Dash 8 Q200 Quiz PDF

# Dash 8 Q200 Quiz ## Questions 1. How many air conditioning packs does the dash8 Q200 have: - 2 at the aft pressure dome - 2 at the rear and 1 forward for safety 2. In flight, the air conditioning system uses bleed air from: - Engines 3. The CABIN PRESS warning light flashes if: - C...

# Dash 8 Q200 Quiz ## Questions 1. How many air conditioning packs does the dash8 Q200 have: - 2 at the aft pressure dome - 2 at the rear and 1 forward for safety 2. In flight, the air conditioning system uses bleed air from: - Engines 3. The CABIN PRESS warning light flashes if: - Cabin altitude increases above 10,000 feet - Cabin altitude increases above 8,000 feet - AUTO/MAN/DUMP switch is set to DUMP 4. The maximum cabin pressure differential for landing and taxi is: - 5.95 psi 5. How many emergency exits are there in the passenger cabin? - 4 - 5 including cockpit escape hatch 6. What is the maximum baggage loading? - 1322 Kgs with special floor 7. What is the maximum cross wind component? - 36 Kts on a dry hard runway 8. What is the maximum altitude of the Dash 8 aircraft? - 25000 ft 9. How many life vest are stored in the cockpit? - 3 10. There are three emergency exits and the airstair door, what type of exits are these? - Airstair door-Type1 / Right forward exit-type2 / Underwing exit-type3. 11. How is the APU generator load monitored? - By BBPU indicator 12. How can the APU be shut down: - By pressing APU power off or over speed test - By removing the generator and bleed, then pressing the Apu Pwt or Overspeed test 13. How is the APU fire protection provided? - By fire sensing loop and extinguishing bottle 14. What flap settings are approved for auto pilot coupled approaches? - flaps 15 and 35 15. If the autopilot is engaged with no FD command while in 5° bank what will autopilot do? - roll the aircraft to a wings level attitude 16. What modes do the GA buttons give you? - Wings Level, GA 17. What pitch does the GA mode give you? - either 12° for flap 0° or 5° or 10° nose up for 15° or 35° 18. What modes on flight guidance controller both pitch and roll? - HDG. 19. What are the minimum and maximum glide slope angles the can be flown with the flight director or autopilot? - 2.5 - 4.0 20. Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) continuously records the last: - 30 mins 21. The Flight Data Recorder (FDR) records: - 25 hours of data in a continuous loop format 22. When does the FDR operate? - Anti-collision beacon (red or white) ON, Aircraft airborne, Switch held to TEST 23. What does the CVR record? - Everything in cockpit and PA announcements 24. Will the AC generators be on line with the props in feather? - yes 25. How many temperature sensors are installed on each battery? - 2 26. What is the priority of DC logic? - Horizontal then vertical. 27. Which buses are directly powered by TRU'S? - Secondary buses 28. What will happen if the DC external power voltage exceeds 31.5 Volts? - External ground power is automatically disconnected from the system. 29. The maximum limitation of DC GENERATORS loadmeter reading for ground operation is? - 0.7 which may be exceeded during a battery start for up to 1 minute 30. How many engine fire protection loops are there? - 2 on each engine 31. What does pulling the PULL FUEL OFF handle do? - Shut off Fuel and Hydraulic valves and arms the extinguisher squibs for the applicable engine 32. What is the cockpit indication of Lavatory fire? - There is no indication in the cockpit 33. What is the cockpit indication of low fire bottle pressure? - Fault A or Fault B light is on, Master Warning light flashes 34. What does it mean if a red discharge disc is missing from the left wing root? - Thermal discharge. 35. How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartment? - 2 36. What does FLAP DRIVE caution light indicate? - Torque load applied to the Secondary shaft 37. How is roll control provided at speeds above 140kts? - Ailerons and Inboard roll spoilers 38. In normal flight, each rudder actuator receives: - 1500 psi below 140kts, 900 psi above 140kts 39. With the "control lock" ON, which control surfaces are prevented from moving? - Ailerons and elevators 40. When "FLAP DRIVE" caution light illuminates with the flap 5° selected, what action should be done (use the QRH)? - Flap will operate normally 41. What does a "RUD FULL PRESS" caution light indicate? - A rudder actuator is depressurized and the operative actuator has boosted to 3000 psi. 42. What is the indication of a symbol generator power failure? - Blank Screen on EADI and EHSI 43. What are the reduced operating modes for the APIRS? - Basic for Attitude, DG for Heading 44. What is the primary power source input of the APIRS? - Main feeder bus 45. In the normal APIRS mode, what is TAS from the ADC used for? - Compensate for acceleration induced errors encountered in a vertical gyro system 46. APIRS operation in Basic mode results in: - Reduced accuracy in attitude 47. The pitot static system supplies pitot pressure to the: - Pilot & Copilot ASI, ADC's, IVSI, Altimeters 48. What powers FUEL AUX PUMP? - DC. 49. The #1 or #2 ENGINE FUEL PRESS caution light illuminate at what PSI? - Below 5.5 PSI. 50. What is the usable fuel tank quantity? - 2574 kgs 51. What is the maximum fuel tank imbalance? - 272 kgs 52. When does the fuel tank low caution light illuminates? - at 130 kgs of fuel in the main tank 53. When does ENG FUEL PRESS caution light illuminates? - Fuel boost pressure to engine inlet inadequate (less than 5.5 psi) 54. What is the ALTERNATE RUDDER POWER SYSTEM (MOD 1893 aircraft)? - APRS provides hydraulic power to the No. 2 rudder actuator if No. 1 and No. 2 hydraulic system fluid is lost 55. The number 1 hydraulic system powers? - Flaps, Antiskid, Inboard roll spoilers, Lower rudder PCU,PTU. 56. What is the minimum dispatch quantities for the number 1 and number 2 hydraulic systems? - 1.5 US quarts and 3.0 US quarts 57. What is true about the PTU? - All of the above 58. The nominal pressure for each hydraulic engine driven pump is? - 2900 PSI 59. What is the minimum brake hydraulic pressure for engine start? - 1500 PSI 60. What is the minimum oil temperature for adequate inlet splitter deicing? - 36 degrees Celsius 61. How long does each boot inflate for in automatic mode? - 10 seconds 62. When should the valve heat be selected on? - Any time the boots are on 63. What is the dwell time for the boots in fast and in slow? - 24 seconds in fast, 240 seconds in slow 64. What is the total inflation time of wing and tail boots? - 36 sec 65. What is the power source of prob heat? - AC. 66. What does the Inhibit Switch do? - Prevent normal landing gear extension when the handle is selected down 67. What does the light in the landing gear handle indicate? - Landing gear in transit, landing gear position does not agree with the handle position 68. What does the landing gear inop caution light indicate? - indicated gear sequence valve malfunction the gear must be extended using manual extension procedure 69. How is the landing gear controlled, actuated, and locked? - Electrically controlled, Hydraulically actuated, Mechanically locked 70. After an alternate landing gear extension, is nose steering available? - No 71. How is the main gear locked up and down? - Mechanical locks secure the landing gear in the UP and Hydraulic pressure is maintained on the gear when down. 72. What does the message CHECK NAV FREQ on the advisory display? - All of the above. 73. What does the message CHECK NAV SOURCE on the advisory display? - APP or BC mode has been selected while NAV source is either RNAV or AUX NAV selection. 74. When operating with VOR mode armed will the FD determine the intercept heading required? - No it will maintain the last heading til intercepted 75. During normal operations what is the BLEED configuration for take off? - On and Max 76. What will happen to the NSOV and the HPSOV if there is a loss of electrical power? - NSOV fails open, HPSOV fails closed 77. APU bleed air is used for: - To supply bleed to the pressurization system when one engine is inoperative 78. The temperature amber warning light on the ITT indicator illuminates at: - 950°C 79. Each engine of the Dash8 series 200 drives a bladed Hamilton standard propeller: - 4 80. Which statement is true about the propeller synchrophaser: - When active, keeps the propellers RPM at 900 RPM 81. Manual feather of a propeller is by: - Moving the condition lever to START AND FEATHER 82. What kind of propeller overspeed protection are provided? - Hydraulic 1250 / pneumatic 1308 83. The propeller should be within how many RPM difference before activating the synchrophase system? - 20 rpm 84. When does the MASTER CAUTION illuminate and extinguish? - Activates with a caution light activation, extinguished when pressed or Extinguish if the fault signal ceases 85. What is the only caution light that does not trip the master caution? - GPWS caution light 86. What are the tracking limits when the TCAS is selected to the ABV position? - from -2700 ft to +9900 ft 87. When a warning light illuminates what state does it come on with it? - Warning Light Flashing, Master Warning Light Flashing 88. What is the minimum dispatch quantity for the #1 and #2 systems? - #1 - 1.5 quarts #2 - 3 quarts 89. What is the Flap Extended Speed (VFE) for flap 5°? - 148 90. What is the maximum speed at which the airplane can be safely flown with landing gear extended? - 172 91. The minimum flight idle NH is: - 66% 92. What is the maximum lateral fuel tank imbalance? - 272 kgs 93. Maximum altitude with the landing gear and/or flap extended is: - 15000 ft 94. Maximum Altitude for Airstart: - 20000 ft 95. What is the prohibited range for the propeller? - 500 rpm 785 rpm 96. Boarding lights and Dome light are powered by: - Hot battery bus 97. What does emergency lights disarmed caution light indicates? - There is a power to the right secondary bus and the mergency lights are not in the ARM position. 98. What is the mimimum dispatch for fixed crew oxygen? - 1300 psi for 2 crew and 1800 psi for 3 crew.