Nuclear Physics Question Bank PDF

“Education is the most powerful weapon which you can use to change the world.” — Nelson Mandela PGTRB-PHYSICS ACHIEVERS (Question bank) NUCLEAR PHYSICS...

“Education is the most powerful weapon which you can use to change the world.” — Nelson Mandela PGTRB-PHYSICS ACHIEVERS (Question bank) NUCLEAR PHYSICS Telegram; @PGTRBPHY INTRODUCTION 1. Who is credited with discovering radioactivity? a) Marie Curie c) Henri Becquerel b) Pierre Curie d) Ernest Rutherford 2. Which of these scientists is known for their work on the atomic model with electrons orbiting a nucleus? a) Max Planck c) Albert Einstein b) Niels Bohr d) Werner Heisenberg 3. The discovery of the neutron is attributed to: a) Ernest Rutherford c) James Chadwick b) Marie Curie d) J.J. Thomson 4. Who performed the gold foil experiment, which led to the discovery of the nucleus? a) Niels Bohr c) J.J. Thomson b) Ernest Rutherford d) Max Planck 5. The term "radioactivity" was coined by: a) Henri Becquerel c) Pierre Curie b) Marie Curie d) Ernest Rutherford 6. The first artificial nuclear transmutation (transformation of one element into another) was achieved by: a) Marie Curie c) Albert Einstein b) Ernest Rutherford d) Henri Becquerel 7. The liquid drop model of the nucleus was developed by: a) Niels Bohr and John Wheeler c) Werner Heisenberg b) Ernest Rutherford d) Enrico Fermi 8. The first controlled nuclear chain reaction was achieved under the leadership of: a) Marie Curie c) Lise Meitner b) Enrico Fermi d) Otto Hahn 9. Which of the following scientists is known for their work in nuclear fission? a) Albert Einstein c) Niels Bohr b) Otto Hahn and Lise Meitner d) Ernest Rutherford 10. The development of the first atomic bomb was part of which project? a) The Einstein Project c) The Manhattan Project b) The Fermi Project d) The Rutherford Project 11. What is the primary force responsible for holding the nucleus together? a) Electromagnetic force c) Strong nuclear force b) Gravitational force d) Weak nuclear force 12. What are the constituents of the nucleus? a) Electrons and protons c) Protons and neutrons b) Electrons and neutrons d) Protons, neutrons and electrons 13. The number of protons in an atom's nucleus is called its: a) Mass number c) Neutron number b) Atomic number d) Isotope number 14. The total number of protons and neutrons in a nucleus is called its: a) Atomic number c) Isotope number b) Mass number d) Atomic weight 15. Atoms of the same element with different numbers of neutrons are called: a) Isotones c) Isotopes b) Isobars d) Isomers 16. The spontaneous decay of an unstable nucleus is known as: a) Nuclear fission c) Radioactivity b) Nuclear fusion d) Chain reaction 17. Which type of radiation is composed of helium nuclei? a) Beta particles c) Alpha particles b) Gamma rays d) X-rays 18. Which type of radiation is composed of high-energy electrons or positrons? a) Alpha particles c) Beta particles b) Gamma rays d) X-rays 19. Which type of radiation is a high-energy electromagnetic wave? a) Alpha particles c) Beta particles b) Gamma rays d) X-rays 20. In a nuclear reaction, what is conserved? a) Only mass c) Both mass-energy and charge b) Only charge d) Only mass NUCLEAR PROPERTIES 21. The nuclear radius is generally proportional to which quantity? a) The square of the mass number (A^2) c) The mass number itself (A) b) The cube root of the mass number d) The square root of the mass number (A^ (A^(1/3)) (1/2)) 22. Approximately, what is the radius of a nucleus with a mass number of 64 (e.g., Copper)? a) 2.5 fm b) 4.8 fm c) 6.8 fm d) 8 fm 23. Which phenomenon provides the most direct evidence for the existence of a finite nuclear radius? a) Alpha decay b) Beta decay  c) Gamma decay d) Nuclear scattering experiments 24. The empirical formula for the nuclear radius is often expressed as R = R₀A^(1/3). What is the approximate value of R₀? a) 0.5 fm b) 1.2 fm c) 2.5 fm d) 5.0 fm 25. Which method is primarily used to investigate the distribution of charge inside a nucleus? a) Alpha scattering c) Electron scattering b) Beta scattering d) Neutron scattering 26. In the context of nuclear scattering, what does the term "differential cross-section" refer to? a) The total scattering probability b) The scattering probability per unit solid angle c) The average energy of the scattered particles d) The time duration of the scattering process 27. What does the "Rutherford scattering formula" describe? a) The scattering of electrons by nuclei b) The scattering of neutrons by nuclei c) The scattering of alpha particles by nuclei d) The scattering of gamma rays by nuclei 28. Which type of scattering is most suitable for probing the nuclear charge radius, specifically? a) Neutron scattering c) Alpha particle scattering b) Proton scattering d) Electron scattering 29. What is the approximate value of the nuclear density? a) 10^8 kg/m³ c) 10^25 kg/m³ b) 10^17 kg/m³ d) 10^30 kg/m³ 30. Which statement is most accurate regarding nuclear density? a) Increases with mass number. b) Decreases with mass number. c) Is approximately constant across different nuclei. d) Is highest for very light nuclei 31. Nuclear spin is a quantum property related to the: a) Charge distribution c) Nuclear size b) Intrinsic angular momentum of the d) Nuclear mass nucleons 32. Nuclei with even numbers of protons and neutrons usually have a spin of: a) 1/2 b) 1 c) 0 d) 3/2 33. The charge of the nucleus is determined by the number of: a) Neutrons c) Nucleons b) Protons d) Electrons 34. The mass of a nucleus is always ____ the sum of the masses of its individual nucleons. a) Greater than c) Equal to b) Less than d) Approximately equal to 35. The mass difference between a nucleus and its constituent nucleons is called: a) Kinetic energy c) Mass defect b) Potential energy d) Binding energy 36. Which is not a method to probe the charge distribution of nucleus? a) Electron scattering c) Alpha decay analysis b) Muonic atoms d) X ray analysis 37. The charge distribution of a nucleus is: a) Uniform throughout the nucleus b) Concentrated at the surface c) Densest at the center, decreasing towards the edges d) Variable and unpredictable 38. Nuclear parity is a quantum number related to the behavior of the nuclear wave function under: a) Rotation c) Spatial inversion b) Translation d) Time reversal 39. If a nucleus has an odd parity, it means that the nuclear wave function changes its sign when a) Time is reversed c) nucleus is translated b) nucleus is rotated d) Spatial co-ordinates are inverted 40. If a nucleus is described as having a "prolate shape", what does this imply? a) It's perfectly spherical. c) It's elongated along one axis. b) It's flattened at the poles. d) It has a complex irregular structure. 41.Which property is not conserved during nuclear reactions due to weak interaction? a) Charge c) Parity b) Angular momentum d) Energy 42. Which is not true about the nuclear magnetic moment? a) It is related to nuclear spin. b) It interacts with external magnetic field c) It is same for all the isotopes of the element d) It is used in NMR 43. If two nuclei have the same mass number (A) but different atomic numbers (Z) what do we call them? a) Isotopes c) Isobars b) Isotones d) Isomers BINDING ENERGY 44. What is nuclear binding energy? a) The energy required to ionize an atom b) The energy of a nuclear reaction c) The energy required to separate a nucleus into its constituent nucleons d) The kinetic energy of nucleons 45. Binding energy is a direct consequence of which fundamental force? a) Gravitational force c) Weak nuclear force b) Electromagnetic force d) Strong nuclear force 46. The mass of a nucleus is always ____ the total mass of its constituent nucleons. a) Greater than c) Equal to b) Less than d) Approximately equal to 47. The mass difference between a nucleus and its constituent nucleons is called: a) Kinetic energy c) Mass defect b) Potential energy d) Binding energy per nucleon 48. The unit of binding energy is usually expressed in: a) Joules (J) c) MeV (Megaelectronvolts) b) Kilowatt-hours (kWh) d) eV (electronvolts) 49. Binding energy is a measure of: a) Atomic number c) Nuclear stability b) Neutron number d) Atomic size  BINDING ENERGY CURVE 50. What does the binding energy per nucleon curve represent? a) The total binding energy of different nuclei b) The ratio of neutrons to protons in a nucleus c) The average binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number d) The decay rate of radioactive nuclei 51. The binding energy per nucleon is highest for nuclei in the range of approximately: a) A = 1-20 c) A = 150-180 b) A = 50-80 d) A > 200 52. The peak of the binding energy curve corresponds to: a) The most unstable nuclei c) The most stable nuclei b) The largest nuclei d) The smallest nuclei 53. The nuclei on the left side of the peak of the binding energy curve are: a) Stable c) Unstable towards fusion b) Unstable towards fission d) Inert 54. The nuclei on the right side of the peak of the binding energy curve are: a) Stable c) Unstable towards fusion b) Unstable towards fission d) Inert 55. What process is related to the release of energy in lighter nuclei? a) Nuclear fusion c) Alpha decay b) Nuclear fission d) Beta decay 56. What process is related to the release of energy in heavier nuclei? a) Nuclear fusion c) Gamma decay b) Nuclear fission d) Beta decay 57. The binding energy per nucleon for Uranium-235 is____ than that of Iron-56. a) Greater c) Less b) Equal d) None of the above 58. The fusion of hydrogen into helium releases energy because the products have a ____ binding energy per nucleon. a) Lower c) Higher b) Equal d) Zero 59. Fission of very heavy nuclei is energetically favourable because the fragments have ____ mass per nucleon. a) Higher c) Lower b) Equal d) No change in mass 60. Why is iron (Fe-56) so stable? a) It has the lowest binding energy per nucleon. b) It has the highest binding energy per nucleon. c) It has the largest radius d) It has a zero spin. 61. Which of the following would release energy by fission? a) Hydrogen c) Lithium b) Helium d) Uranium 62. Which of the following would release energy by fusion? a) Iron c) Hydrogen b) Uranium d) Lead 63. If the mass defect is zero, then what can be implied about binding energy? a) It will be very high c) It will be negative b) It will be zero d) It will be low 64. If we try to fuse a very heavy nucleus, what will be the change in binding energy per nucleon? a) Increases c) No change b) Decreases d) Depends on the isotope 65. Why does the binding energy per nucleon decrease for heavy nuclei? a) Due to the strong nuclear force b) Due to the coulomb repulsion c) Due to the weak interaction d) Due to the gravitational force 66. What is the significance of the binding energy per nucleon for iron-56? a) It is the least stable c) It has a very low binding energy b) It is the most stable d) It has odd number of protons 67. Why doesn't the binding energy per nucleon keep increasing for very heavy nuclei? a) Due to the strong nuclear force b) Due to the weak interaction c) Due to increasing Coulomb repulsion between protons d) Due to smaller radius of the nuclei 68. The concept of binding energy is fundamentally linked to which of the following equations? a) Heisenberg uncertainty principle c) Schrodinger equation b) E=mc² d) Plank's law 69. What is the primary purpose of the Semi-Empirical Mass Formula (SEMF)? a) To calculate nuclear radii b) To estimate nuclear binding energies and masses c) To predict radioactive decay rates d) To analyse nuclear reactions SEMI-EMPIRICAL MASS FORMULA 70. The SEMF is based on which model of the nucleus? a) Shell model c) Fermi gas model b) Liquid drop model d) Collective model 71. The SEMF is also known as the: a) Gamow formula c) Fermi formula b) Bethe-Weizsäcker formula d) Bohr formula 72. What is the function of the volume term in the SEMF? a) Correct for surface effects b) Represent the binding energy due to the strong force in the bulk of nucleus c) Account for electrostatic repulsion d) Correct for pairing effects 73. What does the surface term in the SEMF account for? a) The bulk binding energy b) The electrostatic repulsion c) The reduced binding for nucleons at the surface d) The pairing interaction 74. The Coulomb term in the SEMF accounts for: a) Strong nuclear force b) Weak nuclear force c) Electrostatic repulsion between protons d) Surface effects 75. What does the asymmetry term in the SEMF account for? a) Surface effects b) Electrostatic repulsion c) Pairing effects d) The imbalance between the number of protons and neutrons 76. What does the pairing term in the SEMF account for? a) Electrostatic repulsion b) Surface effects c) Asymmetry between protons and neutrons d) Enhanced stability of even-even nuclei 77. Which term in the SEMF is always negative? a) Volume term c) Coulomb term b) Asymmetry term d) Pairing term 78. The SEMF can be used to predict: a) Precise nuclear reaction rates c) The stability of nuclei b) Detailed nuclear level structure d) The lifetime of a nucleus 79. Which term in the SEMF is most responsible for determining the stability of heavy nuclei? a) Volume term c) Coulomb term b) Surface term d) Asymmetry term 80. The SEMF is useful for understanding: a) The fundamental forces in nature c) The average properties of nuclei b) The detailed structure of nucleons d) The behaviour of electrons in atoms 81. The semi empirical mass formula does not correctly predict the binding energy of which nucleus? a) Heavy nuclei c) Light nuclei b) Medium nuclei d) All nuclei 82. Which of the following cannot be explained using SEMF? a) Nuclear mass c) Stability of isobars b) Binding energy d) Magnetic moments 83. The SEMF does not accurately predict nuclear properties for which kind of nuclei? a) Very large nuclei b) Medium nuclei c) Very small nuclei d) All nuclei are predicted accurately. 84. One major limitation of the SEMF is its inability to a) estimate nuclear radii b) predict the stability of a nuclei c) explain magic numbers d) calculate the nuclear mass 85. The mass parabola for isobaric nuclei arises due to which term of the SEMF? a) Volume term c) Asymmetry term and Coulomb term b) Surface term d) Pairing term 86. In even A isobaric nuclei, the upper mass parabola corresponds to: a) Odd-odd nuclei c) Even-even nuclei b) Odd-even nuclei or even-odd nuclei d) All nuclei are same 87. In even A isobaric nuclei, the lower mass parabola corresponds to: a) Odd-odd nuclei c) Even-even nuclei b) Odd-even nuclei or even-odd nuclei d) All nuclei are same 88. The nucleus with the lowest mass on the mass parabola for a given mass number A will be: a) The least stable c) Always even-even b) The most stable d) Always odd-odd 89. The energy gap between two mass parabolas for even A nuclei depends on a) Coulomb term only c) Pairing term b) Asymmetry term only d) Surface term 90. The mass parabolas explain the presence of a) Isomers c) Isotones b) Isotopes d) Stable nuclei 91. For a particular A value if two nuclei with odd-even and even-odd combination is present then, which nucleus will be present in lower mass parabola? a) Odd-even c) They will be present on same curve b) Even-odd d) Depends on the atomic number 92. Which nuclei have the most stable isobar? a) Odd A c) Both Odd A and Even A b) Even A d) It is not related to the mass number 93. The minimum of the mass parabola corresponds to the nucleus with the highest: a) Mass c) Binding energy b) Charge d) Radius NUCLEAR FORCE: 94. What is the primary role of the nuclear force? a) To hold electrons in their orbits b) To hold nucleons together in the nucleus c) To cause radioactive decay d) To create electromagnetic fields 95. The nuclear force is independent of: a) Spin c) Electric charge b) Isospin d) Momentum 96.The nuclear force is a(n) _______ force. a) Central c) Both central and non central b) Non-central d) Always central 97 nuclear force is primarily mediated by the exchange of: a) Electrons c) Pions b) Photons d) Neutrinos 98.The saturation property of nuclear force leads to a) increased binding energy for large nuclei b) approximately constant binding energy per nucleon c) less stability for heavy nuclei d) equal binding energy per nucleon for all nuclei 99.The nuclear force explains why: a) Electrons do not fall into the nucleus b) Atoms are electrically neutral c) Nuclei are stable despite having many positive charges d) Gravitational force exist 100.The stability of light nuclei is due to the balance between a) Gravitational force and nuclear force b) Attractive nature of nuclear force and repulsive Coulomb force c) Spin and charge d) Isospin and momentum 101.The nuclear force is thought to be mediated by the exchange of: a) Electrons c) Mesons b) Photons d) Neutrinos 102.The concept of meson exchange was introduced by: a) Niels Bohr b) Hideki Yukawa  c) Albert Einstein d) Enrico Fermi 103. What property of the pion gives the strong force its short range? a) Its charge c) Its mass b) Its speed d) Its spin 104. The range of the nuclear force is approximately equal to the: a) Radius of an atom c) Compton wavelength of the pion b) Radius of a proton d) Wavelength of light 105. The nuclear force is essential for the process of: a) Photoelectric effect c) Nuclear fission b) Atomic ionization d) Chemical reactions 106. The nuclear force plays an important role in energy production in: a) Solar panels c) Stars b) Batteries d) Wind turbines 107. In fusion reactions, overcoming which force requires a great deal of energy? a) Gravitational force c) Weak force b) Electromagnetic force d) Strong force 108. The tensor nature of the nuclear force implies that a) It is not spin dependent c) It has a non-central component. b) It acts on all the nucleons d) It always acts on nearest neighbors 109. The modern understanding of the strong force is based on: a) Classical mechanics c) Quantum electrodynamics (QED) b) Quantum chromodynamics (QCD) d) General relativity 110. In QCD, the strong force is mediated by: a) Photons c) Mesons b) Gluons d) Weak bosons 111. What is meant by "confinement" in QCD? a) Quarks are free to move outside of nucleus b) Quarks cannot exist freely; they are always bound within hadrons c) Quarks can be created by gamma radiation  d) Quarks do not interact with each other 112. In the context of the strong force, what is color charge? a) An electric charge c) A property of quarks and gluons b) A magnetic charge d) A gravitational charge 113. If the nuclear force were purely attractive, what would happen to nuclei? a) They would fly apart c) They would collapse to a point b) They would stay the same d) They would become more stable 114. The fact that the nuclear force is short range is directly related to a) The small size of nuclei c) The existence of electrons b) The mass of pions d) The Coulomb force 115. The nuclear force is strongest when the nucleons are a) Very far apart c) At a medium distance b) At infinite distance d) At specific inter nucleon distances 116.Which of the following interactions has a short range and also spin dependent? a) Gravitational force c) Nuclear force b) Electromagnetic force d) Weak force 117. The fact that the nuclear force has both attractive and repulsive nature is related to the a) Gravitational force c) Weak nuclear force b) Coulomb force d) Spin orbit interaction 118.. The tensor part of the nuclear force is responsible for: a) Strong nuclear binding c) Non spherical shapes of the nuclei b) Charge independence d) Small nuclear size 119. The nuclear force is essential to understand the properties of a) Leptons c) Electrons b) Photons d) Hadrons NUCLEAR MODEL (LIQUID DROP MODEL, SHELL MODEL, COLLECTIVE MODEL) 120. The surface term in the liquid drop model is always: a) Negative c) Zero b) Positive d) Variable 121. Which term in the liquid drop model is directly proportional to Z^2? a) Volume term c) Coulomb term b) Surface term d) Asymmetry term 122. According to the liquid drop model, if the mass number (A) of a nucleus is doubled, the volume term will be approximately: a) Halved c) Doubled b) Unchanged d) Quadrupled 123. In the liquid drop model, the surface term contribution varies with A. If a nucleus has a surface energy 10 MeV and the A is tripled, what will be the new surface energy? a) 30 MeV c) 20.8 MeV b) 10 MeV d) 15 MeV 124. In liquid drop model, the Coulomb term varies with atomic number Z. For two nuclei with Z and 2Z, what is the ratio of Coulomb energy? a) 1/2 c) 1/4 b) 2 d) 4 125 Assertion (A): The liquid drop model cannot explain the magic numbers of nuclei. Reason (R): The liquid drop model assumes that nucleons move independently in the nucleus. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A c) A is true but R is false d) A is false but R is true 126. Match the following with their respective dependency on mass number A i) Volume term a) A^(2/3) ii) Surface term b) A iii) Coulomb term c) A^(1/3) a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c c) i-c, ii-a, iii-b b) i-b, ii-a, iii-c d) i-b, ii-c, iii-a 127. If the liquid drop model only assumes volume, surface and coulomb energy, what assumption is being made about nuclear force? a) It is only attractive and charge dependent b) It is only repulsive and charge independent c) It is only repulsive and charge dependent d) It is short range and charge independent 128. The liquid drop model treats the nucleus as an incompressible fluid with a constant __________. a) Mass c) Density b) Charge d) Radius 129. In the liquid drop model which force is responsible for the breakup of the nucleus during fission? a) Strong nuclear force c) Gravitational force b) Weak nuclear force d) Coulomb force 130. Which property of the nucleus is not explained by the liquid drop model? a) Average binding energy c) Nuclear fission b) The trends in nuclear masses d) Nuclear spin and parity 131. Which of the following statements is true regarding the SEMF derived from liquid drop model? a) All terms in SEMF are negative b) All terms in SEMF are positive c) Volume term contributes positively and the remaining terms negatively towards the binding energy d) Asymmetry term contributes positively and the remaining terms negatively towards the binding energy 132. The nuclear shell model is based on the idea that nucleons move in: a) uniform liquid c) Discrete energy levels b) A random arrangement d) A chaotic system 133. The nuclear shell model is analogous to which model of the atom? a) Rutherford's model c) Bohr's model b) Thomson's model d) The liquid drop model 134. In the shell model, what force is primarily responsible for creating the energy levels? a) Gravitational force b) Electromagnetic force c) An average potential created by other nucleons d) Weak nuclear force 135. According to the shell model, if a nucleus has a completely filled shell, the number of nucleons will be: a) A random number c) A prime number b) An odd number d) A magic number 136. If an energy level in the shell model is characterized by j=5/2, what is the maximum number of nucleons that can occupy this level? a) 4 c) 6 b) 5 d) 10 137. If the spin-orbit interaction is negligibly small, then the energy level will be degenerate, what will be the degeneracy for the energy level characterized by l=2? a) 3 c) 5 b) 4 d) 6 138. Assertion (A): Nuclei with magic numbers are particularly stable. Reason (R): Magic numbers correspond to filled nuclear shells. a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A. b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A. c) A is true but R is false. d) A is false but R is true. 139. Match the terms with their description: i) Spin-orbit coupling a) Gives rise to spherical potential in shell model ii) Magic numbers. b) Numbers that results into stable nuclei iii) Average potential c) Splits energy levels a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c c) i-c, ii-b, iii-a b) i-c, ii-a, iii-b d) i-b, ii-a, iii-c 140. Why does the shell model fail to accurately predict the energy levels of heavier nuclei? a) Because of strong Coulomb repulsion b) Because of complicated nuclear force c) Because of complex shell structure d) Because it only considers individual particle behavior 141. Which of the following statements is true about the shell model? a) It is based on the concept of collective motion b) It treats the nucleus as a liquid c) It explains nuclear isomers d) It assumes that nucleons are non-interacting 142. Which statement is true about spin orbit coupling in shell model? a) It increases the degeneracy c) It removes the degeneracy b) It does not change the degeneracy d) It does not change the energy level 143. Which of the following properties of the nucleus cannot be explained by the shell model? a) Magic numbers c) Nuclear deformation b) Ground state spin and parity d) Isomers 144. In the nuclear shell model, the nuclear potential is considered as a) A square well b) A harmonic oscillator c) A realistic potential that takes into account strong interaction d) A simple Coulomb potential 145. The collective model of the nucleus combines aspects of which two models? a) Fermi gas and Liquid drop c) Shell model and Fermi gas b) Shell model and Liquid drop d) Independent particle and liquid drop 146. The collective model primarily explains which property of nuclei? a) Ground-state spin and parity c) Magic numbers b) Nuclear deformation and excited states d) Nuclear mass defect 147. If a nucleus has a rotational energy level at 100 keV, and its moment of inertia is doubled, what will be the new energy of the rotational energy level? a) 200 keV c) 50 keV b) 100 keV d) 25 keV 148. In the collective model, a rotational energy is related to angular momentum L. If a nuclei makes transition from L=2 to L=0, it emits a photon with an energy of 2 MeV, what will be the energy when it transits from L=4 to L=2? a) 2 MeV c) 4 MeV b) 5 MeV d) 8 MeV 149. The rotational energy of a nucleus in the collective model is proportional to: a) L c) L(L+1) b) L^(3/2) d) L^2 150. The vibrational energy levels of the collective model are proportional to: a) n c) (n+1/2) b) n^2 d) n^(1/2) 151. Match the terms with their description i) Nuclear vibration a) rotation around an axis ii) Nuclear rotation b) change of shape iii) Quadrupole moment c) measure of nuclear deformation a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c b) i-c, ii-a, iii-b d) i-b, ii-c, iii-a 152. The collective model treats the nucleus as a deformable object that can undergo ________ and _________. a) fission, fusion c) rotations, vibrations b) decay, capture d) emission, absorption 153. Which of the following statements is true about the collective model? a) It treats nucleons as non-interacting particles b) It is based on spherical shapes of the nuclei c) It includes both individual and collective motion of nucleons d) It is valid for all nuclei. 154. The collective model does not consider a) Quadrupole moment c) Rotational bands b) Nuclear deformation d) Magic numbers 155. The collective model best describes nuclei that have: a) spherical shape c) large quadrupole moments b) small mass d) Magic numbers 156. Match the properties of the deuteron in Column A with their approximate values in Column B. a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d b) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b d) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c 157. Match the terms related to the deuteron with their descriptions a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c d) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c DEUTERON AND GROUND STATE OF DEUTERON 158. The deuteron's ground state is primarily a(n): a) Pure singlet state b) Pure triplet state c) Mixture of singlet and triplet states with equal probability d) Mixture of singlet and triplet states, mostly triplet 159. The spin of the deuteron is: a) 0 c) 1 b) 1/2 d) 3/2 160. The potential energy in the deuteron model is approximated as: a) Harmonic oscillator potential c) Square well potential b) Coulomb potential d) Yukawa potential 161. What is the approximate value of the electric quadrupole moment of the deuteron? a) Zero c) 0.282 e fm² b) 0.0028 eb d) 1.0 eb 162.In the simple square-well model of the deuteron, if 'r' represents the nucleon separation and 'V0' is the depth of the potential well, which expression could describe the potential energy? a) V(r) = -V0 for all r b) V(r) = -V0 * exp(-r) c) V(r) = -V0 for r < radius and zero outside, d) V(r) = -V0 for r < r0, 0 for r > r0 163. The magnetic moment (µ) of a nucleon due to its intrinsic spin is related to the spin angular momentum vector (S) as: a) µ = g× (e /2m) × S² c) µ = g (e /2m) S b) µ = (e /2m) × S d) µ = g × m × S 164. Which statement about deuteron is FALSE? a) It has a magnetic moment. c) It is a strongly bound system b) It has a nonzero quadrupole moment d) It has a spin of one 165.The deuteron's ground state being a mixture of S and D states leads to a) its spherical symmetry b) a non-zero quadrupole moment c) a purely central interaction d) a magnetic moment equal to the sum of proton and neutron 166.Which of the following best describes the isospin state of the deuteron? a) Triplet c) Doublet b) Singlet d) Quartet 167. The magnetic moment of deuteron is approximately a) 1 Bohr magneton c) 0.857 nuclear magneton b) 0 Bohr magneton d) 1.414 nuclear magneton 168. The parity of the deuteron's ground state is __. a) -1 c) 0 b) +1 d) indeterminate 169.The isospin of the deuteron's ground state is __. a) 1 c) 0 b) -1 d) ½ 171. If the mass of the proton is 1.00728 u, the mass of the neutron is 1.00867 u, and the mass of the deuteron is 2.01355 u, what is the mass defect of the deuteron in atomic mass units (u)? a) 0.00230 u c) 0.00420 u b) 0.00240 u d) 2.01595 u 172. A photon with a minimum energy of 2.22 MeV is needed to break up the deuteron. If the incoming photon energy is 4.44 MeV, approximately what is the kinetic energy of the free proton and neutron (assuming they have equal kinetic energy after the breakup) ? a) 0 MeV c) 2.22 MeV b) 1.11 MeV d) 4.44 MeV 173. Given the proton magnetic moment is 2.79 nm and the neutron magnetic moment is -1.91 nm, the resultant magnetic moment of the deuteron is approximately: a) 4.7 nm c) 0.857 nm b) -4.7 nm d) -0.857 nm 174. If the rms radius of a deuteron is approximately 2.1 fm, what is the volume of the sphere that corresponds to the root mean square volume? a) 14.8 fm³ c) 38.8 fm³ b) 20.5 fm³ d) 50.5 fm³ 175. If we model the deuteron with a square well potential of depth 35 MeV and the deuteron’s binding energy is 2.22 MeV, approximately what is the energy of the ground state? a) -2.22 MeV c) -37.22 MeV b) -35 MeV d) 35 MeV 176. Given the mass of proton is 1.00727 u, the mass of neutron is 1.00866 u, and the mass of deuteron is 2.01355 u. What is the binding energy of deuteron in MeV approximately? (Given 1u = 931.5 MeV/c²) a) 1.1 MeV c) 4.4 MeV b) 2.2 MeV d) 10 MeV 177.Match the particles in Column A with their roles in the meson theory in Column B: a) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d b) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d d) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c 178.Match the concepts in Column A with their description in Column B related to Yukawa's theory: a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d b) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d d) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a 179.Match the quantities in column A with their typical values from Column B | i) Pion mass a) 1.602 x 10^-19 C | ii) Range of nuclear force b) 1.6 x 10^-13 J | iii) Electron charge c) 1.4 fm | iv) 1 MeV. d) 140 MeV/c² a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a b) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d d) i-d, ii-c, iii-a, iv-b 180. The range of the nuclear force is primarily determined by the: a) Mass of the nucleon c) Charge of the nucleon b) Mass of the exchanged meson d) Spin of the nucleon MESON THEORY OF NUCLEAR FORCE AND YUKAWA POTENTIAL 181.The meson theory suggests that the nuclear force is primarily attractive due to the exchange of: a) Charged pions only c) Both charged and neutral pions b) Neutral pions only d) Electrons and positrons 182. The uncertainty principle relates to the meson theory by showing that: a) The energy of the meson must be constant b) The meson can exist only for a short time and is virtual c) The meson's charge is constantly changing. d) The meson's mass is dependent on the nucleon's spin 183.The exchange of a virtual pion between two nucleons: a) Always leads to an attractive force b) Always leads to a repulsive force c) Can lead to both attractive and repulsive forces d) Does not affect the nucleons' motion 184.If the mass of the pion is approximately 140 MeV/c², the range of the nuclear force is roughly: (given ħc ≈ 197 MeV fm) a) 0.5 fm c) 2.8 fm b) 1.4 fm d) 5.6 fm 185. The range of the nuclear force is approximately 1.5 fm, and given ħc = 197.3 MeV fm. What is the approximate mass of the exchanged meson? a) 120 MeV/c² c) 131.5 MeV/c² b) 130 MeV/c² d) 150 MeV/c² 186. Suppose a virtual pion is exchanged between two nucleons. If the lifetime of the pion is estimated to be 10⁻²³ s, what is the approximate energy uncertainty of this pion? (ħ ≈ 1.054 × 10⁻³⁴ Js) a) 100 MeV c) 25 MeV b) 65 MeV d) 10 MeV 187. A virtual pion is exchanged between two protons. If the average time for exchange is 2×10^-24 s what is the approximate range of this force assuming that pion mass is 140 MeV/c²? (c=3x10^8 m/s) a) 1.2 fm c) 2.5 fm b) 0.6 fm d) 0.1 fm 188. The mass of the pion is about 270 times the mass of an electron. If the mass of electron is about 0.5 MeV, what is the approximate mass of pion? a) 50 MeV c) 500 MeV b) 135 MeV d) 1000 MeV 189. The typical strong force exchange has an energy about 10 MeV. If we convert this to mass in kg, which is correct value? ( Given c=3 x 10⁸ m/s) a) 1.78 x 10⁻³¹ kg c) 1.78 x 10⁻²⁷ kg b) 1.78 x 10⁻²⁹ kg d) 1.78 x 10⁻¹⁵ kg 190. The approximate range (R) of the nuclear force mediated by a meson of mass (m) can be expressed by: a) R = ħc × m c) R ≈ ħc / mc² b) R = ħ/(mc) d) R = mc² / ħc 191. The approximate relationship between the uncertainty in energy (ΔE) and the uncertainty in time (Δt) for a virtual particle is given by: a) ΔE + Δt ≥ ħ c) ΔEΔt ≥ ħ/2 b) ΔE - Δt ≥ ħ d) ΔE/Δt = ħ 192. The relation between the range R of the interaction, the momentum p of the virtual particle and the time t is given by: a) R=p×t c) R=c*t b) R=pt² d) R=p/t 193. According to the meson theory, which equation best links the range of the nuclear force R, the mass of the exchanged meson m, and a constant C? a) R = Cm² c) R = C/m b) R = m/C d) R = m/C² 194. A force has a range of about 1 fm, the mass of the boson that mediates the force would have a mass around: a) 100 MeV/c² c) 400 MeV/c² b) 200 MeV/c² d) 500 MeV/c² 195. The Yukawa potential, which describes the nuclear force, is: a) a long range potential b) a static potential c) an exponential function d) inversely proportional to square of the distance 196. The relationship between the range (R) of the nuclear force and the mass (m) of the exchanged particle is: a) R ∝ m c) R ∝ m² b) R ∝ 1/m d) R is independent of m 197. The uncertainty in energy of a virtual pion of mass 135 MeV is approximately equal to its: a) kinetic energy. c) rest mass energy b) total energy. d) average momentum 198. The mass of the pion (mπ) compared to the mass of the electron (me) is approximately: a) mπ ≈ me c) mπ ≈ 270 me b) mπ ≈ 10 me d) mπ ≈ 1000 me RADIOACTIVE DECAY 199.Radioactive decay is a process in which: a) A stable nucleus becomes unstable b) An unstable nucleus spontaneously transforms into a more stable form. c) A nucleus gains energy d) A nucleus gains nucleons 200.The rate of radioactive decay is: a) Dependent on the chemical state of the element b) Dependent on temperature and pressure c) Independent of external conditions d) Dependent on the physical state 201. According to the radioactive displacement law, alpha decay results in: a) Increase in atomic number by 2 and decrease in mass number by 4 b) Decrease in atomic number by 2 and increase in mass number by 4 c) Decrease in atomic number by 2 and decrease in mass number by 4 d) Increase in atomic number by 2 and increase in mass number by 4 202. According to the radioactive displacement law, beta-minus decay results in: a) Decrease in atomic number by 1 and no change in mass number b) Increase in atomic number by 1 and no change in mass number  c) Increase in both atomic and mass number by 1 d) Decrease in mass number by 1 and no change in atomic number 203. According to the radioactive displacement law, beta-plus decay results in: a) Increase in atomic number by 1 and no change in mass number b) Decrease in atomic number by 1 and no change in mass number c) Decrease in mass number by 1 d) Increase in atomic and mass numbers by 1 204. The radioactive decay law is expressed as: a) N = N₀e^(λt) c) N = N₀λt b) N = N₀e^(-λt) d) N = N₀/λt 205. The relation between half-life (T₁/T₂) and decay constant (λ) is: a) T₁/₂ = 2λ c) T₁/₂ = ln(2)/λ b) T₁/₂ = λ/ln(2) d) T₁/₂ = λ² 206. The activity (A) of a radioactive sample is given by: a) A = N/λ c) A = Nλ² b) A = λN d) A = N/λ² 207. The mean life (τ) of a radioactive substance is related to its decay constant λ as: a) τ = λ c) τ = 1/λ b) τ = λ/2 d) τ = 1/2λ 208. If N₁,N₂ are the nuclei of the parent and daughter species respectively, then in secular equilibrium the relation is given as (λ₁, λ₂ are the decay constant) a) λ₁N₁ = λ₂N₂ c) λ₁N₁ < λ₂N₂ b) λ₁N₁ > λ₂N₂ d) λ₁/N₁ = λ₂/N₂ 209. The number of atoms decaying per second can be represented as: a) N/t c) d/dt b) -dN/dt d) dt/dN 210. The relation between activity A and mean life τ can be expressed as: a) A = Nτ c) A = τ/N b) A = N/τ d) A = 1/Nτ 211. The relation between activity A and decay constant is given by a) A ∝ 1/λ c) A = constant * λ² b) A ∝ λ d) A ∝ e^(λ) 212. The relation between half-life (T) and mean life(τ) is given by a) T = τ c) T= τ/0.693 b) T = 0.693 τ d) T = 2τ 213. The relation between the number of initial radioactive nuclei (N₀), the number of remaining radioactive nuclei (N) and the number of decayed nuclei (N_d) at any time is a) N_d = N₀-N c) N₀ = N + N_d b) N = N₀- N_d d) N_d = N₀+N 214. The decay constant λ is related to the probability of decay per unit time and is expressed by a) λ = number of nuclei c) λ = number of decayed nuclei b) λ = probability of decay/unit time d) λ = Number of stable nuclei 215.Match the following quantities to their mathematical relation a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d b) i-a, ii-c, iii-b, iv-d d) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b 216. Match the following quantities to their mathematical relation a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a b) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d d) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b 217. Match the following a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c) i-b, ii-a, iii-c, iv-d b) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d d) i-c, ii-a, iii-d, iv-b 218. Match the following a) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d c) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d b) i-b, ii-a, iii-d, iv-c d) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d 219. A parent nucleus has a half-life of 100 years and the daughter has half-life of 1 year. The nature of the radioactive equilibrium is a) Secular c) No equilibrium b) Transient d) Static Equilibrium 220. If the half-life of A is very much larger than half-life of B. The type of equilibrium is a) Transient c) No equilibrium b) Secular d) Dynamic equilibrium Alpha decay 221. The charge of an alpha particle is: a) -e c) +2e b) +e d) -2e 222. Which of the following particles has the highest ionization power? a) Beta particles c) Alpha particles b) Gamma rays d) X-rays 223. Alpha particles are emitted by: a) Light nuclei c) Stable nuclei b) Heavy, unstable nuclei d) Light, stable nuclei 224. In comparison to beta particles, alpha particles have: a) Higher speed and higher mass c) Lower speed and higher mass b) Higher speed and lower mass d) Lower speed and lower mass 225. The Bragg curve represents: a) The decay rate of alpha emitters b) The energy spectrum of alpha particles c) The ionization power of alpha particles as a function of distance d) The velocity of alpha particles as a function of energy 226. The Geiger-Nuttall law establishes a relation between: a) The range of alpha particle and its charge. b) The decay constant (half-life) and the energy of the alpha particle c) The charge of the alpha particle and its speed d) The mass and velocity of the alpha particle. 227. The Q-value in alpha decay is the: a) Energy absorbed during the process b) The kinetic energy of the alpha particle c) Total energy released in the decay process d) The potential energy barrier 228. The alpha particle energy spectra are: a) Continuous c) Both Continuous and discrete b) Discrete d) Neither continuous nor discrete 229. In Gamow's theory, alpha particles tunnel through the: a) Magnetic potential barrier c) Nuclear potential barrier b) Electric potential barrier d) Gravitational barrier 230. According to Gamow’s theory, the alpha decay probability depends on: a) The speed of the alpha particle. b) The size of the nucleus. c) The height and width of the potential barrier d) The spin of the parent nucleus 231. An alpha particle has a kinetic energy of 6 MeV. What is its approximate velocity? (mass of alpha particle ≈ 4 u, 1 u ≈ 931.5 MeV/c² ) a) 1.8 x 10^6 m/s c) 3.0 x 10^8 m/s b) 1.8 x 10^7 m/s d) 3 x 10^9 m/s 232. If the range of an alpha particle with initial energy 8 MeV in a material is 5 cm. What will be the approximate range if the alpha particle's initial energy was 4 MeV? Assume that R∝E^1.5 a) 2 cm c) 7 cm b) 3.5 cm d) 10 cm 233. The mathematical form of the Geiger-Nuttall law can be expressed as: a) λ = a + bE c) log λ = a + b log E b) λ = ae^bE d) log λ = ae^bE 234. The range (R) and velocity (v) of alpha particle are related as a) R ∝ v c) R ∝ v³ b) R ∝ v² d) R ∝ √v 235. The Q value of alpha decay in terms of mass of parent nuclei (Mp), mass of daughter nuclei (Md) and mass of alpha particle (Mα) is a) Q=(Mp+Md+Mα)c² c) Q=(Mp+Md-Mα)c² b) Q=(Mp-Md+Mα)c² d) Q=(Mp-Md-Mα)c² 236. The range of alpha particle is proportional to the velocity (v) by the relation: a) R ∝ v c) R ∝ v³ b) R ∝ v² d) R ∝ v⁴ 237. If the initial kinetic energy of an alpha particle is E, then its range R is given by the relation: a) R ∝ E c) R ∝ E^3/2 b) R ∝ E² d) R ∝ E^1/2 238. According to Gamow's theory, which is true? a) The alpha particle has enough energy to go over the barrier b) The alpha particle is emitted with random energies. c) The alpha particle can tunnel through the barrier. d) The coulomb barrier is very small. 239. The Q value for alpha decay is always ____. a) Negative c) Zero b) Positive d) Imaginary 240. Gamow's theory explains alpha decay through the concept of __. a) nuclear fission c) quantum tunneling b) nuclear fusion d) electromagnetic force BETA DECAY 241. Beta decay involves the emission of: a) A helium nucleus c) An electron or a positron b) A proton d) A neutron 242. During beta-minus decay, a neutron in the nucleus is converted into: a) A proton and a positron c) A neutron and an electron b) A proton and an electron d) A proton and a neutrino 243. During beta-plus decay, a proton in the nucleus is converted into: a) A neutron and an electron c) A neutron and a positron b) A neutron and an antineutrino d) A neutron and a neutrino 244. Beta decay is mediated by the: a) Strong nuclear force c) Weak nuclear force b) Electromagnetic force d) Gravitational force 245. In beta decay, the mass number of the nucleus a) Increases by 1 c) Increases by 2 b) Decreases by 1 d) Remains unchanged 246. The Kurie plot is a: a) Graph of beta energy vs. distance. b) Graph used to determine the endpoint energy of beta particles. c) Graph of beta decay rate vs. energy. d) Graph of beta spectrum vs. angle. 247. The selection rule for an allowed beta transition is a) ΔL= ±1, ΔJ = ±1 c) ΔL=0, ΔJ = 0 or ±1 (no 0->0) b) ΔL= 0, ΔJ = 0 d) ΔL= 0 or ±1, ΔJ= 0 248. In a forbidden beta transition: a) The change in angular momentum Mustang be zero b) The change in angular momentum is greater than allowed in the allowed transition c) The parity of the nucleus changes. d) The probability is very high. 249. Parity violation in beta decay shows that: a) Beta decay is a very strong force b) The number of nucleons is conserved. c) The weak force does not obey mirror symmetry. d) Beta decay is charge conserving. 250. Helicity refers to: a) The energy of the particle b) The charge of the particle c) The spin direction relative to the momentum direction of a particle d) The lifetime of the particle. 251. The neutrino has: a) Positive helicity c) Zero helicity b) Negative helicity d) Both positive and negative helicity 252. The electron emitted in beta decay has: a) Positive helicity c) Zero helicity b) Negative helicity d) Both positive and negative helicity 253. The antineutrino has: a) Negative helicity c) Zero helicity b) Positive helicity d) Both positive and negative helicity 254. The positron emitted in beta decay has: a) Positive helicity c) Zero helicity b) Negative helicity d) Both positive and negative helicity 255. Double beta decay is a process in which: a) A nucleus emits one beta particle b) A nucleus emits two beta particles simultaneously. c) A nucleus emits two alpha particles simultaneously. d) A nucleus captures two electrons simultaneously 256. The double beta decay is a: a) Fast decay process. c) Same speed as single beta decay b) Slow decay process. d) Cannot determine decay process 257. The double beta decay is important to study the property of: a) electron c) proton b) neutrino d) neutron 258. The relation between the radius (r) of curvature and momentum (p) of an electron in a magnetic field (B) is: a) r = pB/e c) r = epB b) r = p/eB d) r = e/pB 259. The Fermi Golden Rule (for decay constant, λ) often involves a term that depends on: a) The mass of nucleus b) The charge of the nucleus c) The square of the matrix element d) The velocity of electron 260. The mathematical form of the Fermi function is a) F(Z, E) ∝ E² b) F(Z, E) ∝ E c) F(Z, E) ∝ p² d) F(Z, E) ∝ 1/E 261. In a beta decay process, which is true? a) Mass number is increased. b) Charge number is decreased. c) The total energy is shared by the emitted particles. d) The momentum is not conserved 262. The relation between Fermi coupling constant, g and the decay constant, λ is given as (m is the mass of the particle) a) λ ∝ g^m c) λ ∝ g²^m b) λ ∝ g² d) λ ∝ g³/m 263. The relation between magnetic field B, charge q, radius r, and speed v for the deflection of beta particles in a spectrometer is a) B = qv/r c) B = mv/qr² b) B = mv/qr d) B = v/qr 264. If the end-point energy of the beta particles in a decay is 2 MeV, the maximum kinetic energy of the neutrino will be approximately: a) 1 MeV c) 4 MeV b) 2 MeV d) 0 MeV 265. In a beta decay if the kinetic energy of electron is 0.5 MeV and Q value is 1 MeV. What will be the kinetic energy of the antineutrino? a) 1 MeV c) 0.25 MeV b) 0.5 MeV d) 0.75 MeV GAMMA DECAY 266. Gamma rays are: a) Charged particles with mass c) Neutral electromagnetic radiation b) Charged particles without mass d) Neutral particles with mass 267. Gamma radiation is emitted from a nucleus when: a) The atomic number changes b) The mass number changes c) The nucleus transitions from an excited state to a lower energy state d) The nucleus emits an alpha particle 268. In terms of penetrating power, gamma rays are: a) Less penetrating than alpha and beta particles b) More penetrating than alpha particles but less than beta particles c) Less penetrating than beta particles but more than alpha particles d) More penetrating than both alpha and beta particles 269.Which of the following interactions is the primary mechanism for gamma ray energy loss in matter at high energies? a) Photoelectric effect c) Pair production b) Compton scattering d) Rayleigh scattering 270. Which of the following is the dominant gamma-ray interaction at intermediate energies? a) Photoelectric effect c) Pair production b) Compton scattering d) Photo disintegration. 271. The photoelectric effect involves the: a) Creation of an electron-positron pair. b) Scattering of a photon by an electron. c) Ejection of an electron from an atom by a photon. d) Disintegration of a nucleus. 272. Multipole radiation refers to gamma rays emitted with: a) Different intensities c) Specific angular momentum properties b) Different energies d) Specific polarization states. 273. The multipolarity of gamma radiation is determined by: a) The charge of the nucleus b) The magnetic moment of the nucleus. c) The change in angular momentum and parity between the initial and final nuclear states d) The binding energy of the nucleus 273. The energy of a gamma ray is 1 MeV. What is the approximate energy of the electron emitted during internal conversion process, if the binding energy is 200 keV a) 200 keV c) 1.2 MeV b) 800 keV d) 1 MeV 274. If a gamma emitter has a decay constant of 0.001 s⁻¹, what is the approximate half-life of the state a) 10 s c) 693 s b) 100 s d) 69 s 275. The energy of the electron emitted in internal conversion (E_e) is related to the energy of the gamma ray (E_γ) and the binding energy (B_e) of the atomic electron by: a) E_e = E_γ + B_e d) E_e = B_e * E_γ b) E_e = E_γ - B_e d) E_e = B_e - E_γ 276. The energy shift due to recoil effect during gamma ray emission is given by: a) E²/mc² c) E²/2mc² b) E/2mc² d) 2E²/mc² 277. The multipole transition rate for gamma ray emission is proportional to: a) E c) E^(2L+1) b) E² d) E^(L+1) (where L is the multipole order) 278. The Compton shift is given by the relation where λ’ is wavelength of the scattered gamma ray, λ is wavelength of the incoming gamma ray and θ is the scattering angle is given by a) λ’ - λ = (h/m_e c) (1 - cosθ) c) λ’ - λ = (h/m_e c) cosθ b) λ’ - λ = (h/m_e c) (1 + cosθ) d) λ’ - λ = (h/m_e c) sinθ 279. The mean free path of the gamma ray in the medium is given by a) λ = µ/2 c) λ = µ² b) λ = 1/µ d) λ = 1/µ² 280. The angular momentum change and parity change for E1 gamma transition is a) ΔJ= 0,1,2 Parity change c) ΔJ= 1, Parity change b) ΔJ= 0,1 Parity change d) ΔJ= 0,1, No Parity Change 281. Which of the following statements about the internal pair production is correct? a) A gamma ray is absorbed by an atom b) A gamma ray is absorbed by the nucleus c) A gamma ray is converted to electron-positron pair in the nuclear field. d) An electron is emitted by the nucleus. 282. Nuclear isomerism refers to a nucleus that is in a __ state a) ground c) excited b) metastable d) random 283. The Mossbauer effect requires recoilless emission and absorption of ____. a) High-energy c) medium-energy b) Low-energy d) Random energy 284. In Compton scattering, the energy of the scattered gamma ray is always ___ than the incident gamma ray. a) Higher c) Same b) Lower or same d) Can be more or less. 285. The gamma decay transition probability depends strongly on the __ of the radiation. a) energy c) multipolarity b) intensity d) frequency NUCLEAR FISSION-NUCLEAR FUSION-CHAIN REACTION-NUCLEAR REACTOR 286. The primary reason why heavy nuclei undergo fission is: a) Their high neutron-to-proton ratio c) Their low binding energy per nucleon b) The strong nuclear force is weaker in d) Their tendency to minimize surface energy heavy nuclei 287. Nuclear fusion reactions generally require: a) Low temperatures and high pressure c) High temperatures and high pressure b) Low temperatures and low pressure d) High temperatures and low pressure 288. Which of the following is NOT a primary component of a nuclear reactor? a) Moderator c) Coolant b) Control rods d) Plasma generator 289. In a nuclear fission reaction, the neutron that causes fission is generally a: a) Fast neutron c) High-energy gamma ray b) Thermal neutron d) Proton 290. The function of the moderator in a nuclear reactor is to: a) Absorb excess neutrons c) Cool the reactor core b) Slow down fast neutrons d) Increase the rate of fission 291. The neutron reproduction factor in a critical reactor is: a) Less than 1 c) Equal to 1 b) Greater than 1 d) Equal to 0 292. Which of the following is not a fuel used in nuclear reactors? a) Uranium-235 c) Thorium-232 b) Plutonium-239 d) Iron-56 293. In a nuclear reactor, the purpose of the reflector is to: a) To cool the core c) To reduce neutron leakage b) To speed up the neutrons d) To capture excess neutrons 294. Which equation correctly represents a typical nuclear fission reaction? a) ¹H + ¹H → ²H + β⁺ + ν c) ²H + ³H → ⁴He + ¹n b) ²³⁵U + ¹n → ¹⁴¹Ba + ⁹²Kr + 3¹n d) ⁶Li + ¹H → ⁴He + ³He 295. Which equation represents a proton-proton chain fusion reaction in the sun? a) ¹n + ²³⁵U → ¹⁴¹Ba + ⁹²Kr + 3¹n c) ²H + ²H → ³He + ¹n b) ¹H + ¹H → ²H + e⁺ + νₑ d) ²³⁸U + ¹n → ²³⁹Np + β⁻ 296. Which is the correct expression for change in mass during a fission process? a) Mass of reactants - Mass of products c) Mass of reactants + Mass of Products b) Mass of products - Mass of reactants d) Mass of reactants * Mass of products 297. The neutron multiplication factor (k) in a nuclear reactor is defined as: a) Number of neutrons absorbed per fission/ Number of neutrons produced per fission b) Number of neutrons produced per fission/ Number of neutrons lost per fission c) Number of neutrons produced per fission/ Number of neutrons absorbed per fission d) Number of neutrons produced per fission 298. Which equation represents the decay of a neutron? a) ¹H → ¹n + e⁺ + ν c) ¹n → ¹H + e⁻ + ν b) ¹H → ¹n + β⁻ d) ¹n → ¹H + β⁺ 299. Which equation represents the formation of a compound nucleus during neutron induced nuclear reaction? a) ¹n + 235U → 236U* c) 2H + 3H → 4He + 1n b) 235U + ¹n → 141Ba + 92Kr + 3¹n d) 2H + 2H -> 3He+ 1n 300. Which statement is true about a nuclear chain reaction? a) It is always controlled and safe b) It does not require a critical mass c) It can be self-sustaining if a critical mass is reached d) It requires very low temperatures 301. Which statement is TRUE about a thermal reactor? a) It uses fast neutrons for fission c) It uses slow neutrons for fission b) It operates at very high temperatures d) It uses plutonium as fuel 302. The role of heavy water in a nuclear reactor is: a) Fuel c) Moderator b) Coolant d) Control material 303. In a subcritical reactor, the neutron multiplication factor (k) is: a) Equal to 1 c) Greater than 1 b) Less than 1 d) Infinite 304. Which reaction does not emit neutrinos a) Beta plus decay c) Gamma decay b) Beta minus decay d) Electron capture 305. Which particle is not usually emitted during a nuclear fusion reaction? a) Neutron c) Electron b) Proton d) Positron 306. Which of the following isotope of Uranium is fissile? a) Uranium-238 c) Uranium-234 b) Uranium-235 d) All of them 307. Why are light nuclei used in fusion reactions a) They are easy to produce c) They have less electrostatic repulsion b) They are very stable d) They have high binding energy 308. Why is heavy water a better moderator than light water? a) Because it has high capture cross section c) Because it is very cheap b) It has lower absorption cross section for d) Because it produces more neutrons neutrons 309. Which of the following is TRUE for a supercritical reactor? a) The reaction is stopped b) The rate of reaction is decreasing c) The rate of reaction is increasing uncontrollably d) The rate of reaction is constant 310. Which is true about a breeder reactor a) It uses slow neutrons for fission c) It has low energy output b) It converts fertile material into fissile d) It does not produce any waste material 311. What kind of fuel is used in a fast breeder reactor a) U-235 c) Plutonium 239 b) Thorium 232 d) U-238 312. What does a negative Q value mean in a nuclear reaction a) Reaction is unstable c) Reaction is endothermic b) Reaction is exothermic d) Reaction is spontaneous