Multiple Choice Exam 1, CH 1-7 PDF

Multiple Choice EXAM 1, CH 1-7 1. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to - View protozoa and bacteria 2. All of the following are characteristics of fungi EXCEPT: - They do not possess cell walls 3. All of the following are associated with algae...

Multiple Choice EXAM 1, CH 1-7 1. Antoni van Leeuwenhoek was the first person in history to - View protozoa and bacteria 2. All of the following are characteristics of fungi EXCEPT: - They do not possess cell walls 3. All of the following are associated with algae EXCEPT: - They are important in the degradation of dead plants and animals 4. Which of the following is Pasteur credited with? - Proof of biogenesis (living cells come only from other living cells) 5. Which of the following statements concerning Koch’s postulates is inaccurate? - A suspected pathogen must be found in the majority of individuals w/ a particular disease 6. The production of a human blood-clotting protein in E. coli for injection into humans is an application of which of the following scientific advances? - Genetic engineering 7. Which of the following is an incorrect pairing? - Algae: aquatic and marine habitats 8. Which of the following is NOT associated with phospholipids? - Fatty acids 9. All of the following as classified as macromolecules EXCEPT: - Amino acids 10. Short, hair-like structures found only on eukaryotic cells and used for movement are called - Cilia 11. Which of the following terms is NOT associated with bacterial cell walls? - Teichoic acids 12. Peptidoglycan is - A complex peptide/polysaccharide mesh 13. Lipid A is also known as - Endotoxin 14. Lipid-soluble molecules would be expected to cross the cell membrane by which of the following? - Diffusion 15. A cell placed in a(n) ____ solution will ____ water. - Hypotonic; gain 16. Which of the following is true about the glycocalyx? - All of the above 17. Which of the following are NOT true statements concerning the endosymbiotic theory? - The folded inner membrane of mitochondria evolved from the plasma membrane of prokaryotes 18. Which of the following is NOT true of endospores?  - Endospores are a reproductive structure 19. Spiral bacteria that cause syphilis and Lyme disease have which of the following types of flagella? - Axial filaments 20. Which of the following chemical substances contributes to the unique characteristics of acid-fast bacteria? - Mycolic acid 21. This microscope is used to observe a specimen that emits visible light when illuminated with ultraviolet light. - Fluorescence microscope 22. The factor that limits the maximum resolution of a microscope is the - Wavelength of light 23. Why does immersion oil improve resolution? - Both A and C are correct → allows light to travel + increases numerical aperture 24. All of the following types of microscopes require fixing and staining specimens EXCEPT: - Phase-contrast 25. If a microbiology lab technician left the crystal violet out of the Gram stain procedure, what would be the result? - Gram-positive cells would be purple, and Gram-negative cells would be colorless 26. A patient suffering from tuberculosis could be diagnosed by use of the _________ - Acid-fast 27. The rules of naming organisms are called - Nomenclature 28. Sulfanilmade is an antimicrobial drug that mimics the shape of an important substrate for a particular bacterial enzyme, thereby inhibiting the enzyme. This type of inhibition is known as: - Competitive inhibition 29. All of the following are true statements concerning glycolysis EXCEPT: - It produced ATP, as well as high-energy electrons 30. The synthesis of acetyl-CoA from pyruvic acid serves as a bridge between glycolysis and which of the following processes? - The Krebs cycle 31. All of the following are associated with chemiosmosis (generating ATP by electron transport) EXCEPT: - Beta-oxidation 32. The purpose of the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis is: - Production of ATP and NADPH 33. Which of the following is always true concerning the structure and function of enzymes? - After an enzyme has catalyzed a reaction, it resumes its original shape and can interact with a new substrate molecule 34. Which of the following is not true about anaerobic respiration? - It involved glycolysis only 35. According to the chemiosmotic mechanism, ATP is generated when - Protons (hydrogen ions) move across a membrane down their concentration gradient 36. Which of the following is the best definition of fermentation? - The partial oxidation of glucose with organic molecules serving as electron acceptors 37. In the figure above, which line best depicts an obligate anaerobe in the presence of O2? - C 38. A sample of milk is tested for its bacterial content in a plate count sassy. A one-millimeter same of the milk is diluted in a 1:10 dilution series. One milliliter of the third dilution tube is plated in a pour plate. After incubation, the plate has 54 colonies, indicating that the original milk sample contained - 54,000 cells 39. Salts and sugars world to preserve food by creating a - Hypertonic pressure 40. Most bacteria reproduce by - Binary fission 41. A culture medium on which only gram-positive organisms grow and a yellow halo Staphylococcus aureus colonies are called a(n) - Selective and differential medium 42. The figure above shows a typical bacterial growth curve with the y-axis indicating the log of the number of bacteria and the x-axis indicating time in culture. In the figure, which section shows a growth phase where the number of cells dying equals the number of cells dividing? - A and C 43. Which of the following is an example of a metabolic activity that could be used to measure microbial growth? - Glucose consumption 44. Three cells with generation times of 60 minutes are inoculated into a culture medium. How many cells are there after 5 hours? - 96 45. In the above figure, which tube shows the expected growth pattern for a facultative anaerobe? - B 46. In one hospital, Pseudomonas aeruginosa serotype 10 infected the biliary tract of 10 percent of 1300 patients who underwent gastrointestinal endoscopic procedures. - A biofilm in the reprocessor 47. Which of the following is the best method to sterilize heat-labile solutions? - Membrane filtration 48. Which of the following best describes the pattern of microbial death? - The cells in a population die at a constant rate 49. Which of the following parts of term is mismatched? - Bacteriostatic - kills vegetative bacterial cells 50. An agent used to remove pathogenic bacteria from a medical instrument would be called a(n) - Disinfectant 51. Which of the following regarding antimicrobial control agents is FALSE? - A true antimicrobial control agent is equally effective against all types of bacteria and viruses 52. In the figure above, what is the thermal death time? - 60 minutes 53. Which one of the following is most resistant to chemical biocides? - Gram-negative bacteria 54. In the table above, which disinfectant is the most effective at stopping bacterial growth? - Doom  EXAM 2, CH 8, 10-12 1. A gene is best defined as - A sequence of nucleotides in DNA that codes for a functional protein product 2. DNA is constructed of - Two strands of nucleotides run antiparallel 3. Transformation is the transfer of DNA from a donor to a recipient cell - As naked DNA in solution 4. The figure above shows an agar plate at the upper left, with nine bacterial colonies. Which colonies are streptomycin-resistant and leucine-requiring? - 4 and 8 5. According to the operon model, for the synthesis of an inducible enzyme to occur, the - Substrate must bind to the repressor 6. In Figure 8.3, if enzyme A is a responsible enzyme, compound C would - Bind to the repressor 7. Conjugation differs from reproduction because conjugation - Transfers DNA horizontally to cells in the same generation 8. Based on the information in the table above, prostate cancer is probably the result of which kind of mutation? - Nonsense 9. Biotechnology includes the - Use of microorganisms to make desired products, the use of animal cells to make vaccines, and the development of disease-resistant crop plants 10. An advantage of cDNA over genomic DNA is that it - Contain selectable markers 11. Self-replicating DNA used to transmit a gene from one organism to another is a - Vector 12. In the figure above, which model of the lac operon correctly shows RNA polymerase, lactose, and repressor protein when the structural genes are being transcribed? - D 13. A genus can be best defined as - A taxon composed of one or more species and below family 14. Which of the following is the best evidence for a three-domain system? - In comparing ribosomal RNA sequences, three similar types emerge 15. Which of the following statements is a reason for NOT classifying viruses in one of three domains rather than in a fourth domain? - Viruses are not composed of cells 16. Fossil evidence indicates that prokaryotic cells first existed on the Earth - 3.5 billion years ago 17. Protists are a diverse group of organisms that are similar to an - None of the above 18. Which of the following best defines a strain? - A pure culture that is not totally identical to other cultures of the same species 19. Phage typing is based on the fact that - Bacterial viruses attack only members of a specific species 20. A clone is - Genetically identical cells derived from a single-cell 21. In Table 10.1, which features are found in nearly all eukarya? - 2, 3, 5 22. Which of the following characteristics indicates that two organisms are closely related? - Their genomic DNA can hybridized 23. Which of the following are found primarily in the intestines of humans? - Facultatively anaerobic gram-negative rods 24. Staphylococcus and Streptococcus can be easily differentiated in a laboratory by which one of the following? - Growth in high salt concentrations 25. Into which group would you place a multicellular heterotroph with chitin cell walls? - Fungi 26. Which of the following is NOT an enteric? - Campylobacter 27. Which of the following lacks a cell wall? - Mycoplasma 28. Use the dichotomous key in Table 10.2 to identify a gram-negative rod that ferments lactose and uses citric acid as its sole carbon source - Citrobacter 29. Which of the following bacteria is gram-negative? - Legionella 30. Rickettsias differ from chlamydias in that rickettsias - Require an arthropod for transmission 31. Requirements for X and V factors are used to identify - Haemophilus 32. Which of the following bacteria does NOT belong with the others? - Staphylococcus 33. You have isolated a gram-positive rod. What should you do next? - Lactose fermentation 34. Gram-negative bacteria that can still utilize diverse carbon sources, including many disinfectants: - Pseudomonas 35. Which of the following bacteria are known for causing nosocomial infections? - Pseudomonas aaeruginosa 36. Which of the following statements regarding fungi is FALSE? - Most fungi are pathogenic for humans 37. Which of the following statements regarding protozoa is FALSE? - Nearly all protozoa cause disease 38. In mid-December, a woman with insulin-dependent diabetes who had been on prednisone fell and received an abrasion on the dorsal side of her right hand. - Dimorphic fungus 39. Which of the following statements is TRUE? - All of the above 40. Helminthic diseases are usually transmitted to humans by - Gastrointestinal route 41. In the malaria parasite life cycle - Mosquitoes are the definitive host 42. Three weeks after a river rafting trip, three family members experienced symptoms of coughing, fever, and chest pain. - Humans are the definitive host, and crayfish are the intermediate hosts 43. Which of the following statements about algae is FALSE? - All are unicellular 44. Giardia and Trichomonas are unusual eukaryotes because they - Lack mitochondria 45. Which of the following pairs is mismatched? - Mosquito | Toxoplasma 46. Ringworm is caused by a(n) - Fungus  EXAM 4, CH 17-20 1. What type of immunity results from vaccination? - Artificially acquired active immunity 2. Which of the following cells is NOT an APC? - Natural killer cells 3. When an antibody binds to a toxin, the resulting action is referred to as - Neutralization 4. Which of the following recognizes antigens displayed on host cells with MHC II? - Th cell 5. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of B cells? - They recognize antigens associated with MHC I 6. The most abundant class of antibodies in serum is - IgG 7. Which of the following is the best definition of antigen? - A chemical that elicits an antibody response and can combine with these antibodies 8. The following events elicit an antibody response. What is the third step? - TH cell recognized antigen-digest and MHC II 9. The presence of which of the following indicates a current infection rather than a previous infection or vaccination? - IgA 10. Which one of the following causes transmembrane channels in target cells? - Perforin 11. Thymic selection - Destroy T cells that do not recognize self-MHC molecules 12. Patient’s serum is mixed in a tube with known influenza virus and red blood cells. What happens if the patient has antibodies against the same strain of influenza virus? - Hemagglutination-inhibition 13. A patient shows the presence of antibodies against diphtheria toxin. All of the following represent explanations of how the patient acquired the antibodies EXCEPT: - The patient was near someone who had the disease 14. An ELISA for Hepatitis C has 95 percent sensitivity and 90 percent specificity. This means that the test - Detects 95 percent od the true positive samples and has 10 percent false positive results 15. A reaction between an antibody and soluble forming lattices is called a(n) - Precipitation reaction 16. The clumping of test cells indicates a negative result in the - Viral hemagglutination inhibition test 17. What type of vaccine is the measles vaccine? - Attenuated live-agent vaccine 18. A test used to identify Streptococcus pyogenes in a patient’s throat swab is the - Direct fluorescent-antibody test 19. Which of the following is a test to determine a patient’s blood type by mixing the patient’s red blood cells with antisera? - Direct agglutination reaction 20. In Table 18.1, who probably has the disease? - Patients A and B 21. The polio virus treated with formaldehyde can be used in a(n) - Inactivated whole-agent vaccine 22. Which of the following tests is MOST useful in determining the presence of HIV antibodies? - Indirect ELISA 23. Which of the following statements about measles is FALSE? - The disease has been eradicated in the United States 24. All of the following are true of hypersensitivity EXCEPT - It occurs when an individual is exposed to an allergen for the first time 25. Which of the following may result from systemic anaphylaxis? - Shock 26. Which antibodies will be in the serum of a person with blood type B, Rh+? - Anti-A 27. Graft-versus-host disease will most likely be a complication of a (n) - Skin graft or bone marrow transplant 28. Allergic contact dermatitis is due to - Sensitized T cells 29. Attachment of HIV to the target cells depends on - Gp120 combining with the CD4+ receptor 30. Which of the following statements about type I reactions is FALSE? - They involve helper T cells 31. Hemolytic disease of the newborn can result from an - Rh- mother with an Rh+ fetus 32. All of the following are reasons why an HIV vaccination has not been developed, EXCEPT - Vaccines are not effective against viral infections 33. Treatment with certain drugs to reduce transplant rejection can cause - Immunosuppression 34. Worldwide, the primary mechanism of transmission of HIV is - Heterosexual intercourse 35. Immunodeficiencies are a result of all the following EXCEPT - Autoimmune diseases 36. Which of the following is a possible outcome of an HIV infection? - All of the answers are correct 37. In immune complex reaction shown in Figure 19.1, what is the end result of the reaction? - Endothelial cells are damaged 38. Most of the available antimicrobial agents are effective against - Bacteria 39. Which of the following antimicrobial agents is recommended for use against fungal infections? - Amphotericin B 40. More than half of our antibiotics are - Produced by bacteria 41. Which of the following statements is FALSE? - Interferon inhibits glycolysis 42. Protozoan and helminthic diseases are difficult to treat because - Their cells are structurally and functionally similar to human cells 43. In Table 20.1, the minimal bactericidal concentration of antibiotic X is - 15 μg/ml 44. In Table 20.2, the most effective antibiotic tested was - D 45. Which of the following would be selective against Mycobacterium tuberculosis? - Ethambutol: inhibits mycolic acid synthesis 46. In the presence of penicillin, a cell dies because - It undergoes lysis 47. Niclosamide prevents ATP generation in mitochondria. You would expect this drug to be effective against - Helminths 48. Which of the following statements about drugs that competitively inhibit DNA polymerase or RNA polymerase is FALSE? - They cause cellular plasmolysis 49. The structures of the influenza drug Tamiflu and sialic acid, the substrate for influenza virus’s neuraminidase, are shown in Figure 20.4. What is the likely method of action of Tamiflu? - Competitive inhibition 50. Use of antibiotics in animal feed leads to antibiotic-resistant bacteria because - The antibiotics kill susceptible bacteria, but the few that are naturally resistant or that acquire resistance live and reproduce, and their progeny repopulate the host animal