Patho Final Practice Exam 2024 PDF

Patho final practice exam 1. A client diagnosed with right-sided heart failure presents with bilateral bulging blue neck veins. What is the priority nursing intervention? a. Administering diuretics b. Assessing for peripheral edema c. Elevating the legs d. Not...

Patho final practice exam 1. A client diagnosed with right-sided heart failure presents with bilateral bulging blue neck veins. What is the priority nursing intervention? a. Administering diuretics b. Assessing for peripheral edema c. Elevating the legs d. Notifying the healthcare provider **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Bilateral bulging blue neck veins suggest jugular venous distension (JVD), a sign of right-sided heart failure. Assessing for peripheral edema is a priority to determine the severity of right-sided heart failure. 2. What is the consequence of the forward effect in left-sided heart failure? A. Increased perfusion to vital organs B. Activation of RAAS and sympathetic nervous system Flow blood C. Decreased blood flow to the lungs goes - back the D. Hypoxia and cyanosis to longs Primonary causing ejema **Answer: A** **Rationale:** The forward effect of weak left ventricle pumping leads to inadequate ejection of blood into the aorta, causing increased perfusion to vital organs. 3. Which diagnostic test is most appropriate for confirming an ischemic stroke? a. Magnetic Resonance Imaging (MRI) b. Computed Tomography (CT) scan  c. Lumbar Puncture d. Electroencephalogram (EEG) **Answer: A** **Rationale:** MRI is the preferred test for detecting ischemic strokes and providing detailed images of the brain. 4. What modifiable factor contributes to the development of osteoporosis? a. Age b. Genetics c. Sedentary lifestyle d. Female gender **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Sedentary lifestyle, lack of weight-bearing exercise, is a modifiable risk factor for osteoporosis. 5. What characteristic feature distinguishes rheumatoid arthritis from other forms of arthritis? a. Unilateral joint involvement b. Asymmetric joint swelling c. Symmetric joint involvement d. Isolated joint pain **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Rheumatoid arthritis typically involves symmetric joint swelling, affecting joints on both sides of the body. 6. A patient with type 1 diabetes experiences a hypoglycemic event. What is the initial intervention? A. Administering insulin  B. Providing oral glucose tablets C. Administering glucagon D. Encouraging carbohydrate intake **Answer: B** **Rationale:** For a mild hypoglycemic event, providing oral glucose tablets is the initial intervention. If severe, glucagon administration may be required. 7. How is tuberculosis primarily transmitted? a. Bloodborne transmission b. Direct contact with infected skin c. Inhalation of airborne droplets d. Sexual transmission **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through the inhalation of airborne droplets containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis. 8. Which assessment finding is indicative of a pneumothorax? A. Hyperresonance to percussion B. Increased breath sounds on affected side C. Bilateral chest symmetry D. Intercostal muscle retractions **Answer: A** **Rationale:** Hyperresonance to percussion is characteristic of pneumothorax due to the presence of air in the pleural cavity. 9. Uncontrolled hypertension may lead to:  A. Decreased cerebral perfusion B. Enlarged liver C. Renal failure D. Peripheral arterial disease **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Uncontrolled hypertension can lead to damage to the kidneys, resulting in renal failure. 10. How does stable angina differ from unstable angina? A. Stable angina is chronic, while unstable angina is acute. B. Stable angina is relieved by rest, while unstable angina is not. C. Stable angina is caused by myocardial infarction, while unstable angina is not. D. Stable angina is characterized by increased chest pain, while unstable angina is not. **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Unstable angina is not relieved by rest and may indicate a more acute condition requiring immediate attention. 11. Which symptom is specific to a gastric ulcer? A. Epigastric burning pain between meals B. Pain relief when eating C. Abdominal swelling D. Nocturnal epigastric pain **Answer: D** **Rationale:** Nocturnal epigastric pain is a characteristic symptom of a gastric ulcer. 12. What dietary recommendation is suitable for a patient with type 2 diabetes? A. High-carbohydrate, low-fat diet B. Low-carbohydrate, high-protein diet C. Low-fiber diet D. High-sugar diet **Answer: A** **Rationale:** A high-carbohydrate, low-fat diet is often recommended for patients with type 2 diabetes. 13. Which characteristic is associated with pink puffers in emphysema? A. Chronic hypercapnia B. Increased breath sounds C. Barrel-shaped chest D. Decreased tactile fremitus **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Pink puffers in emphysema are characterized by a barrel-shaped chest due to hyperinflation and overdistended alveoli. 14. What is a common feature of blue bloaters in chronic bronchitis? Peripheral edema Hypersecretion of mucous Cyanosis Hyperinflated alveoli **Answer: A** **Rationale:** Blue bloaters in chronic bronchitis often exhibit peripheral edema due to right ventricular failure. 15. What dietary advice should be given to a patient with diverticulitis? A. Low-fiber diet B. High-fiber diet C. Low-protein diet D. High-fat diet **Answer: B** **Rationale:** A high-fiber diet is recommended for diverticulitis to promote regular bowel movements. 18. Which area should the nurse palpate to assess for tenderness in a suspected case of appendicitis? A. Right lower quadrant at McBurney's point B. Left upper quadrant at Murphy's point C. Left lower quadrant at Cullen's point D. Right upper quadrant at Grey Turner's point **Answer: A** **Rationale:** Tenderness at McBurney's point in the right lower quadrant is indicative of appendicitis. 19. What is a characteristic finding in the urine output of a patient with acute kidney injury? Polyuria Anuria Hematuria Proteinuria **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Anuria (absence of urine output) is a characteristic finding in acute kidney injury. 20. A 35-year-old female presents with a history of recurrent episodes of visual disturbances, difficulty walking, and muscle weakness. She reports experiencing numbness and tingling in different parts of her body. Upon neurological examination, you observe signs of optic neuritis, impaired coordination, and hyperreflexia. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain reveals multiple lesions in the white matter. What is the most likely diagnosis, and what pathological process underlies the symptoms? A. Guillain-Barré Syndrome; peripheral nerve demyelination B. Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS); degeneration of motor neurons C. Multiple Sclerosis (MS); autoimmune demyelination in the central nervous system D. Myasthenia Gravis; antibodies targeting acetylcholine receptors **Answer:** C. Multiple Sclerosis (MS); autoimmune demyelination in the central nervous system **Rationale:** The patient's presentation of recurrent visual disturbances, difficulty walking, and muscle weakness, along with lesions in the white matter on brain MRI, is characteristic of Multiple Sclerosis (MS). MS is an autoimmune disorder that involves the immune system mistakenly attacking the myelin sheath, resulting in demyelination in the central nervous system. The symptoms are diverse and can include optic neuritis, impaired coordination, and hyperreflexia. Guillain-Barré Syndrome primarily affects the peripheral nerves, while Amyotrophic Lateral Sclerosis (ALS) involves the degeneration of motor neurons. Myasthenia Gravis is characterized by antibodies  targeting acetylcholine receptors at the neuromuscular junction. 21. What is a major cause of peptic ulcer disease? Chronic use of NSAIDs Excessive alcohol consumption Helicobacter pylori infection Stress and anxiety **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Helicobacter pylori infection is a major cause of peptic ulcer disease. 22. A 28-year-old female presents to the emergency room with complaints of a severe headache, fever, and neck stiffness. On examination, you note that when she flexes her neck, her knees involuntarily flex as well (positive Brudzinski sign). Additionally, straightening her leg causes pain in her lower back (positive Kernig sign). What is the significance of these findings, and what condition is strongly suggested by these signs? A. Tension headache; due to stress and muscle tension B. Migraine headache; characterized by severe throbbing pain C. Viral meningitis; often caused by enteroviruses D. Bacterial meningitis; a serious infection associated with Brudzinski and Kernig signs **Answer:** D. Bacterial meningitis; a serious infection associated with Brudzinski and Kernig signs **Rationale:** The positive Brudzinski and Kernig signs indicate irritation of the meninges, which is highly suggestive of meningitis. These signs are commonly associated with bacterial meningitis, a serious infection involving inflammation of the meninges. While viral meningitis can also present with similar symptoms, the severity and the presence of these specific signs raise concerns for a bacterial etiology. Tension and migraine headaches do not typically cause these physical examination findings associated with meningitis. Bacterial meningitis is a medical emergency, and prompt evaluation and treatment are essential to prevent serious complications. 23. What is a characteristic feature of Crohn's disease? Continuous inflammation Presence of pseudopolyps Involvement of the rectum only Skip lesions **Answer: D** **Rationale:** Crohn's disease is characterized by skip lesions, involving patches of inflammation with areas of normal tissue in between. 24. A patient presents with bilateral bulging blue neck veins (Jugular Venous Distension), peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly. What condition is the patient likely experiencing? Left-sided heart failure Right-sided heart failure Pulmonary embolism Myocardial infarction **Answer: B** **Rationale:** The symptoms, including JVD, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly, are indicative of right-sided heart  failure, where the right ventricle is unable to pump blood effectively. 25. A client reports experiencing dyspnea, cough with pink frothy sputum, and orthopnea. What type of heart failure is most likely causing these symptoms? A. Right-sided heart failure B. Left-sided heart failure C. Peripheral artery disease D. Myocardial infarction **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Symptoms such as dyspnea, pink frothy sputum, and orthopnea are characteristic of left-sided heart failure, where the left ventricle is unable to adequately pump blood forward. 26. A patient presents with sudden slurred speech, facial droop, and weakness on one side of the body. What should the nurse suspect, and what action is a priority? a. Myocardial infarction; administer aspirin b. Cerebrovascular accident; activate the stroke response c. Hypoglycemia; administer glucose d. Migraine; administer pain medication **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Sudden slurred speech, facial droop, and one- sided weakness are indicative of a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). Activating the stroke response and obtaining medical attention promptly is crucial. 27. A postmenopausal woman with a sedentary lifestyle, low body weight, and a history of corticosteroid use is at increased risk for: a. Osteoarthritis b. Osteoporosis c. Rheumatoid arthritis d. Gout **Answer: B** **Rationale:** The described risk factors, including postmenopausal status and corticosteroid use, increase the risk of osteoporosis, a condition characterized by decreased bone density. 28. A patient presents with joint swelling, deformity, and morning joint stiffness lasting more than one hour. What autoimmune condition is most likely responsible? Osteoarthritis Gout Rheumatoid arthritis Systemic lupus erythematosus **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Joint swelling, deformity, and morning stiffness are characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disease affecting the joints. 29. A patient with type 1 diabetes mellitus presents with glucosuria and ketonuria. What does this indicate? Hyperglycemia Hypoglycemia Hypertension Hyperlipidemia **Answer: A** **Rationale:** Glucosuria (glucose in the urine) and ketonuria (presence of ketones) are signs of hyperglycemia in diabetes mellitus type 1. 30. How is tuberculosis primarily transmitted? a. Sexual contact b. Ingestion of contaminated food c. Inhalation of airborne droplets d. Blood transfusion **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Tuberculosis is primarily transmitted through the inhalation of airborne droplets containing Mycobacterium tuberculosis bacilli. 31. A patient with chest pain, dyspnea, and absent breath sounds on one side is likely experiencing: a. Asthma b. Pneumonia c. Pneumothorax d. Pulmonary embolism **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Symptoms of chest pain, dyspnea, and absent breath sounds on one side are indicative of pneumothorax, a condition involving air in the pleural cavity. 32. Left ventricular heart failure is the leading cause of: a. Hypertension b. Pulmonary edema c. Atherosclerosis d. Myocardial infarction **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Left ventricular heart failure leads to the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, resulting in pulmonary edema. 33. In hypertension, damage to the heart is most likely to manifest as: A. Retinopathy B. Nephropathy C. Peripheral artery disease D. Left ventricular hypertrophy **Answer: D** **Rationale:** Hypertension commonly results in left ventricular hypertrophy as the heart works against increased pressure to pump blood. 34. A patient reports squeezing chest pain that radiates to the neck, jaw, and upper abdomen. The nurse suspects: Myocardial infarction Angina pectoris Pericarditis Aortic dissection **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Squeezing chest pain that radiates to the neck, jaw, and upper abdomen is characteristic of angina pectoris. 35. A patient complains of epigastric burning pain between meals, abdominal swelling, and nausea. What type of ulcer is suspected? a. Duodenal ulcer b. Esophageal ulcer  c. Gastric ulcer d. Peptic ulcer **Answer: C** **Rationale:** Epigastric burning pain between meals, abdominal swelling, and nausea are characteristic of a gastric ulcer. 36. What are the "Three P's" commonly associated with diabetes mellitus? a. Pallor, Pain, Palpitations b. Polydipsia, Polyuria, Polyphagia c. Paralysis, Photophobia, Paresthesia d. Peritonitis, Pleurisy, Pulmonary edema **Answer: B** 37. A patient presents with bilateral bulging blue neck veins (Jugular Venous Distension), peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly. What condition is the patient likely experiencing? A. Left-sided heart failure B. Right-sided heart failure C. Pulmonary embolism D. Myocardial infarction **Answer: B** **Rationale:** The symptoms, including JVD, peripheral edema, and hepatomegaly, are indicative of right-sided heart failure, where the right ventricle is unable to pump blood effectively. 38. A client reports experiencing dyspnea, cough with pink frothy sputum, and orthopnea. What type of heart failure is most likely causing these symptoms?  A. Right-sided heart failure B. Left-sided heart failure C. Peripheral artery disease D. Myocardial infarction **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Symptoms such as dyspnea, pink frothy sputum, and orthopnea are characteristic of left-sided heart failure, where the left ventricle is unable to adequately pump blood forward. 39. A patient presents with sudden slurred speech, facial droop, and weakness on one side of the body. What should the nurse suspect, and what action is a priority? a. Myocardial infarction; administer aspirin b. Cerebrovascular accident; activate the stroke response c. Hypoglycemia; administer glucose d. Migraine; administer pain medication **Answer: B** **Rationale:** Sudden slurred speech, facial droop, and one- sided weakness are indicative of a cerebrovascular accident (stroke). Activating the stroke response and obtaining medical attention promptly is crucial. 40. What neurotransmitter is primarily affected in Parkinson's disease? - **A.** Acetylcholine - **B.** Dopamine - **C.** Serotonin - **D.** GABA - **Answer:** B. Dopamine  - **Rationale:** Parkinson's disease is characterized by the progressive loss of dopamine-producing cells in the substantia nigra. 40. What imbalance of neurotransmitters occurs in Parkinson's disease? A. Increased dopamine and acetylcholine B. Decreased dopamine and increased acetylcholine C. Decreased dopamine and GABA D. Increased serotonin and decreased acetylcholine - **Answer:** B. Decreased dopamine and increased acetylcholine - **Rationale:** Depletion of dopamine leads to an imbalance with increased acetylcholine. 41. What pathological protein accumulation is associated with Parkinson's disease? A. Amyloid plaques B. Tau tangles C. Lewy bodies D. Beta-amyloid fibrils - **Answer:** C. Lewy bodies - **Rationale:** Accumulation of alpha-synuclein in structures called Lewy bodies is associated with Parkinson's disease. 42. Which of the following symptoms is NOT typically associated with Parkinson's disease? A. Resting tremor B. Muscle rigidity C. Increased muscle movement D. Bradykinesia - **Answer:** C. Increased muscle movement - **Rationale:** Parkinson's disease is characterized by decreased, not increased, muscle movement. 43. What is the primary clinical manifestation in the ocular form of Myasthenia Gravis? - **A.** Muscle weakness in the limbs - **B.** Diplopia (double vision) - **C.** Dysphagia (difficulty swallowing) - **D.** Neck pain and head bobbing - **Answer:** B. Diplopia (double vision) - **Rationale:** Ocular MG primarily manifests as muscle weakness in the eyelids and extraocular muscles, leading to diplopia. 44. In Myasthenia Gravis, what characterizes the fluctuating skeletal muscle weakness? - **A.** Muscle stiffness - **B.** Ptosis (drooping eyelids) - **C.** Dysarthria (difficulty speaking) - **D.** Emotional stress - **Answer:** B. Ptosis (drooping eyelids) - **Rationale:** Fluctuating skeletal muscle weakness is evident in symptoms such as ptosis. 45. What is a common precipitating factor for a myasthenic crisis in Myasthenia Gravis? - **A.** Stress - **B.** Physical exertion - **C.** High ambient temperature - **D.** Infection - **Answer:** D. Infection - **Rationale:** Infections are common triggers for myasthenic crises. 46. Which of the following is associated with severe Myasthenia Gravis? - **A.** Hypertension  - **B.** Hyperthyroidism - **C.** Aspiration and respiratory failure - **D.** Hypocalcemia - **Answer:** C. Aspiration and respiratory failure - **Rationale:** Severe MG can lead to respiratory muscle weakness and respiratory failure. 47. What is the priority nursing intervention for a patient with a spinal cord injury high in the spinal column? A. **A.** Administer pain medication B. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) C. Apply cervical bracing D. Check for neurological deficits - **Answer:** B. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation (ABCs) - **Rationale:** Respiratory complications are common in injuries above C4. 48. In spinal cord injuries, what is the significance of damage to the descending tracts? - **A.** Motor deficits - **B.** Sensory deficits - **C.** Autonomic dysfunction - **D.** Altered consciousness - **Answer:** A. Motor deficits - **Rationale:** Damage to descending tracts results in motor deficits. 49. What are the classic signs of meningitis? - **A.** Bradycardia and hypotension - **B.** Fever, nuchal rigidity, and headache - **C.** Visual and hearing loss - **D.** Abdominal pain and diarrhea - **Answer:** B. Fever, nuchal rigidity, and headache - **Rationale:** Meningitis is characterized by fever, nuchal rigidity, and headache. 50. Which type of meningitis is the most common? - **A.** Bacterial - **B.** Viral - **C.** Fungal - **D.** Parasitic - **Answer:** B. Viral - **Rationale:** Viral meningitis is the most common form. 51. What diagnostic sign is associated with meningitis and involves flexing the patient's neck to the chest? - **A.** Brudzinski sign - **B.** Kernig's sign - **C.** Babinski sign - **D.** Chvostek's sign - **Answer:** A. Brudzinski sign - **Rationale:** Brudzinski sign is positive when neck flexion causes involuntary hip and knee flexion. 52. In Gout, which blood test measures elevated uric acid levels? - **A.** Complete Blood Count (CBC) - **B.** Erythrocyte Sedimentation Rate (ESR) - **C.** Serum Uric Acid - **D.** White Blood Cell Count (WBC) - **Answer:** C. Serum Uric Acid - **Rationale:** Elevated uric acid in the blood is characteristic of Gout. 53. What blood test is commonly elevated in hypothyroidism? - **A.** Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) - **B.** Free T3 - **C.** Free T4 - **D.** Antithyroglobulin antibodies - **Answer:** A. Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) - **Rationale:** Hypothyroidism is associated with elevated TSH levels. 54. Which of the following is a risk factor for Type 2 Diabetes? - **A.** Age below 40 - **B.** Sedentary lifestyle - **C.** Low blood pressure - **D.** Normal body weight - **Answer:** B. Sedentary lifestyle - **Rationale:** Lack of physical activity is a risk factor for Type 2 Diabetes. 55. What blood test is used to monitor diabetes control over the past three months? - **A.** Fasting blood glucose - **B.** Random blood glucose - **C.** Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) - **D.** Oral Glucose Tolerance Test (OGTT) - **Answer:** C. Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) - **Rationale:** HbA1c reflects average blood glucose over the past three months. 56. Which blood test is elevated in a patient with hyperthyroidism? - **A.** Thyroid Stimulating Hormone (TSH) - **B.** Free T3 - **C.** Free T4 - **D.** Antithyroglobulin antibodies - **Answer:** C. Free T4 57. A patient presents with severe abdominal pain, and laboratory tests reveal elevated amylase and lipase levels. What could be a potential cause of the pancreatitis? - A) Chronic alcohol consumption - B) Hypercalcemia - C) Familial hypocalciuric hypercalcemia  - D) Long-term heavy alcohol use - **Answer:** D) Long-term heavy alcohol use - **Rationale:** Chronic alcohol consumption is a common cause of acute pancreatitis, and long-term heavy use can lead to this condition. 58. A patient is diagnosed with acute pancreatitis. Which of the following is a potential risk factor for this condition? - A) Increased vitamin D intake - B) Hypocalcemia - C) Total parenteral nutrition - D) Normal triglyceride levels - **Answer:** C) Total parenteral nutrition - **Rationale:** Total parenteral nutrition is associated with an increased risk of acute pancreatitis. 59. A patient with chronic pancreatitis reports a history of heavy alcohol use. What other condition is commonly associated with chronic pancreatitis in this patient? - A) Hyperlipidemia - B) Cystic fibrosis - C) Sjogren’s syndrome - D) Renal tubular acidosis - **Answer:** A) Hyperlipidemia - **Rationale:** Chronic pancreatitis is often linked to hyperlipidemia, especially in patients with a history of heavy alcohol use. 60. What hereditary disorder is commonly associated with the development of chronic pancreatitis? - A) Cystic fibrosis - B) Sjogren’s syndrome - C) Hypercalcemia - D) Familial hypercholesterolemia - **Answer:** A) Cystic fibrosis - **Rationale:** Cystic fibrosis is a hereditary disorder that can lead to chronic pancreatitis. 61. Which factor contributes to the permanent remodeling of pulmonary structure in COPD? - A) Increased alveolar elastic recoil - B) Thickening of bronchiole walls - C) Loss of smooth muscle hypertrophy - D) Reversible airflow limitation - **Answer:** B) Thickening of bronchiole walls - **Rationale:** In COPD, permanent remodeling involves thickening of bronchiole walls and loss of alveolar elastic recoil. 62. A patient with COPD experiences narrowing of the bronchioles. What is a consequence of this narrowing? - A) Increased alveolar elastic recoil - B) Excessive mucus production - C) Decreased smooth muscle hypertrophy - D) Reversible airflow limitation - **Answer:** D) Reversible airflow limitation - **Rationale:** Narrowing of bronchioles contributes to the reversible airflow limitation seen in COPD. 63. In Myasthenia Gravis, which neurotransmitter is affected, leading to muscle weakness? - A) Dopamine - B) Serotonin - C) Acetylcholine - D) Norepinephrine - **Answer:** C) Acetylcholine - **Rationale:** Myasthenia Gravis involves a deficiency of acetylcholine at neuromuscular junctions, resulting in muscle weakness. 64. What test is commonly used to diagnose Myasthenia Gravis in patients with ocular symptoms? - A) Serum uric acid - B) Edrophonium (Tensilon) test - C) HgbA1c - D) 24-hour urine collection - **Answer:** B) Edrophonium (Tensilon) test - **Rationale:** The Edrophonium test is an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor used to improve neuromuscular weakness in Myasthenia Gravis, especially in ocular symptoms. 65. What is the most common type of stroke? - A) Hemorrhagic stroke - B) Ischemic stroke - C) Embolic stroke - D) Transient ischemic attack (TIA) - **Answer:** B) Ischemic stroke - **Rationale:** Ischemic strokes, resulting from insufficient blood flow to the brain, are the most common type of stroke. 66. A patient presents with bilateral motor and sensory deficits, ascending muscle weakness, and absent deep tendon reflexes. What condition is likely? - A) Parkinson's disease - B) Alzheimer’s disease - C) Guillain-Barre Syndrome - D) Chronic Kidney Disease - **Answer:** C) Guillain-Barre Syndrome - **Rationale:** Guillain-Barre Syndrome is characterized by ascending muscle weakness, absent deep tendon reflexes, and sensory deficits. 67. A patient with Alzheimer's disease exhibits difficulty recognizing familiar people and completing daily living tasks. What term describes this symptom? - A) Anomia - B) Apraxia - C) Agnosia - D) Amnesia - **Answer:** C) Agnosia - **Rationale:** Agnosia refers to the inability to recognize familiar people or objects. 68. What neurofibrillary abnormality is commonly found in the brain of individuals with Alzheimer's disease? - A) Tau protein tangles - B) Amyloid plaques - C) Lewy bodies - D) Beta-amyloid deposition - **Answer:** A) Tau protein tangles - **Rationale:** Alzheimer's disease is associated with the formation of neurofibrillary tangles composed of tau proteins. 69. A patient with Parkinson's disease presents with slowed movements, resting tremor, and muscle rigidity. What neurotransmitter is primarily affected in this condition? - A) Dopamine - B) Serotonin - C) Acetylcholine - D) GABA - **Answer:** A) Dopamine - **Rationale:** Parkinson's disease is characterized by a deficiency of dopamine in the basal ganglia. 70. Which symptom is associated with autonomic disturbances in Parkinson's disease?  - A) Bradykinesia - B) Resting tremor - C) Shuffling gait - D) Unregulated blood pressure - **Answer:** D) Unregulated blood pressure - **Rationale:** Autonomic disturbances in Parkinson's disease can lead to unregulated blood pressure and heart rate. 71. A patient develops acute kidney injury due to decreased blood supply caused by cardiovascular collapse. What type of renal failure is this? - A) Prerenal - B) Intrarenal - C) Postrenal - D) Extrarenal - **Answer:** A) Prerenal - **Rationale:** Prerenal failure results from a decrease in blood supply to the kidneys. 72. What condition is associated with urinary outflow obstruction, leading to kidney dysfunction? - A) Prerenal failure - B) Intrarenal failure - C) Postrenal failure - D) Hyporeninemic hypoaldosteronism - **Answer:** C) Postrenal failure - **Rationale:** Postrenal failure occurs due to urinary outflow obstruction, such as kidney stones or enlarged prostate. 73. Which condition is considered a common cause of intrinsic renal failure? - A) Shock - B) Stones  - C) Nephrotoxic agents - D) Enlarged prostate - **Answer:** C) Nephrotoxic agents - **Rationale:** Intrinsic renal failure is often caused by nephrotoxic agents, ischemia, or intratubular obstruction. 74. A patient with chronic kidney disease presents with confusion, stupor, and coma. What is the likely cause of these neurological symptoms? - A) Hypertensive encephalopathy - B) Hyperglycemia - C) Hyponatremia - D) Elevated nitrogenous wastes - **Answer:** D) Elevated nitrogenous wastes - **Rationale:** Elevated nitrogenous wastes can affect the brain, leading to neurological symptoms in chronic kidney disease. 75. What is the significance of measuring glomerular filtration rate (GFR) in chronic kidney disease? - A) Identifying the cause of kidney disease - B) Assessing urine concentration - C) Determining the severity of kidney dysfunction - D) Evaluating electrolyte imbalances - **Answer:** C) Determining the severity of kidney dysfunction - **Rationale:** GFR is a key indicator of kidney function, and decreased levels indicate impaired renal function. 76. A patient with diabetes is prescribed insulin due to an autoimmune destruction of beta cells. What type of diabetes is this? - A) Type 1 diabetes - B) Type 2 diabetes  - C) Gestational diabetes - D) Insulin-resistant diabetes - **Answer:** A) Type 1 diabetes - **Rationale:** Type 1 diabetes results from an autoimmune destruction of beta cells, leading to insulin deficiency. 77. What blood test is used to monitor blood sugar levels over the past three months in patients with diabetes? - A) Fasting blood glucose - B) Random blood glucose - C) Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) - D) Oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) - **Answer:** C) Hemoglobin A1c (HbA1c) - **Rationale:** HbA1c reflects average blood glucose levels over the past three months. 78. A patient with hypothyroidism is likely to exhibit which blood test results? - A) High TSH, high T3, low T4 - B) Low TSH, low T3, high T4 - C) Low TSH, high T3, high T4 - D) High TSH, low T3, low T4 - **Answer:** D) High TSH, low T3, low T4 - **Rationale:** Hypothyroidism is characterized by elevated TSH and decreased T3 and T4 levels. 79. In hyperthyroidism, what blood test results are expected? - A) Low TSH, high T3, high T4 - B) High TSH, low T3, low T4 - C) High TSH, high T3, low T4 - D) Low TSH, low T3, high T4 - **Answer:** A) Low TSH, high T3, high T4 - **Rationale:** Hyperthyroidism is characterized by decreased TSH and increased T3 and T4 levels. 80. Which factor is considered a nonmodifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease? - A) Obesity - B) Hypertension - C) Age - D) Smoking - **Answer:** C) Age - **Rationale:** Age is a nonmodifiable risk factor, with males over 45 and females over 55 having an increased risk. 81. What lifestyle factor contributes to an increased risk of cardiovascular disease? - A) Regular exercise - B) Low-stress levels - C) Excessive alcohol use - D) Adequate folic acid intake - **Answer:** C) Excessive alcohol use - **Rationale:** Excessive alcohol use is a modifiable lifestyle factor associated with an increased risk of cardiovascular disease. 82. A patient with Guillain-Barre Syndrome experiences ascending muscle weakness. What is the characteristic progression of weakness in this condition? - A) Proximal to distal - B) Distal to proximal - C) Bilateral simultaneous weakness - D) Unilateral weakness - **Answer:** B) Distal to proximal - **Rationale:** Guillain-Barre Syndrome typically presents with weakness starting distally and progressing proximally. 83. What autonomic disturbance is commonly associated with Guillain-Barre Syndrome? - A) Hypertension  - B) Bradycardia - C) Hypotension - D) Tachycardia - **Answer:** D) Tachycardia - **Rationale:** Guillain-Barre Syndrome is often 84. What is the normal range for calcium levels? - a) 5.0 - 6.0 mg/dL - b) 8.6 - 10.3 mg/dL - c) 12.0 - 14.0 mg/dL - d) 15.0 - 18.0 mg/dL Answer: b) 8.6 - 10.3 mg/dL **Rationale:** The normal calcium level in the blood is 8.6 - 10.3 mg/dL. 85. *Which blood test result is expected in a patient with hypothyroidism?* - a) Low TSH - b) High T3 - c) Low T4 - d) High Antithyroglobulin (anti-Tg) **Answer: c) Low T4 **Rationale:** Hypothyroidism is characterized by a low level of thyroid hormone T4 (thyroxine). 86.What blood test result is expected in a patient with hyperthyroidism? - a) Low TSH - b) High T3 - c) High T4 - d) Anti Thyrotropin receptor antibody Answer: c) High T4 **Rationale:** Hyperthyroidism is characterized by elevated levels of thyroid hormone T4 (thyroxine). 87. What is the normal range for potassium levels? - a) 2.5 - 4.0 mmol/L - b) 3.5 - 5.3 mmol/L - c) 6.0 - 8.0 mmol/L - d) 8.5 - 10.0 mmol/L **Answer 4:** b) 3.5 - 5.3 mmol/L **Rationale:** The normal potassium level in the blood is 3.5 - 5.3 mmol 88. Which type of diabetes is characterized by a lack of insulin production? - a) Type 1 - b) Type 2 - c) Gestational diabetes - d) Prediabetes Answer: a) Type 1 **Rationale:** Type 1 diabetes is an autoimmune disorder resulting in the destruction of pancreatic beta cells, leading to insufficient insulin production. 89. What are nonmodifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease?  - a) Excessive alcohol use - b) Age - c) Sedentary lifestyle - d) High-fat diet **Answer b) Age **Rationale:** Nonmodifiable risk factors for cardiovascular disease include age, gender, race/ethnicity, and family history. 90. Which lifestyle factor is considered a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease? - a) Age - b) Smoking - c) Gender - d) Family history **Answer: b) Smoking **Rationale:** Smoking is a modifiable risk factor for cardiovascular disease. 91. What are the most common causes of chronic kidney disease? - a) Smoking and excessive alcohol use - b) Hypertension and diabetes - c) High-fat diet and sedentary lifestyle - d) Age and family history Answer: b) Hypertension and diabetes **Rationale:** The most common causes of chronic kidney disease are hypertension and diabetes. 92. In Guillain-Barre Syndrome, how does the weakness progress? - a) Bilateral muscle strength improvement - b) Unilateral muscle stiffness - c) Ascending muscle weakness - d) Localized muscle twitching **Answer 9:** c) Ascending muscle weakness **Rationale:** Guillain-Barre Syndrome is characterized by symmetric, ascending muscle weakness. 93. What is the normal fasting glucose level? - a) 50 - 70 mg/dL - b) 70 - 99 mg/dL - c) 100 - 125 mg/dL - d) 126 mg/dL and above **Answer: b) 70 - 99 mg/dL **Rationale:** The normal fasting glucose level is 70 - 99 mg/dL. Levels above 126 mg/dL may indicate diabetes. Certainly! Here are 10 NCLEX-style questions based on the provided information: 94. What is the primary risk associated with H. Pylori infection?  a. Coronary artery disease b. Gastric and duodenal ulcers c. Respiratory infections d. Kidney stones **Answer:** b. Gastric and duodenal ulcers **Rationale:** H. Pylori infection is known to increase the risk of gastric and duodenal ulcers. 95. Which of the following best describes Guillain-Barré Syndrome? a. A genetic disorder affecting the nervous system b. An autoimmune condition following a viral infection c. Chronic inflammation of the gastrointestinal tract d. A hereditary form of muscle weakness **Answer:** b. An autoimmune condition following a viral infection **Rationale:** Guillain-Barré Syndrome is an autoimmune condition that often occurs after a viral infection, leading to ascending muscle weakness. 97. What is the consequence of Status Epilexic? a. Permanent improvement in seizure control b. Increased cognitive abilities c. Brain death due to constant seizures and hypoxia d. Enhanced memory function  **Answer:** c. Brain death due to constant seizures and hypoxia **Rationale:** Status Epilexic refers to a state of constant seizures, leading to hypoxia and ultimately brain death. 98. In which stage of Alzheimer's disease does the individual experience forgetfulness, a decrease in memory, judgment, and ability to comprehend abstract ideas? a. Stage 1 b. Stage 2 c. Stage 3 d. Stage 4 **Answer:** a. Stage 1 **Rationale:** Stage 1 of Alzheimer's disease is characterized by forgetfulness, a decrease in memory, judgment, and abstract thinking. 99. What is the hallmark feature of Stage 2 Alzheimer's disease? a. Total dependency on others b. Presence of hallucinations and seizures c. Wandering behavior d. Development of confusion and failure to recognize faces **Answer:**  d. Development of confusion and failure to recognize faces **Rationale:** In Stage 2, individuals may develop confusion, have difficulty recognizing faces, and experience hallucinations and seizures. 100. What is the defining characteristic of Stage 3 Alzheimer’s disease? a. Wandering behavior b. Total dependency on others for daily living c. Presence of hallucinations d. Forgetfulness and memory loss **Answer:** b. Total dependency on others for daily living **Rationale:** In Stage 3, individuals become totally dependent on others for their daily living activities. 101. Which type of diabetes is associated with diabetic ketoacidosis? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Gestational diabetes d. Type 3 **Answer:** a. Type 1 **Rationale:** Diabetic ketoacidosis is more commonly associated with Type 1 diabetes. 102. What distinguishes Type 2 diabetes from Type 1? a. Insulin dependence b. Age of onset c. Genetic predisposition d. Presence of ketoacidosis **Answer:** a. Insulin resistance **Rationale:** Type 2 diabetes is characterized by insulin resistance, and individuals may not be insulin-dependent. 103. What is the acronym TIA stand for in medical terminology? a. Transient Inflammatory Aneurysm b. Temporary Ischemic Attack c. Thrombotic Ischemic Asphyxia d. Trans Ischemic Aneurysm **Answer:** b. Temporary Ischemic Attack **Rationale:** TIA stands for Transient Ischemic Attack, which is a temporary disruption of blood flow to the brain. 104. How does TIA differ from a stroke? a. TIA symptoms resolve within 24 hours  b. TIA causes permanent brain damage c. TIA is a hereditary condition d. TIA and stroke have identical symptoms **Answer:** a. TIA symptoms resolve within 24 hours **Rationale:** Unlike a stroke, the symptoms of TIA resolve within 24 hours, serving as a warning sign for an impending stroke.