question 7: The brand of this car is different ______ the others over there. A. from B. for C. with D. of Question 8: My brother intends ______ abroad next year to improve his language skills. A. studied B. study C. to study D. studying Question 9: The stadium ______ by the local government in 2000. A. finances B. was financing C. was financed D. has financed. Question 10: She couldn't help but ______ her breath as she witnessed the breathtaking view from the mountaintop. A. catch B. take C. stop D. get Question 11: They had to use candles when the light suddenly ______ during the dinner. A. switched off B. went out C. came off D. put off Question 12: Some students cheated in the exam, _______ their teachers and parents. A. disappointed B. is disappointed C. disappointing D. to disappoint Question 13: There are warnings that deforestation will upset the ______ balance of this area. A. ecologist B. ecological C. ecology D. ecologically Question 14: You will not understand the importance of English______. A. until you apply for a job B. after you had applied for a job C. when you will apply for a job D. as soon as you applied for a job Question 15: This is ______ room in Ha Long hotel. A. the most large B. the larger C. the largest D. larger Question 16: When I came home yesterday, my mum ______ dinner for our family. A. was preparing B. prepares C. prepared D. has prepared Question 17: The house was built ten years ago, ______? A. wasn’t it B. didn’t it C. isn’t it D. was it Question 18: She worked really hard this year, so she was given a 10% pay ______. A. inflation B. extra C. decrease D. bonus 11 11 Question 19: She put on ______ orange scarf before heading out into the cold winter air. A. a B. an C. the D. ∅ (no article) Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 20: Jessica is at the airport. She is carrying her suitcases along the way to the check-in desk. A young man comes over and talks to her. - The man: “Do you want me to help you with those suitcases?” - Jessica: “______” A. No, those aren’t mine. B. Of course, not for me. C. No, I can manage them myself. D. No, I can’t help you now. Question 21: Ann and Peter are talking about housework. - Ann: "I think children should be paid for doing the housework." - Peter: "______. It's their duty in the family." A. That's what I think B. I don't think so C. You're exactly right D. There's no doubt about it Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: I made a conscious decision not to interfere in their argument because they needed to resolve their differences on their own. A. intervene B. interrupt C. interpret D. encourage Question 23: The art gallery features various collections of paintings from many artists. A. uniform B. similar C. different D. common Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: One noticeable drawback of living in a big family is a lack of privacy. A. mystery B. reason C. concern D. advantage Question 25: Go and tell her that you love her! That kind of girl is really few and far between. A. rare B. common C. unusual D. strange Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: I last wrote about vaccines on this blog over a week ago. A. I have written about vaccines on this blog for over a week. B. I haven’t written about vaccines on this blog for over a week. C. I wrote about vaccines on this blog for over a week. D. I didn’t write about vaccines on this blog over a week ago. Question 27: They are not allowed to use our personal information for their own purposes. A. They don’t have to use our personal information for their own purposes. B. They mustn’t use our personal information for their own purposes. C. They can use our personal information for their own purposes. D. They may use our personal information for their own purposes. Question 28: They claimed, "We have never seen anything like this before." A. They claimed they have never seen anything like this before. 12 12 B. They claimed they had never seen anything like that before. C. They claimed they never see anything like this before. D. They claimed they never saw anything like that before. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 29: Overall, the percentage of consumers who make online purchases this year shows a considerate increase in cosmetics and household appliances. A. appliances B. percentage C. shows D. considerate Question 30: She decides to quit her job to stay at home and look after her sick mother last month. A. to quit B. after C. to D. decides Question 31: Bottlenose dolphins are usually slow swimmers, but it can reach speeds of over 30 mph for short periods. A. speeds B. periods C. it D. usually Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 32: Ann had Chat GPT correct her essay. Hence, she got high marks in the test. A. If Chat GPT hadn’t corrected her essay, Ann wouldn’t get high marks in the test. B. If Ann hadn’t had her essay corrected by Chat GPT, she couldn’t get high marks in the test. C. If Ann had Chat GPT correct her essay, she couldn’t get high marks in the test. D. If Ann hadn’t had her essay corrected by Chat GPT, she couldn’t have got high marks in the test. Question 33: Peter failed the interview again. He was fully aware of the importance of having careful preparation only then. A. No sooner had Peter fully been aware of the importance of having careful preparation than he failed the interview again. B. Hardly had Peter fully been aware of the importance of having careful preparation when he failed the interview again. C. Not until Peter was fully aware of the importance of having careful preparation did he fail the interview again. D. Only after Peter had failed the interview again was he fully aware of the importance of having careful preparation. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks One of the main causes of pressure on children today is the increased use of social media. Nowadays, children spend (34) _____ hours interacting with social media platforms. It is thought that this has led to pressures to maintain a particular image. If children share an image or video online, the number of likes or comments can have a dramatic effect on how they feel about themselves. They also feel under pressure to maintain a particular image to show how exciting their lifestyle is. (35) _____, there is a constant focus on their social lives, and they feel judged about their vacations and the things they like and do. In addition to pressures from social media, children are feeling increasing pressure from living in an environment (36) _____ they are always in contact with people. Previously, if a child had a difficult time with friends, they could leave this behind at school. The shift to smartphones has meant that this has become increasingly difficult. A number of surveys have (37) ______ how not being able to switch off and walk away has increased stress levels for children. If technological (38) _____ was limited, it would significantly reduce stress levels for young people. 13 13 Question 34: A. few B. a little C. much D. many Question 35: A. Therefore B. Moreover C. However D. Otherwise Question 36: A. which B. when C. where D. why Question 37: A. displayed B. highlighted C. demonstrated D. presented Question 38: A. access B. development C. advance D. approach Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43 Einstein took longer than usual to begin to speak. He began sometime after his second birthday. He was also rebellious towards authority when he was at school. These two facts may have been the origin of a popular myth that Einstein was a bad student and that he failed at school. This is simply not true. Einstein was outstanding at physics and Math when he was young. At sixteen, he wrote a brilliant essay that had a direct link with his later work in relativity. The myth may also come from the fact that at sixteen, he tried to get into the prestigious Federal Polytechnic in Zurich. The normal entrance age was eighteen. It seems he failed some of the non-science subjects, doing badly in French, for example. The school did not take him. But the next year, he passed. In later life, Einstein was well-known for making some mistakes in his Math and the Math he was doing was not exactly straightforward. Einstein's brain was quite special, a part of it is responsible for mathematical thought and spatial- kinesthetic intelligence. In Einstein's brain, this region was 15 percent wider than average. Besides, the line running from the front of the brain to the back was not complete. They think that this allowed the two halves of Einstein's brain to talk to each other more fluently. How do we know all this? After he died, a curious scientist removed his brain to check it out. (Adapted from “Gateway B2, by David Spencer) Question 39: What is the passage mainly about? A. Facts about Einstein's brain B. Extraordinary facts about Einstein C. The early life of Einstein D. Young Einstein’s performance at school Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true about Einstein according to the passage? A. He was exceptional in physics and math during his younger years. B. His later work in relativity was found to be connected with the essay written when he was sixteen. C. He was good at literature and languages in his secondary school. D. He was famous for making mistakes in his mathematics during his later years. Question 41: According to the passage, which of the following can be a fact about Einstein? A. He was known as a bad student. B. He failed at school when he was young. C. He was admitted to Federal Polytechnic at 17. D. He never made any mistakes at school. Question 42: The word “outstanding’’ in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ______. A. obedient B. subordinate C. unmanageable D. brilliant Question 43: The word “it” in the last paragraph refers to _______. A. intelligence B. thought C. maths D. Einstein's brain Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. To be successful, a business traveler must be able to maintain contact with the office, no matter what the time or place. Negotiations often involve decisions based on the latest figures; therefore, modern employers tend to look for those who are able to master state-of-the-art equipment. New telecommunications products and services now on the market make staying in touch easier than ever before. 14 14 The most widespread device is the cellular telephone, the price of which has dropped from several thousand dollars to a few hundred, including installation. Users of any budgets can afford one with all necessary functions to meet their need to communicate, to entertain or to study and work. There are over 2 million mobile cellular phones in use today, including both car phones and cordless transportable units. Car phones have proven indispensable for road emergencies as well as routine business transactions. Phone service is also available on airplanes and on the rails. Recently introduced pocket-size organizers help business travelers with heavy schedules keep track of clients. These are tiny computers that can store all kinds of information that can satisfy any users in spite of any jobs they have. They can serve as phone and address directories, calendars, electronic memo pads, and calculators, among other uses. As a result, this device has become an indispensable assistant for many people. Another invaluable telecommunications tool is smaller, lighter fax machines that plug into any standard electrical outlet and phone line. The devices allow instantaneous transmission of hard copy to any location having a compatible fax machine. It is expected that faxing will soon become the primary means of sending and receiving short documents requiring prompt attention. Fax machines have come in a wide range of models and greater offer of applications. Question 44: What is the best title for the passage? A. Office Communications B. New Telecommunications Products and Services C. The Business Travelers D. Computers and Businessmen Question 45: According to paragraph 1, what do negotiations require? A. the latest figures about the market and consumers B. judgments based on the most recent data C. new telecommunications products and services D. the market and products that are popular Question 46: The phrase state-of-the-art in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to ________. A. useful B. expensive C. fashionable D. advanced Question 47: The word They in paragraph 3 refers to ________. A. The computer users B. The pocket-size computers C. All kinds of information D. Different jobs Question 48: The word instantaneous in paragraph 4 most closely means ________. A reasonable B. obligatory C. cheap D. rapid Question 49: It can be inferred from the passage that fax machines probably ________. A. will replace mail delivery of short documents B. are still far from becoming a standard business tool C. cannot be used in conjunction with phone service D. are now as small and light as they can ever be Question 50: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. The price of cellular phones has decreased drastically. B. Cellular phones have become popular in many fields. C. A wide range of data can be stored in pocket-size organizers to meet the needs of all users. D. Few people have relied on pocket-size computers as their primary assistance. ------ THE END ------ 15 15 ĐỀ SỐ 04 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. bird B. knife C. time D. mind Question 2: A. bloc B. cure C. city D. cave Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. subscribe B. recruit C. publish D. protect Question 4: A. benefit B. furniture C. industry D. reviewer Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: The bomb exploded with a loud bang, ______ the whole building. A. was destroyed B. to destroy C. destroying D. destroyed Question 6: They want to cancel the match, ______? A. do they B. don’t they C. are they D. didn’t they Question 7: The postman rang the bell while Martin ______ the car. A. was repairing B. repairs C. is repairing D. repaired Question 8: If your father ever finds out that you’ve been taking days off school he’ll come down on you like a ______ of bricks A. wheelbarrow B. ton C. pile D. load Question 9: In the future world, the ______ experience of all people on the planet will be recorded. A. collection B. collector C. collect D. collective Question 10: Hanh will finish all her work ______. A. while her boss was returning B. after her boss had returned C. as soon as her boss returns D. before her boss returned Question 11: I'm not sure if I'm capable ______ handling this difficult situation. A. of B. at C. in D. with Question 12: This car is ______ in the showroom A. the more expensive B. more expensive C. so expensive D. the most expensive Question 13: This beautiful painting ______ to us by my grandfather last year. A. gives B. was given C. was giving D. has given Question 14: The agencies are working together to coordinate ______ on food safety. A. policy B. procedure C. rule D. campaign Question 15: I ______ a few adjustments to the gears, and my bike works much better now. A. did B. made C. formed D. acted Question 16: She threatened ______ me to court for not paying the bill on time. A. taking B. taken C. to take D. take Question 17: When he retires, he will be able to look back over a brilliant ______. A. job B. career C. work D. occupation Question 18: I was consoling Joey on her having ______ with her boyfriend. A. broken away B. grown up C. grown on D. broken up 16 16 Question 19: When I visited the zoo yesterday, I saw______ elephant. A. a B. an C. ∅ (no article) D. the Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 20: Sarah and Jenifer are talking about gender equality in employment. - Sarah: “I believe that married women should not pursue a career.” - Jenifer: “______. Doing the same things at home every day is really tiring and boring.” A. I don’t agree with you B. Keep up the good work C. Oh, I don’t know D. I couldn’t agree more Question 21: Peter is talking to Mary about eating habits. - Peter: “You should eat more fruits and vegetables.” - Mary: “______.” A. No, thanks B. You’re welcome C. My pleasure D. Yes, I will Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: The rapid industrialization of the area resulted in the exhaustion of natural resources. A. depression B. exploitation C. influence D. depletion Question 23: The teacher wanted to emphasize the importance of studying regularly for academic success by talking about that again and again. A. stress B. admire C. hesitate D. ban Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: Last year, they had some financial difficulties when her husband was fired. Together, they weathered the storm and figured out how to keep going. A. understood a difficult period quickly B. worked in a difficult period slowly C. failed to overcome a difficult period D. came safely through a difficult period Question 25: The scientist affirmed the importance of maintaining ecological balance and preserving the planet's natural resources. A. recognized B. stressed C. emphasized D. denied Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: Using dictionaries is not allowed in the examination. A. You needn’t use dictionaries in the examination. B. You shouldn’t use dictionaries in the examination. C. You mustn’t use dictionaries in the examination. D. You won’t use dictionaries in the examination. Question 27: They said, "We'll be moving to a new house next month." A. They said they will be moving to a new house next month. B. They told they would be moving to a new house the following month. C. They said they would be moving to a new house the following month. D. They told us they will be moving to a new house next month. Question 28: The last time I saw my fellows was a month ago. A. I have not seen my fellows for a month. B. I have seen my fellows for a month. C. I did not see my fellows for a month. D. I saw my fellows for a month. 17 17 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 29: Some of his activities are illegal, but the local authorities tend to turn a blind eye to him. A. him B. turn C. Some D. but Question 30: Andrew said that stairways in the affected buildings are in eminent danger of collapse and unsafe for residents to use. A. collapse B. eminent C. to use D. affected Question 31: I cycle to my village at this time last Sunday. A. my village B. at C. last D. cycle Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 32: Mrs. Daisy broke up with her husband. Then she understood all what he had sacrificed for her. A. No sooner had Mrs. Daisy understood all what her husband had sacrificed for her than she broke up with him. B. Only after Mrs. Daisy had broken up with her husband did she understand all what he had sacrificed for her. C. Only by breaking up with her husband did Mrs. Daisy understand all what he had sacrificed for her. D. Hardly had Mrs. Daisy understood all what her husband had sacrificed for her when she broke up with him. Question 33: He didn't know the road was icy. Thus, he was driving very fast. A. If he knew the road was icy, he wouldn't drive so fast. B. If he had known the road was icy, he would have been driving so fast. C. If he had known the road was icy, he wouldn't have been driving so fast. D. If he knew the road was icy, he would drive so fast. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks. Through the centuries, the dream of medieval alchemists was to discover how to turn lead and (34)______ "base" metals into gold. Some were fakes, but many were learned men with philosophical goals. Their (35)______ was based on the ancient idea that all matter consists of different proportions of just four substances - earth, water, fire, and air. They believed that it was possible to adjust the proportions of the elements that made up lead by chemical means so that it turned into gold, a process called transmutation. Their experiments were concerned with finding the substance - (36)______ they called the philosopher's stone - that, when added to lead, would cause this astonishing change to take place. Alchemists also searched for the elixir of life, a substance that could cure diseases and (37)______ life. They failed on both counts. (38)______, their techniques for preparing and studying chemicals helped lay the foundation for the modern science of chemistry. (Adapted from “VSTEP Collection”) Question 34: A. another B. others C. other D. one Question 35: A. expedition B. quest C. adventure D. investigation Question 36: A. which B. who C. where D. whose Question 37: A. prolong B. lengthen C. expand D. increase Question 38: A. Despite B. However C. Furthermore D. Therefore 18 18 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43. There are many kinds of books in the world. They fall into two categories which are fiction and non-fiction. Well-received books from either kind are even made into movies and games. Fiction books are written using the imagination. The characters and events surrounding them are not real. Fiction books can be found in abundance at bookstores and libraries. They can even be found on the shelves of comic shops and game shops. Often, fiction books are written in two or three combinations from the science, fantasy and classical groups. The most popular kind among youngsters is probably in the area of fantasy. Anything involving magic and witchcraft, space-crafts and aliens, or superheroes and time travel may be used in this category. Many different kinds of non-fiction books are available on the market. These are written about facts, real people, real events and real places. Most of the time, non-fiction books are written by people who have experienced or witnessed the happenings themselves. Real-life stories can also be contributed by readers and thus they can be found in magazines and newspapers. As more books are written and produced across the globe, our choice for selection also increases. Although reading is a good form of habit, choosing the right kind of books to read is just as important. We, as the readers, have the responsibility to learn to choose wisely. (Adapted from Conquer Comprehension 3 by Judy Tilaka & Felicia Wong) Question 39: What is the passage mainly about? A. The importance of readers’ choices in reading books B. Difference between fiction and non-fiction books C. Tips to choose fiction and non-fiction books D. Reading books: a good habit Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true in the passage? A. Choosing a suitable book is not as important as developing a habit of reading. B. Both popular fiction and non-fiction books are made into games. C. Reading the right kind of books is important. D. Non-fiction books are based on the writers’ experiences. Question 41: According to paragraph 2, fiction books involve _____. A. real life stories B. imaginary events C. experience D. facts Question 42: The word fantasy in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____. A. imagination B. reality C. comics D. romance Question 43: The word they in paragraph 3 refers to _____. A. real-life stories B. readers C. non-fiction books D. the happening Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. Within the space of a few decades, video game technology has changed beyond recognition. From basic single-player computer games involving simple stick controls, we can now manipulate the movements of computer game characters with our bodies. We can even invite other people from anywhere in the world to join us in online games. So how might gaming evolve in the next few decades? The average age of gamers has risen to about 30 in recent years. Experts agree that this trend is likely to continue. Not only are people continuing to play games later in life, but now even older people with no computer skills can also confidently take part in the games console revolution. More and more games are designed to need very little pressing of buttons. Games of the future may even be completely voice-activated. Because of this user-friendliness, game designers are trying to appeal to a whole new market, the middle-aged. We may soon see the release of games with themes such as gardening or cookery. 19 19 The younger generation, however, can push themselves harder with more serious gaming, and they expect games to become a lot more physical in the future. There are already some games that sense the movement of any part of the body. Soon, game consoles will even be adapted to the way we feel through our facial expressions. Some games will feel more real than ever through the use of 3D imagery. Today's most advanced video games are played at home, but it is already common for people to continue playing them wherever they go via their phones or similarly-sized gadgets. Businesses could even try to take advantage of this, couldn't they? They could start advertising within games that are being played by people in their target groups, those who live in certain areas or by people with particular tastes. (Adapted from On Screen B2 by Virginia Evans- Jenny Dooley) Question 44: Which of the following is the best title for the passage? A. The Changes in The Gaming World B. The Impacts of Computer Games on Players C. The Importance of Mastering Computer Games D. The Comparison Between Computer Games in The Past And Today Question 45: The word “manipulate” in paragraph 1 is closest in meaning to _______. A. maintain B. control C. prevent D. increase Question 46: According to paragraph 2, what is one factor making game consoles more accessible to older people? A. Games requiring less button pressing. B. Introduction of virtual reality technology. C. Decrease in the price of game consoles. D. Improved graphics and sound effects. Question 47: The word “adapted” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _______. A. supported B. carried C. removed D. adjusted Question 48: The word “them” in paragraph 4 refers to _______. A. phones B. gadgets C. video games D. people Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true about future games according to the passage? A. Computer games might be more popular with middle-aged people. B. Video games for younger players will be physically demanding. C. Some games are more lifelike with 3D images. D. Gaming will only be limited to playing at home. Question 50: Which of the following can be inferred from the final paragraph? A. People prefer playing games on their smart devices which contain advertisements. B. Businesses should make their own computer games to advertise their products. C. Players can choose not to see advertisements during their games on smartphones. D. It is a good idea for companies to put ads in games played by a certain group of people. ----- THE END ------ 20 20 ĐỀ SỐ 05 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. same B. soup C. sure D. taste Question 2: A. cure B. burn C. hurt D. turn Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. punish B. visit C. reduce D. listen Question 4: A. pollution B. attitude C. applicant D. habitat Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: Medical researchers encouraged people ______ more fluids and eat fruits and vegetables with a high-water content. A. drink B. drinking C. to drinking D. to drink Question 6: That’s her bag, _________? A. hasn’t it B. has it C. isn’t it D. is it Question 7: Our old friends arrived while we _________ the dishes. A. were washing B. washed C. have washed D. are washing Question 8: Mona Lisa ______ by Leonardo da Vinci in the early 16 century. th A. was painted B. paints C. was painting D. has painted Question 9: The _________ between the rich and poor is staggering in most developing countries. A. difference B. differ C. different D. differently Question 10: Paris is famous _________ its fashion, art, and delicious cuisine. A. at B. for C. of D. to Question 11: You should _________ this book again? There is a lot of information you need. A. break down B. go over C. show off D. care about Question 12: After the Cabinet reshuffle, the Minister wasn’t very happy at his new _________. A. work B. job C. shift D. post Question 13: Thousands of unexploded bombs still exist, ______ the government and citizens worried. A. is making B. made C. to make D. making Question 14: Mary got straight A again this term. She’s ______student of all. A. hard-working than B. the most hard-working C. as hard-working D. more hard-working Question 15: She is ______ honest person. You can trust her. A. ∅ (no article) B. an C. a D. the Question 16: ______, the manager assistant will inform us about the result. A. When the meeting ended B. When the meeting ends C. When the meeting had ended D. When the meeting was ending Question 17: After the leader’s suggestions, all members said nothing, and I was the first one to ______ the silence in the discussion. A. stop B. drop C. break D. pause Question 18: My husband is a teacher, and whenever he gets together with his coworkers, they do nothing but talk ______ the whole time. A. mall B. shop C. market D. store 21 21 Question 19: The ______ cuisines in Vietnam include Pho, Banh Mi, and local delicacies. A. autograph B. character C. signature D. formula Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following exchanges. Question 20: Jenny and Jimmy are talking about university education. - Jenny: "I think having a university degree is the only way to succeed in life." - Jimmy: "_________. There are successful people without a degree." A. That's life B. That's all right C. I can't agree more D. I don't quite agree Question 21: Tim wants to make an apology to Bill for having broken his racket. - Tim: “Sorry, I didn’t mean to do that. ” - Bill: “_________” A. You can blame yourself. B. You’ve to forget it! C. Then what did you mean? D. No problem. Don’t worry about it. Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 22: I hope you'll consider including me in the English club activities; I believe it would be a fantastic opportunity for me to immerse myself in the language. A. composing B. removing C. adding D. engaging Question 23: The teacher will evaluate the students’ performance based on their understanding of the learning materials by giving them a test. A. simplify B. accept C. ignore D. assess Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined word(s) in each of the following questions. Question 24: After years of rivalry with her cousin, she decided to hold out an olive branch and go have fun together. A. become enemies with each other B. become friends again C. become understandable D. become difficult to understand Question 25: After months of fruitless negotiations with team owners, the city withdrew its offer to build a new stadium. A. successful B. qualified C. unexpected D. significant Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the following questions. Question 26: The last time Paul paid a visit to Vietnam was 10 years ago. A. Paul spent 10 years paying a visit to Vietnam. B. Paul hasn’t paid a visit to Vietnam for 10 years. C. Paul has paid a visit to Vietnam for 10 years. D. Paul didn’t pay a visit to Vietnam 10 years ago. Question 27: It is impossible for John to drive a car without a driving license. A. John must drive a car without a driving license. B. John may drive a car without a driving license. C. John can’t drive a car without a driving license. D. John needn’t drive a car without a driving license. Question 28: They told me, "We will visit the new museum downtown next week." A. They told me that they will visit the new museum downtown the next week. B. They told me that I would visit the new museum downtown next week. C. They told me they visit the new museum downtown the following week. D. They told me that they would visit the new museum downtown the next week. 22 22 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of the following questions. Question 29: In 1452, a man named Leonardo Da Vinci experimented with airplane designs in their artwork. A. designs B. airplane C. their D. experimented Question 30: The agency is showing all the signs of an aged company whose growth is too dependent on buying market size. A. aged B. market C. agency D. signs Question 31: One of the most feasible methods of forest conservation these days was to control the cutting of trees. A. was B. One of C. feasible D. conservation Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences in the following questions. Question 32: The audience just took their seats. The leader singer stepped onto the stage then. A. Only when the leader singer stepped onto the stage the audience took their seats. B. Hardly did the audience take their seats, the leader singer stepped onto the stage. C. Not until the leader singer stepped onto the stage did the audience take their seats. D. No sooner had the audience taken their seats than the leader singer stepped onto the stage. Question 33: She watched a lot of films in Japanese. That’s why she had no difficulty communicating with people in Japan. A. If she didn’t watch a lot of films in Japanese, she would have difficulty communicating with people in Japan. B. If she hadn’t watched a lot of films in Japanese, she would have had difficulty communicating with people in Japan. C. If she had watched a lot of films in Japanese, she would have had difficulty communicating with people in Japan. D. If she hadn’t watched a lot of films in Japanese, she would have had no difficulty communicating with people in Japan. Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks Human beings are extremely diverse in very many ways. People (34) _________ in opinions, race, nationality, gender, age, sexuality, ethnicity, class, religion, lifestyle and so much more, yet at the very basic we are all human species. Ideally, (35) _________people feel pain and joy despite the differences. Today, the changes in time and technology have made it extremely impossible for any group of people to live without interacting with other outside their group. Often, people of different cultural and geographical (36) _________ meet in international conferences, education exchange programs, sports, etc. Sadly, the history of mankind discriminating against each other based on cultural differences has been with us for ages. So many people have died or have been denied their rights (37) _________ individual greed. Properties and economies have also been destroyed due to lack of understanding. Unfortunately, some of these occurrences are visible even today, perpetuated by people (38) _________ little understand the importance of the uniqueness of our diversity. (Source: https://www.springbreakwatches.com) Question 34: A. differ B. distinguish C. separate D. disagree Question 35: A. little B. much C. every D. all Question 36: A. backgrounds B. settings C. identities D. evidences Question 37: A. thanks to B. because of C. despite D. though Question 38: A. which B. whom C. who D. whose 23 23 Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 39 to 43. The decisions we make in our early life, e.g. what school we go to, the subjects we choose to study, the decision to go to university/college, the courses we choose, can impact our career path. If this decision is heavily swayed by parental preference, the child may end up following a vocation that, deep down, they are not interested in. At the same time, without practical guidance and support when pursuing interests, poor choices can be made. Everyone has a unique set of skills and aptitudes. Each child is individual in their own way, and so may possess different skills and abilities to their parents. With this in mind, adopting a similar career role to either parent may not be the right course of action. We all take time to ‘find our feet’. Parents will often say things such as “pick a course you think you’ll like” or “why don’t you apply for this job”. Though it may seem they are doing the right thing in terms of steering their children in the right direction, parents also need to understand that we all need space and time to discover what we truly want to pursue. University, for example, isn’t for everyone – and engaging in relevant work experience and/ or undertaking an apprenticeship can be just as valuable in finding a suitable vocation in which you can thrive. The trick here is to educate children that life is about self-discovery and new skills and talents are developed. How many of us are in careers we thought we would be in when we were 18? We can only make decisions based on what we know about ourselves at the time, take the pressure off them by letting them know it's okay that they aren't sure what they want to do yet but the important thing is to be proactive in finding their way. (Adapted from https://www.midkent.ac.uk/) Question 39: Which of the following best serves as the title for the article? A. Practical guidance and support for children B. Advice on guiding children’s education C. Adopting a similar career role to either parent D. Valuable things in a suitable vocation Question 40: Which of the following is NOT true about the decisions we make in our early life? A. They have an influence on our career B. They are made without parents’ guidance C. Sometimes, we do not like the job our parents decide D. Parents play an important role in our decision making. Question 41: The word “steering” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ______. A. guiding B. forcing C. preventing D. competing Question 42: What is the benefit of relevant work experience or undertaking an apprenticeship for children? A. It gives a vocation of great value. B. It makes children like their vocation. C. It helps in finding a suitable vocation. D. It teaches children to be confident. Question 43: The word “which” in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. work experience B. apprenticeship C. suitable vocation D. University Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions from 44 to 50. There are a number of natural disasters that can strike across the globe. Two that are frequently linked to one another are earthquakes and tsunamis. Both of them can cause a great amount of devastation when they hit. However, tsunamis are the direct result of earthquakes and cannot happen without them. 24 24 The Earth has three main parts. They are the crust, the mantle, and the core. The crust is the outer layer of the Earth. It is not a single piece of land. Instead, it consists of a number of plates. There are a few enormous plates and many smaller ones. These plates essentially rest upon the mantle, which is fluid. As a result, the plates are in constant and slow motion. The plates may move away from or toward other plates. In some cases, they collide violently with the plates next to them. The movement of the plates causes tension in the rock. Over a long time, this tension may build up. When it is released, an earthquake happens. Tens of thousands of earthquakes happen every year. The vast majority are so small that only scientific instruments can perceive them. Others are powerful enough that people can feel them, yet they cause little harm or damage. More powerful earthquakes, however, can cause buildings, bridges, and other structures to collapse. They may additionally injure and kill thousands of people and might even cause the land to change its appearance. Since most of the Earth's surface is water, numerous earthquakes happen under the planet's oceans. Underwater earthquakes cause the seafloor to move. This results in the displacement of water in the ocean. When this occurs, a tsunami may form. This is a wave that forms on the surface and moves in all directions from the place where the earthquake happened. A tsunami moves extremely quickly and can travel thousands of kilometers. As it approaches land, the water near the coast gets sucked out to sea. This causes the tsunami to increase in height. Minutes later, the tsunami arrives. A large tsunami can travel far inland. As it does that, it can flood the land, destroy human settlements, and kill large numbers of people. Question 44: Which of the following can be the best title for the passage? A. How Earthquakes and Tsunamis Occur B. What Kind of Damage Natural Disasters Can Cause C. Why Tsunamis Are Deadlier Than Earthquakes D. When Earthquakes Are Likely to Happen Question 45: According to paragraph 1, tsunamis occur ______. A. at the same time with earthquakes B. right after earthquakes C. with no earthquakes D. before the unexpected earthquakes Question 46: The word collide in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _____. A. hit B. move C. merge D. break Question 47: The word perceive in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to _____. A. derive B. detect C. locate D. prevent Question 48: The word They in paragraph 3 refers to ______. A. thousands of people B. powerful earthquakes C. other structures D. scientific instruments Question 49: Which of the following is NOT true according to the passage? A. The Earth's crust consists of a number of plates that are in constant and slow motion. B. Underwater earthquakes can cause tsunamis, which can be extremely powerful and destructive. C. Most earthquakes happen on land rather than under water and damage infrastructures. D. The movement of the Earth's crustal plates can cause tension, leading to the occurrence of earthquakes. Question 50: According to the passage, what can be inferred about tsunamis? A. They kill more people each year than earthquakes. B. They are dangerous to people living near the shore. C. They are able to move as fast as the speed of sound. D. They cannot damage ships sailing on the ocean. ------ THE END ------ 25 25 ĐỀ SỐ 06 Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions. Question 1: A. smooth B. month C. south D. both Question 2: A. islet B. set C. met D. wet Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the position of primary stress in each of the following questions. Question 3: A. separate B. classify C. develop D. organize Question 4: A. support B. employ C. donate D. govern Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions. Question 5: I'm thinking of buying ______ new pair of shoes for my sister's wedding. A. a B. ∅ (no article) C. an D. the Question 6: The blue whale is by far ______ animal on Earth. A. the most heavy B. the heaviest C. more heavy D. heavier Question 7: After months of hard work, the team finally turned ______ and launched their new product successfully. A. a blind eye B. over a new leaf C. a deaf ear D. the corner Question 8: Except for some parts that are ______, the whole story is absolutely true. A. thought of B. took up C. found out D. made up Question 9: If you don’t want your business to ______ bankrupt, avoid consulting those willing to step out on a limb. A. come B. take C. go D. pay Question 10:.______ unwell, she decided to stay home instead of going to work.. A. To feel B. Feeling C. Felt D. Being felt Question 11: Secondary education is now compulsory nationwide, ______? A. wasn’t it B. does it C. isn’t it? D. was it? Question 12: Humans depend on species ______to have food, clean air and water, and fertile soil for agriculture. A. diversity B. minority C. capacity D. majority Question 13: Going on a roller coaster ride makes me experience motion ______. A. illness B. weakness C. tiredness D. sickness Question 14: They tried ______further funds in the research project on protecting the environment. A. to raise B. raise C. to raising D. raising Question 15: The letter ______ to her parents by her little son last night. A. was written B. writes C. was writing D. has written Question 16: The most ______thing about it is the large number of color photographs. A. fascinate B. fascination C. fascinatingly D. fascinating Question 17: You shouldn’t share your secret with her because she is bad ______keeping it. A. among