Microbiology Final Exam MCQs PDF

1- The condition, when bacteria multiply in the blood, is called: a. Bacteremia b. Septicopyomia c. Virusemia d. Sepsis 2- Relapse is called: a. Disease caused by infection with a new pathogen in the background of an unfinished initial infectious disease b. Disease caused by human infection w...

1- The condition, when bacteria multiply in the blood, is called: a. Bacteremia b. Septicopyomia c. Virusemia d. Sepsis 2- Relapse is called: a. Disease caused by infection with a new pathogen in the background of an unfinished initial infectious disease b. Disease caused by human infection with the same pathogen before recovery c. Return of the disease due to remaining pathogens in the body d. Disease that occurs after a previous infection with a second infection with the same pathogen 3- What statement about the properties of exotoxins is incorrect: a. By chemical nature - proteins b. Highly toxic c. Possess organotropicity d. Low in toxicity 4- What statement about the properties of endotoxins is incorrect: a. On the chemical structure - lipopolysaccharides b. Thermostable c. Less toxic d. Highly toxic 5- Reinfection is called: a. Return of the disease due to remaining pathogens in the body b. Disease caused by human infection with the same pathogen before recovery c. Disease caused by infection with a new pathogen in the background of an unfinished initial infectious disease d. Disease that occurs after a previous infection with a second infection with the same pathogen 6- Vaccines made from live microbes or viruses that have lost virulence factors but retained immunogenic properties: a. Molecular vaccines b. Anatoxins c. Attenuated vaccines d. Killed vaccines 7- Preparations named immunoglobulins are used for: a. Diagnosis of infectious diseases b. Vaccine production c. Treatment of infectious diseases d. Specific prevention of infectious diseases 8- Antitoxins (antitoxic sera) are used for: a. For the prevention of fungal infections b. For the prevention of infections, caused by protozoa c. For the treatment of bacterial infections d. For the treatment of viral infections 9- Toxoids are prepared of: a. inactivated cultures of microbes b. endotoxins of bacteria c. exotoxins of bacteria in non-toxic form d attenuated strains of microbes 10- Vaccines are used for: a. For the prevention of allergic reactions b. For the diagnosis of infectious diseases c. For the treatment of food poisonings d. For the specific prevention of infectious diseases 11- Morphological and staining properties of the causative agent of anthrax DO NOT include: a. Gram-positive rods arranged in a chain b. Formation of a capsule c. Forms a centrally located spore whose diameter does not exceed the diameter of the cell d. Motile by flagella 12- The reservoir of the causative agent of anthrax is: a. Cattle b. A sick person c. Birds d. Bloodsucking insects 13- Antigens of the causative agent of anthrax in products from contaminated raw materials (fur, leather, wool), cadaveric material are detected by the test: a. Wasserman b. Ascoli c. Vidal d. Haddelson 14- Transmission of anthrax causative agent is NOT carried out by: a. Sexual Way b. Food c. Contact d. Airborne dust 15- Morphological and staining properties of causative agent of anthrax include: a. Gram-negative diplococci of the bean-shaped form b. Gram-positive rods c. Gram-negative rods d. Gram-positive cocci 16- Syphilis is characterized by the following features, except: Select one: a. Long lasting resistant immunity b. Disease has 3 stages c. The formation of "hard chancre" d. High contagiousness 17- The main factor of pathogenicity of gonococci is: Select one: a. Erythrogenin b. Endotoxin c. Leucocidin d. Exfoliatin 18- Morphological and staining properties of gonococci include: a. Gram-negative diplococci of the bean-shaped form b. Spore formation c. Gram-positive diplococci of the lanceolate form d. Mobility 19- Morphological and staining properties of the causative agent of syphilis:: a. Movable convoluted spiral-shaped bacteria with regular curls. According to Romanovsky-Giemsa stained in pale pink color b. Spiral bacteria with large irregular curls and with pointed ends. They are painted by Romanovsky- Giemsa in blue-violet color c. Gram-negative, convoluted bacteria, arranged in groups in the form of “flying seagull wings” d. Motile helical bacteria with small primary and large secondary curls and curved ends in the form of the letter “C” and “S” to Romanovsky-Giemsa stained in pale pink color 20- The causative agents of tuberculosis grow on the medium: a. MacConkey b. Robertson’s cooked meat medium c. Lowenstein-Jensen d. Bordet Gengou e. Nutrient agar 21- For the treatment of diphtheria is used: Select one: a. Toxoid b. Sulfonamides c. Anti-toxic serum d. Specific bacteriophage 22- The main pathogenicity factor of the causative agent of diphtheria is: a. Exotoxin b. Flagella c. Endotoxin d. Capsule 23- For the treatment of tuberculosis, the following drugs are used, except: a. Ethambutol b. Rifampicin c. Isoniazid d. Metronidazole e. Streptomycin 24- Lactose fermentation is typical for:: a. E. coli b. S.typhimurium c. S.typhi d. Sh.flexneri 25- H-antigen of enterobacteriaceae is a part of: a. plasma membrane b. flagella c. cell wall d. saw e. capsules 26- Pathogenic escherichias are differentiated from opportunistic: a. by antigenic properties b. by the ability to ferment lactose c. by color of colonies on Endo medium d. by the ability to ferment glucose 27- To diagnose diseases caused by pathogenic E. coli, the inoculation of feces is carried out: a. on salt agar b. on blood agar c. MacConkey's medium d. on alkaline agar e. on bismuth sulfite agar 28- For the treatment of botulism is used: a. Specific bacteriophages b. Isoniazid c. Pyrazinamide d. Anti-toxic serum e. Toxoid 29- Cultural properties of the causative agent of botulism: : a. Aerobic, grows on basal nutrient media b. Strict aerobic. Grows on blood glucose agar c. Strict aerobic.Grows on MacConkey medium d. Strict anaerobic, grows on RCM broth e. Aerobic, grows on simple nutrient media 30- The causative agent of botulism releases the following toxin: a. Dermonecrotoxin b. Neurotoxin c. Hemolysin d. Leukocidin e. Enterotoxin 31- For specific prevention of botulism, the following is used: a. Bacteriophage b. Killed vaccine c. Immunoglobulin d. Toxoid e. Live vaccine 32- The causative agents of influenza epidemics are more often influenza viruses: a. Type A b. Type B c. Type E d. Type D 33- For the prophylaxis of influenza, the following drugs are used, except: a. Molecular vaccines b. Live vaccines c. Toxoid d. Inactivated vaccines 34- For the treatment of influenza, the following drugs are used, except: a. Metronidazole b. Rimantadin c. Interferon d. Ozeltamivir e. Immunoglobulin 35- Possible outcomes of the disease with hepatitis B (all are true, except): a. infertility b. liver carcinoma c. cirrhosis d. recovery with the formation of lifelong immunity e. chronic active hepatitis 36- Routes of transmission for hepatitis C (all are true except): a. tatoo procedure b. by infected water c. blood transfusion d. from mother to fetus e. by sexual contact 37- Routes of transmission for hepatitis A (all are true, except): a. with infected water b. through household items of the patient c. through dirty hands d. with infected foods e. from mother to fetus 38- Hepatitis E is most unfavorable in: : a. elderly patients b. pregnant women c. young children d. school children and adolescents 39- Prevention of hepatitis D: : a. compliance with the rules of personal and public hygiene b. interferon c. hepatitis B vaccination d. hepatitis A vaccination e. immunoglobulin 40- In case of dermatomycoses, the material for research is not: a. nails b. hair c. sputum d. skin scrapings 41- The causative agents of dermatomycoses are the following, with the exception of:: a. Trichophyton rubrum b. Microsporum canis c. Histoplasma capsulatum d. Epidermophyton floccosum 42- The clinical manifestations of candidiasis include the following, with the exception of:: a. Conjunctivitis b. Systemic candidiasis c. Superficial candidiasis d. Visceral candidiasis 43- When examining washings from the hands of personnel, inoculation is performed on the following medium a. Kessler b. Sabouraud's agar c. 0.1% peptone water d. salt solution 44- To determine the total number of bacteria, air is inoculated in volume: a. 150 l b. 200 l c. 250 l d. 100 l 45- For the detection of molds and yeasts-iike fungi in purified water Saburo's medium is incubated in a thermostat at a temperature: a. 15 оС b. 30 оС c. 22 оС d. 37 оС 46- Spiral bacteria belong to genus: a. Neisseria b. Staphylococcus c. Rickettsia d. Borrelia 47- For the staining of acid-fast bacteria, the method is used: : a. Ziehl–Neelsen method b. Neisser method c. Gram method d. Giemsa method 48- Capsule of bacteria is detected by: a. Burry Gins method b. Gram method c. Giemsa method d. Ziehl–Neelsen method 48- Dimorphic fungi are able to form different structures: Select one: a. At presence of UV rays b. At presence of oxygen c. At different temperature d. At presences of chemicals 49- Morphology of Entamoeba: Select one: a. Has a pear-shaped form, 4 anterior flagella b. Has a pear-like shape, 2 nuclei. c. Has the shape of an orange slice, 1 nucleus d. Non certain shape, 1 nucleus, cyst forming 50- Under a microscope, you found cocci shape bacteria, arrangemeted in chain: Select one: a. Streptococcus b. Staphylococcus c. Escherichia d. Mycoplasma 51- Naked viruses have no: a. Capsid b. Envelope c. Nucleic acid d. Spikes 52- Prions are presented: a. Polysaccharides b. DNA c. Proteins d. RNA 53- The color of Gram-negative bacteria is: a. Violet b. Blue c. Yellow d. Red 54- The glycoprotein structure of the virus has: a. Replication enzymes b. Capsid c. Envelope d. Spikes 55- Which is an obligate intracellular organism? a. Clostridium b. Campylobacter c. Chlamydia d. Borrelia 56- Gram-positive bacteria include pathogens: a. Shigella b. Escherichia c. Bacillus d. Salmonella 57- Bacteria having flagella: a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Neisseria d. Vibrio 58- Filamentous bacteria include: a. Mycobacterium b. Campylobacter c. Neisseria d. Vibrio 59- Acid-fast bacteria are: a. Mycobacteria b. Mycoplasma c. Staphylococci d. Rickettsia 60- Under a microscope, you found bacteria with rod shape, rounded ends, gram negative: a. Staphylococcus b. Streptococcus c. Mycoplasma d. Escherichia 61- The characteristics of viruses includes: a. Infectious "protein particles” b. Reproduce outside the living cell c. Single-celled life forms d. Not able to reproduce outside a living cell 62- Under the microscope, you found cocci bean-shaped, stained in red color: a. Klebsiella b. Gonococcus c. Streptococcus d. Bacillus 63- Bacteria that form spores belong to genus: a. Mycoplasma b. Streptococcus c. Escherichia d. Clostridium 64- Bacteria having a spherical shape: a. lebsiella b. Vibrio c. Mycobacterium d. Gonococci 65- Property of Trichomonas a. Has the shape of an orange slice, 1 nucleus b. Has a pear-like shape, 2 nuclei. c. Rod-shaped, 1 nucleus, 1 flagella d. Has a pear-shaped form, central nucleous, 4 anterior flagella 66- Differential-diagnostic media are: a. Used for cultivation of microbes demanding to nutrient media b. Media that allow to distinguish some species of bacteria from others by their enzymatic activity. c. Inhibiting the growth of certain microbes and promoting the growth of others d. Containing pieces of internal organs and tissues of an animal or human. 67- Saccharolytic properties of bacteria are usually determined on a medium: a. Robertson’s Cooked Meat broth b. Nutrient agar c. Blood agar d. Hiss media 68- Bactriophages are not used for: a. Treatment of bacterial infections b. Determination ofspecies of bacteria c. Determination of the phage type of bacteria d. Treatment of viral infections 69- Selective nutrient media are media: a. Designed to isolate certain types of bacteria, while the growth of other types of bacteria is suspended or slowed down b. Designed for the cultivation of whimsical bacteria that need a large number of nutrients c. Used to study the biochemical properties of bacteria d. Designed to isolate most species of bacteria 70- In a healthy person, the following organs do not contain bacteria: Select one: a. Lymph nodes b. Stomach c. Eyes d. Mouth 71- Transformation is carried out with the help of: a. Temperate bacteriophage b. Fertility factor (F plasmid) c. Mutation d. DNA of donor cell 72- Methods of cultivation of obligate aerobic bacteria: a. In the presence of CO2 b. In the presence of oxygen c. In the presence of a small amount of oxygen d. In the absence of oxygen 73- Proteolytic properties of bacteria - is ability: a. To ferment sugars b. To produce a oxidase c. Break down proteins with indole and hydrogen sulphide production d. To produce a catalase 74- Plasmid - multidrug resistance factor of bacteria: a. Col-plasmid b. F-plasmid c. R-plasmid d. Ent plasmid 75- To differential-diagnostic media include the following , except: a. Peptone ater b. Robertson’s Cooked Meat broth c. MacConkey agar d. Hiss with sugars 76- Proteolytic properties of bacteria are usually determined on media: a. MacConkey agar b. Meat peptone broth c. Peptone water d. Robertson’s cooked meat medium 77- Bacteriophages are not isolated from: a. Soil b. Sterile objects c. Sewage d. Material from the patient 78- Aseptic is: a. Destruction measures of microbes in the pathological focus, wound, etc. b. Complete destruction of microbes from the object c. Prevention of microbial contamination (sterilization of medicines, bandage, surgical tools, air at operation theatre, test tubes, media and so on) d. Destruction and removal of infectious agents from environmental objects 79- Which method of sterilization is not physical: a. gas sterilization b. Gamma-rays sterilization c. sterilization in flame d. sterilization with ultraviolet rays 80- The positive role of the normal microbial flora of a human beings includes the folloing, except:: a. Participates in the formation of lymphoid tissue b. Promotes digestion c. It has antagonistic properties against pathogenic microorganisms d. Protects the body from the effects of radiation 81- Property of prophage: a. It is used for identification of bacteria b. Is used for phage typing of bacteria c. Used for treatment d. It is included in the genome of a bacterial 82- Genotypic variability is not observed as a result of: : a. mutations b. transduction c. loss of cell wall under the influence of penicillin d. transformation 83- Methods of cultivation of obligate anaerobic bacteria:: a. In the presence of a small amount of oxygen b. In the presence of oxygen c. In the absence of oxygen d. In the presence of CO2 84- Transduction is carried out with the help of: a. DNA of donor cell b. Fertility factor (F plasmid) c. Temperate bacteriophage d. Mutation 85- Special nutrient media are media:: a. Used to study the biochemical properties of bacteria b. Designed to isolate certain types of bacteria, while the growth of other types of bacteria is suspended or slowed down c. Designed to isolate most species of bacteria d. Are used to obtain the growth of fastidious bacteria that do not grow or grow very poorly on basal nutrient media. 86- For the treatment of intestinal dysbiosis, preparations from the the following microbes are used, excep: a. Saccharomyces b. Staphylococcus c. Bifidobacterium d. Lactobactillus 87- Mutations do not arise under the action of: a. Excess of nutrients b. Acrydine dyes c. Ultraviolet rays d. X-rays 88- Spores of bacteria are destroyed by using of:: a. prolonged drying b. autoclave c. ultraviolet rays d. toxic gases 89- What objects are sterilized in a Pasteur oven by using of dry heat: : a. Glass and metal objects b. waste material (cultures of microbes, material from the patient, etc.) c. disposable syringes d. basic nutrient media 90- Saccharolytic properties of bacteria is ability: a. Grow on liquid nutrient medium with sugars, forming in it acidic and gaseous products b. Allocate hydrogen sulphide c. Produce indole d. Liquefy gelatin 91- An antibiotic that interferes with the function of the cell membrane: a. tetracycline b. streptomycin c. rifampicin d. nystatin 92- What statement about the properties of exotoxins is incorrect: : a. Highly toxic b. Possess organotropicity c. By chemical nature - proteins d. Low in toxicity 93- What antibiotic is not considered an aminoglycoside: a. gentamycin b. erythromycin c. kanamycin d. streptomycin 94- Vaccines made from live microbes that have lost virulence factors but retained immunogenic properties:: a. Anatoxins b. Molecular vaccines c. Killed vaccines d. Attenuated vaccines 95- Vaccines are used for: a. For the diagnosis of infectious diseases b. For the treatment of dermatomycosis c. For the prevention of infectious diseases d. For the treatment of foodborne diseases 96- To prevent the emergence of drug-resistant strains of microorganisms, it is necessary:: a. rational antibiotic therapy b. chemical modification of known antibiotics with protected active groups c. all of the above d. finding new chemotherapeutic drugs with a different mechanism of action 97- The antibiotics acting on the synthesis of nucleic acids in the cell include:: a. amphotericin B b. rifampicin c. erythromycin d. gentamycin G 98- The group of macrolides include: a. tobramycin b. griseofulvin c. levomycetin d. azithromycin 99- The resistance of bacteria to antibiotics is due to the presence of:: a. Ent-plasmas b. Col-plasmids c. Tox-plasmids d. R-plasmids 100- What classes of immunoglobulins are formed in the primary immune response? : a. Ig A b. Ig M c. Ig E d. Ig D 101- For the treatment of tetanus use:: a. interferon b. bacteriophage c. antitoxic serum d. toxoid 102- For the treatment of tuberculosis do not use: a. acyclovir b. rifampicin c. isoniazid d. tubazid 103- The condition, when bacteria multiply in the blood, is called: a. Sepsis b. Septicopyemia c. Bacteremia d. Virusemia 104- β-lactam antibiotic is : a. streptomycin b. erythromycin c. rifampicin d. penicillin 105- Relapse is called:: a. Disease that occurs after a previous infection with a second infection with the same pathogenDisease caused by human infection with the same pathogen before recovery b. Return of the disease due to remaining pathogens in the body c. Disease caused by infection with a new pathogen in the background of an unfinished initial infectious disease 106- What statement about the properties of endotoxins is incorrect: : a. Less toxic b. Highly toxic c. Lipopolysaccharides d. Thermostable 107- Antitoxic serum is used for: a. treatment of sepsis b. Treatment of bacterial infections c. prevention of dermatomycosis d. Treatment of viral infections 108- Vaccine is used to prevent tuberculosis:: a. MMR b. Molecular vaccine c. DTP d. BCG 109- An antibiotic that inhibits protein synthesis on ribosomes in a bacterial cell:: a. nystatin b. streptomycin c. rifampicin d. penicillin 110- Reinfection is called:: a. Disease caused by human infection with the same pathogen before recovery b. Disease that occurs after a previous infection with a second infection with the same pathogen c. Return of the disease due to remaining pathogens in the body d. Disease caused by infection with a new pathogen in the background of an unfinished initial infectious disease 111- Antitoxins are used for: a. For the prevention of fungal infections b. For the prevention of dermatomycosis c. For the treatment of infectious diseases d. For the treatment of viral infections 112 - Specific prevention of whooping cough is carried out by: a. Live vaccine b. DTP c. DT d. Antibiotics 113- For the treatment of tuberculosis is not used: a. Isoniazid b. Ethambutol c. Nystatin d. Pyrazinamide 114- For the cultivation of the causative agent of leprosy apply: a. Simple nutrient media b. Susceptible animals c. Complex nutrient media d. Elective media 115- Does not apply to the cultural properties of the plague pathogen: a. Unpretentious to nutrient media b. S type colonies c. Form R type colonies d. Incubated at 28 degrees by C 116- The main factor of pathogenicity of meningococci is: a. Endotoxin b. Exfoliative toxin c. Leucocidin d. Erythrogenic toxin 117- For specific prophylaxis of plague, the following is used: a. Anatoxin b. Gamma globulin c. Antitoxin d. Live vaccine 118- Meningococcal infection manifests itself in all forms, except:: a. Bacteremia b. Food poisoning c. Carrier state d. Nasopharyngitis 119- The carriers of the causative agent of Lyme disease are: a. Lice b. Ticks c. Fleas d. Mosquitoes 120- Morphological features of the causative agent of tularemia: a. Coccobacteria b. Form a macrocapsule c. Movable d. Form a centrally located spore 121- For the treatment of diphtheria apply: a. Specific bacteriophages b. Isoniazid c. Anatoxin d. Antitoxic serum 122- Casative agent of tuberculosis grows on media: a. RCM broth b. Levenshtein-Jensen c. Milk-salt agar d. Nutrient agar 123- Tularemia causative agent belong to the genus: a. Francisella b. Pseudomonas c. Yersinia. d. Brucella. 124- Prevention of tuberculosis includes: a. Use of MMR vaccine b. Use of bacteriophage c. Use of BCG vaccine d. Use of tuberculi 125- The causative agent of Lyme disease is: a. Mycobacterium avium b. Brucella melitensis c. Borrelia burgdorferi d. Borrelia reccurentis 126- Medium for the cultivation of the whooping cough pathogen: a. Salt agar b. Nutrient agar c. Bordet-Gengou medium d. MacConkey's medium 127- The causative agent of intestinal yersiniosis is transmitted to the humans: a. By air b. By food c. From mother to fetus d. By sexual contact 128- The main method of laboratory diagnosis of Escherichiosis is: a. Serological b. Bacterioscopic c. Skin allergy tests d. Bacteriological 129- What specimen is not used for diagnosis of leptospirosis: a. Blood b. Urine c. Throat swab d. Water 130- The causative agent of cholera has got the following antigens, except: a. O139 b. H c. O2 d. O1 131- For active immunization against brucellosis, a vaccine is used: a. Chemical b. Alive c. Anatoxin d. Subunit 132- What specimen is examined by a bacteriological method in the first week of typhoid fever: : a. Blood b. Stool c. Urine d. Bile 133- To isolate Vibrio cholera, a nutrient medium is used: a. MacConkey agar b. Blood agar c. Robertson's cooked meat broth d. Alkaline agar 134- In the pathogenesis of botulism, the main role is played by: a. Neurotoxin b. Dermonectrotoxin c. Histotoxin d. Enterotoxin 135- The material for the bacteriological method for dysentery is: a. Blood b. Pus c. Stool d. Urine 136- Lactose-positive Escherichia form colonies on MacConkey medium: a. Black b. Yellow c. Colorless d. Red 137- Morphological and tinctorial properties of Salmonella:: a. Gram positive rods b. Gram-negative rods c. Gram-negative spore-forming rods d. Gram-negative cocci 138- For the treatment of cholera are used:: a. Tetracycline and electrolytes solutions b. Nystatin and electrolytes solutions c. Ftivazide and electrolytes solutions d. Interferon and electrolytes solutions 139- Exotoxin produced by Vibrio cholera is: a. Enterotoxin b. Dermonecrotoxin c. Hemolysin d. Neurotoxins 140- The source of infection in case of brucellosis is: a. Insects b. Human c. Soil d. Cattle 141- Intestinal yersiniosis is caused by: a. Y. pseudotuberculosis b. Y. pestis c. Y. enterocolitica d. K. ozaenae 142- For the treatment of influenza, everything is used, except for: a. immunoglobulin b. interferonogens c. interferon d. vaccines e. remantadine 143- Ways of transmission in HIV infection (everything is true, except for): a. when breastfeeding b. during pregnancy c. sexual d. with intravenous drug use e. when using common utensils 144- For the treatment of herpes simplex apply: a. Biseptol b. Interferon c. Acyclovir d. Penicillins e. Nitrofurans 145- Rabies treatment:: a. not developed b. immunomodulators c. gamma globulin d. interferons e. antibiotics 146- To prevent hepatitis A, a vaccine is currently used: a. anatoxin b. live vaccine c. recombinant vaccine d. killed vaccine 147- The measles virus belongs to the genus: a. Flavivirus b. Paramyxovirus c. Rubulavirus d. Pneumovirus e. Morbillivirus 148- Herpes zoster is caused by: a. fungi of the genus Candida b. influenza virus c. poliovirus d. rhabdovirus e. varicella-zoster virus 149- Viral hepatitis with a parenteral transmission mechanism includes everything except: a. hepatitis G b. hepatitis B hepatitis D c. hepatitis A ,hepatitis C 150- Hepatitis B virus antigens (all are true, except for): a. HBx- Ag b. НВс-Ag c. HBs-Ag d. ND-core-Ag e. HBe-Ag 151- For active specific prevention of hepatitis B is used: a. recombinant vaccine b. live vaccine c. immunoglobulin d. killed vaccine e. anatoxin 152- Active immunization against measles is carried out:: a. gamma globulin b. live vaccine c. inactivated vaccine d. toxoid e. DPT vaccine 153- Route of transmission for influenza: a. by insect b. ingestion c. airborne d. by sexual contact e. congenitally 154- Influenza epidemics are often caused by influenza viruses of the serotype:: a. B b. C c. D d. A e. E 155- Ways of transmission for hepatitis B (everything is true, except for): a. by food b. blood transfusion c. with intravenous drug use d. by sexual contact e. congenitally 156- Among the causative agents of viral hepatitis, DNA genomic viruses include: a. hepatitis D virus b. hepatitis E virus c. hepatitis A virus d. hepatitis B virus e. hepatitis C viru 157- Route of transmission for measles:: a. by food b. air-dust c. by droplets d. by water e. throw transplacentl 158- A feature of pathogenesis in HIV infection is selective cell damage containing receptors:: a. CD3 + b. CD18 + c. CD16 + d. CD8 + e. CD4 + 159- Prevention of hepatitis D:: a. compliance with the rules of personal and public hygiene b. vaccination against hepatitis B c. vaccination against hepatitis A d. interferon e. immunoglobulin 160- Which of the following diseases is characterized by the presence of the Negri bodies in the cells?: a. influenza b. rubella c. chickenpox d. rabies e. mumps 161- Antiviral drugs include the following, except for: a. interferon b. metronidazole c. remantadine d. azidothymidine e. acyclovir 162- Hepatitis B virus is classified as: a. family Picornaviridae, genus Hepatovirus b. family Hepadnaviridae, genus Orthohepadnavirus c. family Picornaviridae, genus Enterovirus d. not classified e. family Togaviridae, genus Rubivirus 163- Viral hepatitis with enteral transmission mechanism: a. hepatitis E, hepatitis B b. hepatitis A, hepatitis E c. hepatitis C, hepatitis G d. hepatitis B, hepatitis D e. hepatitis B, hepatitis C 164- Viruses of the Enterovirus genus (everything is true, except for): a. contain DNA b. contain RNA c. simple d. cubic symmetry e. small 165- Features of the hepatitis D virus (everything is true, except for):: a. reproduction in the presence of HBV b. defectiveness of the virus c. НВs-Ag in the composition of НDV envelope d. inability to cause monoinfection e. reproduction in the presence of HCV 166- The main route of transmission in rabies:: a. by contact (when bitten or salivated by sick animals) b. by water c. congenitally d. by sexual contact e. by insect 167- Ways of transmission of infection with poliomyelitis: a. fecal-oral b. congenitally c. transplacental d. air-dust 168- Transmission factors in HIV infection (everything is true, in addition): a. tears b. sperm c. vaginal secretion d. breast milk e. blood 169- Specific prevention of HIV infection:: a. recombinant vaccines b. recombinant vaccines c. not developed d. live vaccines e. donor immunoglobulins 170- Ways of transmission for hepatitis A (everything is true, except for): a. with infected products b. through unwashed hands c. through household items of the patient d. congenitally e. with infected water 171- Rabies virus classification: a. family Flaviviridae, genus Flavivirus b. family Rhabdoviridae, genus Lyssaviru c. family Filoviridae, genus Filovivirus d. family Arenaviridae, genus Arenavirus e. family Rhabdoviridae, genus Vesiculovirus 172- The route of transmission of the virus in case of acquired rubella: a. by food b. air-dust c. transplacental d. airborne e. contact 173- Sources of infection in case of rabies (all is true, except for): a. foxes b. cats c. dogs d. sick man e. wolves 174- The clinical manifestations of candidiasis are as follows, except : a. Bronchopulmonary candidiasis b. Vaginitis c. Conjunctivitis d. Intestinal candidiasis e. Cutaneous candidiasis 175- The causative agents of dermatophytoses are the following species, except: a. Microsporum canis b. Histoplasma capsulatum c. Epidermophyton floccosum d. Trichophyton rubrum 176- Most often, candidiasis is caused by: a. C. tropicalis b. C. krusei c. C. albicans d. C. parapsilosis 177- What method is not used for to determine pyrogenicity: a. LAL test b. ELISA test c. Biological d. Indirect 178- Causative agents of malaria are transsmitted by biting of:: a. Moscuites b. Ticks c. Fleas d. Lice 179- For prophylaxis of trichomonosis is used: a. Toxoid b. Live vaccine c. Safe sex d. Inactivated vaccine 180- For the quantitative determination of mold and yeast fungi in the air of the premises of pharmacies inoculation is performed on the medium : a. Meat peptone agar b. Salt agar c. MacConkey d. Sabouraud medium 181- Cultural properties of C. albicans:: a. Formation on solid media R type colonies b. The ability to grow dimorphic at 20 °C and 37 °C c. Formation of S-type colonies on solid media d. Ability to grow on Robertson’s cooked meat broth 182- In which room of pharmacies is it permissible to detect Staphylococcus aureus in the air:: a. Service Hall b. Assistant c. Aseptic unit d. Washing 183- The source and factors of transmission of pathogens of dermatophytoses are the following, except: a. animals b. sick people c. syringes and needles d. barber tools e. the soil 184- For the treatment of trichomonosis is used:: a. Isoniazid b. Streptomycin c. Specific immunoglobulin d. Metronidazole 185- The main medium for the isolation of fungi is: a. Meat peptone agar b. Sabouraud agar c. MacConkey agar d. Robertson’s cooked meat broth 186- Causative agent of toxoplasmosis is not transmitted:: a. By eating of undercooked meat b. By sexual contact c. Congenitally d. By contact with cats 187- To determine the total number of bacteria in the air of the premises of pharmacies examine air in volume:: a. 50 l b. 150 l c. 250 l d. 100 l 188- To determine the amount of mesophilic aerobic and facultatively anaerobic bacteria in distilled water, inoculation of the test sample is performed on the medium: a. Salt agar b. Meat peptone agar c. MacConkey d. Sabouraud medium 189- Causative agents of malaria have organs of movement:: a. Cilia b. Pseudopodia c. Flagella d. Absent 190- The morphological and cultural properties of the causative agent of toxoplasmosis are as follows, except fo: a. Moving with flagella b. Intracellular parasitism c. Cyst formation d. Boat-shaped cells 191- In case of dermatophytoses, the material for research is everything except:: a. hair b. fingernails c. scrapings from the skin d. sputum 192- For the treatment of malaria is used: a. Chloroquine b. Metronidazole c. Nystatin d. Anti-toxic serum 193- The causative agents of dermatophytoses are transmitted:: a. By airborne droplets b. By blood sucking insecta c. By food d. By contact 194- For specific prophylaxis of toxoplasmosis is used:: a. Toxoid b. Inactivated vaccine c. Not developed d. Live vaccine 195- All the options are characteristic of Streptococcus pneumoniae EXCEPT: a. Inulin fermentation b. Optochin sensitivity c. Bile solubility d. Oxidase-positive v 196- C.diphtheriae can be biochemically differentiated from C.ulcerans by: a. Urease test b. Tellurite reduction c. Oxidase test d. Catalase test 197- The Clostridium species with spherical terminal spores is: a. C.difficile b. C.perfringens c. C.tertium d. C.tetani 198- The food item associated with B.cereus emetic-type food poisoning is: a. Meat b. Canned food c. Milk and milk products d. Cooked rice v 199- Mycobacteria that produce toxins are: a. M.xenopi b. M.scrofulaceum c. M.abscesses d. M.ulcerans 200- The mechanism of action of tetanospasmin is: a. Post-synaptic inhibition in spinal cord b. Inhibition of acetyl choline receptors c. Presynaptic inhibition in spinal cord d. Inhibition of protein synthesis 201- The selective media for isolating B.cereus from stool is : a. Mannitol salt agar. b. Mannitol-egg yolk-polymixin agar v c. Buffered charcoal yeast extract agar d. PLET medium 202- Selective media for gonococci is: a. Thayer-Martin medium b. DCA medium c. Lowenstein-Jensen medium d. Blood agar medium 203- All of the following organisms produce non-gonococcal urethritis EXCEPT: a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Mycoplasma genitalium c. Chlamydia psittaci d. Trichomonas vaginalis 204- Fildes technique is used for isolation of : a. C.tetani b. Chistoiyticum c. C.difficile d. C.perfringens 205- The diphteria toxin has similar mechanism of action as the toxin of : a. Listeria b. Clostridium tetani c. £ Coli d. Pseudomonas aeruginosa 206- Which of the following is a non- suppurative complication of Streptococcus pyogenes?: a. Pharyngitis b. Acute rheumatic fever c. Impetigo d. Necrotising fasciitis 207- Penicillin resistance in Pneumococci is due to: a. All of the above b. Acquisition of mec A gene c.p lactamase production d. Alteration in penicillin-binding proteins 208- Which of the following is not a cultural characteristic of B.anthracis?: a. Bamboo stick appearance b. String of pearl reaction c. Medusa head appearance d. Inverted fir tree appearance 209- All of the following are causative agents of non-gonococcal urethritis EXCEPT : a. Neisseria sicca b. Ureaplasma urealyticum c. Gardnerella vaginalis d. Chlamydia trachomatis 210- Which of the following statements is false about food poisoning due to Cperfringens?: a.Food poisoning is usually caused by a cold or warmed up meat dish. b. Preformed toxins are responsible. c. It is caused by C.perfringens type A strains. d. Spores of C.perfringens are responsible 211- The transport medium used for throat swabs in case of streptococcal pharyngitis is : a. Pike's medium b. Buffered glycerol saline c. Cary Blair medium d. Stuart's medium 212-The most commonly encountered coagulase-negative staphylococci in human infections is : a. Staph.saprophyticus b. Staph.haemolyticus c. Staph.epidermidis d. Staph.lugdunensis 213- The capsule of B.anthracis is formed of: a. Protein b. Polysaccharide c. Polypeptide d. Lipid 214- All of the following options are true about M protein of S.pyogenes EXCEPT : a. It is heat and acid-stable. b. M protein is not antigenic. c. It is used for typing streptococci. d. It is responsible for virulence. 215- Differentiation of Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Neisseria meningitidis is by : a. Glucose fermentation b. VP reaction c. Maltose fermentation d. Indole test 216- The most common non-sporing anaerobe isolated from clinical specimens is: a. Veillonella parvula b. Peptostreptococcus magnus c. Fusobacterium nucleatum d. Bacteriodesfragilis 217- The toxigenicity of C.diphtheriae is due to : a. Delta phage b. Lambda phage c. Gamma phage d. Beta phage 218- The source of the streptokinase used for thrombolytic therapy is: a. S.pyogenes b. S.agalactiae c. S.mutans d. S.equisimilis 219- The HLA seen predominantly in patients with tuberculoid type of reaction is : a. HLA-MT1 b. HLADQ1 c. HLA-DR2 d. HLA-DR4 220- The arrangement of staphylococci is: a. In chains b. In pairs c. In clusters d. None of the above 221- The Corynebacterium species causing prosthetic valve endocarditis is : a. C.xerosis b. C.ulcerans c. C.jeikeium d. C.hofmanni 222- The virulence factors for N.gonorrhoeae includes all EXCEPT: a. Pili b. IgAl protease c. Outer membrane proteins d. M protein 223- Erythrasma is caused by : a. C.xerosis b. Culcerans c. C.minutissimum d. C.pseudotuberculosis 224- Skin lesions in meningococcal meningitis is due to : a. Direct vascular damage b. Allergic reaction c. Endotoxin d. Exotoxin ‫مع التمنيات بالنجاح و التفوق‬