UPSC CDS-I 2025 Exam Notice PDF

EXAMINATION NOTICE NO. 04/2025.CDS-I DATED 11.12.2024 (Last Date for Submission of Applications: 31.12.2024) COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION (I), 2025 [INCLUDING SSC WOMEN (NON-TECHNICAL) COURSE] (Commission’s Website http://upsc.gov.in) IMPORTANT 1. CANDIDATES TO ENSURE THEIR ELIGIBILITY FOR THE EXAMINATION: The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the Examination. Their admission at all the stages of the examination will be purely provisional subject to satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. Mere issue of Admission Certificate to the candidate will not imply that his candidature has been finally cleared by the Commission. Verification of eligibility conditions with reference to original documents will be taken up only after the candidate has qualified for interview/Personality Test. 2. HOW TO APPLY Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.gov.in. A candidate who is willing to apply for Combined Defence Services Examination shall be required to apply on-line and submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth, educational qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission alongwith the Registration and Online Application Form. For detailed instructions for filling up the form, the Notice for Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2025 may be referred. The failure to provide the required information/documents alongwith the Online Application Form or within the correction-window, if any, provided by the Commission will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination. Registration has to be done only once in life time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the examination. 2.1 Modification in Registration Profile: In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her Registration profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at Registration platform. The option to change in Registration profile data shall be available till expiry of 7 days from the next day after the closure of application window of his/her first final application for any Examination of the Commission. In case, the candidate after registration applies for the first time in this examination; last date of modification of Registration would be 07.01.2025. 2.2 Modification in application form (Other than Registration Profile): The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form for this examination from next day of the closure of the application window of this Examination. This window will remain open for 7 days from the date of opening of the same i.e. from 01.01.2025 to 07.01.2025. In case a candidate wants to carry 1 out any change in his/her Registration profile during this period, then he/she should login to the Registration platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no change in the Registration profile can be made by visiting the window for Modification in application form. 2.3 The candidate will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of the same. 2.4 Candidate should have details of one Photo ID Card viz. Aadhaar Card/Voter Card/PAN Card/Passport/Driving Licence/Any other Photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this Photo ID Card will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the Registration and online application form. The candidates will have to upload a scanned copy of the Photo ID whose details have been provided in the Registration and online application by him/her. This Photo ID Card will be used for all future reference and the candidate is advised to carry this Photo ID Card while appearing for Examination/Personality Test/SSB. Brief instructions for filling up the online Application Form have been given in the Appendix-II. Detailed instructions are available on the above mentioned website. 3. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION APPLICATIONS: The Online Applications can be filled 31st December, 2024 till 6:00 PM. The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card on the last working day of the preceding week of the date of examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available on the UPSC website (http://upsc.gov.in) for downloading by candidates. No e- Admit Card will be sent by post. All the applicants are required to provide valid & active e-mail id while filling up online application form as the Commission may use electronic mode for contacting them. 4. PENALITY FOR WRONG ANSWERS: Candidates should note that there will be penalty (Negative Marking) for wrong answers marked by a candidate in the Objective Type Question Papers. 5. Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep) The Commission has introduced a time frame of 7 days (a week) i.e. from the next day of the Examination Date to 6.00 p.m. of the 7th day is fixed for the candidates to make representations to the Commission on the questions asked in the Papers of the Examination. Such representation must be submitted through the “Online Question Paper Representation Portal (QPRep)” only by accessing the URL http://upsconline/gov/in/miscellaneous/QPRep/. No representation by email/post/hand or by any other mode shall be accepted and the Commission shall not involve into any correspondence with the candidates in this regard. No representation shall be accepted under any circumstances after this window of 7 days is over. 6. For both writing and marking answers in the OMR sheet (Answer Sheet) candidates must use black ball pen only Pens with any other colour are prohibited. Do not use Pencil or Ink pen. Candidates should note that any omission/mistake/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. Candidates are further advised to read carefully the “Special Instructions” contained in Appendix-III of the Notice. 7. FACILITATION COUNTER FOR GUIDANCE OF CANDIDATES: In case of any guidance/information/clarification regarding their application, candidature etc. candidates can contact UPSC’s Facilitation Counter near Gate ‘C’ of its campus in person or over Telephone No.011-23385271/011-23381125/011-23098543 on working days between 10:00 hrs. to 17:00 hrs. 2 8. MOBILE PHONES BANNED: (a)The use of any mobile phone (even in switched off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or blue tooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories either in working or switched off mode capable of being used as a communication device during the examination is strictly prohibited. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations. (b) Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned item including mobile phones or any valuable/costly items to the venue of the examination, as no arrangement for safe-keeping will be made at the venue of the examination. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard. 9. Instruction in respect of uploading of Photograph while filling up online application form:- (a) The photograph, uploaded by candidate should not be more than 10 days old from the start of the online application process (i.e. the application commencement date). (b) Ensure that the name of candidate and the date on which the photograph was taken are clearly mentioned on the photograph. (c) The candidate’s face should occupy 3/4th of the space in the photograph. (d) The candidates must ensure that their appearance must match with their photograph at the time of Written Examination. For instance, if a candidate uploads a bearded photograph, he must appear with the same look in the Written Examination. Same would be the case with spectacles, moustaches, etc. 10. The candidates should reach the venue of the Examination well in time at least 30 minutes prior to the commencement of each session of the Examination. No late entry will be allowed inside the Exam-venue under any circumstances. CANDIDATES ARE REQUIRED TO APPLY ONLINE AT http://upsconline.gov.in ONLY. NO OTHER MODE IS ALLOWED FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATION. GOVERNMENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY. 3 No.F. 08/02/2024 -E.I(B)—Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2025 will be conducted by the Union Public Service Commission on 13th April, 2025 for admission to the under mentioned courses :— S. Approximate No. of Name of the Course No. Vacancies Indian Military Academy, Dehradun - 160th (DE) Course commencing in January 2026 [including 13 1. 100 vacancies reserved for NCC `C’ Certificate (Army Wing) holders] Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala - Course commencing in January, 2026 Executive Branch 2. 32 (General Service)/Hydro [including 06 vacancies for NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Naval Wing) holders] Air Force Academy, Hyderabad - (Pre-Flying) Training Course commencing in January, 2026 i.e. No. 3. 219 F(P) Course. [including 03 vacancies reserved for 32 NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Air Wing) holders through NCC Special Entry] Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) 4. 123rd SSC (Men) (NT) (UPSC) Course Commencing 275 in April, 2026. Officers Training Academy, Chennai (Madras) 5. 37th SSC Women (NT) (UPSC) Course commencing 18 in April, 2026. Total 457 NOTE (i) : The Indian Army publishes vacancies for Men and Women separately for various entries keeping into account the operational and administrative needs of the Force as envisaged in the existing and future scenarios. Though the vacancies for Men and Women categories for SSC(NT) Courses are being notified through a common Notification, the selection for both these categories are done in a gender pure manner wherein Men & Women are tested separately. The preparation of final merit lists for both these categories are also done separately and in a gender pure manner. NOTE (ii) : The date of holding the examination as mentioned above is liable to be changed at the discretion of the Commission. NOTE (iii) : The number of vacancies given above is tentative and may be changed at any stage by Services H. Q. N.B. (I) (a) : A candidate is required to specify clearly in respective column of the Online Application the Services for which he/she wishes to be considered in the order of his/her preference. A male candidate is advised to indicate as many preferences as he wishes to, subject to the condition given at paras (b) and (c) below, so that having regard to his rank in the order of merit due consideration can be given to his preferences when making appointment. Since women candidates are eligible for OTA only, they should give OTA as their first and only preference. (b) (i) : If a male candidate is competing for Short Service Commission (Army) only, he should indicate OTA as the one and only choice. However, a male candidate competing for Short Service Commission Course at OTA as well as Permanent Commission course at IMA, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy should indicate OTA as his last preference; otherwise OTA will be deemed to be the last choice even if it is given a higher preference by the candidate. 4 (b) (ii) : Women candidates are being considered only for Short Service Commission at OTA. They should indicate OTA as the only choice. (c) Candidates who desire to join Air Force Academy must indicate AFA as first choice, as they have to be administered Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or and AF Medicals at Central Establishment/Institute of Aviation Medicines. Choice exercised for AFA as second/third etc. will be treated as invalid. (d) Candidates should note that, except as provided in N.B. (II) below, they will be considered for appointment to those courses only for which they exercise their preference and for no other course(s). (e) No request for addition/alteration in the preferences already indicated by a candidate in his/her application will be entertained by the Commission. Nonetheless, the Commission has decided to extend the facility of making correction(s) in any field(s), of the application form for this examination after 7 days of the closure of the application window of this Examination. This window will remain open for 7 days from the date of opening of the same i.e. from 01.01.2025 to 07.01.2025. In case a candidate wants to carry out any change in his/her Registration profile during this period, then he/she should log into the Registration platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no change in the Registration profile can be made by visiting the window for Modification in application form. Thereafter, no change of choice will be allowed. Second choice will come for consideration only when the first choice is not offered to the candidate by Services HQ. When first choice is offered and a candidate declines the same, his/her candidature will be cancelled for all other choices for regular Commission. N.B. (II) All Left over Finally Qualified candidates of IMA/INA/AFA courses who could not be inducted for the said course due to the lack of vacancies, will be considered for SSC(NT), even if they have not indicated their choice for this course, subject to the following conditions:- i) Vacancies are available after issuing the Joining Letters to those candidates who had applied and qualified for SSC(NT) ii) Left over finally qualified candidates are willing to join SSC(NT) iii) Such left over finally qualified and willing candidates will be placed in order of merit after the last candidate who had opted SSC(NT), subject to number of vacancies available for SSC(NT). Accordingly, such Left over candidates will be issued Joining Letter in order of merit. NOTE 1: NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders may also compete for the vacancies in the Short Service Commission Course but since there is no reservation of vacancies for them in this course, they will be treated as general candidates for the purpose of filling up vacancies in this course. Candidates who have yet to pass NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination, but are otherwise eligible to compete for the reserved vacancies, may also apply but they will be required to submit the proof of passing the NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) examination to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army) / Dte Gen of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry for SSC male candidates and SSC women entry for female candidates West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of MOD (Navy) DMPR, (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110 011 in case of Navy first choice candidates and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by 13th November, 2025. To be eligible to compete for reserved vacancies the candidates should have served for not less than 3 academic years in the Senior Division Army Wing Air Wing/Naval Wing of National Cadet Corps and should not have been discharged from the NCC for more than 24 months for IMA/Indian Naval Academy/Air Force Academy courses on the last date of receipt of Application in the Commission’s Office. NOTE 2 : In the event of sufficient number of qualified NCC ‘C’ Certificate (Army Wing (Senior Division)/ Air Wing/Naval Wing) holders not becoming available on the results of the examination to fill all the vacancies reserved for them in the Indian Military Academy Course/Air Force Academy Course/Indian Naval Academy Course, the unfilled reserved vacancies shall be treated as unreserved and filled by general candidates. Admission to the above courses will be made on the results of the 5 written examination to be conducted by the Commission followed by intelligence and personality test by the Services Selection Board of candidates who qualify in the written examination. The details regarding the (a) scheme, standard, syllabus of the examination, (b) Instructions to candidates for filling up the Online Application Form (c) Special instructions to candidates to objective type tests (d) Guidelines with regard to physical standards for admission to the Academy and (e) Brief particulars of services etc. for candidates joining the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy are given in Appendices I, II, III, IV and V respectively. 2. CENTRES OF EXAMINATION: The Examination will be held at the following Centres: AGARTALA GHAZIABAD NAVI MUMBAI AGRA GORAKHPUR PANAJI (GOA) AJMER GURGAON PATNA AHMEDABAD GWALIOR PORT BLAIR PRAYAGRAJ AIZAWL HYDERABAD (ALLAHABAD) ALIGARH IMPHAL PUDUCHERRY ALMORA (UTTARAKHAND) INDORE PUNE ANANTPUR (ANDHRA PRADESH) ITANAGAR RAIPUR CHHATRAPATI SAMBHAJINAGAR JABALPUR RAJKOT [AURANGABAD (MAHARASHTRA)] BENGALURU JAIPUR RANCHI BAREILLY JAMMU SAMBALPUR BHOPAL JODHPUR SHILLONG BILASPUR (CHHATISGARH) JORHAT SHIMLA CHANDIGARH KARGIL SILIGUDI CHENNAI KOCHI SRINAGAR SRINAGAR COIMBATORE KOHIMA (UTTARAKHAND) CUTTACK KOLKATA THANE DEHRADUN KOZHIKODE (CALICUT) THIRUVANANTHAPURAM DELHI LEH TIRUCHIRAPALLI DHARAMSHALA LUCKNOW TIRUPATI DHARWAD LUDHIANA UDAIPUR DISPUR MADURAI VARANASI FARIDABAD MANDI VELLORE GANGTOK MUMBAI VIJAYAVADA GAYA MYSORE VISHAKHAPATNAM HANUMAKONDA GAUTAM BUDDH NAGAR NAGPUR (WARANGAL URBAN) Applicants should note that there will be a ceiling on the number of candidates allotted to each of the centres except Chennai, Dispur, Kolkata and Nagpur. Allotment of Centres will be on the first-apply- first-allot basis and once the capacity of a particular centre is attained, the same will be frozen. Applicants, who cannot get a centre of their choice due to ceiling, will be required to choose a Centre from the remaining ones. Applicants are, thus, advised that they may apply early so that they could get a Centre of their choice. NB : Notwithstanding the aforesaid provision, Commission reserve the right to change the Centres at their discretion if the situation demands. 6 Candidates admitted to the examination will be informed of the time table and place or places of examination. Candidates should note that no request for change of centre will be granted. NOTE : While filling in his/her online Application form, the candidates should carefully decide about his/her choice for the centre for the examination. If any candidate appears at a Centre/Paper other than the one indicated by the Commission in his/her Admission Certificate, the papers of such a candidate will not be valued and his/her candidature will be liable to cancellation. 3. CONDITIONS OF ELIGIBILITY: (a) Nationality: A candidate must be unmarried and must either be: (i) a Citizen of India, or (ii) a subject of Nepal, or (iii) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka and East African Countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania, Zambia, Malawi, Zaire and Ethiopia or Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (ii) and (iii) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. Certificate of eligibility will, however, not be necessary in the case of candidates who are Gorkha subjects of Nepal. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary, may be admitted to the examination provisionally subject to the necessary certificate being given to him/her by the Govt. before declaration of result by UPSC. (b) Age Limits, Sex and Marital Status : (i) For IMA—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January, 2002 and not later than 1st January 2007 only are eligible. (ii) For Indian Naval Academy—Unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January 2002 and not later than 1st January 2007 only are eligible. (iii) For Air Force Academy— Age: 20 to 24 years as on 1st January 2026 i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January 2002 and not later than 1st January 2006 (Upper age limit for candidates holding valid and current Commercial Pilot Licence issued by DGCA (India) is relaxable upto 26 yrs. i.e. born not earlier than 2nd January 2000 and not later than 1st January 2006 only are eligible. Note: Candidate below 25 years of age must be unmarried. Marriage is not permitted during training. Married candidates above 25 years of age are eligible to apply but during training period they will neither be provided married accommodation nor can they live with family out of the premises. (iv) For Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Course for men) unmarried male candidates born not earlier than 2nd January 2001 and not later than 1st January, 2007 only are eligible. (v) For Officers' Training Academy—(SSC Women Non-Technical Course) Unmarried women, issueless widows who have not remarried and issueless divorcees (in possession of divorce documents) who have not remarried are eligible. They should have been born not earlier than 2nd January, 2001 and not later than 1st January, 2007. 7 NOTE : Male divorcee/widower candidates cannot be treated as unmarried male for the purpose of their admission in IMA/INA/AFA/OTA, Chennai courses and accordingly they are not eligible for these courses. The date of birth accepted by the Commission is that entered in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or in a certificate recognised by an Indian University as equivalent to Matriculation or in an extract from a Register of Matriculates maintained by a University, which extract must be certified by the proper authority of the University or in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination or an equivalent examination certificate. These certificates are required to be submitted only after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination. No other document relating to age like horoscopes, affidavits, birth extracts from Municipal Corporation, service records and the like will be accepted. The expression Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate in this part of the instruction includes the alternative certificates mentioned above. Sometimes the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate does not show the date of birth, or only shows the age by completed years or completed years and months. In such cases a candidate must send in addition to the self attested/certified copy of Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate a self attested/certified copy of a certificate from the Headmaster/Principal of the Institution from where he/she passed the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination showing the date of his/her birth or exact age as recorded in the Admission Register of the Institution. NOTE 1 : Candidates should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate on the date of submission of applications will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered or granted. NOTE 2 : Candidates should also note that once a Date of Birth has been claimed by them and entered in the records of the Commission for the purpose of admission to an Examination, no change will be allowed subsequently or at a subsequent examination on any ground whatsoever. All communication in this regard should contain the following particulars:- 1. NAME AND YEAR OF THE EXAMINATION. 2. REGISTRATION I.D. (RID.). 3. ROLL NUMNBER (IF RECEIVED) 4. NAME OF CANDIDATE (IN FULL AND IN BLOCK LETTERS). 5. COMPLETE POSTAL ADDRESS AS GIVEN IN THE APPLICATION. 6. VALID AND ACTIVCE EMAIL ID. NOTE 3 : The candidates should exercise due care while entering their date of birth. If on verification at any subsequent stage any variation is found in their date of birth from the one entered in their Matriculation or equivalent examination certificate, disciplinary action will be taken against them by the Commission under the Rules. (c) Educational Qualifications: (i) For I.M.A. and Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai — Degree of a recognised University or equivalent. (ii) For Indian Naval Academy— Degree in Engineering from a recognised University/Institution (iii) For Air Force Academy—Degree of a recognised University (with Physics and Mathematics at 10+2 level) or Bachelor of Engineering. Graduates with first choice as Army/Navy/Air Force are to submit proof of Graduation/provisional certificates on the date of commencement of the SSB Interview at the SSB. 8 Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester Degree course and have yet to pass the final year degree examination can also apply provided candidate should not have any present backlog upto the last semester / year for which results have been declared upto the time of submission of application and they will be required to submit proof of passing the degree examination at the time of commencement of course to reach the IHQ of MoD (Army), Rtg ‘A’, CDSE Entry, West Block III, R. K. Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and Naval HQ “DMPR” (OI & R Section), Room No. 204, ‘C’ Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates by the following dates failing which their candidature will stand cancelled: (i) For admission to IMA on or before 1st January 2026, Indian Naval Academy on or before 1st January 2026 and Air Force Academy on or before 13th November 2025. (ii) For admission to Officers' Training Academy, Chennai on or before 1st April 2026. Candidates possessing professional and technical qualifications which are recognised by government as equivalent to professional and technical degrees would also be eligible for admission to the examination. In exceptional cases the Commission may treat a candidate, who does not possess any of the qualifications prescribed in this rule as educationally qualified provided that he/she possesses qualifications, the standard of which in the opinion of the Commission, justifies his/her admission to the examination. NOTE I : Candidates, who have yet to pass their degree examination will be eligible only if they are studying in the final year of degree examination. Those candidates who have yet to qualify in the final year Degree Examination and are allowed to appear in the UPSC Examination should note that this is only a special concession given to them. They are required to submit proof of passing the Degree Examination by the prescribed date and no request for extending this date will be entertained on the grounds of late conduct of basic qualifying University Examination, delay in declaration of results or any other ground whatsoever. Candidates who are studying in the final year/semester degree course are required to submit at the time of SSB interview a bonafide certificate issued by University/College stating that they will be able to submit their proof of passing the graduation degree examination by the specified date, failing which their candidature will be cancelled. NOTE II : Candidates who are debarred by the Ministry of Defence from holding any type of commission in the Defence Services shall not be eligible for admission to the examination and if admitted, their candidature will be cancelled. NOTE III : In the event of Air Force candidates being suspended from Flying training for failure to learn flying, they would be absorbed in the Navigation/Ground Duty (Non Tech) Branches of the IAF. This will be subject to availability of vacancies and fulfilling the laid down qualitative requirements. (d) Physical Standards: Candidates must be physically fit according to physical standards for admission to Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2025 as per guidelines given in Appendix-IV. 4. FEE : Candidates (excepting Female/SC/ST candidates who are exempted from payment of fee) are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees Two Hundred Only) either by remitting the money in any Branch of SBI by cash, or by using Visa/Master/Rupay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using internet banking facility of any Bank. 9 NOTE 1: Applicants who opt for "Pay by Cash" mode should print the system generated Pay in- slip during Part-II registration and deposit the fee at the counter of SBI Branch on the next working day only. "Pay by Cash" mode option will be deactivated at 11:59 PM of 30.12.2024 i.e. one day before the closing date. However, applicants who have generated their Pay-in slip before it is de- activated may pay at the counter of SBI Branch during banking hours on the closing date. Such applicants who are unable to pay by cash on the closing date i.e. during banking hours at SBI Branch, for reason whatsoever, even if holding a valid Pay-in-Slip will have no other offline option but to opt for online Debit/Credit Card/UPI Payment or internet Banking Payment mode on the closing date i.e. till 6:00 PM of 31.12.2024. NOTE 2 : Candidates should note that payment of examination fee can be made only through the modes prescribed above. Payment of fee through any other mode is neither valid nor acceptable. Applications submitted without the prescribed fee/mode (unless remission of fee is claimed) shall be summarily rejected. NOTE 3 : Fee once paid shall not be refunded under any circumstances nor can the fee be held in reserve for any other examination or selection. NOTE 4 : For the applicants in whose case payments details have not been received from the bank, they will be treated as fictitious payment cases and their applications will be rejected in the first instance. A list of all such applicants shall be made available on the Commission website within two weeks after the last day of submission of online application. The applicants shall be required to submit the proof of their fee payment within 10 days from the date of such communication either by hand or by speed post to the Commission. On receipt of documentary proof, genuine fee payment cases will be considered and their applications will be revived, if they are otherwise eligible. ALL FEMALE CANDIDATES AND CANDIDATES BELONGING TO SCHEDULED CASTES/SCHEDULED TRIBES ARE NOT REQUIRED TO PAY ANY FEE. NO FEE EXEMPTION IS, HOWEVER, AVAILABLE TO OBC CANDIDATES AND THEY ARE REQUIRED TO PAY THE FULL PRESCREIBED FEE. 5. HOW TO APPLY: Candidates are required to apply online by using the website upsconline.gov.in. A candidate who is willing to apply for Combined Defence Services Examination shall be required to apply on- line and submit the requisite information and supporting documents towards various claims, such as date of birth, educational qualification, etc. as may be sought by the Commission alongwith the Registration and Online Application Form. For detailed instructions for filling up the form, the Notice for Combined Defence Services Examination (I), 2025 may be referred. The failure to provide the required information/documents alongwith the Online Application Form or within the correction- window, if any, provided by the Commission will entail cancellation of candidature for the examination. Registration has to be done only once in life time. This can be done anytime throughout the year. If the candidate is already registered, he/she can proceed straightway for filling up the online application for the examination (i) Modification in Registration Profile In case, the candidate wants to effect any change in his/her Registration profile, it shall be allowed only once in the lifetime after the registration at Registration platform. The option to change in Registration profile data shall be available till expiry of 7 days from the next day after the closure of application window of his/her first final application for any Examination of the Commission. In case, the candidate after registration applies for the first time in this examination; last date of modification of Registration would be 07.01.2025. 10 (ii) Modification in application form (Other than Registration Profile): The Commission has also decided to extend the facility of making correction(s) in any field(s) of the application form for this examination from next day of the closure of the application window of this Examination. This window will remain open for 7 days from the date of opening of the same i.e. from 01.01.2025 to 07.01.2025. In case a candidate wants to carry out any change in his/her Registration profile during this period, then he/she should login to the Registration platform and do the needful accordingly. In other words, no change in the Registration profile can be made by visiting the window for Modification in application form. (iii) The candidates will not be allowed to withdraw their applications after the submission of the same Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above-mentioned website. No queries, representations etc. shall be entertained by the Commission in respect of correcting details that are required to be filled up by the candidates by exercising due diligence and caution as the timely completion of examination process is of paramount importance. All candidates whether already in Government Service including candidates serving in the Armed Forces, Government owned industrial undertakings or other similar organizations or in private employment should submit their applications online direct to the Commission. N.B.I: Persons already in Government Service, whether in permanent or temporary capacity or as work charged employees other than casual or daily rated employees or those serving under the Public Enterprises are, however, required to inform their Head of Office/Department in writing that they have applied for the Examination. N.B.II: Candidates serving in the Armed Forces are required to inform their Commanding Officer in writing that they have applied for this examination. They are also required to submit NOC in this regard at the time of SSB interview. Candidates should note that in case a communication is received from their employer by the Commission withholding permission to the candidates applying for/appearing at the examination, their applications will be liable to be rejected/candidatures will be liable to be cancelled. NOTE: APPLICATIONS WITHOUT THE PRESCRIBED FEE (UNLESS REMISSION OF FEE IS CLAIMED AS IN PARA 4 ABOVE) OR INCOMPLETE APPLICATIONS SHALL BE SUMMARILY REJECTED. No representation or correspondence regarding such rejection shall be entertained under any circumstances. Candidates are not required to submit alongwith their applications any certificate in support of their claims regarding age, educational qualifications, Scheduled Caste/Scheduled Tribe/OBC and fee remission etc. The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfil all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination for which they are admitted by the Commission viz. written examination and interview test will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If on verification at any time before or after the written examination or Interview Test, it is found that they do not fulfil any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission. Candidates are advised to keep ready the following documents in original alongwith their self attested copies soon after the declaration of the result of the written part of the examination which is 11 likely to be declared in the month of May 2025 for submission to the Army HQ/Naval HQ/Air HQ as the case may be: (1) Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate or its equivalent showing date of birth (2) Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks sheet showing clearly having passed degree examination and eligible for award of degree. In the first instance all qualified candidates eligible for SSB interview will carry their original Matriculation/Secondary School Examination Certificate as also their Degree/Provisional Degree Certificate/Marks sheet with them while going to the Services Selection Centres for SSB interview. Candidates who have not yet qualified the final year Degree examination must carry with them a certificate in original from the Principal of the College/Institution stating that the candidate has appeared/is appearing at the final year Degree examination. Candidates who do not carry the above certificates with them while going to the Services Selection Centres shall not be allowed to appear for the SSB interview. No relaxation for production of the above certificates in original at the selection centre is allowed, and candidates who do not carry with them any of these certificates in original will not be permitted to appear for their SSB test and interview and they will be sent back home at their own expense. (1) If any of their claims is found to be incorrect/false/fraud/fabricated they may render themselves liable to disciplinary action by the Commission in terms of the following provisions: A candidate who is or has been declared by the Commission to be guilty of :— (a) Obtaining support for candidature by the following means, namely :— (i) offering illegal gratification to; or (ii) applying pressure on; or (iii) blackmailing, or threatening to blackmail any person connected with the conduct of the examination; or (b) impersonation; or (c) procuring impersonation by any person; or (d) submitting fabricated/incorrect documents or documents which have been tampered with; or (e) uploading irrelevant or incorrect photos/signature in the application form in place of actual photo/signature. (f) making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information; or (g) resorting to the following means in connection with the candidature for the examination, namely :— (i) obtaining copy of question paper through improper means; (ii) finding out the particulars of the persons connected with secret work relating to the examination; (iii) influencing the examiners; or (h) being in possession of or using unfair means during the examination; or (i) writing obscene matter or drawing obscene sketches or irrelevant matter in the scripts; or (j) misbehaving in the examination hall including tearing of the scripts, provoking fellow examinees to boycott examination, creating a disorderly scene and the like; or (k) harassing, threatening or doing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination; or (l) being in possession of or using any mobile phone, (even in switched-off mode), pager or any electronic equipment or programmable device or storage media like pen drive, smart watches etc. or camera or Bluetooth devices or any other equipment or related accessories (either in working or switched off mode) capable of being used as a communication device during the examination; or (m) violating any of the instructions issued to candidates along with their admission certificates permitting them to take the examination; or (n) attempting to commit or, as the case may be, abetting the commission of all or any of the acts specified in the foregoing clauses; 12 in addition to being liable to criminal prosecution, shall be disqualified by the Commission from the Examination held under these Rules; and/or shall be liable to be debarred either permanently or for a specified period :- (i) by the Commission, from any examination or selection held by them; (ii) by the Central Government from any employment under them; and shall be liable to face disciplinary action under the appropriate rules if already in service under Government. Provided that no penalty under this rule shall be imposed except after:— (i) giving the candidate an opportunity of making such representation in writing as the candidate may wish to make in that behalf; and (ii) taking the representation, if any, submitted by the candidate within the period allowed for this purpose, into consideration. (2) Any person who is found by the Commission to be guilty of colluding with a candidate(s) in committing or abetting the commission of any of the misdeeds listed at Clauses (a) to (m) above will be liable to action in terms of the Clause (n). Note: If a candidate is found to be in possession or using unfair means, may not be allowed to continue in the said exam as soon as the incident comes to notice of the Examination functionaries and the action against the candidates may be taken in consultation with the Commission. Further, the candidate may also not be allowed in any of the subsequent papers of the said examination. 6. LAST DATE FOR SUBMISSION OF APPLICATIONS: The Online Applications can be filled upto 31st December, 2024 till 6:00 PM. 7. CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION/ARMY/NAVAL/AIR HEAD QUARTERS. The Commission will not enter into any correspondence with the candidates about their candidature except in the following cases: (i) The eligible candidates shall be issued an e-Admit Card Seven Days before the commencement of the examination. The e-Admit Card will be made available in the UPSC website [www.upsc.gov.in] for downloading by candidates. No Admit Card will be sent by post. For downloading the e-Admit Card the candidate must have his/her vital parameters like RID & Date of Birth or Roll No. (if received) & date of birth or name, Father's name & Date of Birth available with him/her. (ii) If a candidate does not receive his/her e-Admit Card or any other communication regarding his/her candidature for the examination Seven Days before the commencement of the examination, he/she should at once contact the Commission. Information in this regard can also be obtained from the Facilitation Counter located in the Commission's Office either in person or over phone Nos. 011-23381125/011-23385271/011-23098543. In case no communication is received in the Commission's Office from the candidate regarding non- receipt of his/her e-Admit Card at least Seven Days before the examination, he/she himself/herself will be solely responsible for non-receipt of his/her e-Admit Card. No candidate will ordinarily be allowed to take the examination unless he/she holds an e- Admit Card for the examination. On downloading of Admit Card, check it carefully and bring discrepancies/errors, if any, to the notice of UPSC immediately. The courses to which the candidates are admitted will be according to their eligibility as per age and educational qualifications for different courses and the preferences given by the candidates. The candidates should note that their admission to the examination will be purely provisional based on the information given by them in the Application Form. This will be subject to verification of all the eligibility conditions. 13 (iii) The decision of the Commission as to the acceptance of the application of a candidate and his/her eligibility or otherwise for admission to the Examination shall be final. (iv) Candidates should note that the name in the e-Admit Card in some cases, may be abbreviated due to technical reasons. (v) Candidates must ensure that their e-mail IDs given in their applications are valid and active. IMPORTANT: All communications to the Commission/Army Headquarters should invariably contain the following particulars. 1. Name and year of the examination. 2. Registration ID (RID) 3. Roll Number (if received) 4. Name of candidate (in full and in block letters) 5. Complete Postal Address as given in the application with telephone number, if any. N.B. (i) Communications not containing the above particulars may not be attended to. N.B. (ii) If a letter/communication is received from a candidate after an examination has been held and it does not give his/her full name and Roll number, it will be ignored and no action will be taken thereon. N.B. (iii) Candidates recommended by the Commission for interview by the Services Selection Board who have changed their addresses subsequent to the submission of their application for the examination should immediately after announcement of the result of the written part of the examination notify the changed address, along with an unstamped self addressed envelope, also to IHQ of MoD (Army)/Dte Gen Of Rtg (Rtg A) CDSE Entry Section for males and SSC Women Entry Section for women candidates, West Block-III, Ground Floor, Wing 1, Rama Krishna Puram, New Delhi-110066 in case of IMA/SSC first choice candidates and IHQ of MOD(Navy) DMPR (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in case of Navy first choice candidates, and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in case of Air Force first choice candidates. Failure to comply with this instruction will deprive the candidate of any claim to consideration in the event of his/her not receiving the summon letter for interview by the Services Selection Board. For all queries regarding allotment of centres, date of SSB interview, merit list, Joining Instructions, and any other relevant information regarding selection process, please visit website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in or contact in case of candidates having IMA or OTA as their first choice IHQ of MOD (NAVY) DMPR (OI&R Section), Room No. 204, 'C' Wing, Sena Bhawan, New Delhi-110011 in the case of candidates having Navy as first choice and Dte of Personnel (Offrs), Kasturba Gandhi Marg, New Delhi-110001. Phone No. 23010231 Extn. 7645/7646/7610 in the case of candidates having Air Force as first choice. Candidates are requested to report for SSB interview on the date intimated to them in the call up letter for interview. Requests for postponing interview will only be considered in very genuine circumstances and that too if it is administratively convenient for which Army Headquarters/Naval HQ/Air Headquarter will be the sole deciding authority. Such requests should be sent to Selection Centre/SSB from where the call for SSB interview has been received. Navy candidates can download their call letters from the naval website www.joinindiannavy.gov.in or send email at [email protected] three weeks after publication of results. N.B. In case a candidate does not get the interview call for SSB interview for IMA by 2nd week of July 2025 and by 2nd week of October 2025 for OTA, he/she should write to IHQ of MoD(Army)/Rtg. CDSE Entry/SSC Women Entry for Officers Training Academy, West Block-III, Ramakrishna Puram, New Delhi-110066 regarding non-receipt of the call-up letter. For similar query by the Navy/Air Force candidates, having first choice as given ibid, should write to Naval Hqrs. or Air Hqrs. as mentioned in N.B. III (in case of non-receipt of call by 4th week of August, 2025). 14 8. ANNOUNCEMENT OF THE RESULTS OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION, INTERVIEW OF QUALIFIED CANDIDATES, ANNOUNCEMENT OF FINAL RESULTS AND ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSES OF THE FINALLY QUALIFIED CANDIDATES. The Union Public Service Commission shall prepare a list of candidates who obtain the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination as fixed by the Commission in their discretion. Candidates who are declared successful in the written exam will be detailed for intelligence and personality test at the Service Selection Board based on their preference by the respective service HQ. CANDIDATES WHO QUALIFY IN THE WRITTEN EXAM AND GIVEN THEIR FIRST CHOICE AS ARMY (IMA/OTA) ARE REQUIRED TO REGISTER THEMSELVES ON THE RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE WWW.JOININDIANARMY.NIC.IN IN ORDER TO ENABLE THEM TO RECEIVE CALL UP INFORMATION FOR SSB INTERVIEW. THOSE CANDIDATES WhO HAVE ALREADY REGISTERED ON THE RECRUITING DIRECTORATE WEBSITE ARE ADVISED NOT TO REGISTER AGAIN. The email ID registered with DG Recruiting website i.e. www.joinindianarmy,nic.in and that given to UPSC must be same and unique to the applicant. Results of the test conducted by Service Selection Board will hold good for all the courses [i.e. Indian Military Academy (DE) Course, Dehradun, Indian Naval Academy, Ezhimala Course, Air Force Academy (Pre-Flying) Course, Hyderabad and SSC (NT) Course at OTA, Chennai] for which the candidate has qualified in the written exam, irrespective of the service HQ conducting it. Two-stage selection procedure based on Psychological Aptitude Test and intelligence Test has been introduced at Service Selection Boards. All the candidates will be put to stage one test on first day of reporting at Selection Centres. Only those candidates who qualify at stage one will be admitted to the second stage/remaining tests and all those who fail to pass stage one, will be returned. Only those candidate who qualify at stage two will be required to submit photocopy each of:—(i) Matriculation pass certificate or equivalent in support of date of birth, (ii) Bachelors Degree/Provisional Degree alongwith mark sheets of all the years/semesters in support of educational qualification. Candidates will appear before the Services Selection Board and undergo the test there at their own risk and will not be entitled to claim any compensation or other relief from Government in respect of any injury which they may sustain in the course of or as a result of any of the tests given to them at the Services Selection Board whether due to the negligence of any person or otherwise. Candidates will be required to sign a certificate to this effect on the form appended to the application. To be acceptable, candidates should secure the minimum qualifying marks separately in (i) written examination and (ii) SSB test as fixed by the Commission and Service Selection Board respectively in their discretion. The candidates will be placed in the order of merit on the basis of the total marks secured by them in the written examination and in the SSB tests. The form and manner of communication of the result of the examination to individual candidates shall be decided by the Commission in their discretion and the Commission will not enter into correspondence with them regarding the result. Success at the examination confers no right of admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or the Officers' Training Academy as the case may be. The final selection will be made in order of merit subject to medical fitness and suitability in all other respects and number of vacancies available. NOTE: Every candidate for the Air Force and Naval Aviation is given Pilot Aptitude Test only once. The Grade secured by him at the first test (CPSS and/or PABT) will therefore hold good for every subsequent interview at the Air Force Selection Board. Those who have failed Indian Navy Selection Board/Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) and/or Pilot Aptitude Battery Test earlier and those who habitually wear spectacles are not eligible for Air Force. TEST/INTERVIEW AT AIR FORCE SELECTION BOARDS FOR THOSE CANDIDATES WHO APPLY FOR AIR FORCE THROUGH MORE THAN ONE SOURCE:- There are three 15 modes of entry in F(P) course CDSE/NCC/AFCAT. Candidates who fail in Computer Pilot Selection System (CPSS) will be considered for other preferred services only if it is found that they have applied through CDS Exam. Candidates who qualify in the written examination for IMA(D.E) Course and/or Navy (S.E) Course and / or Air Force Academy course irrespective of whether they have also qualified for SSC Course or not will be detailed for SSB test in August – September 2025 and candidates who qualify for SSC Course only will be detailed for SSB tests in October to December, 2025. 9. DISQUALIFICATION FOR ADMISSION TO THE TRAINING COURSE: Candidates who were admitted to an earlier course at the National Defence Academy, Indian Military Academy, Air Force Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, Chennai but were removed there from on disciplinary ground will not be considered for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy or for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army. Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the Indian Military Academy for lack of Officer- like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy. Candidates who were previously selected as Special Entry Naval Cadets but were withdrawn from the National Defence Academy or from Naval Training Establishments for lack of Officer- like qualities will not be eligible for admission to the Indian Navy. Candidates who were withdrawn from Indian Military Academy, Officers’ Training Academy, NCC and Graduate course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be considered for grant of Short Service Commission in the Army. Candidates who were previously withdrawn from the NCC and Graduates’ course for lack of Officer-like qualities will not be admitted to the Indian Military Academy. 10. PUBLIC DISCLOSURE OF MARKS SCHEME As per the decision taken by the Government for increasing the access of unemployed to job opportunities, the Commission will publically disclose the scores of the candidates (obtained in the Written Examination and SSB Interview/Personality Test) through the public portals. The disclosure will be made in respect of only those candidates who will appear in the SSB Interview for the Combined Defence Services Examination and are not qualified. The information shared through this disclosure scheme about the unsuccessful candidates may be used by other public and private recruitment agencies to appoint suitable candidates from the information made available in the public portal. Candidates, who will appear for SSB, will be required to give their options when asked by the Commission. A candidate may opt out of the scheme also and in that case his/her details will not be published by the Commission. Besides sharing of the information of the unqualified candidates of this CDS Examination, the Commission will not assume any responsibility or liability for the method and manner in which information related to candidates is utilized by other private or public organizations. 11. RESTRICTIONS ON MARRIAGE DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY OR IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY OR OFFICERS TRAINING ACADEMY, CHENNAI:: Candidates for the Indian Military Academy Course or Naval Academy Course or Indian Air Force Academy Course or Officers' Training Academy, Chennai must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his/her application though successful at this or any subsequent examination will not be selected for training. A candidate who marries during training shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him/her by the Government. 16 Candidates must undertake not to marry until they complete their full training. A candidate who marries subsequent to the date of his application, through successful at the written examination or service Selection Board interview of medical examination will not be eligible for training. A candidate who marries during this period, shall be discharged and will be liable to refund all expenditure incurred on him by the Government. 12. OTHER RESTRICTIONS DURING TRAINING IN THE INDIAN MILITARY ACADEMY OR IN THE INDIAN NAVAL ACADEMY OR IN THE AIR FORCE ACADEMY: After admission to the Indian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy, candidates will not be considered for any other commission. They will also not be permitted to appear for any interview or examination after they have been finally selected for training in the Indian Military Academy or the Indian Naval Academy or the Air Force Academy. (Pradeep Toppo) Under Secretary Union Public Service Commission 17 APPENDIX-I The scheme, standard and syllabus of the examination A. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION 1. The Competitive examination comprises: (a) Written examination as shown in para 2 below. (b) Interview for intelligence and personality test (vide Part ‘B’ of this Appendix) of such candidates as may be called for interview at one of the Services Selection Centres. 2. The subjects of the written examination, the time allowed and the maximum marks allotted to each subject will be as follows: (a) For Admission to Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy and Air Force Academy:— Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks 1. English 11 2 Hours 100 2. General Knowledge 12 2 Hours 100 3. Elementary Mathematics 13 2 Hours 100 (b) For Admission to Officers’ Training Academy :— Subject Code Duration Maximum Marks 1. English 11 2 Hours 100 2. General Knowledge 12 2 Hours 100 The maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be equal for each course i.e. the maximum marks allotted to the written examination and to the interviews will be 300, 300, 300 and 200 each for admission to the Indian Military Academy, Indian Naval Academy, Air Force Academy and Officers’ Training Academy respectively. 3. The papers in all the subjects will consist of objective type questions only. The question papers (Test Booklets) of General Knowledge and Elementary Mathematics will be set bilingually in Hindi as well as English. 4. In the question papers, wherever necessary, questions involving the metric system of Weights and Measures only will be set. 5. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe to write answers for them. 6. The Commission have discretion to fix qualifying marks in any or all the subjects of the examination. 7. The candidates are not permitted to use calculator for answering objective type papers (Test Booklets). They should not therefore, bring the same inside the Examination Hall. B. STANDARD AND SYLLABUS OF THE EXAMINATION STANDARD The standard of the papers in Elementary Mathematics will be of Matriculation level. The standard of papers in other subjects will approximately be such as may be expected of a graduate of an Indian University. 18 SYLLABUS ENGLISH (Code No. 01) The question paper will be designed to test the candidates’ understanding of English and workmanlike use of words. GENERAL KNOWLEDGE (Code No. 02) General Knowledge including knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspects as may be expected of an educated person who has not made a special study of any scientific subject. The paper will also include questions on History of India and Geography of a nature which candidate should be able to answer without special study. ELEMENTARY MATHEMATICS (Code No. 03) ARITHMETIC Number System—Natural numbers, Integers, Rational and Real numbers. Fundamental operations, addition, substraction, multiplication, division, Square roots, Decimal fractions. Unitary method, time and distance, time and work, percentages, applications to simple and compound interest, profit and loss, ratio and proportion, variation. Elementary Number Theory—Division algorithm. Prime and composite numbers. Tests of divisibility by 2, 3, 4, 5, 9 and 11. Multiples and factors. Factorisation Theorem. H.C.F. and L.C.M. Euclidean algorithm. Logarithms to base 10, laws of logarithms, use of logarithmic tables. ALGEBRA Basic Operations, simple factors, Remainder Theorem, H.C.F., L.C.M., Theory of polynomials, solutions of quadratic equations, relation between its roots and coefficients (Only real roots to be considered). Simultaneous linear equations in two unknowns—analytical and graphical solutions. Simultaneous linear inequations in two variables and their solutions. Practical problems leading to two simultaneous linear equations or inequations in two variables or quadratic equations in one variable & their solutions. Set language and set notation, Rational expressions and conditional identities, Laws of indices. TRIGONOMETRY Sine ×, cosine ×, Tangent × when 0° < × < 90° Values of sin ×, cos × and tan ×, for × = 0°, 30°, 45°, 60° and 90° Simple trigonometric identities. Use of trigonometric tables. Simple cases of heights and distances. GEOMETRY Lines and angles, Plane and plane figures, Theorems on (i) Properties of angles at a point, (ii) Parallel lines, (iii) Sides and angles of a triangle, (iv) Congruency of triangles, (v) Similar triangles, (vi) Concurrence of medians and altitudes, (vii) Properties of angles, sides and diagonals of a parallelogram, rectangle and square, (viii) Circles and its properties including tangents and normals, (ix) Loci. MENSURATION Areas of squares, rectangles, parallelograms, triangle and circle. Areas of figures which can be split up into these figures (Field Book), Surface area and volume of cuboids, lateral surface and volume of right circular cones and cylinders, surface area and volume of spheres. 19 STATISTICS Collection and tabulation of statistical data, Graphical representation frequency polygons, histograms, bar charts, pie charts etc. Measures of central tendency. INTELLIGENCE AND PERSONALITY TEST The SSB procedure consists of two stage Selection process - stage I and stage II. Only those candidates who clear the stage I are permitted to appear for stage II. The details are:- (a) Stage I comprises of Officer Intelligence Rating (OIR) tests are Picture Perception* Description Test (PP&DT). The candidates will be shortlisted based on combination of performance in OIR Test and PP&DT. (b) Stage II Comprises of Interview, Group Testing Officer Tasks, Psychology Tests and the Conference. These tests are conducted over 4 days. The details of these tests are given on the website www.joinindianarmy.nic.in. The personality of a candidate is assessed by three different assessors viz. The Interviewing Officer (IO), Group Testing Officer (GTO) and the Psychologist. There are no separate weightage for each test. The marks are allotted by assessors only after taking into consideration the performance of the candidate holistically in all the test. In addition, marks for Conference are also allotted based on the initial performance of the Candidate in the three techniques and decision of the Board. All these have equal weightage. The various tests of IO, GTO and Psych are designed to bring out the presence/absence of Officer Like Qualities and their trainability in a candidate. Accordingly candidates are Recommended or Not Recommended at the SSB. APPENDIX–II INSTRUCTIONS TO THE CANDIDATES FOR FILLING ONLINE APPLICATION Candidates are required to apply online by using the website www.upsconline.gov.in Salient Features of the system to Online Applications Form are given here under: 1. Detailed instructions for filling up Online Applications are available on the above mentioned website. 2. Candidates will be required to complete the Online Application form containing two stages viz. Part I and Part II as per the instructions available in the above mentioned site through drop down menu. 3. The candidates are required to pay a fee of Rs. 200/- (Rupees two hundred only) [except SC/ST candidates and those specified in Note-2 of Point 4 (Fee) of the Notice who are exempted from payment of fee] either by depositing the money in any branch of SBI by cash or by using any Visa/Master/ Rupay Credit/Debit Card/UPI Payment or by using internet banking facility of any Bank 4. Before start filling up Online Application, a candidate must have his photograph and signature duly scanned in the.jpg format in such a manner that each file should not exceed 300 KB each and must not be less than 20 KB in size for the photograph and signature. 5. A candidate must have his Matriculation Certificate ready prior to filling up his application form. The details viz. Candidate’s Name, Father’s Name, Mother’s Name & Date of Birth to be filled in Online Application Form of the candidate should match exactly with particulars mentioned in the Matriculation Certificate. 6. In addition to this, candidate should also have details of one photo ID viz. Aadhar Card/ Voter Card/ PAN Card/ Passport/ Driving License/ Any other photo ID Card issued by the State/Central Government. The details of this photo ID will have to be provided by the candidate while filling up the online application form. The candidates will have to upload a scanned copy of the Photo ID whose details have been provided 20 in the online application by him/her. This photo ID will be used for all future referencing and the candidate is advised to carry this ID while appearing for examination/Personality Test/SSB. 7. The Online Applications (Part I and II) can be filled from 11th December, 2024 to 31st December, 2024 till 6:00 PM. 9. The applicants must ensure that while filling their Application Form, they are providing their valid and active E-mail Ids as the Commission may use electronic mode of communication while contacting them at different stages of examination process. 8. The applicants are advised to check their e-mails at regular intervals and ensure that the email address ending with @nic.in are directed to their inbox folder and not to the SPAM folder or any other folder. 9. Candidates are strongly advised to apply online well in time without waiting for the last date for submission of online application. APPENDIX–III Special Instructions to Candidates for objective type tests 1. Articles permitted inside Examination Hall Clip board or hard board (on which nothing is written) a good quality Black Ball Pen for marking responses on the Answer Sheet. Answer Sheet and sheet for rough work will be supplied by the invigilator. 2. Articles not permitted inside Examination Hall Do not bring into the Examination Hall any article other than those specified above e.g. any valuable/costly items, mobile phones, Smart/Digital watches other IT gadgets, books, bags, notes, loose sheets, electronic or any other type of calculators, mathematical and drawing instruments, Log Tables, stencils of maps, slide rules, Test Booklets and rough sheets pertaining to earlier session(s) etc. Possession (even in Switch off mode)/use of Mobiles, phones, Bluetooth, pagers or any other communication devices or any other incriminating material (notes on e-admit card, papers, eraser etc.) are not allowed inside the premises where the examination is being conducted. Any infringement of these instructions shall entail disciplinary action including ban from future examinations. Candidates are advised in their own interest not to bring any of the banned items including mobile phones/Bluetooth/pagers to the venue of the examination, as no arrangements for safekeeping will be made at the venue of the examination. Candidates are advised not to bring any valuable/costly items to the Examination Halls, as no arrangement for safe keeping of the same will be made at the venue of the examination. Commission will not be responsible for any loss in this regard. 3. Penalty for wrong Answers THERE WILL BE PENALTY (NEGATIVE MARKING) FOR WRONG ANSWERS MARKED BY A CANDIDATE IN THE OBJECTIVE TYPE QUESTION PAPERS. (i) There are four alternatives for the answer to every question. For each question for which a wrong answer has been given by the candidate. One third (0.33) of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty. (ii) If a candidate given more than one answer, it will be treated as a wrong answer even if one of the given answers happens to be correct and there will be same penalty as above for that question. 21 (iii) If a question is left blank i.e. no answer is given by the candidate, there will be no penalty for that question. 4. Unfair means strictly prohibited No candidate shall copy from the papers of any other candidate nor permit his papers to be copied nor give nor attempt to give nor obtain nor attempt to obtain irregular assistance of any description. 5. Conduct in Examination Hall No candidate should misbehave in any manner or create disorderly scene in the Examination Hall or harass the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of the examination. Any such misconduct will be severely penalised. 6. Answer Sheet particulars (i) Write with Black ball pen your Centre and subject followed by test booklet series (in bracket), subject code and roll number at the appropriate space provided on the answer sheet at the top. Also encode your booklet series (A, B, C, or D as the case may be), subject code and roll number in the circles provided for the purpose in the answer sheet. The guidelines for writing the above particulars and for encoding the above particulars are given in Annexure. In case the booklet series is not printed on the test booklet or answer sheet is un-numbered, please report immediately to the invigilator and get the test booklet/answer sheet replaced. (ii) Candidates should note that any omission/mistakes/discrepancy in encoding/filling of details in the OMR answer sheet, especially with regard to Roll Number and Test Booklet Series Code, will render the answer sheet liable for rejection. (iii) Immediately after commencement of the examination please check that the test booklet supplied to you does not have any unprinted or torn or missing pages or items etc., if so, get it replaced by a complete test booklet of the same series and subject. 7. Do not write your name or anything other than the specific items of information asked for, on the answer sheet/test booklet/sheet for rough work. 8. Do not fold or mutilate or damage or put any extraneous marking in the Answer Sheet. Do not write anything on the reverse of the answer sheet. 9. Since the answer sheets will be evaluated on computerised machines, candidates should exercise due care in handling and filling up the answer sheets. They should use black ball pen only to darken the circles. For writing in boxes, they should use black ball pen. Since the entries made by the candidates by darkening the circles will be taken into account while evaluating the answer sheets on computerised machines, they should make these entries very carefully and accurately. 10. Method of marking answers In the ‘OBJECTIVE TYPE’ of examination, you do not write the answers. For each question (hereinafter referred to as “Item”) several suggested answers (hereinafter referred to as “Responses”) are given. You have to choose one response to each item. The question paper will be in the Form of TEST BOOKLET. The booklet will contain item bearing numbers 1, 2, 3.......etc. Under each item, Responses marked (a), (b), (c), (d) will be given. Your task will be to choose the correct response. If you think there is more than one correct response, then choose what you consider the best response. In any case, for each item you are to select only one response, if you select more than one response, your response will be considered wrong. In the Answer Sheet, Serial Nos. From 1 to 160 are printed. Against each numbers, there are circles marked (a), (b), (c) and (d). After you have read each item in the Test Booklet 22 and decided which one of the given responses is correct or the best. You have to mark your response by completely blackening with black ball pen to indicate your response. For example, if the correct answer to item 1 is (b), then the circle containing the letter (b) is to be completely blackened with black ball pen as shown below :- Example : (a) (c) (d). 11. Candidates must write the papers in their own hand. In no circumstances will they be allowed the help of a scribe. 12. Entries in Scannable Attendance List. Candidates are required to fill in the relevant particulars with black ball pen only against their columns in the Scannable Attendance List, as given below. i) Blacken the circle (P) under the column (Present/Absent) ii) Blacken the relevant circle for Test Booklet Series iii) Write Test Booklet Serial No. iv) Write the Answer Sheet Serial No. and also blacken the Corresponding circles below. v) Append signature in the relevant column. 13. Please read and abide by the instructions on the cover of Test Booklet. If any candidate indulges in disorderly or improper conduct he will render himself liable for disciplinary action and/or imposition of a penalty as the Commission may deem fit. ANNEXURE How to fill in the Answer Sheet of objective type tests in the Examination Hall Please follow these instructions very carefully. You may note that since the answer sheets are to be evaluated on machine, any violation of these instructions may result in reduction of your score for which you would yourself be responsible. Before you mark your responses on the Answer Sheet, you will have to fill in various particulars in it. As soon as the candidate receives the Answer Sheet, he should check that it is numbered at the bottom. If it is found un-numbered he should at once get it replaced by a numbered one. You will see from the Answer Sheet that you will have to fill in the top line, which reads thus: केंद्र विषय विषय कोड अनक्र ु मक ां Centre Subject S. Code Roll Number If you are, say, appearing for the examination in Delhi Centre for the Mathematics Paper* and your Roll No. is 081276, and your test booklet series is ‘A’ you should fill in thus, using black ball pen. केंद्र विषय विषय कोड अनक्र ु मकां 0 1 0 8 1 2 7 6 Centre Delhi Subject English S.Code Roll Number You should write with black ball pen the name of the centre and subject in English or Hindi The test Booklet Series is indicated by Alphabets A, B, C or D at the top right hand corner of the Booklet. Write your Roll Numbers exactly as it is in your e-Admission Certificate with Black ball pen in the boxes provided for this purpose. Do not omit any zero(s) which may be there. The next step is to find out the appropriate subject code from the Time Table. Now encode the Test Booklet Series, Subject Code and the Roll Number in the circles provided for this purpose. Do the encoding with Black Ball pen. The name of the Centre need not be encoded. 23 Writing and encoding of Test Booklet Series is to be done after receiving the Test Booklet and confirming the Booklet Series from the same. For Mathematics *subject paper of ‘A’ Test Booklet Series you have to encode the subject code, which is 01. Do it thus: पुस्तिक क्रम (ए) विषय 0 1 Booklet Series (A) Subject 0 0 A 1 1 2 2 B 3 3 4 4 C 5 5 6 6 D 7 7 8 8 9 9 अनक्र ु मक ां Roll Number All that is required is to blacken completely the circle marked ‘A’ below the Booklet 0 8 1 2 7 6 Series and below the subject code blacken completely the Circles for “0” (in the first 0 0 0 0 0 0 vertical column) and “1” (in the second 1 1 1 1 1 1 vertical column). You should then encode 2 2 2 2 2 2 the Roll No.081276. Do it thus similarly: 3 3 3 3 3 3 Important : Please ensure that you 4 4 4 4 4 4 have carefully encoded your subject. Test Booklet series and Roll Number: 5 5 5 5 5 5 6 6 6 6 6 6 *This is just illustrative and may not 7 7 7 7 7 7 be relevant to your Examination. 8 8 8 8 8 8 9 9 9 9 9 9 APPENDIX-IV GUIDELINES WITH REGARD TO PHYSICAL STANDARDS FOR CANDIDATES FOR COMBINED DEFENCE SERVICES EXAMINATION. ARMY MEDICAL STANDARDS AND PROCEDURE OF MEDICAL EXAMINATION FOR OFFICER ENTRIES INTO ARMY 1. Aim: Aim of this literature is to familiarize the general population on medical standards for enrolment of candidates into Army through various types of entries. This literature also serves the purpose of placing information in public domain as per the policy of Information Commission under RTI Act -2005 24 2. Introduction: (a) The primary responsibility of the Armed Forces is defending territorial integrity of the nation. For this purpose Armed Forces should always be prepared for war. Armed Forces personnel undergo rigorous training in preparation for war. Armed Forces also assist civil authorities if required whenever the need arises like in the case of disasters. To carry out such tasks Armed Forces requires candidates with robust mental and physical health. Such candidates should also be capable of withstanding rigorous stress and strain of service conditions to perform their military duties in adverse terrain and uncongenial climate incl sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical facilities. A medically unfit individual due to disease/disability can not only drain precious resources but can also jeopardize lives of other members of the team during operations. Therefore only medically fit candidates are selected who emerge fit to be trained for war. (b) The Armed Forces Medical Services are responsible for ensuring selection of ‘Medically Fit’ individuals into the Armed Forces. (c) All Armed Forces personnel regardless of occupational specialty, unit assignment, age or gender should have a basic level of general ‘Medical fitness’ when inducted into service. This basic level of fitness can then be used as a benchmark to train personnel for further physically demanding occupational specialties or unit assignments. This will enhance deployable combat readiness. (d) Medical examinations are carried out meticulously by Armed Forces Medical Services Medical Officers. These Medical Officers are well oriented to specific working conditions of Armed Forces after undergoing basic military training. Medical examinations are finalized by the Board of Medical Officers. The decision of the Medical Board is final. In case of any doubt about any disease/disability/injury/genetic disorder etc noticed during enrolment/ commissioning, the benefit of doubt will be given to State. Medical Standards. 3. Medical standards described in the following paragraphs are general guidelines. They are not exhaustive in view of the vast knowledge of disease. These standards are subject to change with advancement in the scientific knowledge and change in working conditions of Armed Forces due to introduction of new eqpt/trades. Such changes will be promulgated from time to time by policy letters by competent authorities. Medical Officers, Spl Medical Officers and Medical Boards will take appropriate decisions based on following guidelines and principles. 4. To be deemed ‘Medically fit’, a candidate must be in good physical and mental health and free from any disease/syndrome/disability likely to interfere with the efficient performance of military duties in any terrain, climate, season incl. sea and air, in remote areas, in austere conditions with no medical aid. Candidate also should be free of medical conditions which require frequent visit to medical facilities and use of any aid / drugs. (a) It will, however, be ensured that candidate is in good health. There should be no evidence of weak constitution, imperfect development of any system, any congenital deformities/ diseases/syndrome or malformation. (b) No swelling/s including tumours/cyst/swollen lymph node/s anywhere on the body. No sinus/es or fistula/e anywhere on the body. (c) No hyper or hypo pigmentation or any other disease/syndrome/disability of the skin. (d) No hernia anywhere on the body. 25 (e) No scars which can impair the functioning and cause significant disfigurement. (f) No arterio-venous malformation anywhere in/on the body. (g) No malformation of the head and face including asymmetry, deformity from fracture or depression of the bones of the skull; or scars indicating old operative interference and malformation like sinuses and fistulae etc. (h) No impairment of vision including colour perception and field of vision. (j) No hearing impairment, deformities/disabilities in ears vestibule-cochlear system. (k) No impediment of speech due to any aetiology. (l) No disease/disability/ congenital anomaly/syndrome of the bones or cartilages of the nose, or palate, nasal polyps or disease of the naso-Pharynx, uvula and accessory sinuses. There should be no nasal deformity and no features of chronic tonsillitis. (m) No disease /syndrome/disability of the throat, palate tonsils or gums or any disease or injury affecting the normal function of either mandibular joint. (n) No disease /syndrome/disability of the heart and blood vessels incl congenital, genetic, organic incl hypertension, and conduction disorders. (o) No evidence of pulmonary tuberculosis or previous history of this disease or any other disease /syndrome/disability chronic disease of the lungs and chest including allergies /immunological conditions, connective tissue disorders, musculoskeletal deformities of chest. (p) No disease of the digestive system including any abnormality of the liver, pancreas incl endocrinal, congenital, hereditary or genetic diseases /syndromes and disabilities. (q) No diseases/ syndrome/ disability of any endocrinal system, reticuloendothelial system. (r) No diseases/ syndrome/ disability of genito-urinary system including malformations, atrophy/hypertrophy of any organ or gland. (s) No active, latent or congenital venereal disease (t) No history or evidence of mental disease, epilepsy, incontinence of urine or enuresis. (u) No disease/deformity/syndrome of musculo-skeletal system and joints incl skull, spine and limbs. (v) There is no congenital or hereditary disease/ syndrome/disability. 5. Psychological examinations will be carried out during SSB selection procedure. However, any abnormal traits noticed during medical examination will be a cause for rejection. 6. Based on the above mentioned guidelines usual medical conditions which lead to rejection are:- (a) Musculo-skeletal deformities of spine, chest and pelvis, limbs e.g. scoliosis, torticollis, kyphosis, deformities of vertebrae, ribs, sternum, clavicle, other bones of skeleton, mal-united fractures, deformed limbs, fingers, toes and congenital deformities of spine. 26 (b) Deformities of Limbs: Deformed limbs, toes and fingers, deformed joints like cubitus valgus, cubitus varus, knock knees, bow legs, hyper mobile joints, amputated toes or fingers and shortened limbs. (c) Vision and eye: Myopia, hypermetropia, astigmatism, lesions of cornea, lens, retina, squint and ptosis. (d) Hearing, ears, nose and throat: Sub standard hearing capability, lesions of pinna, tympanic membranes, middle ear, deviated nasal septum, and congenital abnormalities of lips, palate, peri-auricular sinuses and lymphadenitis/adenopathy of neck. Hearing capacity should be 610 cm for Conversational Voice and Forced Whispering for each ear. (e) Dental conditions:- (i) Incipient pathological conditions of the jaws, which are known to be progressive or recurrent. (ii) Significant jaw discrepancies between upper and lower jaw which may hamper efficient mastication and/or speech will be a cause for rejection. (iii) Symptomatic Temporo-Mandibular Joint clicking and tenderness. A mouth opening of less than 30 mm measured at the incisal edges, Dislocation of the TMJ on wide opening. (iv) All potentially cancerous conditions. (v) Clinical diagnosis for sub mucous fibrosis with or without restriction of mouth opening. (vi) Poor oral health status in the form of gross visible calculus, periodontal pockets and/or bleeding from gums. (vii) Loose teeth: More than two mobile teeth will render the candidate unfit. (viii) Cosmetic or post-traumatic maxillofacial surgery/trauma will be UNFIT for at least 24 weeks from the date of surgery/injury whichever is later. (ix) If malocclusion of teeth is hampering efficient mastication, maintenance of oral hygiene or general nutrition or performance of duties efficiently. (f) Chest: Tuberculosis, or evidence of tuberculosis, lesions of lungs, heart, musculo skeletal lesions of chest wall. (g) Abdomen and genitor-urinary system: Hernia, un-descended testis, varicocele, organomegaly, solitary kidney, horseshoe kidney & cysts in the kidney/liver, Gall bladder stones, renal and ureteric stones, lesions/deformities of urogenital organs, piles, sinuses and lymphadenitis/pathy. (h) Nervous system: Tremors, speech impediment and imbalance. (j) Skin: Vitiligo, haemangiomas, warts, corns, dermatitis, skin infections growths and hyperhydrosis. 27 7. Height and Weight: Height requirement varies as per the stream of entry. Weight should be proportionate to height as per the chart given below:- Age (yrs) Minimum Age: 17 to 20 yrs Age: 20+01 Age: 30 + 01 Age: Above weight for all day - 30 yrs day - 40 yrs 40 yrs ages Height Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) Weight (Kg) (cm) 140 35.3 43.1 45.1 47.0 49.0 141 35.8 43.7 45.7 47.7 49.7 142 36.3 44.4 46.4 48.4 50.4 143 36.8 45.0 47.0 49.1 51.1 144 37.3 45.6 47.7 49.8 51.8 145 37.8 46.3 48.4 50.5 52.6 146 38.4 46.9 49.0 51.2 53.3 147 38.9 47.5 49.7 51.9 54.0 148 39.4 48.2 50.4 52.6 54.8 149 40.0 48.8 51.1 53.3 55.5 150 40.5 49.5 51.8 54.0 56.3 151 41.0 50.2 52.4 54.7 57.0 152 41.6 50.8 53.1 55.4 57.8 153 42.1 51.5 53.8 56.2 58.5 154 42.7 52.2 54.5 56.9 59.3 155 43.2 52.9 55.3 57.7 60.1 156 43.8 53.5 56.0 58.4 60.8 157 44.4 54.2 56.7 59.2 61.6 158 44.9 54.9 57.4 59.9 62.4 159 45.5 55.6 58.1 60.7 63.2 160 46.1 56.3 58.9 61.4 64.0 161 46.7 57.0 59.6 62.2

UPSC CDS-I 2025 Exam Notice PDF

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