Term 2 Final Study Guide (All Tests) PDF

Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests Test 1: Circulatory System: Unit 1 1. Formed elements are: Answer -Blood cells and platelets 2. Word segment that means “blood”: Answer- Hemo 3. Accumulation of plaque in a blood vessel: Answer- Atherosclerosis 4. Sudden ballooning of blood vessels...

Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests Test 1: Circulatory System: Unit 1 1. Formed elements are: Answer -Blood cells and platelets 2. Word segment that means “blood”: Answer- Hemo 3. Accumulation of plaque in a blood vessel: Answer- Atherosclerosis 4. Sudden ballooning of blood vessels due to weakness in its wall: Answer- Aneurysm 5. A moving blood clot: Answer- Embolus 6. Average life span of a red blood cell: Answer- 120 days 7. Enzyme that breaks down blood clots: Answer- Plasmin 8. Heart attack is also known as: Answer- Myocardial Infarction 9. In centrifuged blood, the top layer contains: Answer- Plasma 10. Main oxygen carrying molecules in blood: Answer- Hemoglobin 11. Function of blood: Answer- Transports nutrients and waste 12. The biconcave cells in blood that lack nuclei when they mature are the: Answer- Red blood cells 13. Red blood cell: Answer- Erythrocyte Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 14. Genetically based anemia that involves mutant hemoglobin and abnormally shaped red blood cells: Answer- Sickle cell 15. White blood cell that is an agranulocyte: Answer- T-Lymphocyte 16. White blood cell that is the most abundant usually the first to respond to an infection: Answer- Neutrophil 17. White blood cell that releases histamine and heparin to promote inflammation: Answer- Basophil 18. Part of blood plasma: Answer- Fibrinogen 19. Plasma protein mainly involved with the blood clotting process, albumin or hemoglobin: Answer- None of the above 20. Type AB+ blood has which antibodies in its plasma, A, B, or D: Answer- None of the above 21. Type O+ blood has which antigens on its red blood cell surface, A or B: Answer- Neither A or B 22. Universal donor blood: Answer- O- 23. Abnormal heart sound: Answer- Murmur Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 24. Deepest pericardial layer: Answer- Visceral pericardium 25. Layer of the heart wall that is the thickest and contains cardiac muscle cells: Answer- Myocardium 26. Last to fire in the cardiac conduction system: Answer-Purkinje fibers 27. Not a blood vessel connected to the right atrium: Answer- Aorta 28. Blood in the coronary sinus empties into the: Answer- Right atrium 29. In the normal sequence of blood flow, after crossing the tricuspid valve, blood should next enter the _____ next: Answer- Right ventricle 30. In the normal sequence of blood flow, oxygenated blood returning from the lungs via pulmonary veins must enter the _____ next: Answer- Left atrium 31. The left AV valve is also known as the ____ valve: Answer- Bicuspid 32. Enzyme that converts fibrinogen to fibrin during the clotting process: Answer- Thrombin 33. Type of vessel mainly involved with nutrient, gas, and waste exchange between blood and interstitial fluid: Answer- Capillary Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 34. If atrial pressure is greater than ventricular pressure, blood should: Answer- Flow into the ventricles and ventricular volume should increase. 35. The first 2/3 of ventricular diastole is a passive filling phase during which about 70% of the blood entering the ventricles does so before the atria can contract. This is followed by the last 1/3 of ventricular diastole during which: Answer- Atria contract sending in the final 30% of blood volume to the ventricles (atrial kick). 36. As a platelet plug forms, platelets release: Answer: Serotonin 37. Erythroblastosis Fetalis may occur in: Answer- A 2nd RH+ fetus developing in an RH- woman 38. An abnormally slowed heart rate is termed: Answer- Bradycardia 39. Blood flow to the right side of the heart muscle decreases due to constriction of the _____, and decreased blood flow to the heart tissue can result in _____ : Answer- Right coronary artery; Ischemia 40. Circulation is vital because it: Answer- Supplies oxygen and nutrients to and removes wastes from tissues. Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 41. The inner lining of the heart is the: Answer- Endocardium 42. The normal pacemaker of the heart is the: Answer- Sinoatrial Node / SA Node 43. The pulmonary circuit send: Answer- Sends oxygen-poor blood to the lungs 44. The right atrium receives blood directly from: Answer- The superior and inferior vena cava and coronary sinus 45. The systemic circuit sends: Answer- Sends oxygen-rich blood to the tissues 46. Which of the following correctly matches the valve to its function? Answer- Mitral Valve: permits one-way blood flow from the left atrium to the left ventricle 47. Which of the following helps return blood to the heart: Answer- Contracting skeletal muscles 48. Which of the following is NOT a branch of the aorta? Answer- Pulmonary artery Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 49. Which of the following is the correct sequence of parts through which blood moves from the vena cava to the lungs? Answer- Right atrium, Tricuspid valve, Right ventricle, Pulmonary valve 50. When a person’s pulse is taken by palpation near the thumb or wrist, which artery is felt? Answer- Radial artery Test 2: Unit 2 Lymphatic & Digestive System 1. Word segment that means “Fluid” : Answer: Humor 2. To join the cardiovascular system, lymph enters directly into the ___ veins. Answer: Subclavian 3. Long term immunity is mainly a function of ____ lymphocytes. Answer: Memory 4. Humoral immunity is mainly a function of antibody producing cells called: Answer: B-Lymphocytes (B-Cells) 5. Resembles a super large lymph node and filters out old erythrocytes from the circulation. Answer: Spleen Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 6. Lymph vessels are known to contain_____ just like veins in the cardiovascular system. Answer: Valves 7. IgG passing from mother to fetus. Answer: Naturally acquired passive immunity 8. A non-disease-causing agent that stimulates a response. Answer: Allergen 9. Autoimmune disease where antibodies attack insulin producing pancreatic cells. Answer: Diabetes Type I 10. Word segment that means “gatekeeper”. Answer: Pylor 11. Digestive organ that is also part of the respiratory system. Answer: Mouth 12. Word segment that means “juice”. Answer: Chym 13. Word segment that means “food”. Answer: Aliment 14. The alimentary canal extends in its entirety from: Answer: The mouth to the anus. 15. The digestive system. Answer: Ingests food, propels food, mechanically and chemically breaks down food, absorbs nutrients and defecates the remainder. Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 16. Major function of lips. Answer: To keep food in your face. 17. NOT a major function of saliva. Answer: Sterilize food to prevent GI tract infections. 18. The parotid glands are: Answer: The largest salivary glands 19. Innermost part of the tooth that is highly vascularized and innervated. Answer: Pulp cavity 20. The uvula is: Answer: A projection of the soft palate. 21. As we swallow the ____ closes off the opening to the ____. Answer: Soft palate; nasal cavity 22. The epiglottis attached to the. Answer: Larynx 23. Major function of the liver. Answer: Make bile and process nutrients 24. Pepsinogen is secreted by. Answer: Chief cells 25. Intrinsic factor is secreted by. Answer: Parietal Cells 26. Makes bile, processes recently absorbed nutrients , and detoxifies certain substances. Answer: Liver 27. Stores bile until needed. Answer: Gallbladder Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 28. Mechanical digestion of food begins in the. Answer: Mouth 29. Chemical digestion of carbohydrates and lipids begins in the. Answer: Mouth 30. Organ where most nutrient absorption occurs. Answer: Small intestine 31. Hormone that increases bicarbonate secretion from the pancreas. Answer: Secretin 32. Hormone that increases digestive enzyme secretion from the pancreas and gallbladder contraction. Answer: CCK 33. Sphincter located between the stomach and small intestine. Answer: Pyloric 34. Large intestine mainly absorbs ____ in order to compact more solid feces. Answer: Water 35. Main type of movement that cause food to travel from the start of the small intestine to its end. Answer: Peristalsis 36. Major function of the gallbladder. Answer: Stores bile Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 37. Major function of bile. Answer: Emulsify fats for enhanced fat digestion by pancreatic and intestinal enzyme 38. Major function of the pancreas. Answer: Make bicarbonate, make digestive enzymes, make hormones. ALL OF THE ABOVE 39. Finger like projections of the small intestine that increase surface area. Answer: Villi 40. Carbohydrates are organic compounds and include sugars and starches. Answer: True 41. Vitamin D can be synthesized from exposure to UV light. Answer: True 42. Vitamin D can be obtained from your diet. Answer: True 43. Proteins are comprised of. Answer: Nucleic Acids 44. Activities of the digestive system generally increase when it is stimulated by. Answer: parasympathetic impulses 45. Gallstones are usually comprised of: Answer: Cholesterol 46. Heartburn is usually caused by the effects of gastric juice on the: Answer: Esophagus Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 47. The correct sequence for the layers in the walls of the alimentary canal from innermost to outermost is the: Answer: Mucosa, submucosa, muscular layer, serosa 48. The main part of the stomach is called the: Answer: Body 49. The major mixing movement in the small intestine is accomplished by: Answer: Segmentation 50. The parietal cells of gastric glands secrete. Answer: Hydrochlorid Acid 51. Which is not an involuntary part of the swallowing reflex? Answer: The tongue rolls chewed food into a bolus and pushes it to the oropharynx 52. Name the layers of the heart from inside out: Answer: Endocardium, myocardium, epicardium, pericardial cavity, parietal pericardium, fibrous pericardium 53. The right atrium receives blood directly from: Answer: Superior vena cava, Inferior vena cava, and coronary sinus 54. The systemic circuit. Answer: Sends oxygen RICH blood to the tissues Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests Unit 3: Test 3 Urinary System 1. Word segment meaning “little ball”. Answer: Glom 2. Word segment meaning "to force away”. Answer: Detrus 3. Word segment meaning “small cup”. Answer: Calyc 4. The organs of the urinary system are: Answer: Paired kidneys, paired ureters, a bladder and a urethra 5. Renal pyramids are located in the. Answer: Renal medulla 6. From the kidneys, urine travels to the urinary bladder via the: Answer: Ureters 7. A nephron consists of a. Answer: A renal corpuscle and a renal tubule 8. A renal corpuscle includes the. Answer: Glomerulus and glomerular capsule 9. Interlobular artery leads to afferent arteriole, which leads to glomerulus, which leads to ____. Answer: Efferent arteriole Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 10. Select the sequence that best indicates the flow of blood through the kidney beginning to end. Answer: Renal artery, arcuate arteries, cortical radiate arteries, afferent arterioles, glomerular capillaries, efferent arterioles, peritubular capillaries, cortical radiate veins, arcuate vein, renal vein 11. In the kidney, the initial filtrate is made by the. Answer: Glomerulus 12. Select the sequence that indicates the parts of a renal tubule in the correct order from the beginning to end. Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule, descending limb of nephron loop, ascending limb of nephron loop, distal convoluted tubule 13. Release renin. Answer: Juxtaglomerular cells 14. Renin catalyzes the conversion of. Answer: Angiotensinogen to Angiotensin 15. Angiotensin II causes. Answer: Increased ADH release and vasoconstriction 16. High Ang II, low sodium, or low blood pressure should stimulate increased ____ secretion. Answer: Aldosterone Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 17. Upon dehydration, receptors in the hypothalamus often trigger. Answer: Thirst 18. ADH helps retain ___ and is secreted from the ____. Answer: Water; posterior pituitary 19. Secretion of atrial natriuretic peptide. Answer: Increases sodium excretion 20. Site of most water and sodium reabsorption. Answer: Proximal convoluted tubule 21. Can decrease glomerular filtration rate (GFR). Answer: Increased vasoconstriction of the afferent arteriole 22. Filtration rate in the glomerulus is increased by. Answer: Both vasodilation of the afferent arteriole and vasoconstriction of the efferent arteriole 23. The hormone ADH promotes water reabsorption through the wall(s) of the. Answer: Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct 24. Parts of the nephron mainly affected by ADH and Aldosterone. Answer: Distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 25. Immediately after leaving the collecting duct, urine is first captured by the. Answer: Minor Calyx 26. The ____ is the tube that conveys urine outside the body. Answer: Urethra 27. The detrusor muscle is in the. Answer: Urinary bladder 28. The trigone is: Answer: A triangular area on the floor of the urinary bladder 29. A passageway for both urine and semen in males. Answer: Urethra 30. Process of releasing urine on the outside. Answer: Micturition 31. A product of metabolism of certain nucleic acid basis is. Answer: Uric Acid 32. Hemodialysis involves. Answer: An artificial kidney 33. Nocturnal Enuresis is. Answer: Bedwetting 34. The micturition reflex can be voluntarily controlled by the. Answer: Relaxation of the urethral sphincter 35. A renal clearance test determines the rate at which the kidneys can. Answer: Remove a particular substance from the blood 36. Inulin clearance measures the rate of GFR. Answer: True Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 37. Barbara has the disease gout. The inflammation and pain in her joints is due to excess ____ in her plasma, which leads to crystal deposits in her great toe joint. Answer: Uric Acid 38. Certain substances like caffeine, and citric juices are diuretics. What effect will diuretics have on the urinary system? Answer: The increase of volume of urine excreted 39. The juxtaglomerular apparatus regulates filtration rate by _____. Answer: Renin-Angiotensin II vasoconstriction both afferent and efferent arterioles Unit 4: Test 4 Reproductive System and Pregnancy and Development 1. The main process involved with gamete formation. Answer: Meiosis 2. When making sperm egg cells, the total number of chromosomes becomes. Answer: Halved 3. Word segment that means “man”. Answer: Andr 4. Word segment that means "to shoot forth”. Answer: Ejacul 5. Makes sperm. Answer: Testicles Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 6. Makes the pre-ejaculate lubricating fluid. Answer: Bulbourethral glands 7. The highly sensitive portion of the penis for sexual stimulation. Answer: Glans 8. Movement of semen into the urethra. Answer: Emission 9. Causes the appearance of most male secondary sex characteristics. Answer: Testosterone 10. Main function of alkaline secretions from prostate to seminal vesicles. Answer: Neutralize acids that interfere with sperm health 11. Main function of fructose from seminal vesicles. Answer: Provide chemical energy for sperm motility 12. A passageway for both urine and semen in males. Answer: Urethra 13. Structure inside the testis that make the semen. Answer: Seminiferous tubule 14. Secretes the pre-ejaculating fluid in males. Answer: Bulbourethral glands 15. Connects epididymis to ejaculatory duct. Answer: Vas Deferens Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 16. Pouch-like organ that stores the testis and adjusts their proximity to the body based on temperature. Answer: Scrotum 17. Testicular cells that make testosterone. Answer: Leydig cells 18. During erection the erectile tissues of the penis tend to fill with. Answer: Blood 19. Gonadotrophins. Answer: FSH and LH 20. Main function of prostaglandins from prostate to seminal vesicles. Answer: Contract female organs to help move sperm 21. Number of functional sperm cells created from one primary spermatocyte (precursor cell) during spermatogenesis. Answer: Four 22. Word segment that means “egg”. Answer: OO 23. When a sperm cell fertilizes an egg, the resulting cell is called a: Answer: Zygote 24. Organ in females that is homologous (counterpart) to the testis in males. Answer: Ovary 25. The hormone of ovulation. Answer: LH Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 26. The yellow body in the ovary that secretes estrogen and progesterone after ovulation. Answer: Corpus Luteum 27. Organ that stores the developing fetus. Answer: Uterus 28. Hollow ball of cells that implants into the uterus. Answer: Blastocyst 29. Solid ball of cells on the way to the uterus. Answer: Morula 30. A hybrid organ composed of fetal maternal tissues. Answer: Placenta 31. Amniotic fluid is useful for fetal: Answer: Protection 32. Word segment that means “navel”. Answer: Umbil 33. Word segment that means “to divide”. Answer: Cleav 34. Word segment that means “well fed”. Answer: Troph 35. Fetal circulation tends to bypass the liver and: Answer: Lungs 36. In the fetus, the ductus _____ connects the pulmonary trunk to the aorta. Answer: Arteriosus 37. If 1 egg is fertilized by 1 sperm, and the resulting cell splits to make 2 individuals, you will have: Answer: Identical twins Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 38. To fertilize an egg, enzymes in the sperm ____ help digest a tunnel through the corona radiata. Answer: Acrosome 39. The first true diploid cell of the future baby. Answer: Zygote 40. Pregnancy hormonal marker that is only made during pregnancy. Answer: hCG 41. At the end of the week ____ the embryonic stage has ended and the fetal stage has begun. Answer: 8 42. Stage when all 3 germ layers of the embryonic disc become evident. Answer: Gastrula 43. The stage of human development when the capability of sexual reproduction first appears. Answer: Adolescence 44. The longest stage of postnatal life. Answer: Adulthood 45. The postnatal period extends from. Answer: Birth to death 46. The placenta allows: Answer: Oxygen and nutrients to diffuse from maternal blood to the embryo Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 47. A blastomere is a ____ and a blastocyst is a ____. Answer: Cell produced by cleavage, a hollow ball of cells 48. A major part derived from the endoderm is. Answer: The epithelial lining of the digestive tract 49. Centenarians: Answer: People who live past 100 years 50. During the embryonic stage, the primary germ layers develop from the. Answer: Embryonic disc 51. Fertilization usually occurs in the: Answer: Uterine tubes 52. Human prenatal development take ____. Answer: 38 weeks 53. The term newborn refers to the period from birth through ____, whereas the term infant refers to the period from____. Answer: The first 4 weeks; the first month to 1 year 54. Which of the following is a function of hCG? Answer: It helps the blastocyst against being rejected 55. A circumcision removes: Answer: The prepuce 56. A mammary gland contains ___ lobes. Answer: 15 to 20 Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 57. Semen: Answer: Includes prostaglandins and nutrients 58. The female structure that corresponds to the male penis is the: Answer: Clitoris Unit 4: Genetics Quiz 1. Genetics is the study of: Answer: Inheritance of characteristics 2. Word segment that means "same": Answer: Homo 3. Word segment that means "other": Answer: Hetero 4. Variations of a gene: Answer: Alleles 5. Short segment of DNA that encodes the information to make a specific protein: Answer: Gene 6. The complete set of genes for an organism: Answer: Genome 7. Segment of DNA that codes for a protein: Answer: Gene 8. If 1 egg is fertilized by 1 sperm, and the resulting cell splits to make 2 individuals, you will have: Answer: Identical twins 9. Missing or gaining an extra chromosome (e.g. trisomy 21) is known as: Answer: Aneuploidy Term 2 Final Study Guide With All Tests 10. A human cell that has 47 chromosomes is: Answer: Trisomic 11. A human cell with 46 chromosomes is: Answer: Euploid 12. A karyotype is: Answer: A size-ordered chart of chromosomes 13. Down syndrome is caused by: Answer: Nondisjunction or a translocation 14. XX is a female genotype, _____ is another female genotype. Answer: XO 15. During amniocentesis: Answer: Fetal fibroblasts in amniotic fluid are cultured and a karyotype constructed. 16. In the Punnett square below, the parents are heterozygous for the gene that determines ear size, where "A" = dominant allele for big ears and "a" = recessive allele for small ears. Assuming simple dominance, what percentage of their children will have big ears? Answer: 75% 17. Assume simple dominance. Furthermore, assume that dominant allele "S" is for smooth skin, and recessive allele "s" is for bumpy skin. If parents with Ss and SS genotypes were to mate, what percent of their offspring will have smooth skin? Answer: 100%