Obstetrics and Gynecology MCQ PDF

Anatomical and physiological characteristics of female reproductive system 1- External sexual organs are designated as: A) Vulva B) Clitoris C) Pubic triangle D) None of the listed answers 2- which of the listed sexual organs is NOT external: A) Labia Majora B) Clitoris C) Pubic triangle D) Vagina...

Anatomical and physiological characteristics of female reproductive system 1- External sexual organs are designated as: A) Vulva B) Clitoris C) Pubic triangle D) None of the listed answers 2- which of the listed sexual organs is NOT external: A) Labia Majora B) Clitoris C) Pubic triangle D) Vagina 3- which of the following statements is NOT true: A) Vagina is an internal sexual organ B) Vagina is a copulative organ C) The weight of a non-pregnant uterus is 50-70 gr. D) Vagina is formed of multi-layered flat keratinised epithelium 4- How many planes does pelvis have: A) Two B) Three C) Four D) There is no correct answer 5- Pelvic bone consists of: A) Two bones B) Four bones C) Five bones D) There is no correct answer 6- How many different types of pelvis exist according to Caldwell-Moloy classification: A) Two B) Three C) Four D) Five 7- Which of these pelvis types does not belong to Caldwell-Moloy Classification: A) Pelvis with tumour and exostosis B) Gynecoid Pelvis C) Android Pelvis D) Platypelloid Pelvis 8- Pelvimetry of Pelvis includes: A) Distantia spinarum B) Conugata externa C) Conugata Vera obstetrica D) There is no correct answer 9- Conugata externa is: A) 18 cm B) 20 cm C) 22 cm D) 25 cm 10- Obstetric upright diameter ( Obstetrics conjugate) of pelvic inlet is: A) 10 cm B) 11 cm C) 12 cm D) 13 cm 11- Arteria Ovarica is a branch of : A) A. Uterina B) A. Iliaca externa C) A. Aorta abdominalis D) A. Renalis 12- Arteria Uterina is a branch of : A) A. Iliaca interna B) A. Iliaca externa C) Aorta abdominalis D) A. Ovarica 13- The border between the body of uterus (corpus uteri) and Uterine Cervix is: A) Fundus uteri B) Cornua uteri C) Canalis cervicalis D) Isthmus uteri 14- Which of the listed organs does not belong to the internal genital organs: A) Vagina B) Uterus C) Epioophoron D) Bulbus vestibuli 15- The most important obstetric diameter is: A) Conugata externa B) the upright diameter (conjugate) of pelvic outlet C) Obstetric upright diameter ( Obstetrics conjugate) of pelvic inlet D) Transverse diameter in the narrow part of pelvis 16-Sacro-Uterine connection (ligament) originates from: A) Uterine horn (cornua uteri) B) the most superior part of Vagina C) upper part of cervix D) Mesosalpinx 17- Uterine tube is supplied by blood from: A) A. Renalis B) A. Iliaca externa C) A. Ovarica D) A. Uterina 18- The onset of menstruation depends on: A) Progesterone secretion from corpus luteum B) Oestrogen secretion from ovaries C) Secretion of Prolactin from anterior part of Hypophysis D) pulsatile secretion of GnRH from Hypothalamus 19- How many hours after ovulation the egg can be fertilised: A) 2 h B) 6 h C) 12 to 24 h D) 36 h 20- Fertilisation in Human occurs in: A) Vagina B) Uterine tube C) Uterine cavity D) ovaries 21- The number of oocytes in the ovary in a newborn female baby: A) 300 000 B) 400 000 C) 500 000 D) 1 000 000 22- How many days after the onset of menstruation, implantation of the embryo begins: A) 10 days B) 15 days C) 20 days D) 30 days 23- Graafian follicle is : A) Primordial follicle B) vesicular follicle C) Mature follicle D) Atretic follicle 24- The first menstruation is called: A) Pubarche B) Telarche C) Menarche D) Axillarche 25- Average blood loss at mensuration is: A) 20-40 ml B) 60-80 ml C) 100-120 ml D) 120- 140 ml 26- The normal flora of vagina is: A) Aerobic with pH < 4.5 B) Anaerobic with pH < 4.5 C) Aerobic with pH > 4.5 D) Mixed with pH < 4.5 27- Which of the listed hormones is not relevant to lactation: A) Prolactin B)Testosterone C) Oxytocin D) Oestrogen 28- In the child's sexual development, from birth to 18 years of age, are distinguished: A) One period B) 2 periods C) 3 periods D) 4 periods 29- The neonatal period is the period from the birth of the child to: A) 12 days after birth B) 28 days after birth C) 42 days after birth D) 45 days after birth 30- Before menarche, the ratio of the length of the uterus to the cervix is: A) 1/1 B) 2/1 C) 3/1 D) 4/1 31- The normal pH of vagina before menarche is: A) 2.0-3.0 B) 3.5-4.5 C) 5.0-5.5 D) 6.0-8.0 Physiological Obstetrics 1-The normal duration of pregnancy is: A) 37 gestational weeks B) 270 days C) 40 gestational weeks D) 280 days 2- The probable term of birth (Estimated date of delivery) can be determined by: A) Date of ovulation B) Date of conception C) Formula of Naegel D) A,B,C 3- The mutual placement (arrangement) of parts of the foetus relative to each other is called: A)Habitus B) Situs (situation) C) Position D)Presentation 4- The relationship of the longitudinal axis of the fetus to the longitudinal axis of the uterus is called: A) Position B) Habitus C) Situs (Situation) D) Presentation 5- What does the abbreviation OISA mean? A)Occipital Presentation, first position, anterior type B) Occipital Presentation, second position, posterior type C) Facial Presentation, first position, anterior type D) Seated Presentation(Breech), first position, anterior type 6- Seated presentation(Breech), second position, anterior type, is denoted by the following abbreviation: A) SISA B)OISA C) MIDA D)SIDA 7- Where is the uterus in V lunar month of pregnancy? A) Midway between symphysis and umbilicus B) Two centimetres below umbilicus C) At the umbilical level D) Two centimeters above the umbilicus 8- Conugata externa Is: A)18 cm B) 20 cm C) 22 cm D) 25 cm 9- Interspinal diameter in the narrow part of pelvis is: A) 8 cm B) 11 cm C) 12 cm D) 13 cm 10- The normal frequency of heart rate (ДСТ) at term is: A) 100-140 bpm B) 100-120 bpm C) 120-160 bpm D) 140-180 bpm 11-NST (non stress test) provides information about: A) Frequency of the baby’s heart sound B) Variability and reactivity of the baby’s heart sound C) Presence of uterine contractions D) A,B,C 12- By how many times the volume of pregnant uterus has increased at term: A) 500 times B) 1000 times C) 1200 times D) more than 120 times 13- Normal pregnancy is characterized by A) Reduced peripheral resistance B) Peripheral vasodilatation C) Increased venous pressure in the lower limbs D) A,B,C 14- The physiological dilatation of ureters in pregnancy is the result of the action of: A) Progesterone B) Oestrogen C) Oxytocin D) By the action of all three hormones 15- Average weight gain during pregnancy is: A) 8-10 Kg B) 10-12 Kg C) 12-14 Kg D) 14-16 Kg 16. Which of the following statements are true: A. Pregnancy is characterized by a physiological hypercoagulation B. Breastfeeding is characterized by an increase in the total blood volume C. Breastfeeding is characterized by hemodilution D. A,B, C 17. How many Leopold's manoeuvres are there: A. 3 B. 4 C.5 D.6 18. The determination of the fetus is done by: A. The first Leopolds Approach B. Second Leopold Approach C. Third Leopold Approach D Third and Fourth Leopold Approach 19. Who are the forerunners of birth: A. Lowering the side B. Weight loss C. Uterine contractions D. Outbreak of amniotic fluid 20. Sure signs of the starting of childbirth are: A. Braxton-Hicks contractions B. Regular uterine contractions C. Structural changes in the cervix D. A, B, C 21. Birth occurs in: A. Two periods B. Three periods C. Five Periods D. None of these answers are true 22. The duration of the first period of birth in the first place is: A. 8-10 hours B. 10-12 hours C. 12-14 hours D. 14-16 hours; 23. The third period of birth is: A. 15 min B. 30 min. C. 40 min. D. 60 min 24. The full extension of the cervix is: A. 8 cm B. 9 cm C. 10 cm D. 11 cm 25. The leading point in the natal birth mechanism it is a prelude: A. Big fontella B. Sutura sagitalis C. Little Fontella D. Mandible 26. Physiological bloodshed in a normal delivery: A. 350 ml B. 550 ml C. 650 ml D. There is no true answer 27. Separation of the placenta from the uterine wall into the placental period is accomplished the following mechanism: A. Duncan B. Crede C. Shultze D. Kustner 28. Crede's technique is used for: A. Placental detachment B. Placental examination C. Removal of the detached placenta D. There is no true answer 29. Umbilical cord contains: A. Two arteries and two veins B. Two veins and one artery C. Two arteries and one vein D. There is no true answer 30. Which of the following statements is true: A. hCG is synthesized in the placenta B. Progesterone is synthesized in the placenta C. Relaxin is synthesized in the placenta D. In the placenta, hCG, progesterone and relaxin are synthesized 31. Write a description of puerperium: The Puerperium begins at the birth of the placenta continues until removal of the abnormal changes in the womans body during pregnancy and childbirth. The restoration of physiological and anatomical state of the organs and systems of the mother is accomplished by involution and regeneration. 32. Which time period covers the early puerperium: The early puerperium covers the period since birth placenta until 5-6 days thereafter. 33. Which time period covers the late puerperium: From the 6th day after the birth to 6-8 weeks thereafter. 34. What statement about the duration of the early puerperium is true: A. From the birth of the placenta to 3-4 days B. From the birth of the placenta to 5-6 days C. From the birth of the placenta to 7-8 days D. The early puerperium occurs only in the first few days and lasts for an average of 12-36 hours, whereas in the most it is missing. 35. What is the average duration of the post-partum period: A. 3-4 weeks B- 5 weeks C. 6-8 weeks D. Around 10 weeks 36. On which day is the woman discharged after a normal delivery: A. 2nd Day B. 4th day C. 6th day D. 8th day 37. On which day is the woman discharged after a caesarean section: A. 2nd Day B. 4th day C. 6th day D. 8th day 38. The Puerperium is a special period for the woman who has given birth which requires the intensified care and attention of the treating physician. Each day, 10 attributes must be counted. Some of them are heat, pulse and blood pressure. List five more: Urination, defacation, mammary gland, involution of the uterus, lochia. 39. Which is an unnecessary attribute to count during the puerperium period: A. Pulse B. Consistency of the cervix C. Uterine involution G. Lochia E. Defecation 40. Where is fundus uteri normal after birth: A. 4 cm above the navel B. At the navel level C. 2 centimeters under the navel D. At the symphysis level 41. At what level is the fundus uteri normally found on the first day after birth: A. At the navel level B. 1 cm below the navel C. 2 cm below the navel D. At the symphysis level 42. What is the normal daily uterine involution (in centimeters): 1 cm 43. What is lochia? Lochies are a normal release from genital- tract through the puerperium. Genital wound secretion, inflammatory cells, leukocytes and necrotic decidua 44. List four types of lochia? Lochia cruenta, lochia rubra, lochia fusca, lochia alba; 45. Which one usually comes first: A. Lochia rubra B. Lochia cruenta C. Lochia fusca D. Lochia serosa 46. On which day does normal colostrum appear: A 1-2 day B. 3-4 day C. 5 days D. Day 6 47. What is the average amount of mothers breast milk per day: A. 200 ml B. 400 ml C. 600 ml D. 700 ml Pathological Obstetrics 1. Which of the above mentioned aneuploidy is the most common: A. Down Syndrome B. Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome C. Mendelson’s syndrome D. A,B,C 2. Choose the right statement: A. Dichorionic twins are divisible twins B. The dichorionic twins are of two different sexes C. Twins of different sexes are always dichorionic and there cannot be a transfusion syndrome D. A, B, C 3. In which period of pregnancy is screening for aneuploidy done: A. 11-13 g.w. + 6 days B. 15-20 g.w. C 22 - 24 g.w. D. A, B, C 4. Combined screening for aneuploidy includes: A. Age of the woman B. Ultrasound Markers C. Biochemical Indicators D. A, B, C 5. How is pregnancy dated and how is the likely term of birth determined: A. a history of the last regular menstruation is taken B. dates are based on the IVF embryo transfer date C. on CRL ultrasound parameters between 11-14 g.w. D. A,B,C 6. Choose the right statement: A. monochorionic twins can be diamniotic or monoamniotic but are of different sex B. monochorionic and dichorionic twins have a 15% probability of developing a transfusion syndrome C. a more important factor for pregnancy is pregnancy, while the chorionicity is less important D. connected twins are always monochorionic 7. Fetal-fetal transfusion syndrome in twins is typical of A. Monochorionic B. Dichorionic C. Monoamniotic D. There is no correct answer 8. Which are the most common structural anomalies that are detected antenatally: A. cardiac anomalies B. anomalies of the sexual system C. Anomalies of the GI tract 9. Fetal morphology is done through: A. 2D echography B. 3D echography C. 3/4D echography D. There is no correct answer 10. The most common causes of early miscarriages are: A. Tobacco smoking B. Chromosomal/Genetic anomalies C. Consumption of alcohol D. Use of folic acid 11. Chorionic biopsy is A. Invasive manipulation with diagnostic purpose with fetal material B. Invasive manipulation with diagnostic purpose with placental material C. Invasive manipulation with diagnostic purpose with amniotic fluid material D. Invasive manipulation with diagnostic umbilical cord material 12. Amniocentesis is: A. Invasive manipulation with diagnostic material of the fetus B. Invasive manipulation with the diagnostic purpose with placental material C. Invasive manipulation with the diagnostic objective with amniotic fluid material D. Invasive manipulation with the diagnostic purpose with umbilical cord material 13. The cordocentesis is: A. Invasive manipulation with the diagnostic material of the fetus B. Invasive manipulation with the diagnostic purpose with placental material C. Invasive manipulation with the diagnostic objective with amniotic fluid material D. Invasive manipulation with the diagnostic purpose with umbilical cord material 14 Which of the listed factors are risk factors for gestational diabetes: A. Family history of Diabetes Type 2 B. Obesity C. History of previous pregnancy with gestational diabetes D. There is no correct answer 15. Preeclampsia Prevention is done by: A. Taking Aspirin 150 mg in the evening from 12 to 36 g.w. B. Restriction of salt intake before pregnancy C. Antihypertensive preparations in low doses D. A, B, C 16. Down Syndrome is: A. Trisomy 21 B. Trisomy 13 C. Trisomy 18 D. There is no correct answer 17. The following abnormalities are found in trisomy 13: A. Palate / upper lip defect B. Cardiac anomaly C. polydactyl D. A, B, C 18. Up to what g.w. in pregnancy is voluntary abortion allowed in Bulgaria: A. Up to 10 g.w. B. Up to 12 g.w. C. Up to 15 g.w. D. Up to 20 g.w. 19. What is the therapeutic approach of Abortus imminens / incipiens up to 12 g.w. : A. Does not require treatment B. Retention therapy C. Tocolytics D. Abrasio residuorum 20. What is the therapeutic approach for incomplete abortion in a Rh (-) woman up to 12 g.w. A. Removal of anti - D gamma globulin B. Retaining therapy C. Cerclage D. Abrasio residuorum 21. Late abortions occur in: A. One stage B. Two stages C. Three stages D. Four stages 22. Cervical insufficiency is most often due to: A. promiscuity B. Cervical traumas from previous births C. Operative interventions on the cervix D. cervical carcinoma of the female 23. The cerclage is an obstetric surgery performed with a prophylactic and therapeutic use for the retention of pregnancy during cervical insufficiency: A. True B. False C. No prophylactic cerclage 24. Retained abortion is: A. Abortus habitualis B. Missed abortion C. Abortus progradisens D. Abortus incompletus 25. The most common cause for habitual abortion is: A. Age over 35 years B. Thrombophilia C. Inflammatory disease of the female reproductive system (ЖПО) D. There is no correct answer 26. Which of the listed clinical forms of spontaneous abortion are being treated conservatively: A. Threatened abortion B. Abortion in progress C. Abortion as desired D. Criminal abortion 27. List four of the most common causes of bleeding during the second half of pregnancy: Placenta previa, premature detachment of the normally attached placenta (placental abruption), cervix polyp , varicose veins 28. Which of the following does not belong to the causes of bleeding during the second half of pregnancy: A. Placenta praevia B. Cervical polyps C. Cervical carcinoma D. Endometrial cancer 29. Write down a definition of low lying placenta (Placenta praevia) The placenta that is located in the lower uterine segment , which is part of the fetus. 30. Which of the following complications are typical of low lying placenta: A. preeclampsia B. uterine hypotension C. abnormal attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall D. Premature birth 31. List the different types of placenta praevia: Low attached placenta, pl. Praevia marginalis , pl. Praevia partialis, pl. Praevia totalis , pl. Praevia isthmiocoervicalis 32. Which of the following do not belong to the types of Placenta praevia: A. Placenta praevia isthmicocervicalis B. Placenta praevia lateralis C. Placenta praevia centralis D. Placenta praevia marginalis 33. Write a definition of placenta praevia totalis The placenta completely covering the inner opening of the cervical canal. 34. How far is the lower edge of the placenta from the inner cervical canal opening in low lying placenta: A. 4 cm B. 3 cm C. 2 cm D. 1cm 35. Write a definition of placenta praevia marginalis: The lower edge of the placenta reaches the inner opening of the cervical canal 36. Which of the following placenta praevia types refers to the following statement: Rare, but a very dangerous pathology. Predisposing factor is cervical rupture in previous deliveries and abortions. A. Placenta praevia totalis B. Placenta praevia marginalis C. Placenta praevia partialis D. Placenta praevia isthmicocervicalis 37. What is the main cause for the occurrence of Placenta Previa Isthmicocervicalis? Traumatic tears in the cervix 38. The most common cause of Placenta Previa are: a) Inflammatory disease of the Uterus b) Genetic predisposition and presence of HLA 1 c) Primary implantation of the embryo in the uterus or its migration due to adverse developmental conditions in the upper part of the uterus d) Prolonged use of Oral Contraceptives 39. List the main characteristics of bleeding in Placenta Previa: Appears during the night lacking provoking moment tendency to repeatibility , blood is clear ; bleeding is external 40. Which of these are typical characteristics for Placenta Previa a) Painless bleeding after 28-gestational week b) Abruption from uterine contractions c) Fetal distress d) External bleeding 41. Which of these statements are true: a) Bleeding in Placenta Previa is only external b) Bleeding can be both internal and external c)The presence of a provoking moment-trauma, coitus, is characteristic d) It is typical to have recurrent bleeding episodes over a certain time interval 42. Indicate the most common complications of Placenta Previa can lead to: incorrect positions and perpositions of the fetus, anemic syndromes from the mother , premature birth, hyaline membrane disease in the newborn. 43. What behaviour determines Placenta Previa: Behavior of the placenta previa is determined by the force of the bleeding, general condition of the mother, from the gestational age of the fetus 44. Define abruption placentae: Premature detachment of placenta normally attached to the site incl. And on Placenta praevia , is called Ablatio placentae 45. Which of these listed are NOT a risk factor for the occurrence of abruption placentae: a) Previous pregnancy with abruptio placentae b) Smoking c) Cocaine intake d) Chorioamnionitis 46. List the four risk factors for the occurrence of abruptio placentae: Preeclampsia , premature bursting of the bladder , trombophilia , trauma 47. What is the uterus of Couvelaire: so called utero – _placenta apoplexy , which occurs in the presence of a large retroplacental hematoma 48. The premature detachment of the placenta is typically present by: a) Abruption from uterine contractions b) Loss of large amount of blood c) Fetal distress d) Increased uterine tone 49. List three characteristics for bleeding in abruptio placentae: Pain passes through bleeding , bleeding may be external or internal , blood is dark with blood clots 50. Which of these statements are false: a) Bleeding in abruptio placentae is only external b) Bleeding in abruptio placentae is internal and external c) Blood is dark with clots d) There is no provoking moment 51. “Abruption” from uterine contractions is typical for: a) Placenta Previa b) Abruptio placentae c) Rupture of the Uterus d) Abnormal attachment of the placenta to the uterine wall 52. List the complications of abruptio placentae: Kidney failure , haemorrhagic shock , consumptive coagulopathy (DIC) 53. Premature detachment of the placenta results in: a) Consumption coagulopathy b) Acute intrauterine asphyxia of the fetus (Intrauterine hypoxia) c) Intrauterine fetal death d) a, b, c 54. Premature detachment of the placenta results in: a) Acute placental insufficiency b) Chronic placental insufficiency c) Intrauterine retardation of the fetus d) Hydramnios 55. Which of the following reasons leads to acute intrauterine asphyxia of the fetus: a) Prolapse of umbilical cord b) Chronic hypertensive condition of mother c) The placenta present/Upcoming placenta? d) Preeclampsia 56. Preeclampsia is defined as: a) Pregnancy complication after 20-gestational week, characterised by, RR> 140/90, Proteinuria 0.3g/24hrs b) Pregnancy complication after 20-gestational week, characterised by, RR> 140/90, Proteinuria 0.5g/24hrs c) Pregnancy complication after 20-gestational week, characterised by, RR> 160/110, Proteinuria 0.5g/24hrs d) None of the above statements are true 57 Heavy form of pre-eclampsia is characterized by: a. Proteinuria >5g/24h b. Thrombocytopenia c. Elevated hepatic transaminases d. None of the above 58 The severe form of pre-eclampsia is characterized by: a. Oliguria b. Thrombocytopenia c. Serum creatinine >1.2mg/dL d. None of the above 59 Which of the following is typical for pre-eclampsia? a. Placental defect b. Generalized vasospasm c. Endocrine dysfunction d. a, b and c 60 List four risk factors for the development of pre-eclampsia Chronic Hypertensive conditions , thrombophilia , autoimmune diseases , smoking 61. Which women are at risk for pre-eclampsia? a. Women with autoimmune disease b. Women with previous pre-eclampsia c. Women with thrombocytopenia d. a, b and c 62) Which of the following is true: A. Preeclampsia is characterized by high levels of sFit-1 B. preeclampsia is characterized by low levels of VEGF and PIGF C. A and B D. None of the assertions are true 63) Generally endotheliosis and preeclampsia leads to: A. Hypertension B. Proteinuria C. Reduced glomerular filtration D. A, B, C 64) The HELLP syndrome is characterized by: A. Upper liver transaminases and RR > 160/110 B. Increased liver transaminases, thrombocytopenia and RR > 160 / 110 C. Increased hepatic transaminases, thrombocytopenia and hemolysis D. Elevated liver transaminases, thrombocytopenia, and consumptive coagulopathy 65) List the characteristics of the eclamptic seizure The stages of the eclamptic seizure are prodromal , tonic , clonic and coma 66) Pre-eclampsia is characterized by the following hematologic abnormalities: A. thrombocytopenia B. schizocytosis , spherocytosis and reticulocytosis C. Reduced levels of protein C, protein S and ATIII D. A, B, C 67. Part of treatment of moderate pre-eclampsia includes; a. antihypertensive agents b. diuretics c. antioxidants d. a,b,c 68. Which of the following indications necessitate urgent parental resolution in severe pre-eclampsia; a. pulmonary edema b. oliguria c. eclampsia d. oligohydramnium 69. Behavior in an eclamptic seizure involves; a. Купиране на гърча и спешно родоразрешение (…and urgent birth) b. Urgent birth c. antihypertensive therapy and diuretics d. no correct response 70. The treatment for eclamptic seizures includes: a. antihypertensive therapy, anti-convulsive therapy, infusion therapy and child birth b. antihypertensive therapy, diuretics and child birth c. antihypertensive therapy and anticonvulsant therapy d. no answer 71. The prevention of pre-eclampsia involves; a. antioxidants b. aspirin 150 mg daily from 12 g.w. up to 36 g.w. c. foods high in omega 3 fatty acids and low salt content d. antihypertensive preparations 72. After which gestational week late toxicosis develop; a.12 g.w. b. 20 g.w. c. 28 g.w. d. 30 g.w. 73. Pre eclampsia is characterized by; a. hypocalcemia b. placental hyperperfusion c. elevated values of sFit-1 Tyrosine kinase d. There is no correct answer 74. What are the components of HELLP syndrome; Elevated liver transaminases thrombocytopenia and haemolysis 75. What are the components of the so called Subjective triad, which is one of the weighting criteria for pre eclampsia; Headache , visual disturbances , pain in the epigastrium 76. List 5 pre eclampsia severity criteria; BP>160/110 mmHg ,seizures , proteinuria>5g/24h , oliguria , pulmonary edema 77. Which of the following isn’t a criteria for the severe form of preeclampsia? A) RR above 150/80mmHg B) Seizures C) IUGR D) Proteinuria above 5g/day 78) Write a treatment/regimen for the moderate form of preeclampsia? Dopegyt 3x1 tablet per os , Magnerich3x2 tablet per os , Diosmin 600mg per os , Fraxiparin 0,4 s.c 79) Which of the following diseases is characteristic for pathological puerperium with a non-infectious nature? A) Subinvolution of the uterus. B) Lochiometra C) Puerperal (postpartum) mastitis D) Puerperal (postpartum) endometritis 80) For which condition is the following description a characteristic: The uterus is enlarged with a soft consistency, the lochia remain bloody for longer? A) Subinvolution of the uterus B) Lochiometra C) Puerperal endometritis D) A B and C 81) For which condition is the following description a characteristic: enlarged, soft and sensitive Uterus, scarce lochia secretion? A) Subinvolution of the uterus B) Lochiometra C) Puerperal endometritis. D) Puerperal mastitis. 82) For which condition is characteristic the following description: 3-4 days after delivery appears Fever, subinvolution of the uterus, and palpable soreness, smelly lochia: a) Lochiometra b) Puerperal endometritis c) Puerperal mastitis d) No answer 83) After normal delivery, at what hour should the woman spontaneously urinate: a) 3 hours b) 4 hours c) 6 hours d) within the first 24 hours, followed by a catheter 84) To which day after normal delivery the woman have a spontaneous defecation: a) upto 2 days b) upto 3 days c) upto 4 days d) upto 5 days 85) The amniotic embolus proceeds with: a) Hypotension b) Hypoxia c) Coagulopathy d) There is no correct answer 86) List three reasons that can lead to post-partum hemorrhage: Retained placental parts , uterine hypo/atonia , coagulation disorders 87) Which of the following is a characteristic of Mahler pulse a) Postpartum thrombophlebitis b) Postpartum mastitis c) Postpartum endometritis d) Subinvolution of the uterus 88) What medications are used for chemical uterine massage? spasmolytic and uterokinetic (oxytocin) 89) List two drugs that can be used to stop breast milk Bromocriptine and Dostinex 90) What is the treatment for postpartum endometrium? Broad-spectrum antibiotic ( for antibiogramma ) , Metronidazol , Oxytocin , water-salt solutions , vitamins ,antipyretics 91) What are the most common causative agents of postpartum (puerperal) mastitis? a) Staphylococcus b) Streptococcus c) Gonococcus d) Hemophilus 92) According to the localization of the inflammatory process what types of postpartum mastitis do you know? Interstitial mastitis , parenchymatous mastitis 93) List 4 symptoms typical of postpartum endometritis Subinvolution of the uterus , palpable painful uterus , pathologically altered lochia , fever>38 oC 94) Which are the predisposing factors for obstetric hemorrhages: a. abnormal placenta b. operative birth (caesarian) c. retained placenta d. A, B, C 95) List 3 causes for early postpartum hemorrhage: Placental parts retained , uterine hypotonia , impaired coagulation 96) Postpartum bleeding begins: a) Before placental separation b) During placental separation c) After placental birth d) There is no correct answer 97) What is the type of shock in uterine inversion? a) Hypovolemic shock b) Neurogenic shock c) Hypovolemic + neurogenic shock d) There is no correct answer 98) which of those listed obstetric pathologies can lead to the development of hypovolemic shock ? A)emesis gravidarum B)hyperemesis gravidarum C)premature birth D)there is no true answer 99) which of the following causes will lead to hypotension of the uterus ? A )large fetus B) hydramnion C) placental parts retained D)lochiometra 100) which of the following obstetric pathologies leads to the development of DIC syndrome A) missed abortion B) abruptio placente C) missed labor D )everything listed 101) bleeding in the placental period is due to A) partially plated placenta B) peeled but retained placenta C) breaking down the soft generis roods D)hypotonia of the uterus 102) Postterm pregnancy is the one in which delivery takes place after? A) 37 g.w. B) 40 g.w C) 42 g.w. D) there is no true answer 103) the induction of birth is A) birth induction B) stimulation of birth c) pregnancy retention D) there is no true answer 104) birth induction occur with A) oxytocin B) prostaglandin C) metergin D) there is no true answer 105) oligohydramnios is a characteristic of A) preclampsia B) post-term pregnancy C) large fetus D) premature birth 106) for the biological post-term pregnancy, a characteristic ultrasound finding is: A) hydramion B) oligohydramion C) placental calcifications D)r etroplacental hematoma 107) which of these is not applicable to uterine hypotension A) oxytocin B) umbilical tampon with silicone balloon C) prostaglandin D) spasmolytics 108) hypotonia of the uterus occurs through A) pregnancy B) first period of birth C) placental period D) after birth 109) which of these listed complication are characteristic for caesarean section A) retroperitoneal hematoma B) hypotonia of the uterus C) intraabdominal hemorrhage D) there is no true answer 110) fever in puerperium ( period after birth ) may be due to ? A) puerperal endometritis B) thrombosis of deep veins C) lactation problems D) everything listed 111) which of these leads to the development of a puerperal endometritis? A) operative delivery b) ascending infection C) misalignment and defecation D) infection of the operative wound 112) choose the correct statement A) the puerperal endometritis requires immediate treatment with broad spectrum antibiotics B) the antibiotic treatment of the puerperal endometritis begins after the antibiogram is obtained from lochia secretions C) the puerperal endometritis requires immediate hysterectomy D) none of the following is true 113) for the congenital infection caused by CMV is characteristic A) intrauterine retardation of the fetus B) microcephaly C) intracranial calcification D) there is no true answer Gynaecology 1) How many are the levels of neurohormonal regulation of the menstrual cycle ? A) 1 B) 3 C) 4 D) 5 2) GnRh is released by A) above hypothalamic structures B) hypothalamus C) hypophysis D) ovary 3) LH is synthesized by A) hypothalamus B) adenohypophysis C) ovary D) adrenal gland 4) hCG is synthesized A) hypothalamus B) hypophysis C) ovary D) sinciotiotrophoblast 5) low level of hCG is connected to A) ectopic pregnancy B) grape pregnancy C) fetus with down syndrome D) multiple pregnancy 6) high level of hCG is connected to A) multiple pregnancy B) spontaneous abortion C) ectopic pregnancy D) fetus with down syndrome 7) the enzyme involved in the synthesis of estrogen is A) aromatose B) adenylate cyclase C) monoammine oxidase D) glutamate dehydrogenase 8) list the circulating estrogens in the sexually mature woman: Estrone (E1), estradiol (E2), estriol (E3) 9) for a normal menstrual cycle , an interval of A) 24+ / -7 day B) 26+ / -7 day C) 28+ / -7 day D) 30+ / -7 day 10) the normal duration of menstrual bleeding is A) 3+ / -2day B) 4+ / -2 day C) 5+ / -2 day D) 6+ / -2day 11) Write a definition of metrorraghia Unrelated Menstrual bleeding, called atypical bleeding; 12) The oocytes synthetize the following hormones Progesterone, estrogens, androgens; 13) Identify the main process that occur in the ovary in a normal menstruating woman Folliculogenesis, steroidogenesis, oogenesis 14) Which of the hormones is synthesized by the ovary ? A) calcitonin B) testosterone C) aldosterone D) renin 15) How many oocytes are there before menarche ? A) 2000000 B) 1000000 C) 500000 D) 100000 16) Pituitary adenoma is characterized by A) Increase synthesis of prolactin B) Reduce synthesis of prolactin C) Increase synthesis of FSH D) Increase synthesis of LH 17) High level of prolactin lead to A) Galactorrhea B) Amenorrhea C) Dysmenorrhea D) Hypermenorrhea 18) Primary amenorrhea is a characteristic symptom of A)vaginal atresia B)ovary carcinomas C)myoma of the uterus D)atresia of the xymena 19) Secondary amenorrhea is a characteristic symptom of A) Muller agenesia B) Endometriosis C) Prolactinoma D) Anorexia 20) List the states related to physiological amenorrhea; Before menarche, pregnancy, lactation, menopause 21) The normal ph of the vagina is A)3.5-4 B)4-4.5 C)4.5-5 D)5-5.5 22) Bacterial vaginalis is caused by A) gardnerella vaginalis B) escherichia coli C) enterococcus fecalis D) thrichomonas vaginalis 23) Which of these factors is not a risk for the development of bacterial vaginosa A) smoking B) vaginal lavages C) early cohabilitation D) pregnancy 24) List of the clinical criteria on the basis of which a bacterial vaginosis is diagnosed Grey-white vaginal flora, vaginal Ph> 4.5. native preparation with "clue cells". positive aminotest on vaginal secretions (10% conc.); 25) Which of the listed preparations can be used in the treatment of bacterial vaginosis A) metronidazol B) ceftriaxon C) clindamycin D) indomethacin 26) Genital herpes is caused by A) HSV-1 B) HSV-2 C) HPV-6 D) HPV_11 27) Which of the claims of trichomoniasis (trichomonal colpitis) is false A) sexual transmitted disease B) vaginal fluorosis is a yellow greenish fifty C) the main symptom is bleeding D) treatment is done with metronidazole 28) Which of the diagnostic method listed is not suitable for diagnostic genital herpes A) Tissue culture B) Cytological research C) Sereological study D) PSR test 29) Which of the listed genital infections is not sexually transmissible A) Bacterial vaginosa B) Trichomonal collapse (colpitis trichomonalis) C) Syphilis D) Gonorrhea 30) Which of the inflammatory disease listed , the causative agent is a parasite A) vaginal candidiasis B) bacterial vaginosa C) colpitis trichomonalis D) gonorrhoea 31) Which of these factors is not a risk for the development of vaginal candidiasis A) diabetes B) use of antibiotics C )pregnancy D) endometriosis 32. Which of the following statements about vaginal candidiasis is wrong A. Excessive use of antibiotics is a risk factor B. It is imperative to treat both partners C. Clinically it occurs with burning, itching, dysuria D. There is a tendency to recurrence 33. Which of these is not suitable for topical treatment of the vaginal candidiasis: A. Gynazol B. Diflucan C. GynoPevaryl D. Clotrimazole 34. Which of the following causes is not isolated in endocervicitis?: A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Chlamydia trachomatis C. Mycoplasma genitalis D. Herpes simplex 35. Which of the following drugs is not suitable for the treatment of Chlamydia trachomatis: A. Azithromycin B. Doxycycline C. Metronidazole D. Levofloxacin 36. Salpingitis is an inflammatory process involving: A. The ovaries B. Uterine tubes C. The uterus D. The cervix 37. List the main groups of methods of contraception: Natural methods, barrier methods, intrauterine contraception, hormonal contraception, lasting contraception 38. Which of the following methods is contraindicated: A. Hormonal contraception B. Vasectomy C. Barrier methods D. spermicides 39. Which of the following contraceptive methods is not recommended for non-females: A. Hormonal Contraception B. Barrier Contraception. C. intrauterine contraception D. spermicides 40. The most common complications of intrauterine contraception are: A. Sterility B. Ectopic pregnancy C. Incorrect genital bleeding D. Pessary expulsion 41. The mechanism of action of the combined oral contraceptives is: They suppress ovulation, lead to atrophy for endometrium, change the viscosity of cervical mucus; 42. Combined oral contraceptives are contraindicated in: A. Amenorrhea of vague origin B. Polycystic Ovarian Syndrome C. Thrombophilia D. Hirsutism 43. List some of the non-contraceptive benefits associated with the use of combined oral contraceptives : Reduction of menstrual bleeding, act favourably on dysmenorrhea and fungal ovarian cysts, reduce the risk of ovarian carcinoma 44. Which of the following statements about combined oral contraceptives is false: A. Reduce menstrual bleeding B. Reduce the risk of ovarian carcinoma C. Increase the risk of endometrial cancer D. Used to treat functional cysts 45. The minor side effects associated with the use of combined oral contraceptives do no include: A. Headache B. Tension in the Chest. C. venous thrombosis D. Depressive states 46. List the "big" side effects of combined oral contraceptives: Venous Thrombosis, Stroke, Infarction 47. Which of the following methods of contraception is not a barrier: A. Condoms B. Diaphragms C. Oral contraceptives D. spermicides 48. Which statement about oral contraceptives is false: A. Reduces menstrual bleeding B. favourably affect dysmenorrhea C. Increase risk of stroke D. Increase the risk of cervical carcinoma 49. Escapel is: A. Combined oral contraceptive B. Antimycotic preparation C. Hormone replacement therapy (HRT) D. Emergency contraceptive 50. List three combined oral contraceptives Belara, Regulon, Mediana 51. Which of the following methods of contraception are the most commonly used: A. Oral contraceptives B. intrauterine pessaries C. Condoms D. calendar method 52. Nuva Ring is: A. Combination oral contraceptive B. Intrauterine contraceptive C. Transdermal contraceptive D. Intravaginal hormonal contraceptive 53. Write down the current combined oral contraceptive regimen: In 28 tablets, the intake of the preparation starts on the day of menstruation 1 tablet per day. In a 21- tablet preparation, the intake starts again from day 1 of menstruation for 21 days, followed by 7 days of rest, after which the intake of the preparation starts again on the same schedule 54. Which hormonal contraceptives are most commonly used? A. Monophasic B. Biphasic C. Triphasic D. Emergency contraception 55. Which of the following factors is not at risk for the development of an ectopic pregnancy: A. Tobacco B. Assisted reproductive technologies C. Anatomical abnormalities of the uterine tubules D. Polycystic ovarian syndrome 56. List the types of ectopic pregnancy according to the localization: Abdominal, ovarian , tubular, corneal, cervical 57. Which of the following methods is defined as a "gold standard" for diagnosing unstable ectopic pregnancy? A. Study of serum hCG levels B. Transvaginal sonography C. Kuldocentesis D. Laparoscopy 58. Conservative treatment of ectopic pregnancy is performed with: A. Folic acid. B. broad spectrum antibiotics C. Methotrexate D. Cisplatin 59. Heterotopic pregnancy occurs in: A. Endometriosis B. Assisted Reproductive Technologies C. Multiple Pregnancy D. Trophoblast Disease 60. According to the localization, the leiomyoma nodes may be: Submucosal, Intramuscular, Subserosal, Intraligamental, cervical 61 Which of the listed symptoms is not characteristic of the submucosal localization of the myoma node: A. metrorrhagia B. menometrorrhagia C. anemia D. oligomenorrhea 62. What will be the behaviour in a 34 year old woman with infertility and an intramural myoma node with a diameter of 7 cm: A. Gestagen therapy B. Treatment with Esmya C. Conservative myomectomy D. Supravaginal hysterectomy 63. Which of the following is most often an expression of sarcoid degeneration of the myoma node: A. Rapid growth B. Pain C. Incorrect genital hemorrhage D. Anemia 64. Ovarian follicular cyst is classified as: A. Paraovarian cyst B. enlarged teratoma C. Functional D. A, B, C 65. Dermoid cyst is: A. mature teratoma B. Dysgerminoma B. Seminoma G. fibroma 66. ovarian torsion is most often encountered: A. During pubertal/adolescent years B. In the sexually mature woman C. During pregnancy G. During menopause 67. According to embryonic theory, endometriosis is due to: A. Haematogenous distribution B. Metaplasia C. Ectopic secretions of the Muller epithelium D. A, B, C 68. Ectopically located endometrial glands prevent: A. Secretion and desquamation B. proliferation and regeneration C. Secretion and proliferation D. A, B, C 69. Endometriosis clinically manifested: A. Before menarche B. fertile age C. Menopause D. A, B, C 70. Which of the following is not characteristic of endometriosis: A. Oligomenorrhoea B. Dysmenorrhea C. Sterility D. Extramenstrual pelvic pain 71. Ovarian endometriosis is presented with: A. Luteal cysts B. Follicular cysts C. Paraovarian cysts D. Chocolate cysts 72. Which of the following groups of medications is not recommended / suitable for treatment of endometriosis: A. Gestagens B. GnRH analogs/agonists C. Hormone-substituting therapy D. Combined oral hormonal contraceptives (COHD) 73. In patients with endometriosis the treatment with GnRH agonists can provoke: A. Pseudopregnancy B. Pseudomenopause C. Both pseudopregnancy and pseudomenopause D. None of the aforementioned 74. Chronic pelvic pain is due to : A. Pelvic inflammatory disease B. Endometriosis C. Myoma uteri (uterine myoma) D. Corpus luteum cyst 75. Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) was first discovered by: A. Samuel-Yen B. Stein-Leventhal C. Ferriman-Gallwey D. Bayes-Genis 76. According to the genetic theory , the genetic defect in PCOS patients is localized in : A. 18p13.2 B. 19p13.2 C. 20p13.2 D. there is no correct answer 77. According to the Samuel Yen concept , the exaggerated adrenarche in PCOS patients is due to: A. Increased production of androgens by the ovaries B. Increased production of androgens by the adrenal glands C. A+B D. None of the aforementioned 78. According to the concept of the neuroendocrine defect , hyperandrogenism in PCOS patients is due to: A. Disturbed pulsatile secretion of FSH B. Disturbed pulsatile secretion of testosterone C. Disturbed pulsatile secretion of LH D. Both A , B and C are correct 79. Laboratory markers for androgen excess in PCOS patients are : A. SHBG , LH , FSH B. SHBG , Testosterone, FAI C. FAI , SHBG , LH D. FSH , Testosterone , LH 80. Disturbed/impaired gonadotropin secretion in PCOS patients is represented by : A. Increased levels of LH B. Abnormally high LH/FSH ratio C. Abnormal results upon testing with GnRH agonists D. Both A , B and C are correct 81. The pilosebaceous unit is a sign of : ??? A. Oligoamenorrhea B. PCOS C. Hirsutism , acne and alopecia D. Both A, B and C are correct 82. Ferriman-Gallwey score is a method of evaluating : A. Acne B. Hirsutism C. Alopecia D. Other forms of clinical hyperandrogenism 83. The diagnostic criteria for PCOS according to ESHRE/ASRAM 2003 are : A. Oligo-amenorrhea, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound (US) examination B. Hyperandrogenism C. Polycystic ovaries on ultrasound examination and hyperandrogenism D. Both A and B are correct 84. The ultrasound criteria for polycystic ovaries are : A. 10 ml D. 10 ml 85. Which of the following is a newly approved laboratory marker for evaluation of the severity of PCOS and for evaluation of the treatment efficacy in PCOS patients? : A. LH B. FSH C. Androstenedione D. Anti-Müllerian hormone (AMH) 86. The mechanism of action of combined oral contraceptive pills (COCP) used for treatment of patients with PCOS is : A. Increased levels of SHBG and decreased levels of LH B. Decreased levels of SHBG and increased levels of LH C. Binding to the androgen receptors D. Both A and C are correct 87. The daily dose of insulin sensitizers for treatment of PCOS shouldn't be less than : A. 500-850 mg B. 850-1000 mg C. 1000-1500 mg D. 1500-2550 mg 88. Which of the following drugs is used for induction of ovulation in PCOS patients? : A. Combined oral contraceptives (COC) B. Metformin C. Clomifene citrate D. Both B and C are correct 89. A method of choice for surgical treatment of PCOS is : A. Adnexectomy B. Cystectomy C. Laparoscopic electrofenestration D. Laparotomy 90. Polycystic ovary syndrome is :........................ (you have to write down a definition) Polycystic ovarian syndrome is a heterozygous which affects women in reproductive age. It is characterized by a disturbance of ovarian function, insulin metabolism, and the peripheral metabolism of steroid hormones in the female organism 91. Dysmenorrhea is : A. Chronic pelvic pain B. Painful menstruation (painful menstrual periods) C. Irregular genital bleeding D. Both A , B and C are correct 92. Which of the following groups of medications are not recommended/suitable for treatment of dysmenorrhea? : A. Combined oral contraceptives B. Hormone-substituting therapy C. NSAIDs D. Corticosteroids 93. The term menarche refers to : A. The first menstrual period B. The development of the mammary glands C. The hairing of the pubic region D. Neither of the aforementioned is correct 94. Precocious puberty is characterized by : A. Isolated genital bleeding before the age of eight B. Thelarche and pubarche before the age of eight C. Thelarche, pubarche and menarche before the age of eight D. Neither of the aforementioned is correct 95. Write down the most common causes for infertility in women:......... (as many as you can) Stress, inflammatory diseases of the uterine tubes, anatomical anomalies of the genitals, Endocrinopathies; 96. Hyperprolactinemia is associated with : A. Infertility B. Pituitary gland adenoma C. Absence of ovulation D. Obesity 97. Which of the following methods is NOT used for the diagnosis of female infertility ? : A. Hysteroscopy B. Hysterosalpingography C. Laparoscopy D. Cystoscopy 98. Which of the following hormones is used for evaluation of the ovarian reserve ? : A. FSH B. LH C. AMH D. GnRH 99. Write down the characteristics of the normal spermogram? Ejaculate volume over 2.0 ml; pH 7.0-8.03. Sperm concentration above 20 million / ml; Total sperm counts over 40 million in the suction: Mobility Viability above 50% of the sperm; Morphology over 14% in normal according to the criteria of Kruger and Menkfeld; 100. List three reasons for male sterility? Varicocele, cryptoracism, orchitis: 101. Which of the following statements referring to the ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS) IS correct? : A. It is a result from therapy with exogenous gonadotropins B. It manifests with abdominal discomfort and pain C. The ultrasound examination shows multiple follicular cysts and ascites D. Both A , B and C are correct 102. Menopause is defined as: A. Absence of menstruation after the age of 40 B. Absence of menstruation after the age of 50 C. Absence of menstruation for a period of one year after the last menstruation D. Absence of menstruation between 40 and 50 years of age 103. Which of the following pathologies is NOT characteristic for premenopause? : A. Menometrorrhagias B. Anovulatory cycles C. Osteoporosis D. Mastopathy 104. Which of the following symptoms is associated with menopause? : A. Depression B. Lack of concentration C. Decreased libido D. Both A , B and C are correct 105. The cause for premenopausal menometrorrhagia is : A. Endometrial hyperplasia B. Uterine leiomyoma C. Ovarian fibroma D. Carcinoma of the cervix of the uterus 106. The sexual dysfunction characteristic for women in menopause includes: A. Vaginal dryness B. Increased libido C. Irregular genital bleeding D. Decreased libido 107. The estrogen deficiency in the postmenopausal period leads to: A. Decrease of the lactobacilli B. Urogenital atrophy C. Lowered vaginal pH D. Both A, B and C are correct 108. Which of the following factors is NOT a risk factor for the development of osteoporosis? : A. Early menopause B. Surgically induced menopause C. Tobacco smoking D. Being of African descent 109. Which of the following gynecological pathologies does NOT lead to bleeding during the menopause? : A. Ovarian fibroma B. Ovarian granulosa cell tumour C. Endometrial carcinoma D. Cervical cancer (of the uterus) 110. CASE: A 55-years old female patient, in postmenopause , reports scanty genital bleeding (spotting) present within the last month. Upon the gynecological examination there are no pathologic findings on inspection and palpation. What would you recommend to the patient? Diagnostic hysteroscopy with biopsy; 111. List five causes for bleeding in the menopause and post-menopause: cervical carcinoma, carpal polyps, endometrial carcinoma, endometrial polyp 112. Papanicolaou Test is: A. Screening Method B. Histological Method C. Cytological Method D. A, B, C 113. Papanikolaou Test has: A. Three Groups B. Four Groups C. Five Groups D. No Correct Answer A. 114. The Vth Papanikolaou test group is performed as follows: A. Anti-inflammatory treatment B. Colposcopy of PVCU with target biopsy C. Curettage of the cervical canal D. laparoscopy 115. Papanicolaou test is performed by: A. Spatula B. Endocervical brush C. Sterile cotton swab D. With biopsy clamp 116. The PAP Test Group III recommends: A. Sample for microbiological examination from female genitalia B. Antibiotic treatment C. Cervical Conversion D. Oncoprophylactic Hysterectomy 117. Lower Age limit for the beginning of puberty for our country is: A. 8 years of age B. 10 years of age C. 12 years of age D. Age is individual 118. Classification of Tanner is: A. Classification for assessment of the development of secondary education - hunting scars B. Classification of gyniatrics in children and adolescents age rating C. Classification for estimation of uterine size and volume by age D. US-characteristic of the ovarian structure in different age groups 119. In a little healthy girl before puberty, the genital flora is: A. Candidomic B. Aerobic C. Anaerobic D. There is no genital flora 120.The sequence of changes characterizing pubertal development is as follows: A. menarche, somatic growth, thelarche, pubarche, axilarhe B. axilarhe, pubarche, thelarche, menarche, somatic growth C. Somatic growth, pubarche, axilarhe, menarche, D. The sequence of each girl is an individual 121. the hymen of a little girl in not- sexually active period is: A. reddish, succulent and swollen B. soft, thin with lance-shape opening C. pink, dense, sometimes mushroom-like D. hymen is not visualised 122. Girl '14 with menarche 4 months ago. For 5 days she has regular menstruation and anaemic syndrome. What will be your management: A. Hormonal haemostasis B. Treatment with uterus and haemostasis C. Treatment with spasmolytic D. Waiting to stop menstruation 123. Sarcoma Botryoides most often develops: A. In a sexually mature woman B. In menopause C. Around puberty D. Early childhood 124. In children and teenagers, the most common genital tumors are: A. Ovarian B. Uterine C. On vulva D. On the cervix 125. The method of in atresia of hymen ring is: A. Incision B. Conception C. Curettage D. Laparotomy 126. Metropathia haemorrhagica juvenilis is due to: A. Anovulation B. Myomatous uterus C. Endometrial polyps D. Chronic endometrium 127. The normal uterine position is: A. Anteversio-flexio B. Retroversio C. Lateroversio D. Elevatio tesa 128. Diaphragma pelvis is: A. M. levator ani B. M. transversus perinea profundus C. M bulbocavernosus D. M sphincter ani 129. Causes of pelvic organ prolapse are: A. Pelvic floor insufflation B. Chronic elevated intraocular pressure C. Release of the uterine connective and supporting apparatus D. Myoma of the uterus 130 Which of the following symptoms do not include pelvic organs: A. Feeling of swelling in the vagina B. Unexpected urine C. Abnormal vaginal flora D. Feeling of partial bladder emptying 131. The treatment of pelvic prolapse includes: A. Electrostimulation of the pelvic floor B. Pessaries C. Plastic vaginal wall plaster D. A, B, C. 132. Which of the aforementioned surgical methods is used to treat a cystectomy: A. Vaginal total hysterectomy B. Abdominal total hysterectomy C. Anterior Vaginal wall plasty D. Ureterovecicoplexia Oncogynaecology 1. which age is most characteristic of the occurrence of cervical carcinoma: A. 20 -30 years: B. 30. - 50 years: C. 45 years 70 years D. Over 70 years of age 2. The following factors are related to carcinoma of the uterus, cervix: A. Infection with HPV B. Tobacco C. Promiscuity D. A, B, C. 3. What is the most common type of HPV for the development of carcinoma of the uterine cervix: A. 6 and 18 B. 16 and 6 C. 18 and 11 D. 16 and 18 4 What is the active specific prophylaxis against cervical carcinoma: A. Immunoglobulin; B. Vaccine; C. Heterologous serum D. B&C 5. What type of screening is performed for cervical carcinoma: A. PAP test B. Cervical Biopsy C. Hysteroscopy D. Echography 6. Specify the histological types of carcinoma of the uterine cervix. A. squamous cell ca B. adenocarcinoma C. type "ring with stone" D. A and B 7. The description of carcinoma colli uteri:the tumor spreads beyond the boundaries of little pelvis and affects the neighboring or distant organs refers to: A.stage IIIA B.stage IIIB C.stage IV D.No correct answer 8. The description of carcinoma colli uteri: the lesion goes beyond the border of the cervix, but doesn't reach the pelvic wall or the lower 1/3 of vagina, refers to: A.stage IB B.stage IIIA C.stage II D.stage IVA 9.The description of carcinoma colli uteri: the lesion goes beyond the border of the cervix, reaches pelvic wall and causes hydronephrosis refers to: A. stage IIA B.stage IIB C.stage III D. No correct answer 10. Which are the main ways of spreading of cervical cancer: A.hematogenous and lymphogenous B.hematogenous and invasion in adjacent organs C.lymphogenous D.hematogenous,lymphogenous and invasion in adjacent organs 11.Indicate the first symptoms of carcinoma of the uterine cervix: A. contact bleeding B.chlorine fluoride C.pain and rectorrhagia D. A,B,C 12. Specify the two main diagnostic methods for carcinoma of the uterine cervix: A. colposcopy with target biopsy B. PAP test C. transvaginal echography D.conization of the uterine cervix 13. What is the therapeutic approach to CIN I: A. tissue-destructive treatment B.hysterectomy C.antibiotic treatment D. radiotherapy and chemotherapy 14. What is the therapeutic approach to CIN III: A.conization B.radiotherapy C.total hysterectomy D.chemotherapy 15. What is the therapeutic approach in the third stage of carcinoma of the uterine cervix? A.radiotherapy and chemotherapy B.radical hysterectomy C.conization D.use of Solcogyn 16.Which is the most common histological variant of carcinoma of uterine cervix? A. adenocarcinoma B.squamous cell carcinoma C. leiomyosarcoma D. mixed forms 17.Which of the listed viruses is associated with carcinoma of uterine cervix? A.parvovirus B. EBV C. HPV D. CMV 18. Which of the following procedures would you suggest to a 62 year-old woman with amenorrhea with genital bleeding? A.abdominal echography B.gynecological examination with PAP test C.investigation of CA 125 D.separated tissue abrasion 19. Postmenopausal bleeding at double endometrial thickness