Dash 8 Q400 Exam Paper PDF

1 - The Dash 8 Q400 is certified under the Airworthiness regulations of: JAR 23, FAR 23. X JAR 25, FAR 25. JAR 21, FAR 21. None of the above are correct. 2 - The Forward and Aft baggage compartments are classified as class : B. B and C respectively. A and B respectively. X C. 3 - The Dash...

1 - The Dash 8 Q400 is certified under the Airworthiness regulations of: JAR 23, FAR 23. X JAR 25, FAR 25. JAR 21, FAR 21. None of the above are correct. 2 - The Forward and Aft baggage compartments are classified as class : B. B and C respectively. A and B respectively. X C. 3 - The Dash 8 Q400 is certified for: Ditching. X Ditching provided the required safety equipment is installed. Fuel dumping. CAT 3 C operations. 4 - The number of infants carried is limited By : X the number of infant\'s life vests. By the insurance certificate. By the AOC. By the OM part A 5 - The AFCS is approved for autopilot (AP) approaches to: CAT 3 Limits. X CAT 1 Limits. CAT 2 Limits. 2 and 3 are correct Welcome to Q400. 01 6 - What is the minimum pavement width for a 180° turn? 28 Meters. X 26 Meters. 30 Meters. 25 Meters. 7 - The minimum N1 required to air-start an engine without a starter assist is: 10%. 13%. 18%. X 8% 8 - Which is correct with regards to Vmo: 0-8000 ft : 245 KIAS. at 10 000 ft : 282 KIAS. at 18 000 ft : 286 KIAS. at 20 000 ft: 275 KIAS and at 25 000 ft : 248 KIAS. X All are correct. 9 - Minimum Ambient Temperature is: -52 C°. -68 C°. -58 C°. X -54 C°. 10 - The automatic Take Off Power Uptrim value is : 10% Torque. 05 % Torque. 12 % Torque. X 10% Torque (Nominal). 02 11 - Vfe --Flap 10° is: 185 KIAS. 190 KIAS. X 181 KIAS. 175 KIAS 12 - Vmca-Flap 10° is: 102 KCAS. 105 KCAS. 85 KCAS. X 95 KCAS. 13 - Vmcg-flap 10° is : X 89 KCAS. 113 KCAS. 98 KCAS. 91 KCAS. 14 - Vfe --Flap 15° is: 181 KIAS. X 172 KIAS. 188 KIAS. 158 KIAS. 15 - Maximum Tailwind limit on a dry& wet runway for T/O and Landing is: 12 Kts. X 10 Kts. 25 Kts. 05 Kts. 03 16 - Maximum Crosswind limit on a contaminated runway for T/O and Landing is : , X 14 Kts. 32 Kts. 28 Kts. 36 Kts. 17 - The maximum operating altitude for T/O and Landing on a contaminated runway is: 5000 Feet. X 6000 Feet. 8000 Feet. 7500 Feet. 18 - What is the Maximum Certified Operating Altitude of the Dash-8-400? 2500 ft.. 25 000 m. FL250. X 25 000ft. 19 - Use of VOR without associated DME in APPR mode is : Tolerated. Recommended. X Prohibited. 1 and 2 are correct. 20 - The use of flap 35° in APPR mode with AP engaged is : Tolerated. Recommended. X Prohibited. 1 and 2 are correct. 04 21 - What is the maximum structural zero fuel weight? 25 174 Kg. X 25 855 Kg. 26 306 Kg. 25 550Kg 22 - What is the maximum structural ramp weight? X 29 347 Kg. 29 257 Kg. 29 367 Kg. 29 850 Kg. 23 - What is the maximum structural takeoff weight? 27 987 Kg. 28 998 Kg. X 29 257 Kg. 28 009 Kg. 24 - What is the maximum structural landing weight ? X 28 009 Kg. 28 150 Kg. 28 123 Kg. 28 000 Kg. 25 - Vfe --Flap 35° is: 148 KIAS. X 158 KIAS. 138 KIAS. 142 KIAS. 05 26 - Maximum Ambient Temperature is: +48 C° or ISA +38 whichever is lower. +52 C° or ISA +39 whichever is lower. +49 C° or ISA +37 whichever is lower. X +50 C° or ISA +35 whichever is lower. 27 - What is the maximum altitude for an Air Start? 18 000 Feet. X 20 000 Feet. 25 000 Feet. 22 000 Feet. 28 - VL₀ is: 215 KIAS. 210 KIAS. X 200 KIAS. 181 KIAS. 29 - VL₆ is: 204 KIAS. 210 KIAS. 181 KIAS. X 215 KIAS. 30 - VRA is: 215 KIAS. X 210 KIAS. 225 KIAS. 227 KIAS. 06 31 - After a Take Off and a GA the minimum height for AP engagement is: 500 Feet. 1200 Feet. X 1000 Feet. 400 Feet. 32 - VA is: X 204 KIAS. 200 KIAS. 210 KIAS. 217 KIAS. 33 - V MAX TIRE is: 185 Kts Ground Speed. X 182 Kts Ground Speed. 160 Kts Ground Speed. 172 Kts Ground Speed. 34 - Which is correct with regards to the maneuvering limit load factors: X Flaps retracted / +2.5 g and -1.0 g, Flaps extended/ +2.0 g and 0.0 g, Flaps retracted / +2.2 g and -0.5 g, Flaps extended/ +1.5 g and 0.0 g, Flaps retracted / +2.1 g and -0.3 g, Flaps extended/ +1.8 g and -0.5 g, Flaps retracted / +2.3 g and -0.8 g, Flaps extended/ +1.7 g and -0.5 g 35 - The maximum runway slope for T/O and Landing is: +2.5% uphill and -2.5% downhill. +3.5% uphill and -2.0% downhill. +2.7% uphill and -2.3% downhill. X +2.0% uphill and -2.0% downhill. 07 36 - Pushing the GO-AROUND button on the Power Levers displays the FD command bars: 5° pitch up. X 10° pitch up. 10° pitch down. 5° pitch down. 37 - For non-precision approaches the AP must be disengaged at or above: X 200 Feet AGL. 250 Feet AGL. 300 Feet AGL. 350 Feet AGL. 38 - AP and FD approaches are approved for G/S angles of: 2.5° to 3.0°. 2.0° to 3.5°. X 2.5° to 4.0°. 2.5° to 4.5°. 39 - Is the autopilot disengaged when the TCS button is pushed? Yes. No. X No, but the flight director bars are removed from view. Yes, but the flight director bars remain steady. 40 - VAQUAPLANING for T/O is: 115 Kts GS. 118 Kts GS. 121 Kts GS. X 107 Kts GS. 08 41 - Pushing the VNAV mode (momentary action): VNAV mode is only active when the HDG mode is also active. X VNAV mode is only active when the LNAV mode is also active. VNAV mode is not available if the FMS navigation is active. All of the above are false. 42 - How would you change the NAV SOURCE? Turn the NAV SOURCE selection knob on the ARCDU. Push in the EGPWS Flap Overide. Select Flap Selector at 15°. X Turn the NAV SOURCE selection knob on the FGCP (Flight Guidance Control Panel). 43 - How is the PLAN mode selected on the MFD? X Push FORMAT button for \< 2 seconds (SHORT PUSH ). Push FORMAT button. The PLAN mode can be used only on the PFD. The PLAN mode can be used only on the ED. 44 - An AP approach must not be commenced and continued when an engine is cooperative? X True. False. 45 - When will the FADEC automatically abort the start? If the engine does not light within 10 seconds and/or the ITT limit of 880 C° is exceeded and/or the NH does not reach 51% within 60 seconds. If the engine does not light within 08 seconds and/or the ITT limit of 925 C° is exceeded and/or the NH does not reach 51% within 40 seconds. X If the engine does not light within 16 seconds and/or the ITT limit of 920 C° is exceeded and/or the NH does not reach 51% within 70 seconds. If the engine does not light within 07 seconds and/or the ITT limit of 920 C° is exceeded and/or the NH does not reach 51% within 45 seconds. 09 46 - What happens when the F/A position on the cabin temperature control knob is selected ? Nothing. It gives temperature control to the flight attendant. Turn on the F/A Control enable light on the flight attendant\'s panel. X Both 2 and 3 are correct. 47 - How many fans does the avionics cooling system has ? 2. X 3. 4. All are incorrect. 48 - When selecting ONE pack to AUTO or MAN, the ECS controller will ? Both Packs will be operational. The RECIRC fan will run at light speed. Only ONE pack will be operational. X All are incorrect. 49 - If both air conditioning packs fail, how is the airflow to the cabin and flight compartment provided ? X RAM Air Ventilation. It gives temperature control to the flight attendant. By selecting bleeds to MAX. All are incorrect 50 - During normal operation, how is the airflow distributed to the cabin and flight compartment? 50% airflow from both packs goes to the cabin. 100 % airflow from RAM AIR, 50% goes to the cabin and 50 % to goes to the flight compartment. X 100% from the right pack and 50% from the left pack go to the cabin, and 50% from the left pack goes to the flight compartment. 1, 2 and 3 are correct. 10 51 - FLT COMPT PACK HOT\" Caution light illuminate,what does it means: X Flight compartment pack is too hot and ECU automatically shuts down the pack. Cabin pack is too hot and ECU automatically shuts down the pack. 1 and 2 are correct. 1 and 2 are false. 52 - When PACKS switch is set to MAN, Full cool targets is \_\_\_\_ & Full warm targets is \_\_\_\_: 08 C° & 27 C°. 15 C° & 27 C°. 15 C° & 71 C°. X 2,8C° & 71 C°. 53 - FANS FAIL Message: X Is displayed on ED if 2 avionic fans fail. Is displayed on ED & MFDs if the STBY fan fail. Is displayed on ED if the STBY fan fail. Is displayed on ED & MFDs if 2 avionic fans fail. 54 - How many ACM are provided for the environmental control system? 1. x 2. 3. 4. 55 - In what positions must bleed switches be for takeoff and landing? Bleed Switches -- OFF. Bleed Control Selector -- MIN. Bleeds ON&NORM. X Bleeds Min & OFF. 56 - When do the emergency lights turn on automatically? Never. x When there is a loss of electrical power from the LEFT MAIN BUS. When there is a loss of electrical power from L&R AC BUS. When switched OFF. 57- How is the emergency light system armed? Emergency switch to ARM on Caution/Advisory Panel. Flight Attendants switch set at NORM. By setting Anti Collision light on Red. X 1 and 2 are correct. 58 - What position must the emergency light switches be in to charge the battery packs? EMER LIGHTS - ARM or OFF. Flight Attendants switch set at NORM. Flight Attendants switches set at ON. X 1 & 2 are correct. 59 - Name two lights operated off the hot battery bus ? Dome Lights. Boarding lights. Position lights. X 1 and 2. 60 - Is the TAXI light automatically turned off after gear retraction? X Yes, but it must be selected OFF prior to take-off. No. No except if landing lights are ON. 2 and 3 are correct. 12 61 - The normal cabin pressure differential limit is? 5.35 PSI +/- 0.1 psid. X 5.46 PSI +/- 0.1 psid. 5.25 PSI +/- 0.25 psid. 5.95 PSI +/- 0.50 psid. 62 - The maximum cabin pressure differential limit is? X 5.95 psid. 5.85 psid. 5.65 psid. 5.55 psid. 63 - What is the maximum pressure differential limit during taxi, t/o and ldg? X 0.5 psid. 1.0 psid. 0.75 psid. 1.5 psid. 64 - The maximum cabin altitude (pressurized) is ? 9000 Feet. 8500 Feet. 7500 Feet. X 8000 Feet. 65 - The Q400 pressurization system can be controlled by: AUTO & MAN modes. Pressure Dump Mode. Emergency/Smoke Removal. X All above are correct. 66 - The FWD Safety valve is for: Emergency Operation. Smoke removal from the FLT Compartment. X A & B are correct. A & B are false. 67 - What is the visual indication that the cabin altitude is above 9800ft? X Master Warning + CABIN PRESS Warning Light Flashing. There are no indications. Master Caution + CABIN PRESS Caution Light Flashing. The cabin altitude cannot reach 9800ft. 68 - When does the takeoff memorization mode operates? When the AUTOMANDUMP Switch is in MAN. When the AUTOMANDUMP Switch is in DUMP. X When the AUTOMANDUMP Switch is in AUTO. 1 & 2 are correct. 69 - What is the purpose of the AFT safety valve? To inflate the seals of the service door. To inflate the seals of the pax door. To pressurize the aircraft while on the ground. X To prevent the aircraft pressurizing while on the ground. 70 - How are the safety valves opened? By suction (pneumatic). X By increasing the Cabin Rate. By decreasing the Cabin Rate. There are no safety valves. 71 - What is the component that controls and monitors the APU operation? APU over speed unit. Engine N°2 FADEC. APU GCU. X APU FADEC. 72 - From which fuel tank does the APU takes its fuel? Right Tank. X Left Tank. APU Tank. From Left and right tank. 73 - Can APU bleed air be used for air conditioning? , No. Yes. Yes, but bleeds must be on. X Yes, if RECIR FAN is switched ON. 74 - Which statement is correct ? APU is approved for Ground Operations Only. APU must be shut down prior to take off. APU must not be operated unattended with passengers onboard. APU must not be operated during gravity refueling. X All are correct. 75 - Would the APU automatically shut down in the case of a fire? No. X Yes and the bottle will discharge after 7 seconds. Yes and the bottle discharge immediately. Yes, if Left main DC bus powered. 15 76 - If FIRE TEST is pushed while the APU is operating, what happens? Nothing, APU still operate normally. APU fault, maintenance action required. APU Generator stops and APU bleed air continue to operate. X APU will stop (fuel valve will close). 77 - How many fire bottles are provided for engine fire protection? X Two bottles. Two bottles per engine. One bottle. One bottle per engine. 78 - Are there any portable fire extinguishers required in the flight compartment and cabin and if so, how? Yes, four but only for VIP Flights. Not required for ferry flight. No. X Yes, one in flight compartment and three in the cabin. 79 - Fire or overheat detection is by\...\... in the engine nacelles and \...\... in the APU? X 06 ADP , 01 ADP 02 Fire loops , 01 Fire loop. 03 Heat Sensors , 01 Heat sensor. None of the above are correct. 80 - Does the lavatory have smoke detector and fire bottle protection? X Yes, one smoke detector and one thermally activated fire bottle. No. Yes, two smoke detectors and no fire bottle. Yes, two smoke detectors and two fire bottles. 16 81 - How many high rate discharge fire extinguisher bottles does each bagage compartment has? 2. X 1. 3. 4. 82 - What happens when the PULL FUEL/HYD OFF handle is pulled? X Fuel and hydraulic valves are shut off and fire bottle squibs are armed. Only fuel valves are shut off. Hydraulic valves are open. Fire bottles are discharged. 83 - How many smoke detectors are installed in the cargo compartments? Two in AFT and Two in FWD cargo compartment. X Two in AFT and one in FWD cargo compartment. One in AFT and Three in FWD cargo compartment. There are no smoke detectors in cargo compartments. 84 - How many fire bottles are provided for the cargo compartments in total? One high, one low rate. X Two high rate, one low rate. Three high rate. Two low rate. 85 - How many PBE\'s should be on the aircraft before dispatch for flight? 1 PBE. 2 PBEs. 3 PBEs. X 4 PBEs. 17 86 - Which doors on the main landing gear are hydraulically operated? Two fwd doors. Left main doors. Right main doors. X Two aft doors. 87 - How many Emergency Exits are there in the Cabin? 1. 2. X 4. All are incorrect. 88 - Is there a caution/warning light for the Flight crew escape hatch? Yes indicated on the master warning panel. No, except on ground. Yes, in flight only. X No. 89 - Can the baggage compartments be used as an Emergency Exit? X No. Yes. Only the Aft. Only the Fwd. 90 - Which doors are equipped with inflatable rubber seals? AFT passenger door. Service door and FWD baggage door. X Forward passenger and AFT baggage doors. Flight Deck