PSYCH Final Exam PDF

Dec 9 10:30 60 multiple choice questions Cumulative Tuesday quizzes NO textbook, just the lecture Tuesday Quiz 1: 1.​ What is the primary reason spaced practice is superior to cramming? It allows more time for consolidation. 2.​ Which of the following options correctly describes an as...

Dec 9 10:30 60 multiple choice questions Cumulative Tuesday quizzes NO textbook, just the lecture Tuesday Quiz 1: 1.​ What is the primary reason spaced practice is superior to cramming? It allows more time for consolidation. 2.​ Which of the following options correctly describes an aspect of deception in a study? At some point, the participant must be told why deception was necessary in the study. 3.​ Which of the following statements correctly describes why each research method is susceptible to demand characteristics? Self-reports; because the questions participants are asked may reveal the variables being measured 4.​ Charleigh wants to investigate the relation between relationship status and life satisfaction. Which of the following is an appropriate strategy to control demand characteristics in her design? Include a measure asking about the participants’ religious beliefs. 5.​ In a study examining family relationships and confidence, participants anonymously completed one task asking about their relationship with their father, and another asking about their confidence. What risk is posed by this design? Demand characteristics 6.​ Katie believes in studying intensely right before a test, while Hallie does relaxed studying over a few weeks. If they were tested on the information one year after passing the course, how would their results compare? Hallie will outperform Katie. 7.​ In a study investigating whether caffeine consumption affects mental performance, Tate asks participants to drink either a caffeinated (has caffeine) or decaffeinated (doesn’t have caffeine) beverage. Then, he tests how quickly the  participants can press a button when they hear a sound. Which of the following correctly describes the conceptual independent variable? Caffeine consumption 8.​ Which of the following results would be an example of a correlation? Students who spent more hours studying were more likely to earn an A on their final exams. 9.​ Nick wants to perform a case study exploring how a musician uses their experience to add emotion to their performance. If he uses opportunity sampling, how many musicians does he need to recruit for the study? Exactly one 10.​What is a common issue of self-report data collection? Bias 11.​Which of the following options correctly describes an aspect of deception in a study? At some point, the participant must be told why deception was necessary in the study 12.​Which of the following is the best description of pre-registration in research methods? Publishing your design before collecting data 13.​Which of the following best describes a manipulation? Varying versions of a stimulus 14.​Which of the following students would have the greatest advantage of encoding specificity while they complete this quiz? Kylie, who is wearing the same perfume she does every day at school 15.​In an experiment testing the impact of background noise on concentration, participants are asked to complete a task in either a quiet or noisy room. What is a reasonable operational definition of "concentration?” The number of mistakes participants make on the task 16.​Logan says that according to the theory of Learning Styles (LS), he is a Visual Learner. Sandra says she is an Auditory Learner. If all other abilities are equal, how would they likely perform on a test remembering colored shapes? Logan and Sandra would score similarly on the test because LS’s don’t affect performance  17.​To test an anxiety medication, Sam decides to group participants so that everyone has an equal chance of receiving the real drug or the placebo. What research practice does this demonstrate? Random assignment 18.​Ryann is planning a research study with human participants, who will have to wear a head-mounted eye-tracking device during data collection. While the device is not painful or dangerous, it can be a bit uncomfortable, and some participants may get a headache from wearing the device. In this case, what would be the most important ethical practice for Ryann to address for approval? Risk/benefit ratio Tuesday Quiz 2: 1.​ There are two species of goats that share a relatively recent common ancestor. One species (Goat A) is physically larger and stronger, reproduces around every 200 days, and has 1–2 offspring per mating cycle. The other goat (Goat B) is smaller but a better climber, and reproduces around every 150 days with 3–4  offspring per mating cycle. Which of these goat species would be considered to have higher evolutionary fitness? Goat B 2.​ A birdwatcher is deep in the Amazon rainforest and discovers a new bird species. This new species has colorful feathers, and it appears that the male birds perform an action to draw attention to these feathers. What type of sexual selection trait is this species exhibiting? Display Feature 3.​ Male stag beetles possess brighter-colored bodies compared to females. This sex difference gives us one clue to the trait being sexually selected—which of the following would be another clue? Males and females have similar colors in December but different colors in June 4.​ If a species of woodpecker were originally together and got separated into two different islands. What evolutionary mechanism would occur if island A has nuts and island B has fruit? Adaptation 5.​ You are walking home from dinner with a friend when a tiger comes out of the alleyway to attack you. Which of the following accurately explains how you, a human, would realistically utilize one of the four “F’s” to survive? Run away from the tiger 6.​ Why do we use fruit flies to investigate how adaptations occur? New generations of fruit flies occur more frequently than new generations of humans 7.​ What is the primary reason females are more “choosy” in sexual encounters than males? A sexual encounter is riskier for females as they may have to carry a pregnancy 8.​ What is a common problem in studying evolution? Adaptations can take many generations to be observable 9.​ What do evolutionary psychologists study? How behavior is impacted by genetics 10.​ How are display features and weapons similar in function in terms of representing an organism’s fitness? Both indicate that an animal can take care of itself and pass on strong genetics to offspring  11.​What do the results of Wedekind and colleagues (1995) imply, as discussed in class? Women’s mate preferences can be predicted by evolutionary theory 12.​Which of the following is a similarity in traits seen between peacocks and bucks when discussing contributions to their fitness? Indicating health Tuesday Quiz 3: 1.​ What part of the neuron maintains the strength of the Action Potential as it travels down the axon? Myelin Sheath 2.​ Which forebrain structure regulates body rhythms such as sleep, body temperature, blood sugar, etc.? Hypothalamus 3.​ What is one example of a hormonal influence on the body? Bone, cartilage, and muscle tissue growth 4.​ What is one function controlled by the medulla? Heart Rate 5.​ Which of the main divisions of the brain are associated with survival functions and movement? The hindbrain 6.​ Your friend Daniel plans on taking a drug at a party. After paying attention to PSYC 110, you know that the drug acts by binding to neuroreceptors. What type of substance is Daniel planning on taking? Agonist 7.​ A researcher is observing the impact of sound on how neurons are firing and notices that the neurons of a participant are firing more frequently than they were at a previous stage of the experiment. According to what we discussed in class, what conclusion can we draw from this information? The loudness of the sound has increased. 8.​ An EPSP raises the membrane potential of a neuron to 25 mV above the resting potential. How will the neuron most likely respond? It would return to resting potential. 9.​ How would you, as a researcher, choose a brain for a post-mortem discussion? Researchers choose unusual brains that have suffered trauma or had mental illness.  10.​ You see Melissa has brown eyes. According to biology, what have you just observed? Phenotype 11.​What is one function of the temporal lobe? Facial recognition 12.​What is the primary difference between the central nervous system (CNS) and the peripheral nervous system (PNS)? The CNS consists of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord, the PNS consists of nerve cells outside of the brain and spinal cord 13.​Temporal resolution represents a brain imaging technique’s ability to do what? Identify the exact time an activation occurs 14.​Identify the exact time an activation occurs. Only ERP presents the same stimulus repeatedly 15.​If you are hungry and you eat your favorite meal, which of the following neurotransmitters would be the most involved with feeling satisfied after eating? Dopamine. 16.​Michael and Sarah—a biological boy and a biological girl—are full siblings who developed simultaneously in their mother’s womb. When Tanner hears this, he concludes they must be twins who developed from the same egg. Which of the following statements most accurately judges his statement? Tanner is incorrect because monozygotic twins have the same genetic makeup. Tuesday Quiz 4: 1.​ Why does neurodegeneration take place later in life? The brain is designed to be efficient and prunes unused connections. 2.​ Which of the following is a key disadvantage of cross-sectional studies? A person aged 50 in 2024 may respond differently than a person aged 50 in 2074 3.​ Which of the following is true of natural aging? Neuroplasticity decreases over time. 4.​ Which of the following describes typical sensory development in an infant? An infant is born with good hearing and poor vision. 5.​ What developmental knowledge does the case study of Genie help support? Stimulation is critical during sensitive periods for proper development. 6.​ Jackie, a nurse in a pediatric ward at Knoxville Children’s Hospital strokes the corners of a newborn’s mouth and does not see any sign of response from the baby. What response was Jackie looking for? Rooting Reflex 7.​ A mother visits her baby’s doctor, as she is finding that her baby is crying excessively anytime the mother leaves the room. The baby is often also inconsolable after the mother returns. What is the baby most likely experiencing? Ambivalent attachment 8.​ Which of the following questions would a child in the concrete operational phase of development struggle with? A teacher asks a child, “How might the world be different if humans didn’t have a sense of smell?” 9.​ What is an example of a secondary circular action? Throwing a toy across the room 10.​Which of the following statements correctly describes Erikson's Generativity versus Stagnation phase? Being focused on making improvements in the future and others around you 11.​Psychologist Harry Harlow researched attachment by placing infant monkeys in a cage with a cloth and a wire structure mother. What did his research show? Comforting touch is critical to infant development. 12.​In lecture, we watched a video about Parkinson’s and music. In that video, a Parkinson’s patient is attempting to improve their movement. Over a period of several days, they practiced walking on a treadmill. Which of the following accurately describes the effect of music on movement for that patient? Listening to music while walking on a treadmill improved the patient’s gait beyond the effects of simply practicing walking. 13.​A researcher is aiming to test fine motor skills in infants. The study has an infant drag themselves up against a table, walk across the hallway, jump over a couple  of toys, and grasp a pen. Which action will the researcher be most interested in? Grasping a pen 14.​A six-year-old child has mastered reading simple books with a few sentences on each page. They want to try to read a chapter book. According to Vygotsky, what would help the child to best be able to read a chapter book? They should be given a chapter book, and an adult should only help them if they come across a word they don’t understand Tuesday Quiz 5: 1.​ The 2016 Febreze ad campaign #NoseBlind discussed how teenagers lose sensitivity to the smells of their bedrooms due to using them every day. What tendency of perception best explains this phenomenon? Sensory adaptation 2.​ You and your friend are taking part in an experiment at your university psychology department. The researcher separates you from your friend and shows you both the same picture of a bouquet of flowers. Despite seeing the same photo, you and your friend describe it differently than your friend. What could have led to this difference? Perceptual set 3.​ An MRI determines that a patient has damaged the basilar membrane in one ear from the center to the apex. Which of the following frequencies will they be unable to hear from that ear? 7,000 Hz 4.​ Which of the following is an example of top-down processing? A person sees a water stain on a wall that they say looks like Mother Teresa. 5.​ Which of the following is an example of top-down processing? You are walking around your dorm in the dark, but you are able to navigate around because you remember where the furniture is 6.​ At what point in the perceptual process does sensory information become an action potential? Transduction 7.​ Which of the following statements is true of the structure of the ear? The organ of the corti contains the structures that convert physical sound into an action potential. 8.​ Which of the following accurately describes the difference between sensation and perception? ​Sensation relates to the detection of physical stimuli; perception relates to the processing and organization of sensory information. 9.​ At what stage in the taste pathway does the perception of "Sweet" occur? Primary Gustatory Cortex 10.​If a patient is blind in their left eye and is shown an object in their left visual field, which of the following would be true regarding the patient's perception of the object? The right cerebral hemisphere would primarily process the image. 11.​Your roommate asks you to turn down the volume of music playing in your room, so you turn it from level 10 to level 7. A few minutes later, they don't notice when you turn it up to level 8, so you immediately go to level 9, but then they get upset. What is the difference threshold you have just discovered, in levels? 2 12.​You see a group of people having a conversation across the street, yet you cannot hear them. Which of the following is related to why you may not be able to hear them? The volume of their voices is below your absolute threshold of hearing. 13.​As physical stimuli, movies are just thousands or millions of still photos displayed in sequence, but we still perceive them as moving. What Gestalt principle best applies to this perceptual phenomenon? Apparent movement 14.​Which of the following is an example of top-down processing? You are walking around your dorm in the dark, but you are able to navigate around because you remember where the furniture is 15.​What is the psychological perception of the height of a sound wave? Loudness 16.​Which of the following accurately describes the difference between sensation and perception? Sensation relates to the detection of physical stimuli; perception relates to the processing and organization of sensory information.  17.​When staring at a moving object for too long, how would a direction-specific neuron react? It will become less sensitive to movement. Tuesday Quiz 6: 1.​ How is memory affected by the primacy effect? Memory is better for items at the beginning of a list than the middle of the list 2.​ Which of the following best describes a schema? A way to organize concepts about the world 3.​ What are the three components of memory? Encoding, storing, retrieving 4.​ Which part of your brain plays the largest role in recalling fearful events? Amygdala 5.​ How is memory affected by the Recency Effect? Memory is better for items at the end of a presented list than the middle of the list. 6.​ Participants are asked to encode and recall a list of 12 words. Which of the following manipulations would have the most impact on the Recency Effect? Asking participants their birthdate after they hear the words 7.​ Alex studied for her Tuesday Quiz late at night while feeling tired and drinking coffee. On the day of the Quiz, she feels more alert, so she skips her usual cup of coffee. According to the principle of encoding specificity, how might this affect Alex’s performance? Alex’s performance may suffer because her state during recall is different from when he studied. 8.​ A person is studying for an upcoming biology exam and breaks down the vocabulary by words that are related to the same area of the body. What is this technique called? Chunking 9.​ When someone remembers their childhood home address, what type of memory are they using? Semantic Memory 10.​ Which of the following is an example of effective retrieval in the memory process? Remembering the name of a movie you watched last week when your friend asked you about it 11.​Which of the following statements correctly describes human memory? Memory includes context and interpretations and can be altered. 12.​According to the multi-store model of memory, which of the following is true? a. Information must first pass through sensory memory and short-term memory before it can reach long-term memory 13.​What is the average maximum duration of short-term memory? 10 to 30 seconds 14.​Which of the following is an example of Semantic Memory? Remembering there are 50 states 15.​John was an eyewitness to a crime. He thoroughly believes that the defendant is guilty and provides his testimony to the police at the scene of the crime and again weeks later at the trial. At the trial, he is shocked to discover that his testimony has changed between statements, and now sounds to be more against the defendant than ever. What memory distortion is John exhibiting? Memory bias 16.​You and your friend are eating at the dining hall when your friend asks what song is playing. You recognize the song, and tell your friend, “It’s on the tip of my tongue!” What is this an example of? Blocking 17.​Emily is studying for her biology exam by reading her textbook repeatedly. Her friend, Sandy, uses flashcards and tries to relate the new biology terms to real-life examples. Which of the following statements correctly identifies each of their strategies? Emily used maintenance rehearsal while Sarah used elaborative rehearsal. 18.​Which of the following is the best example of working memory? Holding your friend’s names in your mind while you type them into your group assignment Tuesday Quiz 7: 1.​ You agree to help your friend load boxes into her car, and after you finish, she asks you to unload the boxes at her place. Which persuasive strategy does this exemplify? Foot-in-the-Door 2.​ After a college football game between two fierce rivals, fights break out between fans. Some of the people involved later claim they started fighting because "everyone else was fighting and I wanted to fit in." What social psychology concept is this an example of? Social loafing 3.​ Bob sees his neighbor's house caught on fire, and there is a crowd of people around it. Bob does not call the fire department; he assumes other neighbors have already called. What social psychology principle is this an example of? Diffusion of Responsibility 4.​ You are running late to class and walking fast. While looking at your phone, you trip over a step. You immediately blame it on the steps being poorly made. According to the attributions discussed in class, what does this scenario represent? Situational Attribution 5.​ A company’s leadership team is making a critical decision about launching a new product. Even though some team members have doubts about the product, no one speaks up, and they all agree to move forward. What group dynamic is this an example of? Groupthink 6.​ According to Covariation Theory, which of the following factors would lead you to attribute someone’s behavior to external, situational causes? The behavior does not appear in other contexts. 7.​ What is the scientific term for someone who is secretly involved in the performance of a psychology experiment? Confederate 8.​ Which of the following is an example of ingroup/outgroup bias? A person shows favoritism toward members of their social group while stereotyping members of a different group.  9.​ Which of the following terms relates to helping someone with no reward attached to it? Altruism 10.​ Which of the following statements is true regarding verbal and nonverbal cues? Nonverbal cues are more important to impression formation than verbal communication. 11.​According to what we discussed in class about forming impressions, which of the following situations would produce the MOST positive perceptions between those involved? Hayden's lacrosse team recruits a player who he fought in the past, and on the same team, they become friends. 12.​While watching his favorite show, Nicky notices subtle product placements of Coca-Cola. Over the next few weeks, he starts craving and eventually buys Coca-Cola. What route of persuasion is at work here? Peripheral 13.​According to Covariation Theory, which of the following factors would lead you to attribute someone’s behavior to external, situational causes? The behavior is exhibited by only one person in the same situation. 14.​Who posed that an individual's arousal (or alertness) brought on by an audience can either improve or be detrimental to their performance? Zajonc 15.​According to the Correspondence Inference Theory, which of the following observations would make it more likely that we will attribute someone’s behavior to their disposition? Other people would respond differently in the same situation. Tuesday Quiz 8: 1.​ Which of the following is true regarding individuals who are asexual? They may enjoy romantic relationships. 2.​ Which of the following is an observation that supports the Alloparenting Hypothesis? Sexual fluidity is more socially accepted in women compared to men. 3.​ What part of our brain stimulates sexual behavior? Hypothalamus 4.​ Which of the following examples best describes gender dysphoria? A person experiences a disconnect between the sex assigned to them at birth and their experienced gender 5.​ Which of the following terms defines a strictly biological characteristic? sex 6.​ Which neurotransmitter is the mechanism for pornography addiction? Dopamine 7.​ Which of the following correctly describes self-stimulating behavior before puberty? It is primarily based on curiosity 8.​ John, a cisgender man, seeks help from a psychologist for lack of sexual interest. What diagnoses might he receive? Hypoactive Sexual Desire Disorder 9.​ Which of the following is an example of gender schemas? A child believes that only girls should play with Barbies and only boys should play with Hot Wheels 10.​ Which of the following individuals would be considered Pansexual? A biological male, attracted to a spectrum of identities, with a masculine gender identity. 11.​When do the secondary sex characteristics develop? During puberty 12.​Which of the following is someone who experiences no sexual attraction? Asexual 13.​Which of the following describes when someone only obtains sexual arousal from focusing on a nonsexual object? Fetishism 14.​Which of the following is an example of a trait which tends to be attractive to ONLY masculine identities? Maternal characteristics 15.​Which of the following correctly describes a change in the classification of homosexuality over different versions of the DSM? It was initially a personality disorder  16.​Which of the following best illustrates how learning theory explains the development of sexual behavior? Jamie’s sexual preferences are shaped by the repeated reinforcement of pleasurable experiences with certain behaviors Tuesday Quiz 9: 1.​ You own a delivery business that pays employees every three days regardless of the number of deliveries they make. When would you expect the most deliveries to be made? Right before payday 2.​ Which of the following statements is correct regarding Classical Conditioning? The US envokes a natural response. 3.​ Which of the following correctly describes spontaneous recovery? The re-emergence of a previously conditioned response after a period of extinction when the conditioned stimulus is presented again 4.​ Sandra decided not to read the textbook chapter and failed last week's quiz. This week, she read the textbook and took notes during class to avoid failing the quiz. What type of learning does this demonstrate? Associative 5.​ Sally, your friend in class, always tries to talk to you about her weekend while the professor is reviewing the course concepts. This is really distracting and you want her to stop. Being an expert in Operant Conditioning, you offer her a piece of candy when she stops talking. What kinds of Operant Conditioning are now associated with candies and talking in class? For Sally, it's a Reward. For you, it's Escape. 6.​ While playing poker with her friends, Adeline notices her friend always clears his throat before he folds (gives up his cards). What type of learning does this demonstrate? Sensitization 7.​ According to the textbook, what is a reasonable conclusion that can be drawn from Bandura’s Bobo Doll Study? Children will act aggressively after being exposed to violence. 8.​ Which of the following correctly illustrates the concept of extinction in Operant Conditioning? A dog that has learned to sit for treats no longer sits when given the command because it hasn’t been given treats recently. 9.​ James is a 4-year-old boy whose father enjoys doing some handyman work around the house on the weekends. After a few weeks, James's mother catches him using a plastic hammer on areas of the house his dad had been working on. What type of learning is James exhibiting? Social Learning 10.​ Which of the following is an example of Classical Conditioning? You listen to the same upbeat playlist every time you study for an exam. During summer break, you hear a song from that playlist and it makes you feel stressed. 11.​Which of the following definitions best describes the Law of Effect in Operant Conditioning? Behaviors that lead to positive outcomes are stamped in and behaviors that lead to negative outcomes are stamped out. 12.​You own a delivery business that pays employees every three days regardless of the number of deliveries they make. What type of reinforcement schedule would this be considered? FI-3 13.​If a driver isn't wearing their seatbelt, a car will usually make an annoying noise until they buckle up. What type of Operant Conditioning training does this utilize? Escape 14.​Pete usually eats his lunch around noon every day. Initially, Pete experiences hunger whenever his body needs food, but over time, Pete begins to notice that each day as the clock approaches noon, his stomach growls. According to Classical Conditioning, which of the following correctly identifies the conditioned stimulus and conditioned response? CS: Time of Day; CR: Hunger 15.​ A parent wants to use Operant Conditioning to teach their child to pick their jacket up off the floor after coming home from school. Which of the following plans would lead to learning that is the longest-lasting? Rewarding the child on random days, if they've picked up their jacket recently 16.​What is the difference between CS+ and CS- in classical conditioning? The CS+ is involved in a contingency but the CS- is not  17.​Jack sees a baseball player experience a knee injury, and he slightly feels it in his own knee. What component of learning does this demonstrate? Mirror Neurons. Tuesday Quiz 10: 1.​ Andy is considering quitting smoking. According to reported evidence, what advice should you give Andy for the most successful method of quitting? Quit cold turkey 2.​ Which of the following best explains how coping strategies mediate the impact of stress on well-being? Coping strategies provide ways to manage or reduce the emotional, psychological, and physical effects of stress, promoting better adjustment 3.​ Which common sexually transmitted infection is easily cured with antibiotics? Chlamydia 4.​ Which of the following best explains how eustress and distress differ in terms of their impact on an individual’s behavior and performance? Eustress can improve motivation and focus, while distress typically leads to decreased motivation, burnout, and impaired performance 5.​ Which of the following examples best illustrates eustress? John experiences nervous excitement before an important presentation and feels energized and focused during an event 6.​ Rachel is nearing the end of her semester at college and is feeling very overwhelmed with the amount of schoolwork she needs to get done. To deal with some of the stress, she decides to go for a long run. What type of secondary appraisal is this behavior an example of? Emotion-focused coping 7.​ Jenna feels a rush of adrenaline after a car accident but calms down to handle the situation. Once help arrives, she suddenly feels exhausted. What concept does this illustrate? General adaptation syndrome 8.​ Which of the following best describes the role of the fight-or-flight response in reaction to stress? It triggers the release of stress hormones, increasing alertness and preparing the body for immediate physical action  9.​ Ryan is in the middle of playing a basketball game. During his performance, he suddenly realizes he does not care what anyone else is thinking about his performance. What component of flow is Ryan experiencing? Loss of self-consciousness 10.​​​Being admitted to a prestigious university would likely elicit which type of stress? Eustress 11.​What neurotransmitter system does exercise affect the most? Reward 12.​Braden has been feeling sad and stressed since his breakup and has started journaling and exercising. How is he managing his stress? Emotion-Focused Coping 13.​In which stage of General Adaptation Syndrome are defenses maximized? Resistance Tuesday Quiz 11: 1.​ Which of the following best describes the relationship between Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs and drive reduction theory in motivation? Both state that motivation is driven by an imbalance or deficit in needs, and the fulfillment of these needs reduces the drive to act. 2.​ According to the Two-Factor Theory of emotion, which of the following best explains how emotions are experienced? Emotions are the result of both physiological arousal and the cognitive interpretation of that arousal, where the arousal itself doesn’t carry meaning until it is labeled by the individual. 3.​ Logan goes for a run in 30-degree weather, and his body warms up. After an hour of running, he is sweaty, and his face is flushed, which leads his body temperature to return to normal over time. What process explains this? Homeostasis 4.​ Which factor of motivation would make a person keep working toward a goal until it is achieved? Sustaining 5.​ Which of the following correctly supports the facial feedback hypothesis? A teacher smiles at a student to make them feel happier during class.  6.​ According to the Cannon-Bard Theory, how might you react if you see an appetizing meal? Your brain will process the stimulus, producing the feeling of desire and the bodily response of hunger. 7.​ Vincent is a painter. This hobby started for him as fun, but then one day someone offered to buy one of his paintings. The next week, another person asked him to paint a picture for them but were not willing to pay. Suddenly, Vincent did not feel a desire to create the painting. What concept discussed in class explains his behavior? The overjustification effect 8.​ Which of the following correctly demonstrates positive reappraisal, as a method of emotion regulation? Seeing a challenging class assignment as an opportunity to develop new skills and grow your knowledge. 9.​ According to the Need to Belong Theory, which of the following statements best describes why humans are motivated to form and maintain social relationships? Humans are motivated to form relationships because they have an innate need for social connections and positive interactions, which enhance emotional well-being. 10.​Which of the following examples best illustrates intrinsic motivation? Playing the piano because you enjoy the music. 11.​After eating a large meal from Canes, you find yourself feeling full and no longer wanting to eat. Which of the following hormones would be contributing to this feeling? Leptin 12.​What chemical is responsible for driving food-seeking behavior? Ghrelin 13.​Over the last handful of months Jason has felt more comfortable with himself as a person and begins to reach his goals and hopes. What stage on Maslow’s pyramid of needs has he likely reached? Self-Actualization 14.​ Which of the following factors would be considered an extrinsic motivation? Promotion Tuesday Quiz 12: 1.​ Sean has noticed he hasn't been feeling quite right lately. He notices this because he has really been struggling to take care of routine things such as  eating and showering regularly. Which of the four Ds would this situation most closely represent? Dysfunction 2.​ Which of the following is the best example of dysfunctional behavior? Angie checks the locks to her door many times every day, disrupting her daily routines. 3.​ Alice is a young woman with a habit of cleaning her apartment for 12 hours a day due to fears of contamination between the “dirty” outside world and her safe, clean space. What might her diagnosis be? Obsessive-compulsive disorder 4.​ Which of the following disorders does NOT have an equal prevalence in males and females? Generalized anxiety disorder 5.​ Cooper has recently started taking the bus to his classes in the morning. He has been noticing a woman hanging around his bus stop lately who mostly speaks in brief, one word sentences. When she does make sense, she only seems to speak about how she has been chosen by the President to lead a revolution. Which of the following is one of the negative symptoms of schizophrenia that the woman is experiencing? Alogia 6.​ Which of the following best explains the difference between deviance and distress in the context of abnormal behavior? Deviance refers to behaviors that violate social norms, while distress refers to behaviors that cause personal suffering or discomfort. 7.​ Which of the following correctly describes a potential issue that could arise when using the DSM-5 for diagnosis? Since the DSM-5 is based in categorization, high levels of comorbidity could lead to misdiagnoses of psychological disorders. 8.​ Chris has recently started playing on a rec league basketball team. He quickly becomes good friends with one of his teammates and enjoys talking to him. Throughout their season, Chris notices his friend goes through cycles of being gone often for multiple weeks at a time and when he does show up, he seems to have very low motivation and energy. After a few weeks in this cycle, Chris's teammate seems to go back to normal. What diagnosis best fits Chris's teammate? Major depressive disorder 9.​ According to the textbook, which of the following traumas is most likely to lead to the development of Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder? Intimate partner violence 10.​What is the diathesis-stress model? The idea that a disorder may develop when an underlying vulnerability is coupled with stress 11.​ Which of the following is NOT a valid criticism of the DSM-5? It results in cases of disorders being diagnosed more often than they should be. 12.​ Maddy has been feeling down for two months after putting her cat down. She cries frequently, avoids other pets, and has intrusive thoughts about her loss. What might a clinician diagnose her with? Adjustment Disorder 13.​What is the key characteristic that makes Bipolar II different than Bipolar I? Manic episodes in Bipolar II are less severe than Bipolar I 14.​ Which of the following correctly pairs a type of anxiety disorder and with a behavioral example? Alicia hasa social anxiety disorder. She worries about whether she will say or do the wrong thing around others, and that they will think negatively of her.