Updated Final Nervous System Module PDF

Updated Final Nervous System Module ___by Zaid… (Try to memorize ionic conc..instead of Hyper or depolarization….Red Questions were the ones which were in exam and I put the options I could remember.... Would be better to understand the questions rat...

Updated Final Nervous System Module ___by Zaid… (Try to memorize ionic conc..instead of Hyper or depolarization….Red Questions were the ones which were in exam and I put the options I could remember.... Would be better to understand the questions rather than just mugging them up….Best of Luck✌️) Nervous System Module: Biochemistry 1. Select the main role of creatine kinase in the functioning of nervous tissue a) stabilizes the level of ATP in the nerves cell b) activates glycogenolysis c) activates gluconeogenesis d) stimulates glycolysis e) inhibits the pentose phosphate pathway of glucose oxidation 2. Indicate the amino acid that participates in the utilization of ammonia in the neurons of the brain, and get converted into an amide: a) glutamic acid b) lysine c) histidine d) alanin e) methionine 3. Name substances that can be used by brain cells as an alternative oxidation substrate during fasting a) ketone bodies b) glycogen c) glutathione d) lecithin e) ribose 4. Indicate the main source of energy for biochemical processes in the brain: a) glucose  b) ketone bodies c) creatine phosphate d) glycogen e) fatty acid 5. Name the most important excitatory neurotransmitter of the central nervous system: Ans. Acetylcholine 6. Indicate the main energy consumer in the brain necessary to maintain the resting potential and restore it after the passage of a nerve impulse: Ans. Sodium-potassium pump 7. Choose the type of reaction for inactivation of gamma-aminobutyric acid (GABA): a) transamination b) methylation c) decarboxylation d) deamination e) dehydrogenation 8. The brain and other parts of the nervous tissue do not use which molecule as an energy source: Ans. Fatty acids 9. Specify the main inhibitory neurotransmitter of the central nervous system a) GABA and glycine b) aspartate and glutamate c) dopamine and acetylcholine d) serotonin and norepinephrine e) dopamine and norepinephrine 10. Identify ways to detoxify ammonia in the nervous tissue: a) reductive amination of alpha-ketoglutaric acid and glutamine synthesis b) synthesis of urea c) oxidative amination of alpha-ketoglutaric acid d) glutamine synthetase reaction e) glutaminase reaction 11. Select the function of nerve tissue lipids a) structural, are part of the cell membranes of neurons b) energetic c) participation in reactions of deamination of other amino acids d) formation of the neurotransmitter GABA from glutamate e) participation in the synthesis of glutathione 12. Name the enzymes involved in the synthesis and break down of acetylcholine in the nerve cell: a) choline acetyltransferase, acetylcholinesterase b) monoamine oxidase, acetylcholinesterase c) adenylate cyclase, choline acetyltransferase d) acyltransferase, monoamine oxidase e) acetylcholinesterase, monoamine oxidase 13. Determine the biogenic amine, the disturbance of whose metabolism in nerve cells causes the development of schizophrenia, depression, and Parkinson's disease  a) dopamine b) serotonin c) norepinephrine d) GABA e) catecholamine 14. Specify a biogenic amine, which is a derivative of 5-hydroxytryptophan and is involved in the regulation of psycho-emotional states (anxiety, aggressiveness, control of physiological sleep cycles) a) serotonin b) dopamine c) norepinephrine d) GABA e) catecholamine 15. Indicate a more efficient pathway for ATP synthesis for brain cells: (Aerobic glycolysis.)// Oxidative phosphorylation 16. For mental stress, drugs with coenzyme Q10 are prescribed as a source of energy. Explain in what processes ubiquinone is involved and from what complexes in the electron transport chain protons and electrons pass to coenzyme Q: Ans I and II( explainatio:. Electron transport chain (ETC), Accepts electrons from Complexes I (NADH-Q Reductase) and Complex II (Succinate-Q Reductase) 17. Intermediate products of ethanol metabolism cause disorders of the central nervous system - a decrease in mental activity, which is associated with inhibition of the action of enzymes of common catabolic pathways. Specify the coenzyme that is formed during the catabolism of ethanol and which inactivates the TCA and PDH complex enzymes in the nerve cell: (NADH.H+.) 18. With a lack of vitamins В1, В2 and РР dysfunction of the central nervous system is observed - a decrease in mental activity. Indicate in which metabolic pathways does derivatives of these vitamins participate: (TCA cycle and oxidative phosphorylation.) {explaination : Vitamin B1 – TDP/TPP (Pyruvate decarboxylation, TCA cycle), Vitamin B2 - FAD (TCA cycle, Oxidative phosphorylation, ETS), Vitamin PP - NAD (Glycolysis, TCA cycle, ETS} 19. The ketone bodies are an alternative source of energy for brain cells. Name the substrate for the synthesis of ketone bodies: Fatty acids///(Acetyl CoA) 20. Brain tissue is mostly dependent on glucose catabolism as an energy source. Determine the amount of glucose that brain cells consume per day for aerobic oxidation: (About 120 grams.) 21. Indicate molecules that are not involved in the processes of energy supply to nervous tissue: (long chain fatty acids) 22. Insufficient supply of glucose to the brain or hypoxia is manifested by symptoms indicating impaired (Blood brain barrier) 23. Name the biogenic amines that are neurotransmitters: Ans. Dopamine, Serotonin, Norepinephrine, Epinephrine, Histamine, Tyramine, Phenylethylamine 24. Thiamine is necessary to improve energy supply by enhancing oxidative processes in the cells of the nervous system. Indicate the metabolic process activated by thiamine pyrophosphate: (TCA cycle.)// (Pentose phosphate pathway.) 25. Indicate the organ that is most sensitive to hypoglycemia during prolonged fasting: (Brain ) 26. In the presence of a genetic defect of the PDH complex in the nerve cell, glucose catabolism will be predominantly anaerobic. Specify the amount of ATP produced by anaerobic glycolysis per glucose molecule: (2 ATP per glucose molecule.) 27. During prolonged fasting, to supply brain cells with glucose, the process of converting oxaloacetate into phosphoenolpyruvate (gluconeogenesis reaction) is activated in the tissues. Name the enzyme for this process: (Phosphoenolpyruvate carboxykinase (PEPCK).) 28. Oxidative decarboxylation of pyruvate in nervous and other tissues occurs with the participation of several coenzymes. Name the coenzyme involved: Most likely answer: TPP →*Pyruvate dehydrogenase complex(PDH)* :(NAD+,FAD, Thiamine pyrophosphate (TPP) ,Lipoamide) 29. Name the compound which is a methyl group donor that is used for the synthesis of epinephrine from norepinephrine in nervous and other tissue: (* S-adenosylmethionine (SAM).) 30. With a lack of certain vitamins, dysfunction of the central nervous system is observed, since they are the derivatives are coenzymes of enzymes in common catabolic pathways. Indicate the vitamins and their coenzymes: (* B1 (thiamine), B2 (riboflavin), PP (niacin).) 31. Determine the substrates of acetylcholine synthesis:acetylcholine and acetyl-CoA 32. As an additional source of energy, nerve cells during fasting can use:ketone bodies 33. Name the amino acid involved in the process of ammonia binding in nervous tissue:glutamate 34. Indicate the main transmitter in the parasympathetic nervous system:acetylcholine 35. Excitation of the nervous system is accompanied by an increase in ammonia in the nervous tissue. The formation of ammonia during excitation occurs due to the reaction:catabolism of biogenic amines 36. An important mechanism for neutralizing ammonia in nervous tissue is: synthesis of glutamine by glutamine synthetase 37. Under the physiological conditions, the role of this metabolic pathway of glucose oxidation in brain tissues is insignificant, but this pathway of oxidation is peculiar in all brain cells. Define this pathway: (Pentose phosphate pathway.) 38.Specify the product of the glutamate decarboxylation reaction in the nervous tissue: (GABA (Gamma-aminobutyric acid).) 39.Specify the product of the tryptophan decarboxylation reaction in the nervous tissue: (Serotonin.) 40.Specify the product of the histidine decarboxylation reaction in the nervous tissue: (Histamine.) 41. Nervous tissue is characterized by a high content of the following free amino acids: ( Glutamate, aspartate, glycine.) 42. Name the most significant reason why nervous tissue is very different in chemical composition from other tissues of the body: option has Blood brain bariier in it choose that 43. A precursor of melatonin in the nervous tissue is: ( Serotonin.) 44. Specify the biogenic amine, the deficiency of which is characterized by depression and migraine: ( Serotonin.) 45. Find a biogenic amine, which is synthesized in the hypothalamus and regulates the secretion of prolactin in the pituitary gland: (Dopamine.) 46. Name a product, that usually accumulates when the phenylalanine hydroxylation is disrupted, which will be inhibit the intake of amino acids into brain cells: ( Phenylalanine or phenylpyruvate.) 47. Name the metabolic pathways, that deliver substrates for the synthesis of neurotransmitters, amino acids, lipids, nucleic acids in brain cells: (Amino acid metabolism, glycolysis, TCA cycle.) 48. Specify an enzyme, that catalyzes the formation of GABA from glutamate in neurons: (Glutamate decarboxylase.) 49. Name the compounds, that are a source of energy for brain cells: (Glucose, ketone bodies.lactate (in order of priority) 50. The characteristic difference between the brain and other tissues is the set of free amino acids, which compose about 75%. Specify these amino acids: ( Glutamate, aspartate, glycine, GABA.) NERVOUS SYSTEM MODULE : ANATOMY 1. Morphological basis of the reflex: reflex arch synapse neuron spinal node receptor 2. Neurons are connected to each other: synapses nodes receptors bodies do not connect 3. The posterior roots of the spinal cord contain fibers: sensitive mixed vegetative motor sensory and motor 4. The location of the spinal nodes: at the level of the intervertebral foramen between the membranes of the spinal cord on the anterior surface of the spinal cord on the posterior surface of the spinal cord in the area of the horse's tail 5. Location of the cortical end of the sensitive analyzer: posterior central gyrus uncus inferior temporal gyrus superior frontal gyrus parahypocampal gyrus 6. Number of layers of cortex (bark): 6 3 12 8 7 7. In the white matter of the cerebral hemispheres are: Comissural fiber Afferent fibers Efferent fibers Reticular fiber Basal fiber 8. A child in the neurology department has been diagnosed with polio. The disease is accompanied by a dysfunction of the motor apparatus. What nerve structures can be explained by the destruction of these disorders? neurons that make up the gray matter of the anterior horns of the spinal cord//Motor neurons neurons that make up the gray matter of the posterior horns of the spinal cord thalamic neurons neurons that make up the gray matter of the lateral horns of the spinal cord back roots 9. A patient after a spinal cord injury suffered a loss of deep sensitivity and movement in the right lower limb. Which part of the spinal cord is damaged? in the structures of the right half of the spinal cord in the structures of the anterior half of the spinal cord in the structures of the posterior half of the spinal cord in the structures of the left half of the spinal cord full transverse spinal cord break 10. Specify the location of the vestibular-spinal pathway in the spinal cord: anterior funiculus intermediate zone lateral funiculus 5-6 cervical segments posterior funiculus 11. Indicate which neurons are located in the spinal nodes: ( one question was just opposite ,as in: Pseudo unipolar neurons are found in ;;;ans would be spinal nodes))) bodies of pseudo-unipolar neurons intercalary neurons of the vegetative reflex arc intercalary neurons of a somatic reflex arc efferent somatic neurons motor bipolar 12. Specify the paths that form the intersection of the pyramids: lateral cortical-spinal pathway the rubro-nuclear spinal pathway the tecto-spinal pathway posterior cortical-spinal pathway cortical-nuclear path 13. Indicate which fibres form the corpus callosum: commissural fibres short associative fibres long associative fibres projection fibres medium bunches 14. Indicate which conductors form the arcuate (arc-shaped) fibers of the brain hemispheres: short associative fibers longitudinal and arcuate beams long associative fibers commissural fibers projection fibers 15. Specify the main parts of the corpus callosum: splenum, truncus, genus, rostrum truncus, genus,rostrum, crura truncus, columnae, genus pulvinar, truncus, genus, crura truncus, pulvinar , rostrum, septum pellicidum 16. The white matter of the telencephalon (finite brain): associative, commissural, projection sensory, motor, associative fibers afferent, efferent, commisural associative, commissural, motor insertion, motor, associative fibers 17. The [Conducting] pathways of the posterior funiculus (cord) of the spinal cord: fasciculus gracilis, fasciculus cuneatus, tr. spinocerebellaris posterior, tr. spinocerebellaris anterior OR fasciculus gracilis (Goll’s fascicle) et fasciculus cuneatus (Burdach’s fascicle) tr.rubrospinalis, tr.teutospinalis, tr.spinocerebellaris anterior, fasciculus gracilis tr.spinothalamicus, tr.spinocerebellaris posterior, fasciculus cuneatus tr.vestibulospinalis, tr.corticospinalis anterior, tr.testospinalis tr.rubrospinalis, fasciculus gracilis, tr.testospinalis, tr.spinocerebellaris роsterior ha 18. The patient has a hemorrhage in the upper part of the left postcentral gyrus. Specify possible violations: impaired touch, pain and temperature sensitivity of the right lower limb impaired motor activity of the right lower limb impaired sense of touch, pain and temperature sensitivity of the left lower extremity violation of temperature sensitivity in the right upper limb impaired motor activity of the left lower limb 19. Divisions (departments) of the CNS consist of: from the spinal cord and brain from the spinal cord and medulla oblongata, cerebellum from the brain, intermediate brain and quadriceps from the spinal cord and hindbrain from the spinal cord and midbrain 20. Fibers forming a lateral loop: auditory fibers fibers of the pyramidal pathways fibers of visual pathways fibers of visual and auditory pathways fibers fasciculi gracilis et cuneatus 21. The cortical end of the motor analyzer is located: in the cortex of the precentral gyrus in the cortex of the lower frontal lobe in the cortex of the middle temporal gyrus in the cortex of the postcentral gyrus in the cortex of the superior parietal lobule 22. The descending pathways from the ruber (red) nuclei in the spinal cord go to: in the lateral funiculus of the spinal cord in the posterior funiculus of the spinal cord in the anterior funiculus of the spinal cord in the anterior funiculus of the grey matter of the spinal cord in the posterior funiculus of the gray matter of the spinal cord 23. In the lower legs of the cerebellum, the following pathways pass: tractus spinocerebellares posterior, fibrae arcuatae externae, fibrae olivocerebellares tractus spinocerebellares anterior, fibrae arcuatae externae, fibrae pyramidocerebellares tractus spinocerebellares posterior, fibrae arcuatae interna, fibrae cerebellares tractus spinocerebellares anterior et posterior, fibrae arcuatae externae, fibrae cerebellares tractus spinocerebellares posterior, fibrae arcuatae externae, fibrae pontinocerebellares 24. In the middle legs of the cerebellum, the following pathways pass: tractus pontocerebellaris, fibrae corticopontinae tractus spinocerebellares anterior, fibrae pyramidocerebellares fibrae arcuatae interna, fibrae cerebellares fibrae arcuatae externae, fibrae cerebellares tractus spinocerebellares posterior, fibrae pontinocerebellares 25. In the upper legs of the cerebellum, the following pathways pass: tractus spinocerebellaris anterior, tractus cerebellotegmentalis tractus pontocerebellaris, fibrae corticopontinae fibrae arcuatae interna, fibrae cerebellares fibrae arcuatae externae, fibrae cerebellares tractus spinocerebellares posterior, fibrae pontinocerebellares 26. Damage (defeat) to the first neuron of the tractus gangliobulbothalamocorticalis causes: sensitivity disorder on the injury side movement disorder on the injury side disorder of reflex protection of movement in visual stimuli disorder of reflex protection of movement in auditory stimuli movement disorder on the opposite side of the injury 27. Tractus rubrospinalis regulates: extrapyramidal unconscious, automatic movements pyramid conscious movements balance support unconscious movement on an auditory stimulus unconscious movement on a visual stimulus 28. Tractus tectospinalis regulates: unconscious movement on auditory and visual stimuli extrapyramidal unconscious, automatic movements pyramid conscious movements balance support proprioceptive sensitivity 29. Associative nerve fibers connect: Different parts of the cortex with each other 30. Associative paths are divided into: Long and short 31. Associative nerve fibers that exit into the white matter of the hemisphere are called: extracortical / long 32. Long associative paths include: fasciculus longitudinalis superior, fasciculus longitudinalis inferior, fasciculus uncinatus, cingulum, fasciculus occipitotemporalis 33. Fasciculus longitudinalis superior connects: the forehead with the temporal, parietal, and occipital lobes 34. Fasciculus longitudinalis inferior connects: occipital, temporal 35. In the spinal cord, associative fibers connect gray matter cells and form: anterior, lateral and posterior eigenneurons (intersegmental bundles) / short, arcuate fibers 36. The bodies of the first neurons of the pathways of pain, temperature and tactile sensitivity are located in: In the node in the posterior root of the spinal cord Or The dorsal root ganglia. 37. The bodies of the second neurons of the pathway of proprioceptive cortical sensitivity are located in: In the dorsal horn of the spinal cord near the VII segment // fasciculus gracilis, fasciculus cuneatus of the medulla oblongata 38. The bodies of the third neurons of the conducting pathways of touch and pressure are located in: the anterior commissure of the spinal cord //The ventral posterolateral nucleus (VPL) of the thalamus. 39. The part of the spinal cord through which the anterior cerebrospinal pathway passes: The anterior funiculus(or anterior column) of the spinal cord. Or option was →side strand 40. The part of the spinal cord through which the lateral spinal-thalamic pathway passes: The lateral funiculus (or lateral column) of the spinal cord. Oroption was→ side edge 41. The part of the spinal cord through which the lateral cortical-spinal pathway passes: anterior and lateral funiculus (ANTERIOR or lateral column) of the spinal cord.OR :option was →< front and side strands 42. The commissural fibers included in the anterior adhesions connect: the olfactory nerve of both hemispheres, sensory lobes and two hippocampal cortices/amygdala 43. According to the nature of the impulses carried out , the ascending projection paths are divided into: exteroceptive , proprioceptive , interoceptive 44. The exteroceptive pathways of pain and temperature sensitivity include: lateral spinothalamic tract (tr.spinothalamicus lateralis) 45. The exteroceptive pathways of touch and pressure include: anterior spinothalamic tract (tr. Spinotalamicus anterior) 46. Conducting pathway of proprioceptive cortical sensitivity: tr. spinocerebellaris anterior et posterior 47. Pyramidal conducting paths include: tr. corticospinalis lateralis, tr. corticospinalis anterior, tr. spinocerebellaris anterior et posterior 48. Extrapyramidal pathways include: tr. vestibulospinalis, tr.rubrospinalis, tr. tectospinalis, tr. pontospinalis, tr.bulbospinalis 49. In the formation of the vestibular-spinal pathway take part: extrapyramidal system//or//Vestibular nuclei,spinal cord,and motor neurons 50. Conducting pathways of the anterior cord of the spinal cord: tr.corticospinalis anterior, tr.spinotalamicus anterior, tr.reticulospinalis 51. Conducting pathways of the lateral cord of the spinal cord: Tr.spinocerebellaris anterior et posterior, tr.spinothalamicus lateralis, tr.corticospinalis lateralis The vestibular nuclei are located in the: pons 52. The vestibular apparatus perceives irritations: IN THE MEDDILE OF EAR 53.Vestibular nuclei are located in: medulla oblongata in the brain stem 54.Specify where the neuronal bodies of the reflex pathway of auditory stimulation are not located: cochlea/SNAIL PART 55. Specify the part of the brain through which the auditory pathway passes: thalamus (specifically the medial geniculate nucleus) 56.Specify which part of the brain the olfactory sensation pathways are not connected to: thalamus 57. Specify a conductive path that does not pass through the lateral funiculus : tr.corticospinalis anterior, tr.vestibulospinalis 58. The structure of the metathalamus is the subcortical visual center: the lateral geniculate body (corpus geniculatum laterale) 59. The structure of the metathalamus is the subcortical center of hearing: : the medial geniculate body (corpus geniculatum mediale 58. Specify the part of the thalamus where the fibers of the visual tract end: lateral geniculate nucleus 59. >Specify the gyrus of the large brain in which the center of practical skills is located: Gyrus supramarginalis ( supracral gyrus )//precentral gyrus of left hemispheres 60. Specify the gyrus in which the motor center of writing is located: left precentral gyrus of left hemisphere///Posterior part of the SUPERIOR frontal cortex (gyrus frontalis medius) 61. Specify the gyrus in which the center of the auditory analyzer is located: superior temporal gyrus of temporal lobe 62. Specify the location of the cortical center of general sensitivity: postcentral gyrus (gyrus postcentralis) 63. The body of the 2-neuron of the pathway of conscious proprioception is located: posterior gray horns of spinal cord: posterior gray horns of spinal cord ////thin and wedge-shaped tubercles of the medulla oblongata (tuberculum gracilis et cuneatus)// nuclei thoracicus and cuneatus) 64. Name the part of the spinal cord through which the anterior cerebrospinal tract passes: anterior funiculus of the spinal cord 65. Name the part of the spinal cord through which the lateral spinalthalamic pathway passes: lateral funiculus of spinal cord 66.. Conductor of pain and temperature sensitivity : tr.spinothalamicus lateralis 67. Name the part of the spinal cord through which the lateral cortical-spinal pathway passes: : lateral funiculus of spinal cord 67. The body of the 2-neuron of the rubrospinal spinal tract is located in: Red nuclei of the mid brain 68. The part of the brain where the fibers of the cortical-spinal tract pass: cerebral pedunclein mid brain// oval brain pyramids 69. Name which part of the inner capsule the fibers of the corticalspinal tract pass through: Knee////////posterior limb of the internal capsule 70. Name which part of the internal capsule the fibers of the corticalnuclear pathway pass through: : genu of the internal capsule 71. In the posterior sections of the posterior leg of the internal capsule are located: thalamocortical tract (tractus thalamocorticalis), fibers of the auditory and visual pathways 72. The corpus callosum contains: commissural fibers 73.The centers are laid in the superior colliculus of the laminaquadrigemina: 1. in the tectum of the midbrain corpura Quadrigemina //subcortical visual centers 74. Tractus spinothalamicus lateralis consists of: ascending nerve fibers 75. The internal capsule is located: : white matter of the brain,between the thalamus and the basal ganglia, EXPLAINATION: Globus pallidus (part of the basal ganglia), Nucleus caudatus (also part of the basal ganglia), Thalamus. 76. The internal capsule is divided into: :anterior limb and posterior limb 77. A 65-year-old patient was diagnosed with a spinal hernia at the L5-S1 level, which compresses the anterior roots. Identify possible disorders and their location? lower back pain sciatica, motor weakness, sensory change/// Movement disorders, leading to weakness and atrophy of the 4 major muscles in the legs, loss of reflexes from the Achilles tendon 78. Participates in the formation of the encephalon-spinal tract: Extrapyramidal system 79.The centers are located in the upper hillocks of the quadrigeminal: subcortical vision center. 80. The centers are located in the lower tubercles of the quadrigeminal: subcortical hearing center  NERVOUS SYSTEM MODULE: HISTOLOGY 1. A 64-year-old woman presents with disturbed fine motor function of her fingers, marked muscle rigidity, and tremor. The neurologist diagnosed her with Parkinson’s disease. What brain structures are damaged resulting in this disease-… A. Reticular formation B. Substantia nigra C. Thalamus. D. Red nuclei. E. Cerebellum. 2. One of sections of central nervous system has layerwise arrangement of neurocytes. Among them there are cells of the following forms: stellate, fusiform, horizontal, pyramidal. What section of central nervous system is this structure typical for-… A. Cerebellum B. Spinal cord. C. Cortex of cerebrum. D. Medulla oblongata. E. Hypothalamus 3. In the specimen you can see an organ of the central nervous system. It has grey and white matter. Grey matter covers the white matter and forms cortex, which includes 3 layers. Which organ is in the specimen-… A. Cerebral cortex. B. Spinal cord. C. Retina. D. Cerebellar cortex. E. Spinal ganglion 4. In the specimen you can see the cerebral cortex. In which layer the huge pyramidal cells are located-… A. Molecular. B. Ganglionic. C. Pyramidal. D. External granular. E. Internal granular 5. In the specimen you can see the cerebellar cortex. In which layer the Purkinje cells are located-… A. Molecular. B. Pyramidal. C. External granular. D. Ganglionic. E. Internal granular 6. A sensitive neural ganglion consists of roundish neurocytes with one extension that divides into axon and dendrite at a some distance from the perikaryon. What are these cells called-… A. Unipolar. B. Pseudounipolar. C. Bipolar. D. Multipolar. E. Apolar 7. An infant has been diagnosed with microcephaly. Doctors suspect that this brain disorder developed due to the fact that the mother had been taking actinomycin D during her pregnancy. What germinal layers have been affected by this teratogen-… A. Entoderm. B. Ectoderm. C. Mesoderm. D. Entoderm and mesoderm. E. All germinal layers 8. Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system- A. Receptors. B. Brachial plexus. C. Sciatic nerve. D. Spinal cord. E. Ganglia 9. What makes white matter "white-… A. Myelin sheath. B. Cell bodies. C. Neurotransmitters. D. Synapses. E. Dendrites 10.What are the conglomerations of gray matter deep within the cerebrum and cerebellum called-… A. Tracts. B. Islets. C. Nuclei. D. Soma. E. Cortex 1. Which of the following is the thickest component of the cornea-… A. Stroma. B. Corneal epithelium. C. Descemet membrane. D. Bowman membrane. E. Corneal endothelium 2. Which cells transmit visual signals from the retina to the brain-…  A. Bipolar cells. B. Amacrine cells. C. Ganglion cells. D. Horizontal cells. E. Müller cells 3. The epithelial cells within the organ of Corti are supported by which of the following structures-… A. Spiral limbus. B. Tectorial membrane. C. Vestibular membrane. D. Basilar membrane. E. Spiral ligament 4. During a boxing match, a 23-year-old fighter sustains a direct blow to the right ear. He presents with dizziness, vertigo, imbalance, nausea, vomiting, tinnitus, and fullness in the ears. His vertigo increases with activity and is relieved by rest. He has some hearing loss. The symptoms worsen with coughing, sneezing, or blowing his nose, as well as with exertion. He is diagnosed with perilymphatic fistula, which allows leakage of perilymph. In which of the following structures is perilymph normally found-… A. Scala tympani. B. Scala media. C. Semicircular canals. D. Saccule. E. Utricle 5. An infectious disease caused contractive activity of muscles that contract and dilate eye pupil (paralytic state). What functional eye system was damaged-… A. Dioptric. B. Ancillary. C. Photosensory. D. Accomodative. E. Lacrimal apparatus 6. An electron micrograph shows a cell of neural origin. The terminal portion of the cell dendrite has cylindrical shape and consists of 1000 closed membrane disks. What cell is represented by the micrograph-… A. Rod receptor cell. B. Cone receptor cell. C. Spinal node neuron. D. Neuron of the cerebral cortex. E. Neuron of the anterior horns of the spinal cord 7. In the electron microscopy you can see the taste bud. Which papillae of tongue have this structure-… A. Filliform, foliate, fungiform and circumvallate. B. Foliate, fungiform and circumvallate.  C. Filliform, foliate, fungiform. D. Filliform, foliate and circumvallate. E. Filliform, fungiform and circumvallate 8. In the electron microscopy you can see the taste bud. Which cells does this structure include-… A. Photoreceptor and bipolar neurons. B. Hair cells without kinocilium and supporting cells. C. Taste and supporting. D. Basal, taste and supporting. E. Hair cells with kinocilium and supporting cells 9. In the specimen you can see the olfactory epithelium. Which cells does it have-… A. Basal, olfactory and supporting. B. Photoreceptor and bipolar neurons. C. Hair cells without kinocilium and supporting cells. D. Olfactory and supporting. E. Hair cells with kinocilium and supporting cells 10.In the specimen of the inner ear you can see the organ of Corti in the cochlear duct. Which stimuli does this structure respond to-… A. Light. B. Sound wave. C. Linear accelerations. D. Angular accelerations. E. Chemical molecules 1. In an embryo the process of dorsal mesoderm segmentation and somite formation is disturbed. What part of skin will probably have developmental abnormalities-… A. Dermis. B. Hair. C. Sebaceous glands. D. Epidermis. E. Nails 2. A 12-year-old patient has white nonpigmented spots on the skin. The spots appeared after the patient became 10 years old, and they constantly grow. This spots appeared due to the lack of the following skin cells-… A. Plasmocytes. B. Adipocytes. C. Fibrocytes. D. Melanocytes E. Labrocytes 3. Keratogialins are synthesized by cells of the epidermis layer-… A. basal. B. spinosum. C. granulosum.  D. shiny. E. corneum 4. The growth of the nail plate is due to cell division-… A. its root. B. nail matrix. C. her body. D. of the epidermis of nail bed. E. nail plates 5. Langerhans skin cells are located in-… A. a germinal layer of the epidermis. B. sweat glands. C. papillary layer of the dermis. D. arrector pili muscles. E. subcutaneous tissue 6. Skin develops from-… A. ectoderm and myotome. B. endoderm and dermatome. C. ectoderm and dermatome D. ectoderm and endoderm. E. myotome and dermatome 7. Hair bulb is formed-… A. a germ layer of the epidermis. B. loose connective tissue. C. dense irregular connective tissue. D. horny scales. E. mineralized amorphous substance 8. Which cell is a mechanoreceptors-… A. Langerhans cell. B. Keratinocyte. C. Melanocyte. D. Fibroblast E. Merkel cell. 9. Which cell is found in the dermis-… A. Fibroblast. B. Langerhans cell. C. Keratinocyte. D. Melanocyte. E. Merkel cell 10.Which of the following is NOT considered an epidermal appendage-… A. Sebaceous glands B. Sweat gland.  C. Hair. D. Nails. E. Hypodermis. Questions hsito 1.Nasal cavity epithelium: Pseudostratified ciliated 2.A patient with fever and a white tongue typically involves the stratified squamous epithelium of the tongue, particularly in the areas of the filiform papillae on the dorsal surface 399. As a result of a mechanical injury, an over 10 cm long portion of a peripheral nerve was damaged. This caused an impairment of the upper limb activity. The patient was offered nerve transplantation. What glial cells will participate in regeneration and provide the trophism of the injured limb? Schwann cells. 400. As a result of an injury, the integrity of the anterior spinal cord root was broken. Specify the neurons and their processes that had been damaged: Motor (efferent) neurons and their axons. 401. A male with a lesion of one of the CNS parts has asthenia, muscular dystonia, balance disorder. Which CNS part has been affected? Cerebellum. 402. A patient complains that at the bare mention of the tragic events that once occurred in his life he experiences tachycardia, dyspnea, and an abrupt rise in blood pressure. What structures of the CNS are responsible for these cardiorespiratory reactions in this patient? Limbic system (amygdala, hypothalamus). 403. One of sections of central nervous system has layerwise arrangement of neurocytes. Among them there are cells of the following forms: stellate, fusiform, horizontal, pyramidal. What section of central nervous system is this structure typical for? Cerebral cortex. 404. In the specimen you can see an organ of the central nervous system. It has grey and white matter. Grey matter covers the white matter and forms cortex, which includes 3 layers. Which organ is in the specimen? Cerebellum. 405. In the specimen you can see an organ of the central nervous system. It has grey and white matter. Grey matter covers the white matter and forms cortex, which includes 6 layers. Which organ is in the specimen? Cerebral cortex. 406. In the specimen you can see the cerebral cortex. Which layers does it have? Molecular, external granular, external pyramidal, internal granular, internal pyramidal, multiform layers. 407. In the specimen you can see the cerebral cortex. Which morphological type of neurons is unique to this organ? Pyramidal neurons. 408. In the specimen you can see the brain, which is covered by meninges. Which are they? Dura mater, arachnoid mater, pia mater. 409. In the electron microphotograph you can see the structures of blood-brain barrier. Which type of capillary takes place in this barrier formation? Continuous capillaries. 410. In the specimen you can see the choroid plexus. Which meninges forms this structure? Pia mater. 411. In the specimen you can see the sympathetic ganglion. Which tissue forms the parenchyma of this organ? Neuronal tissue. 412. In the specimen you can see the sympathetic ganglion. Which structural elements form the parenchyma of this organ? Multipolar neuron cell bodies, dendrites, axons, glial cells. 413. In the specimen you can see the sympathetic ganglion. Which neuron of autonomic reflex arc is located here? Postganglionic neurons. 414. In the specimen you can see the cerebral cortex. In which layer are the huge pyramidal cells located? Internal pyramidal layer (Layer V). 415. In the specimen you can see the cerebellar cortex. In which layer are the Purkinje cells located?  Purkinje cell layer. 416. A sensitive neural ganglion consists of roundish neurocytes with one extension that divides into axon and dendrite at a some distance from the perikaryon. What are these cells called? Pseudounipolar neurons. 417. A patient underwent an extraction of a part of a CNS structure by medical indications. As a result of the extraction the patient developed atony, astasia, intention tremor, ataxy and adiadochokinesis. Which part of CNS structure had been extracted? Cerebellum. 418. An infant has been diagnosed with microcephaly. Doctors suspect that this brain disorder developed due to the fact that the mother had been taking actinomycin D during her pregnancy. What germinal layers have been affected by this teratogen? (ectoderm). 419. Parenchyma of an organ is composed of pseudounipolar neurons localized under the capsule of connective tissue. Central place belongs to nerve fibers. Name this organ: Sensory (spinal) ganglion. 420. Which of the following is an element of the central nervous system? Spinal cord, brain. 421. What makes white matter "white"? Myelinated axons (myelin sheath). 422. What is the outer gray matter of the brain called?  Cortex. 423. What is the cell body of a neuron called? Soma (perikaryon). 424. Which type of neuron is most abundant? Multipolar neurons. 425. What surrounds a bundle of nerve fibers? Perineurium. 426. Which meninx covers the brain intimately? Pia mater. 427. Which of the following is the largest neuroglia cell? Astrocytes. 428. Which of the following is found in the cerebellum? Purkinje cells. 429. What are neurons in the retina? Bipolar neurons. 430. What are the basophilic clusters of ribosomes and rough endoplasmic reticulum seen in neurons called? Nissl bodies. 431. What is the covering of a nerve fiber? Endoneurium. 432. Which of the following is the CNS macrophage? Microglia. 433. Which of the following is found in the peripheral nervous system? Schwann cells. 434. What are the supporting cells in the central nervous system called?  Neuroglia. 435. Which of the following is an element of the peripheral nervous system? Peripheral nerves. 436. Which cell is a macrophage found in the central nervous system? Microglia. 437. What provides tensile strength to a neuron? Neurofilaments. 438. Which meninx is made of a delicate web-like connective tissue? Arachnoid mater. 439. What are the conglomerations of gray matter deep within the cerebrum and cerebellum called? Basal nuclei. 440. Which of the following is involved in the blood- brain barrier? Endothelial cells with tight junctions, astrocyte foot processes. 441. Which of the following is the thickest component of the cornea? - Stroma. 442. Which structure is the most anterior extension of the eye’s vascular layer? - Iris. 443. Which cells transmit visual signals from the retina to the brain? - Ganglion cells. 444. The epithelial cells within the organ of Corti are supported by which of the following structures? - Basilar membrane. 445. The middle ear contains which of the following structures? - Auditory ossicles (malleus, incus, stapes). 446. Which structure in the cochlea is analogous in composition and function to the cupola of each semicircular canal? - Tectorial membrane. 448. An infectious disease caused contractive activity of muscles that contract and dilate eye pupil (paralytic state). What functional eye system was damaged? - Autonomic nervous system (parasympathetic and sympathetic). 449. The increased intraocular tension is observed in a patient with glaucoma. Secretion of aqueous humor by the ciliary body is normal. Injury of what structure of the eyeball caused the disorder of flow-out from the anterior chamber? - Trabecular meshwork or Schlemm’s canal. 451. A histological specimen of the eyeball shows a biconvex structure connected to the ciliary body by the fibers of the Zinn’s zonule and covered with a transparent capsule. Name this structure: - Lens. 452. Which structure is transparent? - Cornea, lens, aqueous humor, vitreous body. 453. Which of the following is the receptor for color? - Cones. 454. What type of epithelium is on the surface of the cornea? - Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. 455. What is within the membranous labyrinth? - Endolymph. 456. What is within the bony labyrinth? - Perilymph. 457. Which contains endolymph? - Membranous labyrinth. 458. Which contains perilymph? - Bony labyrinth. 459. Where are the sensory receptors for hearing? - Organ of Corti. 460. Where are the sensory receptors for movement? - Crista ampullaris. 461. Where are the sensory receptors for position? - Maculae. 462. What structure is shaped like a snail shell? - Cochlea. 463. Where is the organ of Corti? - Cochlear duct. 464. What sensation does the crista ampullaris recognize? - Angular acceleration. 465. Which cell type is the receptor cell within the organ of Corti? - Hair cells. 466. Where on the retina are there NO photoreceptors? - Optic disc (blind spot). 467. What makes up the bulk of the sclera? - Dense connective tissue. 468. Which is NOT part of the retina? - Lens. 469. What is the most anterior portion of the uvea? - Iris. 470. Which one of the following is not found in the retina? - Lens. 471. Which structure is part of the uvea? - Iris, ciliary body, choroid. 472. What is the space posterior to the iris? - Posterior chamber. 473. What are the receptors for vision? - Rods and cones. 474. Where is the ciliary muscle located? - Ciliary body. 475. What are the openings within the sclera which allow nerve fibers to exit? - Scleral foramina. 476. Which of the following is NOT part of the retina? - Lens. 477. What structure adjusts the shape of the lens? - Ciliary muscle via suspensory ligaments (Zonule of Zinn). 478. What is the inner layer of the choroid? - Bruch’s membrane. 479. Where does aqueous humor from the anterior chamber collect into? - Schlemm’s canal. 480. Which layer of the cornea is acellular? - Bowman’s layer. 481. During the American Revolution, in the battle of Bunker Hill, an officer instructed his troops: "Don't fire until you see the whites of their eyes". What anatomical structure was he referring to? - Sclera. 482. Where is the region associated with maximum visual acuity? - Fovea centralis. 483. What is the suspensory ligament of the lens? - Zonule of Zinn (suspensory ligaments). 484. Which layer of the cornea is acellular? - Bowman’s layer. 485. How many layers of tissue compose the eyeball? - Three (fibrous, vascular, nervous). 486. What type of glands are the glands of Moll? - Modified sweat glands. 487. Which structure is part of the uvea? - Iris, ciliary body, choroid. 488. What is the vascular pigmented structure? - Choroid. 489. In the specimen you can see the eye globe. Its wall is composed of three concentric layers. Which are they? - Fibrous layer, vascular layer, retina. 490. In the specimen of the eye globe wall you can see the external layer (tunica fibrosa). Which structures does it include? - Cornea, sclera. 491. In the specimen of the eye globe, you can see a space between the cornea on one side and the iris with the lens on the other side. Which fluid does this space contain? - Aqueous humor. 492. In the specimen of the eye globe wall you can see a part of the tunica fibrosa, which doesn’t have vessels. Which structure is in the specimen? - Cornea. 493. In the specimen you can see the retina of the posterior part of the eye. It includes photosensitive neurons. Which are they? - Rods and cones. 494. In the specimen of the eye wall you can see the retina. Which tissues does it include? - Nervous tissue and pigmented epithelium. 495. In the electron microphotograph of the retina, you can see the rod. Which photopigment does this cell have? - Rhodopsin. 496. What type of epithelium is on the surface of the cornea? - Non-keratinized stratified squamous epithelium. 497. Which structure is avascular? - Cornea. 498. In the specimen of the inner ear you can see the macula. Which stimuli does this structure respond to? - Linear acceleration. 499. In the specimen of the inner ear you can see the crista. Which stimuli does this structure respond to? - Angular acceleration. 500. In the electron microscopy, you can see the taste bud. Which papillae of the tongue have this structure? Taste buds are found on the following types of tongue papillae: Fungiform papillae: Found on the anterior part of the tongue. Foliate papillae: Found on the lateral edges of the tongue. Circumvallate papillae: Located at the back of the tongue in a V-shaped row. 501. In the electron microscopy, you can see the taste bud. Which cells does this structure include? Taste buds consist of the following cell types: Sensory (receptor) cells: Detect taste stimuli and synapse with sensory neurons. Supporting cells: Provide structural support to the taste bud. Basal cells: Stem cells that regenerate receptor and supporting cells. 502. In the specimen, you can see the olfactory epithelium. Which cells does it have? The olfactory epithelium includes: Olfactory receptor neurons: Specialized neurons for detecting odors. Supporting (sustentacular) cells: Provide metabolic and structural support to receptor neurons. Basal cells: Stem cells that regenerate olfactory neurons and supporting cells. Bowman’s glands: Produce mucus to dissolve odorants for detection. 504. In the specimen of the inner ear, you can see the macula. In which part of the membranous labyrinth is this structure located? The maculae are located in: Utricle (horizontal orientation, detects linear acceleration and head tilt). Saccule (vertical orientation, detects linear acceleration and head tilt). 505. In the specimen of the inner ear, you can see the crista. In which part of the membranous labyrinth is this structure located? ampullae. Some more possible questions Control and measurement tools for assessment knowledge, skills and abilities in the discipline Test tasks on the topic “Central and peripheral nervous system” 1. A microscopic specimen of the cerebral cortex shows a layered arrangement of neurocytes. Specify the layer in which Betz giant cells are located: A. layer of n olimorphic cells B. n outer granular C. in viscera granular D. g anglionic E. p iramid 2. A specimen of the cerebellar cortex shows a layer consisting of large pyriform cells arranged strictly in one row. The description corresponds to the following layer of the cortex: A. outer granular layer B. pyramidal layer C. inner granular layer D. molecular layer E. ganglion layer 3. A patient with poliomyelitis with damage to the spinal cord has impaired skeletal muscle function. Destruction of neurons, which nuclei can this be explained? A. anterior horns B. lateral intermediate C. medial intermediate D. breast E. own nucleus of the dorsal horn 4. The histological specimen shows an organ of the nervous system, which consists of gray and white matter. Gray matter is located on the periphery. The neurons in it form three layers: molecular, ganglion and granular. Specify the organ : A. n rodoblongata brain B. cf united brain C. m burn D. p intermediate brain E. to ora of the cerebral hemispheres 5. As a result of constant alcohol consumption, the patient experiences impaired coordination of movements and balance. This is due to a violation: A. basket neurons of the cerebellum B. pyriform neurons of the cerebellum C. cerebellar stellate neurons D. motor neurons spinal cord E. olive medulla oblongata 6. A histological specimen is presented. At low magnification, an oval- shaped organ is visible, surrounded by a connective tissue capsule. Inside the organ, pseudounipolar neurons are arranged in nests. The description corresponds to the organ: A. spinal cord B. cerebellum C. midbrain D. spinal ganglion E. bridge 7. Layer of the cortex cerebellum in which granule cells are located: A. ganglionic B. grainy C. molecular D. ganglionic and granular E. molecular and ganglionic 8. The largest neurons of the spinal cord are located in the nucleus: A. chest B. anterior horn C. p intermediate D. lateral intermediate E. own posterior horn 9. The histological specimen identifies the organ of the nervous system, which consists of gray and white matter. Gray matter is located on the periphery and has 6 layers. Determine the structure to which these morphological characteristics belong: A. m burn B. medulla oblongata C. cerebral hemispheres D. spinal ganglion E. spinal cord 10. Name the nerve cells of the spinal ganglion: A. z stellates pseudounipolar B. pyramidal C. fusiform D. pear-shaped  Control and measurement tools for assessment knowledge, skills and abilities in the discipline Test tasks on the topic “Sense Organs” 1. While undergoing a medical examination to determine his ability to drive a car, the man was o discovered o impaired color vision (color blindness). This phenomenon is associated with the genetically determined th absence of the following retinal cells: A. amacrine neurons B. horizontal neurons C. bipolar neurons D. cone neurons E. rod neurons 2. When studying the pathways of the visual analyzer, the student found it difficult to determine the location of the neuron that forms the optic nerve. Indicate the location of the bodies of ganglion neurons in the retina: A. outer granular layer B. glial limiting membrane C. layer of nerve fibers D. inner granular layer E. ganglion layer 3. During the examination, the ophthalmologist found that the patient did not distinguish between blue and green colors, with normal perception of other colors. What dysfunction of the retinal structures is this associated with? A. amacrine neurons B. rod neurons C. bipolar neurons D. cone neurons E. horizontal neurons 4. When treated with large doses of antibiotics (streptomycin), quinine and other pharmacological drugs, hearing loss often occurs. Identify cells whose function may be impaired: A. supporting epithelial cells B. hair epithelial cells C. in inner columnar epithelial cells D. n outer columnar epithelial cells E. in vestibular hair cells 5. The histological specimen shows a section of the cochlear canal of the membranous labyrinth, formed by a layer of multirow epithelium with blood capillaries. Define the described element: A. cover membrane B. basilar plate C. vestibular membrane D. spiral ligament E. stria vascularis 6. The electron diffraction pattern shows a cell of neural origin, located in the epithelium of the nasal mucosa. The distal part of the peripheral process of the cell has a club-shaped thickening from which cilia extend. Determine what kind of cell is this? A. cone visual B. sensory epitheliocytes taste organ C. bipolar neuron of the spinal ganglion D. fell o eye-shaped optic cell E. olfactory cell 7. A boxer has an impaired sense of smell after a nose injury. Identify cells whose damage can lead to loss of smell: A. neurosensory cells B. basal cells C. ciliated cells D. supporting cells E. microvilli cells 8. Sensory organ , the sensory cells of which consist of a short dendrite and a long axon, the dendrites end in a thickening club, and the axons unite, forming 20-40 thread-like stems: A. Rumor B. Taste C. P equilibrium D. Oh smell E. Vision 9. The patient's ciliary body is damaged. The function of which eye apparatus is affected in this case? A. photosensitive B. accommodative C. trophic D. light-conducting E. protective 10. An electron micrograph of the sensory organ shows hair cells, on the apical part of which there are short microvilli - stereocilia and polar located kinocilium. What sensory organ are these cells characteristic of? A. hearing B. vision C. equilibrium D. taste E. sense of smell Control and measurement tools for assessment knowledge, skills and abilities in the discipline Test tasks on the topic “Leather and its derivatives” 1. An electron diffraction pattern of the skin epidermis revealed process cells, in the cytoplasm of which the Golgi apparatus is well developed, with many ribosomes and melanosomes. Determine what kind of cell this is. A. tissue basophils B. Langerhans cells C. keratinocytes D. melanocytes E. Merkel cells 2. The area of skin is damaged. Determine which cellular layer will restore the epidermis of the skin. A. basal B. spiny C. brilliant D. grainy E. horny 3. In forensic science, the method of fingerprinting is used - accurate identification of identity using fingerprints. The features of the structure of which layer determine the individual skin pattern? A. basal B. grainy C. spiny D. mesh E. papillary 4. The patient developed white spots on his skin. They first appeared three years ago. The spots were small, but are constantly increasing. Determine the absence of which skin cells can lead to the appearance of these spots? A. mast cells B. adipocytes C. fibrocytes D. plasma cells E. melanocytes 5. During a microscopic analysis of two biopsies of the hand, the doctor found in one of them clearly defined 5 layers epidermis simple glands in the dermis, in the other - the epidermis was thin, the layering was poorly visible , and in the dermis there were hair roots, hair follicles and two types of simple glands. Indicate the layer of the epithelium that is missing in the second biopsy. A. r ogovoy B. basal C. grainy D. b flattering E. spinous 6. A woman has damage to the epidermis of her skin as a result of a thermal burn. Identify the tissue that will form in the affected part of the skin: A. dense shaped fibrous connective tissue B. dense, unformed fibrous connective tissue C. stratified squamous non-keratinizing epithelium D. stratified squamous keratinizing epithelium E. loose fibrous connective tissue 7. With age, human skin experiences changes, which are manifested by a decrease in its elasticity. What structures provide skin elasticity? A. collagen and elastic fibers B. epidermal cells C. connective tissue cells D. main substance E. reticular fibers 8. The mammary gland according to its structure is: A. simple tubular B. + complex alveolar C. simple alveolar tubular D. complex alveolar-tubular E. simple alveolar 9. The growth of the nail plate occurs due to cell division: A. its roots B. her body C. nail matrix D. epidermis of nail folds E. supracungual plate 10. A histological specimen of the skin reveals thick bundles of collagen fibers, a network of elastic fibers, a few fibroblasts, as well as the end sections of the skin glands. What part of the skin is represented in the preparation? A. epidermis B. hypodermis C. reticular layer of dermis D. papillary dermis E. dermis FINAL NERVOUS SYSTEM MODULE: PHYSIOLOGY  1. In an experiment, a flexion reflex was induced in a spinal frog by immersing the foot in a weak acid solution. Will this reflex manifest itself when the skin of the foot is removed? No, there wii be no reflex 2. Female workers on spinning machine looms have to be in a forced working posture (reclined position) for a significant portion of their working time. What reflexes ensure that the body maintains equilibrium in this position? Pose-tonic (static) or Stabilization 3. If you stare intently at a window during the day and then close your eyes, you can still see the binding of the frame for some time. Which property of nerve centers explains this phenomenon? aftereffect 4. Through what structures in the CNS is the inhibition of spinal reflexes during irritation of the optic tubercles with table salt realized? Renshaw cells, Reticular formation, inhibitory alpha motor neurons 5. To test the assumption that the animal has color vision, an experiment was set up: a conditioned reflex to the light of a green lamp of 100 W and differentiation to the light of a red lamp of 150 W were produced. The differentiation could be developed. Does this result confirm the hypothesis that the animal has color vision? Yes, it confirms but can only see red and green colors. 6. If you cut the optic tracts to the optic nerve crossing on the left side of the eye. Complete blindness of left eye occurs 7. If tone audiometry reveals a sharp increase in the threshold for perception of sounds in the 15000-20000 Hz range, the most likely damage to: Part of a snail// The lower part of the cochlea 8. A patient has loss of pain and temperature sensitivity on the right side of the trunk and paralysis on the left side. The lesion is present in the following section of the cutaneous analyzer Left conductor 9. To assess the degree of functional damage to the occipital lobe of the cortex, apply: Perimetry 10. If airborne sound conduction is impaired but bone conduction is not, the lesion may be localized in the In middle ear 11. A monkey showed different reactions to the sound of a buzzer in different rooms, regardless of the time of the visit, because it developed: Conditioned reflex reaction depending on the state of the room 12. The chemical temporal coupling hypothesis that explains the greatest amount of evidence available is: A change in DNA structure 13. In an experiment based on a positive conditioned reflex, a stimulus close in parameters to the conditioned stimulus is introduced but not reinforced. What type of inhibition is produced: Differential inhibition. 14. Changes in skin sensitivity when internal organs are irritatedis a reflex: viscerodermal 15. A complex of processes leading to a decrease or cessation of physiologic function is called: Inhibition/ braking 16. In the experiment it was found that when flexor motoneurons are excited, extensor motoneurons are inhibited. What type of inhibition is the basis of this phenomenon? Reciprocal inhibition 17. When the bell rings for class, students run to the classroom - this is: Conditional reflex 18. A physiologic property of chemical synapses is: // Sensitivity to oxygen deficiency excitation to one side conduct///// 19. The outer ear includes the following structures External auditory canal, eardrum 20. During rotation on a merry-go-round, a 25-year-old woman experienced nausea, vomiting, and increased sweating. Activation of what receptors caused reflex development of these symptoms? Vestibular semicircular canals →linear acceleration… 1. Otolith Organs Utricle: Detects horizontal linear acceleration (e.g., riding in a car). Saccule: Detects vertical linear acceleration (e.g., moving in an elevator). 2. Structure of the Otolith Organs Macula: The sensory epithelium containing hair cells that act as the primary receptors. Hair Cells: Equipped with stereocilia and a single kinocilium, which bend in response to mechanical forces. Otolithic Membrane: A gelatinous layer that lies over the hair cells and contains otoconia (calcium carbonate crystals). o The otoconia increase the density of the membrane, allowing it to  respond to changes in linear acceleration or gravity. The cortical section of the visual analyzer is located in the: occipital lobe of the cerebral cortex 21. A 70-year-old patient was diagnosed with brainstem hemorrhage. Examination revealed increased tone of flexors on the background of decreased tone of extensors. What brain structures irritation can explain changes in muscle tone? Red Nucleus 22. Visual acuity is the ability of the eye to see..... distinguish two closely spaced objects  23. In an animal in an experiment, a transection was made between the medulla oblongata and the spinal cord. Which reflexes will be preserved in this animal? Spinal reflexes 24. The peripheral section of the vestibular analyzer consists of: Peripheral part is an entrance device located in the thick part of the temporal bone. The peripheral section of the vestibular analyzer consists of the semicircular canals, otolith organs (utricle and saccule), hair cells, and the vestibular nerve. 25. An experiment is being conducted to determine the Türk reflex time. What happens to the reflex time after applying salt crystals to the optic tubercles, what type of inhibition is this and who discovered it? Sechenov’s inhibition or Central inhibition - Discovered by I.M. Sechenov, while the reflex time is lengthened. 26. According to biological significance, conditioned reflexes are divided into: food, defensive, Sexual 27. The neurons involved in the exercise of the human knee reflex are localized in.... segments of the spinal cord. Lumbar spinal cord segment L2-L4 28. The centers of the parasympathetic section of the autonomic nervous system are located in: Brain Stem////Medulla oblongata in mid brain and in occipital part of the spinal cord 29. The major functions of the cerebellum are its involvement in the regulation of: Vegetative function, muscle tone, rapid movement 30. The investigated person was found to have impairment of distance estimation and distinct vision of relief. Which function is it explained by? binocular vision or depth perception 31. Semicircular receptors respond to Is angular acceleration// Changes in  head position 32. Sensory information to the inferior tubercles of the quadratochalmia comes from Auditory analyzer (organ of corti)// Semicircular canals. 33. Cortical involvement is necessary for the formation of Conditioned reflex/mind, thought, memory, storage, reception 34. Unlike the unconditioned reflex, the conditioned reflex is characterized by Non heriditory and unstable 35. In animals, when developing a reflex, several conditioned stimuli were used in a strict sequence with reinforcement by one unconditional stimulus.What reflex was developed? Complex (2 order)/ /Serial conditioned reflex. 36. In animals with a developed conditioned reflex, when a conditioned stimulus is repeatedly presented, the unconditioned stimulus is no longer used.What will happen? Post extinction inhibition 37. A guard dog stops eating when a stranger appears. What type of inhibition causes this to happen? External inhibition 38. At the level of which segment of the spinal cord closes the reflex arc of the knee reflex? L2 - L4 39. The subject is asked to kneel on a chair so that the feet hang freely. A hammer is used to make a light jerky blow on the Achilles tendon of first one and then the other leg and plantar flexion of the foot is observed. At the level of which segment of the spinal cord closes the reflex arc of this reflex? S1 - S2 segment if not present tick lumber option L2 and l4 40. The rapid fatigability of the nerve center is due to Slow depletion of mediator reverse in synapses, decrease in sensitivity of post synaptic membrane, decrease in protein, receptor and energy resources 41. Mechanism of presynaptic inhibition : persistent depolarization / Inhibition of neurotransmitter release. 42. Reflexes that ensure maintenance of animal and human body posture in space in lying, sitting and standing positions due to changes in muscle tone are static// Posotonic reflexes 43. A physiologic property of synapses is: Permeability to one side // high sensitivity to oxygen deficiency 44. The reflex arc of the ulnar reflex closes at the level of: Block C5 - C6 writing C7 – T1 45. Excitation from nerve centers leads to: Efferent fibers 46. Reflex time is the time of: from the onset of irritation to the onset of response 47. The predominance of excitation of one center over another is called: Dominannce 48. The medulla oblongata contains centers other than: sympathetic, tendon, The medulla oblongata contains vital centers for various autonomic and reflex functions, such as: 1. Respiratory center (controls breathing). 2. Cardiovascular center (regulates heart rate and blood pressure). 3. Vomiting center (controls the emetic response). 4. Swallowing and coughing centers. It does not contain: Centers for higher cognitive functions (e.g., reasoning, memory, or decision-making), which are located in the cerebral cortex. Would you like more detail about the functions of specific centers in the medulla? 49. The second neuron of the parasympathetic nervous system is located : intramural ganglia//Near the target organ. 50. What is one of the features of unconditioned reflexes? stable , fixed reflex, congential(option was like→ permenant , heriditory ,stereotypy 51. Departments of the analyzer according to I.P. Pavlov: peripheral, conductive, central (cortical) sections/// Receptor and effector. 52. The sensation of pain occurs at the level of the: Thalamus level 53. The hearing center in the cerebral cortex is localized in the: in the temporal lobes of the cerebral cortex 54. The receptor section of the vestibular analyzer is represented by: utricle,Semicircular canals ,Three semicircular ducts 55. The conducting section of the visual analyzer consists of: Optic nerve (cranial nerve Ⅱ) & optic tractsAND OPTIC CHIASMA 56. If you close your eyes and roll a pea with two neighboring uncrossed fingers, you feel one pea. If you do the same with crossed fingers, you feel two peas. What explains this phenomenon? Binocular vision 57. Why do people over the age of 50 move away from a text in order to read it? Presbyopia(OPTION WAS-> Hypermetropia with old age)  58. Instinct according to I.P. Pavlov is: +complex Unconditioned reflex 59. Traits characterizing unconditioned reflexes are strickly defined, variegated, stable ,congential(see question 50) 60. Characterization of conditioned reflexes: acquired, individual, unstable 61. A person has a wobbly gait, poor body balance, and cannot get his finger on the tip of his nose. Which part of the central nervous system is responsible for regulating these functions Cerebellum 62. An animal has a continuous feeling of hunger. In which part of the central nervous system is the center that regulates this function located? lateral part of the hypothalamus 63. Inhibitory neurons involved in postsynaptic inhibition form synapses: Axosomatic synapses 64. The mediator of postsynaptic inhibition in spinal cord motoneurons is predominantly: Gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA),, glycine 65. The muscarinic-like action (M-CP blockade) of acetylcholine can be eliminated by administration of: Atropine 66. If there is a competition of afferent impulsation for a common terminal pathway at the level of the terminal neuron, such reflexes are called: antagonistic 67. The EEG method allows: Recording electrical activity of brain 68. Which mediator is involved in the conduction of excitation at the neuromuscular synapse? Acetylcholine 69. The occurrence of the inhibitory postsynaptic potential (IPSP) is associated with: Hyperpolarization and post synaptic membrane ( influx of Cl- and efflux of K+ ions) 70. What is called accommodation of the eye? Ability to change len's shape 71. Conduction of excitation in the fleshy nerve fibers:  saltatory (jump-like)// Is slower than in myelinated fibers  72. Hydrolytic cleavage of norepinephrine in synapses occurs by the action of: Monoamine oxidase (MAO), catechol-o-methyltransferase 73. The speech zone for healthy young adults is within the frequencies (in Hz): 200 – 6000 Hz 74. The occurrence of the excitatory postsynaptic potential (EPSP) is associated with: Depolarization (increase influx of Na+ ions) 75. The mediator of presynaptic inhibition in spinal cord neurons is predominantly: GABA 76. In which surgery does decerebration rigidity develop: Brainstem Surgery//: between the red nucleus and Deiters' nucleus 77. The inhibition that provides alternate contraction and relaxation of flexor and extensor muscles (antagonist muscles) is called: Reciprocal inhibition 78. How is the facilitating effect of the cerebellum on the activation of antagonistic muscles manifested? rapid development and completion of the act A-alpha fibers (according to Erlanger-Gasser): Mediate motor impulses to muscle spindles 79. A-beta fibers (according to Erlanger-Gasser): Mediate touch and pressure sensations 80. A-gamma fibers (according to Erlanger-Gasser): Mediate motor impulses to muscle spindles 81. Type B fibers (according to Erlanger-Gasser): Mediate pain sensations//afferent impulses from touch receptors 82. Type C fibers (according to Erlanger-Gasser): pain, temperature, and some autonomic functions 83. Postural-tonic reflexes //Late-tonic reflexes of the medulla oblongata include: rimarily responsible for maintaining posture and balance. 84. Straightening reflexes of the medulla oblongata include: Reflex that maintain posture and balance.  85. Acetylcholine exerts excitation on skeletal muscle due to: Depolarization/ ***Opening of sodium (Na + )channels 86. Inhibitors of NA and adrenaline: Alpha and beta blockers// Propranolol// Catechol-O-methyltransferase (COMT) 87. Microelectrode method of CNS research, allows: Neuronal recording of electrical activity.// allows for the precise measurement and recording of electrical activity from individual neurons or small groups of neurons. 88. The method of evoked potentials research of the CNS, allows: Recording electrical activity in response to Specific stimuli// 89. What reflexes are called static? Postural reflex// Tonic reflexes 90. What reflexes are called statokinetic reflexes? Option was-> Maintaining muscle tone while walking 91. Role of Ca++ ions in synaptic transmission: Neurotransmitter release 92. Role of acetylcholine in synaptic transmission: Excitation of postsynaptic receptors// Na⁺ in and K⁺ out, 93. Role of glycine in synaptic transmission: Inhibitory neurotransmitter// open chloride (Cl⁻) channel 94. Role of gamma aminobutyric acid (GABA) in synaptic transmission: Inhibits postsynaptic receptors,// +presynaptic permeability of the membrane to Ca++ (Cl -) ions in interaction with my receptors increases, permanent depolarization occurs according to the type of cathodic depression; 95. Specify the location and effects of alpha-2-AR: Present in the central nervous system, inhibiting norepinephrine release// adrenergic synapse in the presynaptic membrane - inhibition; 96. Specify the location and effects of beta-1-AR: Option-->>Myocardium exitation 97. Specify the locations and effects of beta-2-AR: Located on smooth muscle, causing bronchodilation and vasodilation 98. The law of bilateral conduction of excitation in nerve trunks is caused by: absence of blockage, tension and coolin The law of physiological integrity of the nerve in the conduction of excitation in nerve trunks is provmonoamines Specify mediators that belong to the group of monoamines: Myelination of nerve fibers//Signal transmitting and membrane integrity// 99. Specify mediators that belong to the group of monoamines: Serotonin, Dopamine ,Norepinephrine 100. Specify the mediators that belong to the amino acid group: Glutamate, GABA. Gilyene 101. Specify the mediators that belong to the neuropeptide group: Most likely: Substance P substance P, +endorphin, enkephalin, neurotensin, substance P, vasopressin, 102. Specify the location and blockers of M - choline receptors in central cholinergic synapses, postganglionic parasympathetic at the ends of fibers - atropine.// Change in pupil width regulates: Light entry & visual acuity.// retina illumination 103. Changes in the tone of the ciliary muscle ensure Accomodation// Focusing on near objects 104. Under conditions of darkness, there is pupil dilation //Stimulation of rhodopsin production in the retina 105. The adaptation-trophic action of the sympathetic nervous system is mediated through: Norepinephrine release & adrenergic receptors activation 106. At what level does the metasympathetic section of the autonomic nervous system regulate organ function? Organic 107. What is the dominant effect of sympatho-adrenal system activation? Ergotropic// Increased heart rate and contractility EXPLAINATION:The ergotropic effect is characterized by: o Increased heart rate and blood pressure ▪ Increased metabolic activity, ▪ This prepares the body for fight or flight, increasing physical and metabolic readiness.) 108. What receptors are located on the effector cells of the parasympathetic nervous system? Muscarinic(M-cholinergic) receptors 109. Increased permeability to which ion promotes mediator efflux from the presynaptic cleft: Ca2+ 110. Specify types of summation of excitation in CNS centers: Spatial & temporal summation 111. What synapses do Renshaw cells form during postsynaptic inhibition: Axosomatic Synapses: 112. Inhbition neurons with spinal cord motoneurons form the mechanism of postsynaptic inhibition, specify its mediator: GABA , glycine 113. Ionic mechanisms of postsynaptic inhibition: Hyperpolarization of postsynaptic membrane// permeability to +K+ and Cl¯ - ions increases 114. What is the adaptive function of the eye:  Adjust to change in light intensity 115. How excitation is conducted along afferent nerve fibers: from receptors (periphery) to the brain 120.. How excitation is conducted along efferent nerve fibers from the nerve center to the working organ (or periphery); 121. Ionic mechanisms in the transmission of excitation at synapses: Influx of Na+ lons into. Post synaptic membrane 122. How excitation is conducted along the unmyelinated nerve fibers: Continuous conduction through unmyelmated/ 123. In the synaptic cleft, which is about 10 to 50 nm wide, acetylcholine is hydrolyzed by the action of: Acetylcholinesterase 124. Specify the site of dissection to obtain increased tone of the extensor muscles in the experiment: between the red nucleus and Deuter's nucleus;// Below the spinal cord lesion 125. What is the influence of the cerebellum on the operation of the antagonist muscles: Facilitates coordinated movement by adjusting muscle tone 126. The processes of consolidation and transfer of information into long-term memory occur with the participation of the Hippocampus