OPS CBT .docx.pdf

ICAO-ANNEX 6………………………………………………………………………… A Flight Data Recorder is required in aeroplanes over: a) 7,000 kg b) 10,000 kg c) 5,700 kg d) 20,000 kg A flight engineer is required to be part of the flight crew if: a) The aeroplane has three engines or more. b) If there is a Flight Engineer station on the flight deck and the duty of that station cannot be satisfactorily performed by another flight crew member. c) If there is a Flight Engineer station on the flight deck. d) Flight time is expected to be more than 8 hours. A flight under IFR should not be commenced unless the indicated weather conditions at the destination or a nominated alternate will be: a) At departure time, equal to or above the operating minima for aerodrome use. b) At the intended time of arrival equal to or better than the aerodrome operating minima. c) At the intended time of arrival, and within a reasonable period of time before and after the nominated time, better than the operating minima for the aerodrome use. d) Throughout the period of the flight, at or above the minima for aerodrome use. A list to be carried in the aeroplane detailing minimum equipment required must be approved by: a) State of the manufacturer. b) No such book is required to be approved by an authority. c) State of the operator. d) State of operations. A Mach meter is to be fitted to the aeroplane: a) Where flight conditions are referenced to ISA. b) In areas where speed is reported using Mach no. c) When aeroplane speed limitations are expressed as a Mach no. d) For SST operations only. When a maintenance release has been issued for a flight, how long should the form be retained by the operator? a) 3 months b) 1 month c) 12 months d) 6 months A pilot in command: 1. Must comply with any ATC instruction immediately. 2. Is only responsible for the safety of the aircraft when airborne. 3. May deviate from the Rules of the Air in an emergency. 4. May only deviate from complying with Rules of the Air in order to comply with an ATC instruction. 5. May request a revised ATC clearance if the clearance received is unsatisfactory. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 3,4 & 5. b) All of the above. c) 3 & 5. d) 1, 3, 4 & 5. A pilot is not to act as pilot-in-command or co-pilot unless: a) He has completed 3 flights as pilot in an aeroplane or simulator of the same type to be used within the previous 30 days. b) He has completed 3 flights as pilot-in-command in an aeroplane or approved simulator of the type to be used in the previous 90 days. c) He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in an aeroplane or approved simulator of the same type to be used within the previous 90 days. d) He has completed 3 take-offs and landings in any aircraft or approved simulator within the previous 60 days. A transport category aircraft suffers an unserviceability on the ground prior to taxiing fot take-off. To which document would the pilot refer? a) Technical Log. b) Minimum Equipment List. c) Configuration Deviation List. d) Aeroplane Flight Manual Above what altitude are quick-donning masks required? a) 15,000 ft b) 10,000 ft c) 25,000 ft d) 32,000 ft Above what altitude is a radiation indicator required to be carried? a) 49,000.ft b) 39,000 ft c) 29,000 ft d) 66,000 ft Above what altitude is stored breathing oxygen required for the crew and all passengers in an un-pressurized aircraft ? a) 13,000 ft b) 11,000 ft c) 10,000 ft d) 12,000 ft According to ICAO Annex 6 a flight shall not be commenced in accordance with instrument flight rules unless the available information indicates that the conditions at the aerodrome of predicted destination or at an aerodrome of alternate destination are at the predicted time of: a) Arrival (ETA) equal to or better than the areodrome operating minima. b) Take-off equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. c) Arrival and for a reasonable time before and after such a predicted time equal to or better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. d) Arrival better than the minimum conditions required for aerodrome use. According to ICAO Annex 6 if a 255 seat aeroplane is carrying 251 passengers the required medical supplies to be carried is? a) Three First Aid Kits and One Medical Kit. b) Four First Aid Kits and One Medical Kit. c) One First Aid Kit and Four Medical Kits. d) Three Nurses and one Doctor. According to ICAO Annex 6 what is the minimum time between pilot proficiency checks ? a) 6 months b) 4 months c) 5 months d) 3 months Aerodrome Operating Minima (AOM) are based on several factors which combination of the following are factors assessed in defining AOM? 1. Runway length 2. Crew composition 3. Means used to report meteorological conditions 4. Obstacles in the go around and approach areas The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1,2,3 & 4. b) 1 & 4. c) 1, 2 & 4 d) 1, 3 & 4 Aerodrome operating minima are required to be specified for: a) Aerodromes to be used in IMC. b) Each of the aerodromes to be used in operations. c) Aerodromes where no convenient alternate exists. d) Only departure and destination aerodromes. After an accident the operator of an aeroplane equipped with a flight recorder must keep the original recordings for a minimum period of: a) 30 days b) 60 days c) 45 days d) 90 days An operator has to ensure that instrument procedures are used. When may a commander deviate from those procedures? a) When cleared by ATC. b) When cleared by JAA. c) When cleared by the Operator. d) When cleared by the Authority. An unpressurised flight where the cabin altitude is greater than 10,000ft will be required to carry stored breathing oxygen to supply : a) The crew and the passengers for any period that the atmospheric pressure in compartments will be more than 620 hPa. b) All crew members and 10% of the passengers for any period in excess of 30 minutes that the compartments are between 10,000ft and 13,000ft. c) All crew and passengers plus 10% for any period in excess of 30 minutes that the compartments are between 10,000ft. and 13,000ft. d) All of the cabin crew for 10 minutes Annexes to the Chicago Convention contain: a) All of the cabin crew for 10 minutes b) Standards and Recommended Practices. c) Search and Rescue Procedures d) Standards and Regulatory Procedures. Are you as the Pilot in Command permitted to switch off a flight recorder? a) Yes but only after an incident or accident. b) No it is illegal to switch it off. c) Yes if you want to talk privately to the First Officer. d) No because it will automatically reset itself and the previous recording will be lost At take off the mass of an aeroplane shall be a) Not more than the flight manual maximum for the specific conditions. b) Not more than maximum landing mass. c) Such that the take off run can be completed or safely abandoned up to Vr. d) Less than that which would enable compliance with any noise abatement procedure At what level do Reduced Vertical Separation Minima operations start? a) FL 290 b) FL 270 c) FL 410 d) FL 245 Before commencing a flight pilots and crew members are to be familiar with the laws regulations and procedures applicable to the airspace in which they are flying. Who is responsible for ensuring compliance ? a) The Operations Officer b) The Operator c) Individual crew members d) The Pilot in Command Before flight the Pilot is required to carry out certain acceptance checks. Which of the combination of the following are checks that must be carried out? 1. The aeroplane is airworthy 2. Instruments and equipment for the flight are installed and sufficient. 3 Mass and C of G are within limits. 4. Load is distributed and secured properly. 5. Aeroplane limitations can be complied with. 6.Maintenance release has been issued. 7. The Operational Flight Plan is in a fireproof container in the aeroplane. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) All the above except 7. b) 4, 5 and 6 c) 3, 4, 5 and 6 d) All the above except 1 Can a proficiency check be carried out in a simulator? a) No because it includes piloting technique it must be in an aeroplane. b) No simulators may only be used for type rating tests c) Yes but a confirmation check ride in an aeroplane is required d) Yes but only for the parts of the check for which the simulator is approved by the Authority of the State of the Operator. Destination alternate for a turbojet - what is the required fuel overhead? a) 30 minutes at cruise speed. b) 30 minutes at endurance speed. c) 30 minutes at 1,500ft in standard conditions. d) 2 hours at 1,500ft in standard conditions. During the flight crew pre-flight checks on a public transport flight a piece of equipment fails. In order to determine if it is safe to proceed : a) The Pilot in Command will consult the MMEL for guidance b) The Pilot in Command will consult the MEL in order to determine if the unserviceability can be accepted for the flight c) The ground engineer should confirm the fault and decide if the aeroplane can continue d) Pilot in Command will contact the Operator for a technical opinion on the unserviceability FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last: a) The whole flight. b) 25 hours of operation. c) 48 hours of operation. d) 30 hours of operation. Flight crew members on the flight deck shall keep their safety belt fastened: a) While at their station. b) Only during take-off and landing. c) From take-off to landing. d) Only during take-off and landing and whenever necessary by the commander in the interest of safety. Following an incident which contravenes local procedures or regulations of a state other than it's own state the action is : a) The PIC must notify the local Authority in writing within 7 days b) The Operator is required to notify the State of the Operator within 10 days c) The PIC must advise ATS immediately but no further action is required d) The PIC must submit any such required report to the local Authority with a copy to the State of the Operator (normally within 10 days) For a two engine aeroplane operating to the `engine-out' limitations when are life jackets required? a) 50nm from land. b) If deemed necessary by the Authority. c) Beyond gliding distance from land. d) 100nm from land. For an aerodrome to be selected as a take-off alternate : a) An aeroplane having three or more engines can be not more than two hours flying time away at the all engine cruise speed in ISA b) An aeroplane having two power units can be more than a distance of 1 hour's flying c) An aeroplane having three or more engines can be not more than a distance equal to two hour's flying time at the `one engine-out' cruise speed d) An aeroplane having two power units can be not more than one hour's flying distance at the single engine cruise speed at 1,500ft ISA For how long are completed flight preparation forms to be retained? a) 2 years b) 3 months c) 6 months d) 1 year How is a pre-flight inspection defined? a) The final inspection by the maintenance personnel. b) The commander's or first officer's walk round before a flight. c) The inspection carried out before flight to ensure that the aeroplane is fit for flight. d) The before flight inspection to look for factors needing final rectification. How may the Visual Approach be correctly described? a) An approach when part or all of the instrument approach is carried out visually with reference to the terrain. b) An approach where the conditions preclude an instrument approach. c) An approach when the use of instruments is not the method of reference. d) An approach which includes a visual circuit How often should pilot proficiency checks be performed according to ICAO Annex 6? a) Every 6 months. b) Twice a year. c) Every 4 to 6 months d) Every 6 to 8 months How should break-in points always be marked on aeroplanes? a) Red and yellow markings every 2 metres b) Red and yellow corner markings with intermediate lines in gaps greater than 2 metres. c) Yellow corner markings on a white background d) Corner markings coloured red or yellow with intermediate lines where outline is greater than 2 metres in length ICAO Annex 6 requirements for an aeroplane to be able to depart on an IFR flight are : a) that the conditions at the destination or at the Destination Alternate are forecast to be at or above the aerodrome operating minima at the time of intended time of arrival b) If the conditions at the destination aerodrome are forecast to be below aerodrome operating minima two Alternates are required which must be forecast to be within limits for the intended time of use c) that the conditions forecast for the destination aerodrome will be above the aerodrome operating minima on arrival d) Both b and c are correct If a report of a violation is required to whom is the report to be copied in addition to the primary addressee? a) The Authority of the State of the Operator. b) The Authority of the State in which the violation took place. c) The Operator. d) The ATCU in the State where the violation took place. If an operator establishes a minimum flight altitude for a route that altitude is to be: a) At least 1,000ft above the highest obstacle within 10nm of track. b) Not less than 10,000ft agl. c) Adhered to whilst flying IFR. d) Not lower than any altitude prescribed by the Authority of the State being over flown. If the commander of an aeroplane violates any rule regulation or local procedure a) He/she is to report the matter immediately only if flying under IFR. b) He/she is to report the matter immediately unless no other aeroplane is involved. c) He/she is to report the matter to the Authority in the State of registration immediately. d) He/she is to report the matter to the local Authority by the quickest means available. If the latest meteorological visibility is reported to be below the minimum required for a non-precision approach by which criterion must the approach be aborted? a) 1,000ft above the ARP. b) Final Approach Fix. c) Inner marker. d) Outer marker. If the VSO of an aeroplane at its maximum certificated landing mass is 111kts to which category does it belong? a) A. b) B. c) D. d) C. If there is unauthorised use of equipment that affects the aeroplane's system the commander: a) May authorise its use at his discretion. b) May authorise its use for take-off and landing. c) Must not authorise its use. d) May authorise its use for the whole flight. If you are planning to fly in an unpressurised aircraft at FL120 how much stored breathing oxygen must be carried on board a) Enough for the crew and all the passengers for any period when the cabin pressure is between 700hPa and 620hPa. b) Enough for 10% of the passengers and all the crew. c) Enough for 10% of the passengers and all the crew for the time when the cabin pressure is above 700hPa d) Enough for all the crew and 10% of the passengers for any period exceeding 30 minutes provided the cabin altitude does not exceed 13,000ft. If you were to fly along a route for which the minimum flight altitude has not been specified where would you find information concerning the approved method of calculation? a) In the AIP. b) In the Operations Manual. c) In JAR OPS-1. d) In Annex 2. In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 when must life rafts and pyrotechnics be carried? a) 30 mins at cruising speed or 100 nm from land whichever is the greater. b) When flying at a distance greater than 50 nm from land. c) 120 mins at cruising speed or 400 nm from land whichever is the lesser. d) 60 mins at cruising speed or 200 nm from land whichever is the lesser. In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 at take off time you are told that your nominated destination alternate is below minima. Under what circumstances can you take off? a) The destination has 2 separate runways. b) If it is forecasting to be equal to or above the minima at ETA. c) Providing the final portion of the flight is to be conducted under VFR. d) You cannot; it must be above minima at take-off. In accordance with ICAO Annex 6 if there are 150 passenger seats on an aeroplane how many first aid kits are required? a) 3. b) 1. c) 4. d) 2. In accordance with ICOA 6 to act as Pilot in Command of an aeroplane he/she must have a) made at least three take-offs or landings in an aeroplane of the same type or an approved simulator within the preceding 90 days b) made at least three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane within the preceding 90 days c) made at least three take-offs or landings in an aeroplane within the preceding 90 days d) made at least three take-offs and landings in an aeroplane of the same type within the preceding 90 days In determining Aerodrome Operating Minima what of the following needs to be considered? 1. Crew composition. 2. Ability to communicate/receive meteorological information. 3. Significant obstacles in the missed approach area. 4. Dimensions and characteristics of the runway. 5. Navigation equipment in the aeroplane. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 4 & 5. b) All of the above. c) 2, 3, 4 & 5. d) 1, 2 & 3. In order to preserve the integrity of a navigation system a design philosophy is employed; what is that philosophy? a) A full manual reversion system is incorporated in case of failure. b) Reliance on ground based navigation aids is to be minimised. c) A failure in one piece of equipment will not cause a failure in another. d) Gross navigation error is not to exceed 2nm In what circumstance can the requirements of a destination alternate be dispensed with? a) The landing can be made visually b) The weather along the whole route is forecast VMC until the ETA c) The destination is too isolated for a suitable alternate. d) There is sufficient fuel on board to return to the departure airfield. In which manual is the Minimum Equipment List included? a) In the Maintenance Documents. b) The Aeroplane Flight Manual. c) In the Operations Officer's documents. d) The Operations Manual. Information concerning evacuation procedures can be found in the: a) Operations manual. b) Flight manual. c) Operational flight plan. d) Journey logbook. It is a requirement that if a piece of navigation equipment fails a) A replacement item must be carried as a spare. b) The pilot-in-command will not have to refer to the MEL. c) ATC must be informed. d) The failure will not cause another piece of equipment to fail. It is recommended that a weather warning radar (AWR) be carried in areas where thunderstorms are likely to exist : a) In all aeroplanes at night. b) In all aeroplanes in IMC. c) In all aeroplanes carrying passengers in IMC d) In pressurised aeroplanes at night or in IMC. Life jackets are required when overflying water: a) 300 nm from land. b) 50 nm from land. c) 400 nm from land. d) 100 nm from land. Of the following people who specifically may have access to the flight deck? 1. A pilot positioning for a flight. 2. A person permitted according to the Operations Manual. 3. Wives of flight crew 4. Cabin crew members. 5. Representatives of the Authority. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1,2 & 4 b) 2,3 & 5 c) 1,2 & 5 d) 2,4 & 5 On an ILS you are told that the visibility has dropped below company minima. When must you abort the approach? a) Inner Marker. b) Start of the glide-slope descent c) Outer Marker. d) FAF On board a pressurised aircraft a flight shall be undertaken only if the aircraft is provided with an oxygen reserve enabling all crew members and part of the passengers to be supplied with oxygen in the event of cabin depressurisation for the whole flight period during which the pressure altitude is greater than: a) 10,000ft b) 11,000ft c) 12,000ft d) 13,000ft Over what period is the journey logbook required to provide a continuous record? a) 3 months b) 1 year c) 6 months d) 30 days Part of the safety equipment requirement carried on all land aeroplanes on long range over-water fights is : a) a sea anchor. b) A floating device equipped with an ELT. c) Life rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board at more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed (all engines operating) or 400 nms whichever is the lesser away from land suitable for an emergency landing. d) Life rafts in sufficient numbers to carry all persons on board at more than a distance corresponding to 120 minutes at cruising speed (1 power unit inoperative) or 400 nms whichever is the lesser away from land suitable for an emergency landing. Procedures for search and rescue are to be found in which document? a) Flight Safety Programmes b) Operations Manual. c) Operating Manual. d) Journey logbook. Refuelling an aircraft with passengers embarking or disembarking is: a) Permitted only if all stairs are in position. b) Permitted only if all stairs are in position. c) Permitted only if communications are maintained with the ground crew. d) Permitted only if the flight deck crew is on board. The "NO SMOKING" sign must be illuminated: a) In each cabin section if oxygen is being carried. b) During climb and descent. c) When oxygen is being supplied in the cabin. d) During take-off and landing. The authority of a State in which an aerodrome is located is required to produce calculated minima for the use of that aerodrome. Why then is the Operator required to specify Aerodrome Operating Minima for all the aerodromes likely to be used as destinations or alternates? a) The State minima are based on obstacle clearance AMSL and the aircrews require data referenced to aerodrome elevation b) It is not possible to calculate DH (A) from OCL data. c) The State minima do not take into account crew competence. d) Because the minima specified by the State is only basic information. The Chicago Convention Annex which is applicable to the operation of aeroplanes in commercial air transport is: a) Annex 1 b) Annex 2 c) Annex 6 d) Annex 9 The document that prescribes specific requirements applicable to member states for the operation of any civil commercial air transport aeroplane is: a) ICAO Annex 2. b) The UK AIP. c) JAR OPS-1. d) ICAO Annex 6. The JAR-OPS document is based on: a) Rules of the Air. b) ICAO Annex 6. c) A JAA guide line. d) Federal Aviation Requirements ( FAR ). The MEL is drawn up by: a) The operator and may be more restrictive than the MMEL. b) The state of registration and can be more restrictive than the MMEL. c) The operator and can be less restrictive than the MMEL. d) The manufacturer's aircraft list. The MEL is: a) A message from the national civil aviation authority about conditions that may affect the safety of flight. b) A list of equipment in an aircraft that may affect the airworthiness c) Meteorological Environment Limitation instructions from ECAC regarding conditions mentioned in the certificate of environment approval of the aircraft. d) A set of instructions which specifies the conditions under which a flight may commence if some of the aircraft equipment is unserviceable The Minimum Equipment List (MEL) is established by the: a) Aeronautical authority the airline operator depends on. b) Airline operator. c) Manufacturer. d) Civil Aviation Authority of the European states. The minimum fuel required by ICAO Annex 6 to be carried by a turbo-jet aeroplane on arrival at an isolated destination is : a) 60 minutes b) 2 hours plus enough for a hold for 15 minutes at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome c) 60 minutes plus enough for a hold for 30 minutes at 1,500 ft above the aerodrome d) 2 hours at normal cruise consumption The MMEL is compiled by: a) The aeroplane operator. b) The aeroplane manufacturer c) The authority of the state of manufacture d) The authority of the state of registration The MMEL is drawn up by the: a) Designer and may be more restrictive than the MEL. b) Designers and may be less restrictive than the MEL. c) Designers and may be less restrictive than the MMEL. d) Operator and may be less restrictive than the MMEL The pressure in the standard atmosphere at 13,000ft is : a) 420 hpa b) 720 hpa c) 520 hpa d) 620 hpa The recent experience conditions of a captain assigned to a flight on an aircraft by an operator must not be less than: a) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days. b) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months. c) 6 take-offs and 6 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 6 months. d) 3 take-offs and 3 landings as pilot in command on this type of aircraft during the last 90 days. The VFR minima for flight in Class B airspace above FL 100 are? a) 8 km forward visibility 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500m laterally clear of cloud. b) 8 km forward visibility and clear of cloud. c) 5 km forward visibility and clear of cloud. d) 5 km forward visibility 1,000 ft vertically and 1,500m laterally clear of cloud The visibility is just about on minima. Your DH for an ILS to runway 26L is 200ft based on an OCH of 120ft. You have made a `Pan Pan' call because you have carried out a precautionary shut down of the No3 engine. A report from an aeroplane that has just taken off gave a cloud ceiling of 150ft. What is the lowest height to which you are permitted to descend in order to obtain visual references for landing? a) 120 ft b) 150 ft c) 200 ft d) As low as is required to get the visual reference Through what angle can the regulatory green navigation light of an aircraft be seen? a) 140° b) 110° c) 70° d) 90° Through what angle can the regulatory white navigation light of an aircraft be seen? a) 140° b) 90° c) 10° d) 70° To act as co-pilot for take-off or landing you must have: a) Been at the controls for landing in the same type recently. b) Operated the flight controls as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 30 days. c) Been at the controls as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 60 days. d) Operated the flight controls during three take-off and landings as PIC or co-pilot on type in the last 90 days. To qualify as a commander a pilot must have completed: a) 3 take offs and 3 landings in the last 6 months. b) 6 take offs and 6 landings in the last 90 days. c) 3 take offs and 3 landings in the last 90 days. d) 6 take offs and 6 landings in the last 6 months. Type 1 & Type 2 FDRs must continuously record for at least the last: a) 25 hours of operation. b) 48 hours of operation. c) 30 hours of operation. d) The whole flight. Type I & II FDRs must keep data and parameters for at least the last: a) The whole flight. b) 25 hours of operation c) 30 hours of operation. d) 48 hours of operation. Under what circumstances must an aeroplane have a Mach meter fitted? a) If the aircraft was registered on or after 1 Apr 88 and has a MTMA greater than 5,700Kg. b) If it is required to fly in areas where speed is defined in Mach no. c) If it has the capability of flying faster than Mach 1.0. d) When aircraft speed limitations are expressed as a Mach no. Use of which piece of equipment from the following list is required to be included in the passenger brief? a) Break in areas b) Portable oxygen kits. c) First aid kits d) First aid kits What correctly describes the contents of the aircraft operating manual? a) The operational flight plan normal and abnormal operating procedures MEL. b) Checklists system details emergency procedures normal and abnormal operating procedure c) MEL checklists system details the operational flight plan. d) Emergency procedures training requirements system details aeroplane performance What is a flight data recorder required to do? a) Record all communications on the flight deck. b) Record all radio transmission from aircraft over 5,700 kg MTMA c) Record all 32 parameters d) Record continuously during flight. What is ASDA? a) The Acceleration/Stop Distance Acceptable. b) The Aircraft Specific Decision Altitude. c) The distance within which an aircraft must stop in the event of an aborted take-off. d) A local supermarket. What is not required for the operator to consider for the routes and areas of its operations? a) Aeroplane performance with regard to minimum flight altitude. b) Safe forced landing surfaces for all aeroplanes. c) Appropriate maps and charts. d) Meteorological services. What is recommended to be included in the Journey Log Book? a) Aeroplane registration names of crew members date of arrival signature of person in charge. b) Incidents duty assignments of crew emergency equipment date. c) Aeroplane nationality fuel calculations place of departure observations. d) Hours of flight time of departure nature of flight flight duty limitations. What is required for navigation in IMC? a) One VHF box and one HF box. b) Anti-icing equipment. c) A serviceable weather radar. d) Radio and navigation equipment for guidance until the visual point. What is the correct definition for Minimum Descent Height? a) The specified altitude on a precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without visual reference. b) The specified height on a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without visual reference. c) The specified height on a precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without visual reference. d) The specified altitude on a non-precision approach or circling approach below which descent must not be made without visual reference. What is the currency requirement for appointment as Pilot in Command? a) Two night landings in the last month b) 1,500 hours on type and not more than 100 hours in the last 28 days. c) Three IFR take-offs and landings in the last three months. d) Three take-offs and landings in the same type in the past 90 days. What is the requirement for the carriage of life rafts? a) 50 nm from land. b) 120 mins or 400 nm whichever is less where the areoplane is operated in compliance with the en-route "engine out" criteria. c) 60 mins flying time at the one engine out cruise speed. d) 30 mins or 120 nm whichever is less. What is the requirement for the issue of an AOC? a) Have facilities for all maintenance. b) Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority. c) Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes. d) Have registered offices in all countries of operations. What is the requirement regarding the carriage of a CVR for aircraft registered before April 1998? a) Record the last 25 hours of operation b) Record last 30 mins of flight. c) Record the last 48 hours of flight. d) Record for the duration of the flight. What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment? a) All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight. b) The failure of one piece does not affect another. c) All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications. d) If one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available. What must be ensured with respect to navigation equipment? a) All navigation equipment must be serviceable at the start of flight b) If one piece of equipment fails there must be a spare available. c) If an item of equipment fails the aeroplane can still be navigated to the required specification d) All equipment must conform to ICAO specifications. What skills constitute pilot proficiency checks? a) Simulator flying skills. b) Flying technique emergency procedures and IFR. c) The ability to conform with set procedures. d) The ability to land safely. When are all flight crewmembers required to have their seat belts fastened? a) When at their duty station. b) Always - unless absence is necessary to satisfy physiological needs. c) For take off and landing. d) In an emergency. When does an aeroplane require an HF radio system? a) When flying in areas where HF frequencies are specified for ATC communications b) When flying above FL55 in the Gander OCA. c) When flying below the level for VHF communications. d) At night or when flying over remote areas. When is a pilot permitted to dispense with the shoulder straps of the safety harness? a) In the cruise phase b) Above safety altitude c) At all times other than take-off and landing. d) If the shoulder straps interfere with his duties. When is MDH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation? a) The threshold is less than 2m above the aerodrome elevation. b) The threshold is less than 2m below the aerodrome elevation. c) The threshold is more than 2m below the aerodrome elevation. d) The threshold is more than 2m above the aerodrome elevation. When planning an IFR flight for a turbojet and a destination alternate is required - what is the required fuel overhead? a) 30 minutes at cruise speed. b) 2 hours at 1500 ft in standard condition. c) Fly via any predetermined point and remain airborne for 30 minutes at endurance speed. d) 30 minutes at 1,500 ft in standard conditions for approach and landing. When refueling is being conducted with passengers embarking/disembarking : a) a loading bridge must be in position at 2 of the aeroplane's exits and smoking is prohibited b) all flight crew must be on board c) refueling is strictly forbidden whilst passengers are embarking/disembarking d) communications must be maintained between the ground crew and a qualified crew member on board Where are the contents of the operational flight plan detailed? a) The journey log book. b) The operating manual. c) The operations manual. d) The aircraft flight manual. Where is general information about the carriage of Dangerous Goods to be found ? a) The AFM b) The Operations Manual c) JAR FCL d) ICAO Annex 6 Where is the general information about the carriage of dangerous goods to be found? a) Aeroplane Flight Manual. b) Mass and Balance Manual. c) Operations Manual. d) Operating Manual. Which aircraft are required to carry a Ground Proximity Warning System? a) A turbojet aircraft registered on 1 Jul 99 with a MTMA of 5,700Kg b) Any aeroplane with a MTMA greater than 15,000Kg. c) All turbine engined aeroplane with a MTMA greater than 5,700Kg or authorised to carry more than 9 passengers. d) A Turbojet aircraft registered on 1 Jan 2000 for the carriage of 9 passengers. Which combination of the following are items for which completed flight operations forms are required prior to flight? 1. The aeroplane is airworthy. 2. The operating limits can be complied with. 3. The load is secured safely and properly distributed. 4. The refuelling certificate has been completed. 5. Standards relating to flight operational planning have been complied with. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 3 and 4 b) All the above c) 1 and 3. d) 1, 2, 3 and 5. Which document is the JAA authoritative reference for operational procedures for commercial air transport? a) ICAO Annex 2. b) ICAO Annex 6 c) The UK AIP d) JAR OPS-1. Which document provides the basic structure for Standards and Recommended Practices of Commercial Air Operators? a) ICAO Annex 6 b) JAR OPS-1 c) ICAO Annex 2 d) The UK AIP. Which of the following are operators' responsibilities? 1. Employees must comply with the laws of the country in which operations are being conducted. 2. Cabin crew must be familiar with laws regulations and procedures applicable to the airspace. 3. Pilots and other flight crew members are familiar with aerodromes and navigation facilities to be used. 4. Commanders have all essential information concerning Search and Rescue services. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1, 2 & 4. b) All of the above c) 2, 3 & 4. d) 1, 3 & 4. Which of the following are valid criteria for a take-off diversion aerodrome? a) Not more than one hour's flying distance for an aeroplane with one engine out. b) Not less than two hours flying distance for a twin engined aeroplane. c) A distance equal to two hours or less flying time at 'one engine out' cruise speed for a four engined aeroplane. d) Not less than two hours flying distance for a three engined aeroplane with one engine out. Which of the following criteria must the landing mass of an aeroplane comply with? a) Allow a continuous descent on a 3ø glide path with cruise power set (no drag enhancers used). b) Land and stop within the LDA. c) Allow a fast turn off lane to be used at a speed up to 60kts d) Clear all approach obstacles and stop within the length of the runway (including the overrun). Which of the following is a requirement of the Operating Manual? a) It must include aeroplane performance specifications. b) It is acceptable for it to refer to other documents. c) It must contain normal abnormal and emergency operating procedures. d) It must contain all the information required by ICAO Annex 8. Which of the following is critical in noise abatement procedures? a) Maximum climb angle. b) Aircraft weight category. c) Take-off mass. d) Use of re-heat (afterburners). Which of the following is required to be on board for the area over which the flight is flown? a) Topographical maps indicating the position of every aerodrome worldwide. b) A local navigator in areas designated as remote. c) A supply of local currency. d) Information concerning the local Search and Rescue service. Which of the following is to be taken into account when approving the methods for calculating the minimum flight altitude? a) Airspace restrictions b) Composition of the flight crew. c) Obstacles in the missed approach area. d) Types of the altimeters fitted to the aeroplane. Which of the following parameters shall a Type II FDR record have? 1. Time. 2. Radio altitude. 3. Pitch attitude. 4. Pilot input to the primary controls. 5. Heading. 6. Angle of attack. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 2, 4 & 6. b) 1, 3 & 5. c) All of the above. d) None of the above. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the mass limitations of an aeroplane at the start of the take-off run? a) The mass shall not exceed that at which the limitations for take-off en-route flying and landing can be complied with. b) The mass shall not exceed the maximum emergency landing mass (without jettison). c) The maximum ramp weight less the mass of the fuel used for start-up and taxi. d) The mass shall not be greater than maximum possible take-off mass with one engine inoperative. Which of the following statements is correct concerning the take-off mass of an aeroplane? a) It must not exceed the flight manual maximum calculations for the specified conditions. b) It must be calculated in accordance with noise abatement criteria whatever the conditions. c) It shall be such that at the destination it shall be not less than landing weight. d) It shall be such that the aeroplane can be safely stopped on the runway in the event of a failure of the critical engine on the take-off run. Whilst flying a turbo-jet aeroplane how much holding fuel must be carried when planning to fly to a destination with an alternate? a) 30 minutes at 1,500ft above the alternate plus 15% of flight time at normal cruise consumption. b) 30 minutes at 1,500ft above the alternate in standard temperature conditions. c) 45 minutes at normal cruise consumption. d) 30 minutes at 1,500ft above the destination Who accepts the MEL? a) The state of the manufacturers. b) The state of the designers. c) The state where the flight takes place. d) The state of the operator. Who checks before flight that the aircraft's mass is such that the flight can be safely made and that any transported cargo is properly distributed and secured? a) The company's cargo technicians. b) The operator. c) The aeroplane commander. d) The mechanic on board or in his absence the co-pilot. Who compiles the MEL and where does it go? a) The manufacturer and in the Operations Manual. b) The operator and in the Operations Manual. c) The manufacturer and in the Flight Manual. d) The operator and in the Flight Manual. Who has to be satisfied that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight? a) Pilot in Command (P.I.C.) b) State of the operator. c) Operator. d) State of Registration. Who is required to raise a report concerning violations of rules and regulations by an aircraft? a) The Operator. b) The Authority of the State of Registration. c) The Air Traffic Controller concerned. d) The Pilot in Command Who is responsible for checking that an aircraft's load is properly distributed and secured before flight? a) The pilot-in-command b) Mechanic or co-pilot in his absence. c) Operator. d) Cargo loader. Who is responsible for compiling the MEL? a) The Operator. b) The aeroplane manufacturer. c) The authority of the State of Registration. d) The Authority of the State of manufacture. Who is responsible for completing the journey logbook? a) The Pilot in Command. b) A pilot. c) Any member of the flight crew. d) A qualified crewmember. Who is responsible for ensuring that the aeroplane is airworthy prior to flight ? a) The Operator b) The State of the Operator c) The Senior Maintenance Manager d) The Pilot in Command Who is responsible for ensuring that the passengers are informed about items of safety equipment designed for collective use? a) The Operator. b) The Pilot in Command. c) The First Officer. d) The flight attendants. Who is responsible for obtaining an appropriate clearance before initiating changes to a flight plan? a) The Air Traffic Controller b) The first officer. c) The pilot in command. d) The Operator Who is responsible for operational control? a) The Operator or his nominated representative. b) The ramp supervisor. c) The Commander. d) The Authority of the State of Registration. Who is responsible for the provision of additional aeroplane information in the event of a SAR incident involving the aeroplane? a) The aeroplane manufacturer. b) The Air Traffic Control centre in the FIR of departure c) The Pilot in Command d) The Operations Officer/Flight Dispatcher. Who is the operator to provide an Operations Manual for? a) For the Authority. b) All company personnel. c) Only for flight crew d) Operations staff. Who is to ensure safe handling of flights? a) The Pilot in Command. b) The Operator. c) The State of Registration. d) The Authority. Who issues and updates the MEL? a) The operator. b) The manufacturer. c) The designer. d) The authority. Who must be informed in addition to the State in which the aircraft is operating when an aircraft has been subjected to unlawful interference ? a) JAA b) The State of the Operator c) State of Manufacture d) The State of Design Who must ensure that any given aircraft malfunction complies with the MEL and therefore allows the aircraft to fly? a) The flight engineer or the on board mechanic if present. b) A representative of the company that owns the aircraft. c) The pilot in command. d) The operator. Who provides the operations personnel with the operations manual and the amendments to keep it up to date? a) Owner of aircraft. b) Aircraft manufacturer. c) ATS authority of the state of registry. d) Aircraft operator. Why is there a need for a Minimum Equipment List? a) The systems of the aircraft are so complex therefore the PIC needs a reference document to ascertain the effect of unserviceabilities b) So that a flight may be despatched with unserviceable instruments systems or equipment. c) To prevent a failure in one system having a `knock-on' effect to other systems. d) To enable minor defects to be ignored thus allowing the aircraft to be flown. With regard to the law of a country in which operations are being conducted Operators are responsible for: a) Ensuring that the Authority of that state is advised that where applicable the operator's employees would not be complying with national law. b) Ensuring that all employees know they must comply with the law of that country. c) Advising ICAO that compliance with national law is not possible. d) Ensuring that where National Law is at variance with ICAO procedures the Operations Manual contains details of notified differences. You are flying in accordance with ICAO Annex 6 and you took a pilot proficiency test in early January. The training captain details you for a similar test in May would this sufficient to qualify as a separate test? a) No to be valid there must be 6 months between tests. b) Yes as a JAR operator ICAO Annex 6 requirements do not apply. c) Yes the only requirement is for 2 tests a year. d) Yes because it will be a minimum of four months since your last test. You are planning a commercial air transport flight in an aircraft with two engines. What is the maximum distance from the aerodrome of departure that a take off alternate is permitted to be to cater for the case of an engine failure shortly after take off? a) 1 hour's flying time at the one engine out cruising speed. b) 193km. c) 2 hours flying time at the one engine out cruising speed. d) 100 nm. JAR OPS …………………………………………………………………………….. A copy of information to be retained on the ground for the duration of a flight includes the: 1. Operational Flight Plan 2. Technical Log 3. AIC's 4. NOTAM's 5. ATS Flight Plan 6. Mass and Balance details 7. Special Load Notifiaction The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1, 2, 4, 6 and 7 b) All of the above c) 1, 2, 3, 5 and 6 d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 According to JAR OPS a transport aircraft carrying passengers with a door to the flight deck must: a) Be lockable at the pilots station to prevent unauthorised access. b) Have a pressure seal to maintain pressure in event of cabin pressure loss. c) Be lockable from the outside. d) Have distinctive red or yellow access marks in case of blockage. According to JAR OPS is a child permitted to play with his `Game Boy' whilst the aeroplane is in flight? a) Why not the aeroplane is fitted with radar etc and there is no restriction on the use of those electronic gismos. b) If the operator considers that it will interfere with the aircraft systems it is not permitted. c) No it will annoy other passengers. d) No electronic equipment is not permitted in aeroplanes. According to JAR-OPS what are the requirements for the fitting of an airborne weather radar system? 1. All pressurised aircraft operated at night. 2. All unpressurised aircraft operated at night. 3. All pressurised aircraft operated in IMC where thunderstorms are expected. 4. Unpressurised aircraft with 19 seats operated in areas where thunderstorms are expected. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) All of the above. b) 1 & 2. c) 1,2 & 3. d) 1,3 & 4. After an accident or incident for how long should the operator retain FDR/CVR recordings? a) 45 days. b) 60 days. c) 90 days. d) 30 days. An aeroplane is operated over water at a distance of 340 nm away from an aerodrome where an emergency landing could be performed. Normal cruising speed is 180 kt. One engine out airspeed is 155 kt and it is capable to join the diversion aerodrome. a) Life jackets and rafts must be available for all occupants. b) Life jackets must be available for all occupants. c) The regulation does not require life jackets or rafts to be taken on board in this particular case. d) Life rafts must be available for all occupants. An operator must be approved in accordance with a JAR manual to ensure airworthiness of aeroplanes. What is that manual? a) JAR- 145 b) JAR-1.900 c) JAR-OPS. d) JAR-FC Each flight is subject to a preliminary file collecting a certain amount of information. The operator will see that this file is kept on ground. It particularly contains: 1. The weather conditions for the day including the weather forecast at destination. 2 One copy of the operational flight plan and if required the weight and balance sheet. 3 Copies of the relevant aircraft's technical log. 4. The en-route NOTAM documentation when specifically issued by the operator. 5. Special loads notification. 6. For each flight details of the day's performances and limitations with completed charts. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 2, 3, 4 & 5. b) 2 & 4. c) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 & 6. d) 1, 3 & 5. Flight information is available in the form of NOTAMs AIS briefing material AICs and AIRAC amendments. Which of these are required to be carried on board in flight? a) Only AICs affecting safety b) Only AIS briefing material c) NOTAMs and AICs d) NOTAMs and AIS briefing material. For an NDB approach with an MDH of 360 ft and a required RVR of 1,500 m and a reported RVR of 2,500 m when can you start this approach; ie which is most correct? a) When the cloud base is above 360 ft. b) When the cloud base is above the system minimum. c) With any reported cloud base. d) When the cloud base report is received. If installed the flight crew compartment door of all aeroplanes operated for the purpose of carrying passengers shall be capable of being: a) remotely locked from either inside or outside the compartment b) locked from within the compartment c) directly locked from outside the compartment d) remotely locked by cabin crew operation from outside the compartment In accordance with JAR OPS a copy of what information is to be left on the ground? a) NOTAMs Tech log Op flight plan mass & Balance Spec load notification. b) Passenger manifests notification of special passengers. c) Route specific maps and charts. d) AICs AISs and all company NOTAMs. In accordance with JAR OPS a copy of which of the following documents is to be left on the ground? a) The aeroplane noise certificate. b) The operations manual. c) Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight. d) Operational flight plan. In accordance with JAR OPS are you required to carry the Operations Manual in flight? a) Yes at all times. b) No it is sufficient to carry the aeroplane flight manual. c) No but you must carry certain extracts concerning crew duty and parts relating to conduct of the flight d) Only when flying across an international frontier. In accordance with JAR Ops if you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternative during what period must the weather forecast be above the minima for you to continue? a) 3 hours before to 3 hours after ETA. b) 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA c) 3 hours before to 1 hour after ETA. d) 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA. JAR-Ops 1.465 states that Operators are to ensure that VFR flights must be conducted: a) Only in uncontrolled airspace. b) Only when a flight plan is not required. c) In accordance with the procedures in the Operations Manual. d) In accordance with the Visual Flight Rules. JAR-OPS Part 1 applies to : a) Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of comemercial air transportation by any operator whose principle place of business is in a JAA member State b) Any civil or military aeroplane whose principle place of business is in a JAA member State c) Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of air transportation by any operator whose principle place of business was in a JAA member State prior to 1st October 1999 d) Any civil aeroplane for the purpose of commercial air transportation by an operator of aeroplanes over 10 tonnes MTOW or with a maximum seating configuration of 19 or more seats Of which of the following is a copy to be left on the ground? a) Crew licences b) Parts of the operations manual relevant to the flight. c) Operational flight plan d) The aeroplane noise certificate. On an IFR flight flying towards a destination when the forecast is such that you can fly both the approach and landing visually according to JAR-OPS you can dispense with the alternate if: a) The destination has 2 separate runways and the Met conditions are acceptable 1 hour before and 1 hour after ETA. b) The Met conditions at ETA are such that an approach and landing can be made visually. c) The PNR is less than 2 hours flight time from the destination. d) The flight time is in excess of 6 hours. Shortly after commencing a full ILS approach you are told that the weather has dropped below specified minima. When must you abort the approach? a) Inner Marker. b) Outer Marker (or equivalent position). c) Start of the glide-slope descent. d) FAF. The authorization for the transport of dangerous goods is specified on the: a) registration certificate. b) air operator certificate. c) insurance certificate. d) airworthiness certificate. The Commander is to be notified when certain categories of passengers are on board. Which of these are always notified? a) Persons with a physical disability b) Military personnel. c) Persons in custody. d) Drunks. The first part of JAR-OPS is applicable to: a) International Commercial Air Transport of JAA state members. b) Military & Police Transport. c) Any operations overflying JAA states. d) Civil Air transport. The first part of the JAR OPS document relates to: a) Aircraft proceeding from or over flying European States. b) JAA state operators flying civil commercial air transport aeroplanes. c) Treatment of passengers with pathological respiratory disorders. d) Aeroplanes in the police/defence. What is the system minimum for an NDB approach? a) 300ft b) 350ft c) 200ft d) 250ft What manuals are to be carried during flight? a) All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness b) Operations Manual in toto c) Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM d) Company instructions for all flight crew. What manuals are to be carried in flight? a) Company instructions for all flight crew. b) All those specified in the Certificate of Airworthiness. c) Operations Manual in total. d) Relevant parts of the ops manual and AFM. When Wet Leasing between JAA operators: a) The lessee will hold the AOC. b) A JAA operator providing the aeroplane and complete crew to another JAA Operator shall remain the operator of the aeroplane. c) The JAA member accepting the aeroplane will become the operator. d) A JAA operator providing aeroplane and complete crew to another JAA operator will relinguish operation. Where is permanent approval for the carriage of dangerous goods given? a) Air Operator's Certificate. b) Aircraft registration. c) Insurance certificate. d) Certificate of Airworthiness. Which of the following combination is a list of documents required to be carried on a commercial air transport aeroplane in flight? 1. Certificate of Registration. 2. Certificate of Airworthiness. 3. Noise Certificate. 4. The Air Operators Certificate. (Copy) 5. The aircraft radio licence. 6. Third party insurance certificate. 7. Crew Licences. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) All except 4 and 6. b) All the above c) All except 3 and 4. d) 1, 2, 5 and 7 With regard to PRM's an Operator shall ensure that : a) they make themselves known to the aircraft Commander b) they do not occupy seats where their presence could impede the performance of crews' duties c) they are permitted to sit where they wish d) they can occupy seats normally occupied by the cabin crew A copy of which of the following documents must be kept on the ground by a JAA operator for the duration of each flight? a) The operational flight plan. b) The ATC (Air Traffic Control) flight plan c) The meteorological forecast. d) The journey log ALL WEATHER OPERATIONS…………………………………………………….. A category A aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to: a) 2400m b) 3600m c) 1500m d) 1600m A category A aircraft is on a VOR approach with an MDH of 300ft. ATC give threshold mid-point and stop-end RVR's. When may the approach be continued below 1000ft above the aerodrome ? a) When all three RVR's are greater than 800m b) When threshold RVR is greater than 900m c) When the threshold and mid-point RVR's are greater than 990. d) When visibility is above 800m A category C aircraft can carry out an indirect (circling) approach followed by a visual manoeuvre only if the horizontal visibility is higher than or equal to: a) 2400m b) 1600m c) 3600m d) 1500mm A category I precision approach (CAT I) is an approach which may be carried out with a runway visual range of at least: a) 800m b) 500m c) 350m d) 550m A category II precision approach (CAT II) is an approach with: a) No decision height. b) A decision height of at least 50ft. c) A decision height of at least 200ft. d) A decision height of at least 100ft. According to JAR OPS 1.430 Airfield Operating Minima the lowest MDH using ILS (LLZ only) VOR NDB SRA no glide path approach is? Choose the correct answer from the following: a) VOR/DME - MDH 300ft. b) NDB - MDH 300ft. c) VOR - MDH 250ft. d) ILS (LLZ only) - MDH 200ft. According to JAR Ops when can special VFR be commenced? a) Visibility 3km or more. b) Visibility greater than 1,500m. c) Visibility no more than 3,000m. d) Greater than 5km vis. According to JAR-OPS 1.430 (Aerodrome Operating Minima) a Category IIIA approach has a Decision Height of less than 100 feet (or no DH) and a minimum RVR (Runway Visual Range) of: a) 300m b) 230m c) 250m d) 200m According to JAR-OPS what is the absolute minimum required RVR for CAT IIIB operations? a) 75m b) 100m c) 200m d) 150m Aeroplanes which fly at night must be lit. The port (left) navigation light is to be: a) Red and visible through an angle of 70° from dead ahead. b) Red and visible through an angle of 90° from dead ahead. c) Red and visible through an angle of 110° from dead ahead. d) Red and visible through an angle of 140° from dead ahead. Aircraft are categorised according to their threshold speeds multiplied by a factor. What aircraft category corresponds to a range of speeds 141kts - 165kts? a) C. b) D. c) B. d) E. Among the factors which are considered for a non-precision approach are: 1. MDA/MDH 2. DH 3. Ceiling 4. Horizontal visibility The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1 and 3 b) 1, 3 and 4 c) 2 and 4 d) 2, 3 and 4 An aeroplane has a VS1G of 120 kts. What is its category ? a) A b) C c) B d) D An aeroplane is said to be conforming to VFR if: a) It is in Class E airspace above 10,000 ft amsl and has an in-flight visibility in excess of 5 km. b) It is in Class B airspace and is maintaining clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. c) It is in Class G airspace at 750 ft above ground that is 1,000 ft amsl and has an in-flight visibility of 5 km. d) It is in Class G airspace at 2,000 ft above ground that is 1 500 ft amsl and is clear of cloud and in sight of the surface. An aeroplane is starting a non-precision approach with an MDH of 250 ft and minimum visibility of 750 metres. ATC gives threshold mid-runway and stop end RVRs. When may the approach be started? a) When threshold and mid-runway RVRs are greater than 750m. b) When the met viz is greater than 750m. RVR is for precision approaches only. c) When all 3 RVRs are greater than 750m. d) When threshold RVR is greater than 750m. An aeroplane with just one pilot may carry out a CAT 1 ILS approach with a runway visual range of: a) 800m b) 500m c) 400m d) 550m An observer on the flight deck of an aircraft at night sees an aircraft approaching from the forward right. Which navigation light seen would be the most likely collision risk? a) Steady white light. b) Steady red light. c) Flashing green light. d) Steady green light. An operator ensures that crew members are trained and assessed in Low Visibility operations. What is not a requirement in this respect? a) The training is conducted according to a syllabus approved by the Authority. b) The qualification is specific to type. c) Each flight crew member is qualified to a prescribed standard. d) Continuation training must be carried out in a simulator on a monthly basis. At 900ft above the aerodrome elevation on a VOR approach the visibility falls below the required minimum. The approach may be continued to the : a) Outer Marker b) minimum OCA c) FAF d) MDA Equipment fitted to aeroplanes for the purpose of navigation must comply with the stated minimum RNP specification. RNP stands for. a) Radio Navigation Precision. b) Radio Navigation Performance. c) Regulated Navigation Performance. d) Required Navigation Performance. How is VAT calculated? a) Vso x 1.3 b) The lesser of Vso or Vs1g c) VS0 x 1.23 d) VS1G x 1.3 In an area where RVSM applies equipment is required which can warn the crew when deviation from a selected flight level occurs. The warning threshold for deviation is. a) 300m b) 300ft c) 900m d) 1000ft In order to satisfy the requirements for the issue of an Air Operators Certificate the operator must appoint certain key personnel within the organisation. Which of the following is one of those key persons? a) A flight operations manager b) A ground training instructor. c) A ramp supervisor. d) A chief maintenance engineer. JAA All Weather Operations allows an Operator to reduce the take-off minima to an RVR of 125m (Cat A B and C) or 150m (Cat D) when : a) the runway threshold is visible b) the runway edge marking and centerline lighting is visible c) low Visibility Procedures are in force d) the required RVR value has been achieved for the touch-down point JAR OPS 1.465 (VFR Operating minima) establishes that the operator shall ensure about VFR flights that: a) For conducted VFR flights in airspace E flight visibility at and above 3,050m (10,000ft) is 5km at least (clear of cloud). b) Special VFR flights are not commenced when visibility is less than 3 km. c) For conducted VFR flights in airspace B horizontal distance from clouds is 1,000m at least. d) For conducted VFR flights in airspace F vertical distance from clouds is 250m at least. MDH and minimum RVR for a Cat D aeroplane making an approach on an ILS with no glide path is: a) 200ft and 800m. b) 250ft and 1200m. c) 200ft and 550m. d) 250ft and 800m. MDH is referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation when the : a) threshold is more than 3m (10ft) below the aerodrome elevation b) threshold is more than 2m (7ft) below the aerodrome elevation c) threshold is less than 2m (7ft) below the aerodrome elevation d) threshold is more than 2m (7ft) above the aerodrom elevation On a CAT II ILS an aeroplane must have: a) A fail-operational flight control system. b) Serviceable landing lights. c) Two pilots a serviceable radio altimeter and an ILS receiver. d) Authorisation to carry out approaches with a DH of less than 100ft. The aeroplane's VSO is reported to be 111kts at maximum landing mass to which approach category does it belong? a) C. b) E. c) B. d) D. The aircraft is of Category A. The runway has edge lights and high intensity centre line lights. There is an accessible alternate aerodrome and the two pilot crew is IFR qualified on type. The minimum RVR / Visibility required for take-off is: a) 300m b) 200m c) 150m d) 150 m if a threshold RVR is available. The Cat I minimum decision height is: a) 50 feet. b) No decision height. c) 200 feet. d) 100 feet. The information to be considered for a non-precision approach is: 1. Horizontal visibility. 2. Ceiling. 3. Minimum Descent Altitude. 4. Decision Altitude. The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1, 2 & 4 b) 1&4 c) 1, 2 & 3 d) 1&3 The information to consider for a non precision straight in approach is: 1. RVR/Visibility 2. the ceiling 3. the minimum descent altitude/height (MDA/H) 4. the decision altitude/height (DA/H) The combination regrouping the correct statements is? a) 1&3 b) 1, 2 & 3 c) 1&4 d) 1,2 & 4 The lowest MDH for a NDB approach is : a) 400ft b) 300m c) 300ft d) 250ft The minimum height to which one may descend on a CAT IIIA approach is: a) 100ft b) 0ft c) 25ft d) 50ft The minimum meteorological visibility for a circling approach in a Cat B aircraft is: a) 1,600m b) 3,600m c) 1,500m d) 2,400m The minimum RVR for a Category C aeroplane on departure assuming full facilities and multiple RVR is a) 125m b) 200m c) 150m d) 100m The minimum RVR requirement for a CAT1 ILS approach with two pilots is? a) 550m b) 350m c) 500m d) 800m The minimum visibility for a Cat C aeroplane on a circling approach is: a) 2,700m b) 2,500m c) 2,600m d) 2,400m The operator is required to establish special procedures for the carriage of certain passengers. Which of the following are classified as passengers for whom such procedures are required? a) Persons of reduced mobility (PRM) b) Children under 3 years of age c) People with medical conditions d) Stowaways. What are the circling minimum visibility and MDH for a Cat B aeroplane? a) 1,600 m and 400 ft. b) 1,500 m and 450 ft. c) 1,500 m and 600 ft. d) 1,600 m and 500 ft. What are the rules on the carriage of PRMs? a) They must provide their own food. b) Cannot impede the performance of crew duty. c) The Captain must meet them prior to departure. d) Must be seated well away from emergency exits. What are the threshold speeds for a Cat D aeroplane? a) 141 - 165 kts b) 121 - 140 kts c) 131 - 155 kts d) 145 - 160 kts What documents/information/forms must be carried on board the aeroplane? a) The Operational Flight Plan the complete Operations Manual the Aeroplane Flight Manual. b) The Journey Log Book The Certificate of Registration Relevant Met Information. c) The filed ATS Flight Plan the Certificate of Airworthiness Mass and Balance documentation d) The Technical Log the Aircraft Radio Licence the MMEL. What does an Air Operator's Certificate permit? a) The right to negotiate schedules with other operators. b) International air transport c) The carriage of passengers and cargo for reward d) The operation of aeroplanes for any purpose. What is a requirement for an Air Operations Certificate to be issued? a) The applicant must have its own maintenance organisation. b) The applicant must have the principal place of business in the state of issue. c) The applicant is required to have a flight operations department at all its regular aerodromes of use. d) The applicant must have its own training facilities. What is a requirement for an operator to be issued with an AOC? a) Have registered offices in all countries of operations. b) Have facilities for all maintenance. c) Not already hold an AOC issued by another authority. d) Have a fleet of serviceable aeroplanes. What is DH used for? a) Non-precision approaches. b) Precision approaches. c) Circling to land. d) Visual maneuvering. What is MDH applicable to? a) Visual manoeuvring. b) Circling approaches when OCA is not available c) Non-precision approaches. d) Precision approaches. What is the CAT IIIA RVR minimum ? a) 200m b) 50m c) 100m d) 250m What is the Cat IIIA RVR minimum? a) 100m b) 200m c) 250m d) 50m What is the circling minima visibility and the MDH for a Cat B aeroplane ? a) 1,600m 400ft b) 1,500m 600ft c) 1,600m 500ft d) 1,500m 450ft What is the minimum horizontal visibility for a Cat D aircraft on a circling approach? a) 2,400 m b) 1,500 m c) 3,600 m d) 1,600 m What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III no decision height approach? a) 100m b) 75m c) No minimum d) 50m What is the minimum RVR for a CAT IIIB approach when the aeroplane is flying with a fail-operational Roll-out Control/Guidance System? a) 125m b) 200m c) 75m d) 150m What is the minimum visibility for a Cat A aircraft during a circling approach? (2 marks) a) 1,600m b) 1,500m c) 2,400m. d) 3,600m. What is the take-off RVR limit for a Cat A aeroplane when centreline lights and edge lights are on and the crew is IFR qualified and approved? a) 150m if multiple RVRs are available otherwise 200m b) 250m c) 150m d) 200m What is VAT? a) VSO x 1.3. b) The lesser of VSO or VSIG. c) VS1G x 1.3. d) VS1G x 1.3. When establishing an instrument approach procedure 5 aircraft categories according to their speed at the threshold (Vat) are established. This speed is equal to the stalling speed in the landing configuration multiplied by a factor of: a) 1.3 b) 1.45 c) 1.5 d) 1.15 When is MDH for a precision approach referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation? a) Always b) Never c) If the threshold is more than 2m above the aerodrome elevation. d) If the threshold is more than 2m below the aerodrome elevation. When is OCH referenced to the threshold as opposed to the aerodrome elevation for a non-precision approach? a) The threshold is less than 2m above the ARP b) The threshold is less than 2m below the ARP c) The threshold is more than 2m above the ARP. d) The threshold is more than 2m below the ARP When is the No Smoking light to be illuminated a) During take-off and landing. b) During climb and descent. c) When O2 is supplied. d) In a compartment where O2 is carried. When low visibility procedures are in force but no lateral guidance is available the minimum RVR for a Cat C aeroplane taking off is: a) 75m b) 125m c) 200m d) 100m When may a commander depart from a published instrument approach procedure? a) If cleared by ATC. b) If the OCH is above the DH for the approach. c) In VMC. d) If following a heavy wake turbulence group aeroplane. Where is the missed approach point for a Precision Approach ? a) At the Inner Marker b) 0.5 nms from the threshold c) At DA/DH d) At the threshold Who is responsible for ensuring that all the maintenance requirements for the operation of aeroplanes are complied with? a) The maintenance manager b) The operator. c) The Chief Engineer. d) The chief executive of the maintenance organisation (provided the organisation is JAR 145 approved). Who is responsible for establishing procedures that the galley equipment and all cabin baggage is properly stowed prior to take-off and landing? a) The operator. b) The Senior Cabin Crew Member. c) The PIC. d) Individual Cabin Crew Members or passengers. INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENTS……………………………………………… A commercial aeroplane is scheduled to be operated at FL 390 and has the following characteristics: Maximum approved passenger seating configuration = 230 Number of seats on board = 200 Scheduled number of passengers on board = 180 The minimum number of oxygen dispensing units provided in the aeroplane cabin compartment should be: a) 200 b) 220 c) 180 d) 230 A JAA operated aeroplane is being radar vectored onto the ILS complying with System Minima for a CAT 1 approach. Shortly before reaching the OM an RVR of 500m for the landing runway is passed to the crew. The threshold elevation is 500ft and the aeodrome QNH is set. The Pilot flying should: a) Carry out a missed approach at 1,500 ft QNH b) Carry out a missed approach if no visual reference is achieved at the DA c) Continue to 1,000 ft above the aerodrome elevation and commence a missed approach if the RVR does not improve. d) If the RVR remains the same on reaching the OM carry out a missed approach. A JAA operator conducting single pilot operation must calculate the minimum RVR for all approaches restricted to a minimum of 800m except when: a) Using a suitable autopilot coupled to a ILS but applying non precision minima. b) Using a decision height based on 1.50 x minimum use height for the autopilot. c) Using a suitable auto pilot coupled to an ILS using normal minima. d) Conducting an autoland. A new aeroplane has an approved passenger seating of 55 with a take-off mass not exceeding 13,700Kgs. Is it required to be fitted with a crew interphone system? a) No because the C of A was dated after 1 April 1965. b) Yes because the approved passenger seating is greater than 19. c) No because the max take-off mass is less than 15,000 kgs. d) Yes because it was not registered in a JAA state before 1 April 1995. A public address system is required to operate an airplane whose maximum approved passenger seating configuration is greater than: a) 30 b) 9 c) 19 d) 61 A public transport aeroplane is intended to be operated at FL 370. The cabin is fitted with 180 passenger seats. The minimum number of cabin oxygen masks (dispensing units) required for this aeroplane is: a) 240 (one additional mask per seat block). b) 198 (110% of the seating capacity). c) 210 (one additional mask per seat row). d) 270 (150% of the seating capacity). A system where in the event of a failure there is no significant out-of-trim condition and the landing is not completed automatically but the pilot assumes control is known as a) A Triple AutoPilot System b) A Fail-Passive Hybrid Landing System. c) A Fail-Passive Flight Control System. d) A Fail-Operational Flight Control System. A warning device alerts the crew in case of an excessive cabin altitude. This warning must be triggered on reaching the following altitude: a) 14,000 ft (approx. 4,200 m) b) 10,000 ft (approx. 3,000 m) c) 12,000 ft (approx. 3,600 m) d) 8,000 ft (approx. 2,400 m) A windshield wiper is to be fitted to each pilot station of an aeroplane with a take-off mass: a) Greater than 3,600 kgs. b) Equal to or greater than 15,000 kgs c) Greater than 5,700 kgs. d) Equal to or greater than 5,700 kgs. Above which flight level do the regulations require a quick donning type of oxygen mask for the flight crew in a pressurized aircraft ? a) FL 250 b) FL 300 c) FL 390 d) FL 100 According to JAR Ops to what does the term `Low Visibility Procedures' refer? a) All procedures when the RVR is below minima. b) CAT I and II operations for landing and normal procedures for take-offs. c) CAT IIIB and CAT IIIC landing procedures. d) CAT II and III landing procedures and low visibility take-offs For a pressurised aircraft the first-aid oxygen is designed to: a) protect all the occupants against the effects of accidental depressurisation. b) provide oxygen to 10% of passengers at a cabin altitude exceeding 13,000 ft after 30 minutes. c) protect the flight crew and cabin attendants against fumes and noxious gases. d) provide undiluted oxygen to passengers for physiological reasons following a cabin depressurisation. If a door between compartments which have emergency exits is required to be used in an emergency it must have: a) A means to hold it open in an emergency. b) A locking means to prevent unauthorised use in normal flight. c) A caption stating that it is an emergency exit path. d) A caption stating that it is a fire door and must be kept closed at all times. If there are 18 fuses rated at 7A in an aeroplane how many spare 7A fuses must be carried? a) 18 b) 2 c) 1 d) 3 In accordance with JAR OPS when can special VFR be commenced? a) Visibility 3 km or more b) Greater than 5 km visibility c) Visibility greater than 1,500 m d) Visibility not more than 3,000 m In an unpressurised aeroplane with approved passenger seating of 9 is there a requirement to carry airborne weather radar? a) No if only flight in VMC is to be conducted. b) No. c) Yes. d) Yes if flight in IMC is expected. In determining threshold speed for an instrument approach aeroplane category the formula VAT = VS1G x 1.23 or VSO x 1.3 (whichever is the higher) is used to arrive at the category. What does VS1G mean? a) The sector one gradient speed. b) The stalling speed in the state 1 (landing configuration) condition. c) The minimum acceptable ground speed in the prevailing wind conditions to ensure that noise abatement procedures are complied with. d) The `one G' stalling speed. It is normal practice to couple the autopilot (flight control system) to the ILS for an ILS approach and landing. The systems are categorised as fail passive or fail operational. To what does this refer? a) In a fail passive situation the pilot will have to consult the MEL before continuing the approach. b) A fail passive system becomes a fail operational system when there is an equipment failure in the aeroplane. c) It determines whether the landing can be made automatically after a failure. d) It indicates the response if the localiser or glide path information becomes unreliable. On a VOR/DME approach MDH - 360 ft, Visibility 2,000 m (RVR required 1500 m) when can you start the approach? a) Cloud base above 360 ft. b) Whenever the pilot decides. c) Cloud base above the system minimum. d) No cloud reported. The minimum equipment required for a VFR flight is: 1. a magnetic compass 2. an ASI 3. a turn and slip indicator 4. an accurate time piece 5. a heading indicator The combination regrouping the correct statements is: a) 1,2 and 4 b) 1, 2, 3, and 5 c) 2, 3 and 4 d) 3, 4 and 5 The number of spare fuses available for use in flight must be: a) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 1 b) 10 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 3 c) 20 % of the number of fuses of each rating with a minimum of 2 d) 5 % of the number fuses of each rating with a minimum of 1 What are the minimum DH & RVR for a Cat D aeroplane without autoland on a CAT II approach? a) 50 ft and 300 m b) 100 ft and 350 m c) 50 ft and 50 m d) 100 ft and 300 m What is the definition of a low visibility take-off? a) A take-off where the cloud base is below 200ft b) A take-off where the aeroplane maintains the runway centre-line automatically. c) A take-off when Cat II and III operations are available. d) A take-off where the RVR is less than 400m. What is the horizontal angle of the red navigation light? a) 90° b) 110° c) 70° d) 140° What is the lowest decision height for CAT II operations? a) 50ft b) No decision height c) 100ft d) 200ft What is the minimum capacity of life rafts that must be provided for passengers in the event of the aeroplane ditching? a) Enough for 30%. b) Enough for 10%. c) To cover the loss of a life raft of the greatest capacity. d) To cover the loss of 2 life rafts. What is the minimum RVR for a CAT III no decision height approach? a) 100m b) No minimum c) 50m d) 75m What is the speed range of VAT of a Category B aeroplane? a) 95 - 120kt b) 91 - 125kt. c) 91 - 120kt. d) 121 - 140kt. What is the system minimum for a SRA terminating at 1nm? a) 300ft b) 200ft c) 350ft d) 250ft What is the threshold speed range for a Cat D aeroplane? a) 145 - 160kts. b) 141 - 165kts. c) 131 - 155kts d) 121 - 140kts. What would classify a condition when Low Visibility Take Off procedures would be required a) RVR less than 100m b) RVR less than 200m c) RVR less than 1500m d) RVR less than 400m With regards to departure which statement is true? a) Before commencing take-off the commander must be satisfied that the RVR is equal to or better than the applicable minimum. b) Before take-off the commander must ensure that the departure aerodrome is above the applicable minima for landing. c) Before take-off the commander must satisfy himself that the landing forecast is equal to or better than the applicable minimum. d) A commander must satisfy himself that the forecast RVR in the take-off direction is equal to or better than the applicable minimum. COMMS AND NAV REQUIREMENT…………………………………………………… A VFR aircraft used for flight in controlled airspace should have: a) 2 radios and an SSR transponder. b) One VOR ADF DME and ILS. c) Bearing indicator accurate barometric altimeter. d) Equipment necessary for VFR flight. A VFR flight in controlled airspace needs: a) Navigation equipment in accordance with IFR requirements. b) Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements. c) Navigation equipment in accordance with VFR requirements plus attitude indicator and precise barometric indications. d) More restrictive anti-icing systems. Does an aeroplane require two VOR receivers? a) Yes in MNPS airspace b) Yes if VOR is the specified navigation aid c) No d) Yes if flying on airways In accordance with JAR Ops which aeroplanes are required to have windscreen wipers fitted? a) Aeroplanes certificated for carrying more than 9 persons. b) Aeroplanes requiring two pilots. c) All aeroplanes with a MTOM greater than 5,700 kg. d) Turbine engined aeroplanes. Regarding an observer in the cockpit seeing an aeroplane crossing from the forward left to forward right what colour is the first light seen (at night)? a) Flashing white. b) Steady red. c) Steady white and steady green. d) Steady green. Through what angle can the green navigation light be seen? a) 130° b) 140° c) 70° d) 110° What aeroplanes require a crew interphone system? a) All commercial air transport aircraft. b) Single pilot operation aeroplanes. c) Aeroplanes with a MTOM greater than 15,000kg. d) Aeroplanes registered after 1 Apr 1965 certificated for 19 pax. What equipment must be fitted to an aeroplane for flight under VFR when not navigating by visual reference points? a) Two radio systems reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment. b) One radio system SSR transponder and one each of VOR ADF and DME. c) Two radio systems SSR transponder and one each of VOR ADF and DME. d) One radio system reply to SSR interrogation and sufficient navigation equipment. When is each flight crew member required to have an audio selector panel? a) If the take off mass is greater than 5,700Kg b) If an IFR flight plan is filed c) Where an intercom system is required to be fitted d) Where two pilots are required to be carried NAV AND INST NAV REQUIREMENT……………………………………………… According to JAR Ops the operator may not operate aircraft that do not conform to the ditching requirements over water further away from a suitable landing field than: a) 400nm or 120min at cruise speed. b) 200nm or 45min at cruise speed. c) 100nm or 30min at cruise speed. d) 300nm or 90 min at cruise speed. An aeroplane is at 60°N 010°E and is to fly to 60°N 020°E. The flight time is 1 hour in still air. The gyro is set with the reference to true north and not corrected in flight for precession. What is the required initial heading if a constant gyro heading is to be maintained? a) 086° b) 076° c) 066° d) 080° An aircraft leaves point P (60°N 030°W) on a true heading equal to 090° while the gyro compass which is assumed to be operating perfectly and without an hourly rate corrector unit indicates 000°. The aircraft arrives at point Q (62°N 010°W) on a true heading equal to 095°. On the journey from P to Q the gyro compass remains in free gyro mode. If the flight lasted 1 hour 30 minutes the gyro heading at Q will be: a) 345° b) 328° c) 334° d) 003° Astronomical (earth rate) precession is: a) Zero on the ground. b) Valid whether the aircraft is on the ground or in the air. c) Independent of latitude. d) Dependent on chart being used. At a high ambient temperature (+30°C) and with a relative humidity as low as 40% in air free of cloud fog and precipitation serious carburettor icing: a) Cannot occur. b) Is possible at any setting. c) Can occur but only at a low power setting. d) Can occur but only at full power or cruise settings. At the planning stage for a Class B performance aircraft what minimum climb gradient do you use? a) 500ft min climb speed with all engines operating. b) 300ft min climb speed with all engines operating. c) 500ft min climb speed with one engine out. d) 300ft min climb speed with one engine out. Desired track is 100° actual track is 120°. Which statement is correct? a) Track error angle is left. b) Diverging from desired track. c) Converging with desired track. d) Track error angle is right. Earth rate or astronomic precession: a) Is zero at the South Pole. b) Is zero at the North Pole. c) Causes the gyro axis to spin to the right in the Northern Hemisphere. d) Causes the gyro axis to spin to the left in the Northern Hemisphere. For a Performance C aeroplane the required landing distance at an alternate aerodrome (in dry conditions) shall not be more than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of : a) 0.5 b) 0.6 c) 0.7 d) 0.8 For an IFR flight a Destination Alternate must be selected unless : a) 2 separate runways are available at the destination b) The duration of the flight is less than 6 hours and 2 separate runways are available at the destination c) The flight duration is less than 6 hours 2 separate runways are available at destination and from 1 hour before until 1 hour after ETA VMC conditions apply d) The conditions are forecasted to be VMC for 2 hours after ETA at destination For turbo-propeller aircraft in the flight preparation stage the landing distance at an alternate aerodrome shall be less than the available landing distance multiplied by a factor of: a) 0.5 b) 0.6 c) 0.8 d) 0.7 How do you calculate Conversion Angle? a) Change of longitude x cosine of mean lat b) Change of latitude x sine of mean longitude c) Change of latitude x cosine of mean longitude d) Change of longitude x sine of mean latitude How far from an en route alternate airfield can a 2-engined aeroplane with more than 20 seats and a MTOM of 8,600 kg be flown? a) 60 minutes flying time b) 120 minutes flying time. c) 90 minutes flying time d) 60 minutes at the one engine out speed. If the grid datum is 054°W position 80°N 140°E and true heading of 330° what is the grid heading? a) 164°. b) 136°. c) 316°. d) 276°. If you are flying IFR to a destination with no alternative when must weather be good for you to continue? a) 2 hours before to 2 hours after ETA b) 3 hours before to 3 hours after ETA. c) 1 hour before to 1 hour after ETA d) 3 hours before to 1 hour after ETA. In the absence of wind and without the astronomic precession effect an aircraft would on a constant gyro heading follow a: a) Spherical flight segment. b) Rhumb line. c) Great circle line. d) Straight map line. In the Southern Hemisphere (130°E 80°S) grid is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian aircraft is heading 110°T what is the grid heading? a) 080°. b) 240°. c) 340°. d) 110°. On a polar stereographic chart the grid is aligned on the 180° meridian. At 80°S 100°E with a grid heading of 280° what is the true heading? a) 180°. b) 080°. c) 000°. d) 260°. On a polar stereographic chart with a grid based on the Greenwich meridian a track is drawn from 62°N 010°W to 66°N 050°W. If the initial True track was 295° what was the initial grid track? a) 305°. b) 295°. c) 285°. d) 315°. On a polar stereographic chart with a grid referenced on the Greenwich meridian and convergency of 10°W true heading of 300° what is grid heading? a) 010° b) 290° c) 310° d) 300° On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are heading 045°T; your position is 76°N 180°W what is your grid heading? a) 045° b) 135° c) 225° d) 315° On a polar stereographic chart with grid aligned with the prime meridian; you are heading 045°T; your position is 76°N 180°W what is your grid heading? a) 045°. b) 225°. c) 135°. d) 315°. The chart being used is a polar stereographic chart and grid north is aligned with the Greenwich Meridian. The gyro is aligned with grid north heading 120° at 1400 UTC at latitude 60°N. Take-off is delayed until 1630 UTC gyro not corrected for rate precession. Error at time of take-off will be: a) +13° b) -73.5° c) +32.5° d) -32.5° The forecast for a possible destination alternate reads: 301019 23010KT 9999 SCT010 BKN018 BECMG 1114 6000 -RA BKN012 TEMPO 1418 2000DZ OVC004 FM1800 30020G30KT 9999 -SHRA BKN015CB= In which case would this be suitable if the ETA were 301700 UTC? a) Only if a CAT II ILS or better is available. b) Only for a non-ETOPS aeroplane. c) Provided a precision approach is available. d) Not in any circumstance. The maximum landing distance required for performance A turbo-props must not exceed the landing distance available multiplied by: a) 0.6 b) 0.5 c) 0.8 d) 0.7 What is required for navigation in IMC? a) Radio and navigation equipment for guidance until the visual point. b) Anti-icing equipment. c) One VHF box and one HF box. d) A serviceable weather radar What is the bearing of sun from an aeroplane at the North Pole using a grid track of 315° at 1840Z? a) 035°. b) 325°. c) 000°. d) 180°. What is the definition of a minimum time route a) Shortest time between destination and departure adhering to ATC restrictions. b) Route using the least amount of fuel c) Closest diversion on route. d) Shortest distance between two points of a route. What is the definition of a minimum time route? a) The shortest flight time from departure to destination adhering to all ATC and airspace restrictions. b) The shortest distance between departure and destination notwithstanding ATC and airspace reservations. c) The most efficient route between departure and destination taking into account all airspace reservations. d) The shortest flight time between two points adhering to all restrictions. When flying `gyro' on a transoceanic or polar flight near the North P

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