EFB and Flight Planning Mock Questions PDF

EFB: ​ What is the minimum iPad battery charge required before daily flight sequence? o​ Fully charged near 100%. (FOM 4.14.2) ​ What software and apps are required inflight for our EFB and when does each version have to be updated by? o​ Apple iOS, Jeppsen Flight...

EFB: ​ What is the minimum iPad battery charge required before daily flight sequence? o​ Fully charged near 100%. (FOM 4.14.2) ​ What software and apps are required inflight for our EFB and when does each version have to be updated by? o​ Apple iOS, Jeppsen Flight Deck Pro X, Comply365, AA HOT and version has to be updated by the compliance date, on the EFB STAR. (FOM 4.14.3) ​ Where can you find the Current Updates for the EFB? o​ EFB STAR. (FOM 4.14.3) ​ Are there any other things that have to be “current” for flight? o​ Jepp charts updated and “Comply” items in comply365 by the compliance date. (FOM 4.14.3) ​ How do you comply with the EFB required apps? o​ Checking the iPad storage compliance. (FOM 4.14.3) ​ What are the requirements for syncing Comply365? o​ All pilots are required to “Check for Updates” in comply365 by selecting SYNC prior to the first flight of the day and shall verify a successful EFB update has occurred. (FOM 4.14.7) Dispatch Release/Flight Planning ​ What items are the minimum required items for the Release? o​ Aircraft registration, flight number, flight type (IFR), Airports (ORG/DST/TOA/ALT1/ALT2), and minimum fuel (T/O Fuel). (FOM 16.19) ​ ​ ​ Per the FOM when are you required to declare Minimum fuel? o​ If projected fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 45 minutes of fuel remaining. (FOM 17.4.2) ​ ​ Does declaring MIN FUEL give us priority handling? o​ No, but implies to ATC little to no delays can be accepted. (FOM 17.4.2) ​ ​ Per the FOM when are you required to declare emergency fuel? o​ If projected fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining. (FOM 7.16.3, FOM 17.4.3)  ​ What is RAMP Fuel? o​ T/O FUEL + TANKER FUEL + TAXI FUEL. (POH 9.12.5) ​ ​ Ramp Fuel vs FOB tolerance? o​ +/- 500 lbs, as long as not below T/O FUEL + TAXI FUEL. (POH 9.12.5) ​ ​ T/O Fuel, do we have any variance allowed? o​ Can be higher but not lower. (FOM 17.1.2) ​ ​ What is Takeoff Fuel? o​ BURN + RESERVE + ALT + CONTINGENCY. (FOM 9.12.6) ​ ​ What is the definition of Fuel Burn? o​ Sum of Climb + Cruise/Descent + one instrument approach at destination. (POH 9.12.6) ​ ​ What does contingency fuel contain and is it required? o​ Anticipated traffic delays, holding, historical fuel requirements, possible missed approach, and other conditions delaying landing. Yes, it is required. (POH 9.12.3) ​ ​ What is TANKER Fuel? o​ Provides additional fuel for APU burn at gate and unusual ground delays such as deicing. (POH 9.12.6) ​ ​ You are holding for your destination. How long can you hold? o​ Burn, Alt, Rsv, Missed. ​ ​ If you were at your alternate on final at 3000’ AGL and had your reserve fuel of 2250 pounds would you have 45 minutes of fuel remaining? o​ No. Reserve fuel is calculated as Long Range Cruise at FL 250 (POH 9.12.1) ​ ​ How is RESERVE Fuel calculated? o​ 45 minutes, long range cruise, at FL 250 (POH 9.12.1)  ​ If your alternate is 75 miles from your destination, what altitude is your ALT fuel number planned? o​ 15,000 Ft (POH 9.12.1) ​ ​ T/O Fuel listed is 5002, what number should be written on the TOLD card? o​ 5100 (/5.1) ​ ​ Does RESERVE 00:45 fuel mean you have 45 minutes of fuel? o​ NO. Demonstrate an understanding that that figure is calculated using FL250 and Long Range Cruise speed (subject to a minimum quantity) At 600 feet, the reserve fuel will be exhausted much faster. (POH 9.12.2) ​ ​ How does PSA calculate ALT FUEL? o​ Direct to the furthest alternate using normal cruise and an additional 400 lbs for missed approach. (POH 9.12.1, FAR 121.639) ​ ​ For ALT FUEL, does dispatch select a random altitude or just use planned cruise altitude? o​ Based on distance, 0-50NM 10,000ft, 51-100 NM 15,000ft, 101-150 NM 20,000ft, 151 NM or greater 25,000ft. (POH 9.12.1) ​ ​ When are we required to conduct an enroute fuel check? o​ At least once if the flight is more than 36 minutes, and at least once per hour during cruise for longer flights. (FOM 17.3.7) ​ ​ What is the Minimum Contingency fuel requirements? o​ 330 lbs (POH 9.12.4) ​ ​ What is minimum tanker fuel requirements? o​ CRJ700 = 937 lbs, CRJ900 = 1082 lbs (POH 9.12.3) ​ ​ What are the minimum reserve fuel requirements? o​ CRJ700 = 2100 lbs, CRJ900 = 2220 lbs (POH 9.12.2) ​  ​ What are you signing for when you sign the release? o​ CA: CFR’s 121.439-445; Compliance with EFB STAR, rested and complying with 117.5D limitations, CA is current on recent experience, PIC is qualified for Special areas and airports, PIC qualified for Route and Airports, has had a PC or applicable check in the previous 12 calendar months, and has had a line check within the last 24 calendar months. o​ FO: Compliance with EFB STAR and compliance with 117.5D. Weather (Dispatch Release) ​ What are the MINIMUM required items on the release? o​ Aircraft registration, flight number, flight type (IFR), minimum fuel (T/O Fuel), and ORG/DST/TOA/ALT1/ALT2. (FOM 16.19) ​ At the Destination, at ETA, what must the weather (main body) be forecasted at? o​ At or above the minimums for the approach to be expected. (FOM 10.5.4) ​ When do we need a Takeoff Alternate? o​ Ensure a Takeoff Alternate has been designated anytime weather conditions at the departure airport are below the lowest available CAT I approach minimums to be expected. (FOM 10.5.2) ​ How far away can the Takeoff Alternate be located? o​ Must be within one hour from departure airport based on normal cruise speed in still air with one-engine inoperative. PSA standardized it as 300 miles. (FOM 10.5.2) ​ Is the weather required at a Takeoff Alternate reducible? o​ NO. (FOM 10.5.2) ​ What is the lowest Takeoff Visibility RVR we can use as a Captain? o​ 500, 500, 500. (FOM 10.4.3) ​ Can any one of the three RVR reporting systems be INOP and we can still takeoff? Which one? o​ Yes. Takeoff. Airport Charts 10-9A. (FOM 10.4.3) ​ As a low time First Officer, what is the lowest visibility you can takeoff with? o​ When RVR is reported 4000 or less. The Captain (unless an appropriately qualified check airman) will make all takeoffs (from ground roll initiation through cleanup). (FOM 4.13.4) ​ What about non-low time First Officer? o​ When RVR is reported 1600 or less. The Captain will conduct the takeoffs (from ground roll through cleanup). (FOM 5.8.1) ​ How do we determine RVR for a specific runway? o​ Airport 10-9A Chart. ​ What does CL & HIRL mean? o​ Centerline Lights & High Intensity Runway Lights. ​ When do we need an alternate? o​ 1, 2, 3 Rule. (FOM 10.5.4) ​ Once you are diverting to an alternate, what minimums do you use to decide if you can commence the approach? o​ The published minimums for an approach (not derived alternate minimums). ​ When do you need a 2nd alternate? o​ Exemption 17347, or when the destination and first alternate are considered marginal. (FOM 10.5.5 & FOM 10.5.6) ​ Both above examples have Derived Minima in the language, what does that mean? o​ One navaid and Two navaid Rules. (FOM 10.5.4) ​ If you are dispatched under Exemption 17347 what needs to be on your Release? o​ Two Alternates listed and in the remarks section it should read “Flight released under Exemption 17347.” ​ What weather criteria triggers crews to setup and brief a CAT II approach? o​ When the visibility anticipated at the final approach point is ¾ SM (RVR 4000) or less, company policy shall be to plan for and utilize the lowest possible minimums consistent with operation specifications authorization, aircraft capability, and approach system limitations. (FOM 5.10.4) ▪​ Visibility expected to be ¾ SM or less, runway capability is CAT I, plan a CAT I approach. ▪​ Visibility expected to be ¾ SM or less, runway capability is CAT II, aircraft and crew capability is CAT II, plan a CAT II approach. ​ Where could we “fast reference” information on how to setup and brief the required CATR II approach items? o​ FRED (Fast Reference Electronic Document) ​ What are the 17347 Destination Main Body Weather Forecast requirements? o​ The destination main body forecast visibility must be at least equal to the landing minimums. (FOM 16.20) ​ What are the 17347 Destination Conditional Statement Weather requirements? o​ The conditional forecast visibility must not be less than half of that required for the approach. (FOM 16.20) ​ What are the 17347 First Alternate Main Body Weather requirements? o​ The first alternate main body forecast must meet derived alternate criteria specified for that airport. ​ What are the 17347 First Alternate Conditional Statement Weather requirements? o​ The conditional forecast must not be less than half of the required alternate minimum visibility and ceiling requirements. ​ What are the 17347 Second Alternate Main Body Weather requirements? o​ The second alternate main body forecast must meet derived alternate criteria. ​ What are the 17347 Second Alternate Conditional Statement Weather requirements? o​ The second alternate conditional forecast must meet derived alternate criteria. ​ Tower reports RVR 1000 Touchdown, 900 Midpoint, 1000 Rollout. 10-9A says we need 1000/1000/1000, can we takeoff? o​ If three RVR’s working, three are controlling. ​ ROUTE R00 0213M WIND P054 ETE 00:36 TAXI IN 0012 o​ What does the above mean? ▪​ R00 preferred routes. 0213M is flight distance in NM. WIND p054 is P for tailwind at 54 knots. ETE 00:36 is time enroute of 36 minutes. ​ What is the Difference between 1 and 2 navaid rules when determining alternate minimums? o​ 1 Navaid rule you add 400 feet to ceiling and 1 SM to visibility. o​ 2 Navaid rule you add 200 feet and ½ SM to visibility of the higher landing minimums of the two approaches used. ​ If we had multiple approaches available to us at our destination, must we use the 2 navaid rule? o​ No. We have the ability to choose the 1 NAV or 2 NAV rules, which ever one will give us a lower derived minimum. TLR (Performance): ​ What is MFPTW? How is MFPTW determined? o​ Maximum Flight Plan Takeoff Weight. “This is the maximum takeoff weight for which the flight plan is valid when considering all flight planning limits except Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (MRTW). These limits include the structural Maximum Takeoff Weight (MTOW) and the Maximum Landing Weight (MLDW) + planned fuel burn.” (POH 9.5.2) ​ Can we take off over MFPTW? o​ No. It is derived by structural weight, landing weight, or other restrictions. (POH 9.5.2) ​ Can you leave the gate if you were over the MFPTW? o​ Yes, provided you don’t exceed your taxi weight you could burn some tanker fuel prior to take off. (POH 9.5.2) ​ When is a runway considered wet? o​ When there is sufficient moisture on the runway to cause it to appear reflective. (POH 9.5.2) ​ What is the PMRTW? o​ Planned Max Runway Takeoff Weight. Max runway performance takeoff weight at temperature and pressure altitude. Subjected to MELs, CDLs, weight penalties, and Anti-ice configuration. (POH 9.5.2) ​ What is PQNH? o​ Planned altimeter setting. (POH 9.5.2) ​ How does the PQNH affect the TLR? o​ TLR is valid when the actual QNH is no less than 0.10 below the PQNH listed on the TLR. (POH 9.5.2) ​ When can we commence a turn after Takeoff? o​ 50 feet if briefed prior to Takeoff. 400 feet if in visual conditions, or as depicted on the Departure Plate. 1,000 feet in IMC. (POH 9.5.2) ​ If a Complex Special Engine Failure procedure is required, where do we find the procedure? o​ PSA Station Bulletins. ​ Where do we find Actual Landing Distances when in flight? o​ In the rear of the Quick Reference Handbook. ​ If we are doing a FULL rated T/O, and the TLR says N1 86.3% but on the ED 1, the N1 is 85.7%, what do we do? o​ Nothing. We can takeoff as long as within +/- 1% of the TLR. ​ What is the difference between Actual Landing Distance and Operational Landing Distance? o​ Actual Landing Distance is the minimum runway needed to stop using Maximum effort. Operational Landing Distance is minimum runway needed using normal pilot technique. ​ When would you use Actual Landing Distance? o​ When directed by the Quick Reference Handbook. ​ Do we have to take a penalty for landing with a tailwind? If so, how much is the penalty? o​ Yes. Varies with the TLR. (POH 9.5.2) ​ What does BLEEDS OPEN mean on the TLR? o​ Engines Supplying bleed air to the air conditioning system for takeoff. POH 9.5.2) ​ Where can you find contamination level numbers? o​ FRED or POH 9.10. ​ When you enter the assumed FLEX temperature from ACARS, and the N1 is below the value listed, Is it OK? How do we fix it? o​ No. N1 must be at, or above, the listed N1 setting from ACARS/TLR. Lower the assumed temperature in the EPRF MENU Page, of the FMS. (POH 4.6.5) ​ On the TLR’s listed EFP, when can I turn to fly that Heading? o​ 400 feet in VMC. 1,000 feet in IMC. (FOM 7.11.2 and POH 9.5.1) ​ On the Takeoff roll, how do you know if you have enough Runway to stop on a Reject? o​ If you did not hear the “V1 callout,” you will have enough runway to stop using maximum braking. (FOM 7.8) ​ Does the V1 calculation take into account the use of Reverse Thrust? o​ No. It is based on not using Reverse Thrust. (FOM 7.8.4) MEL/CDL: ​ What do the symbols (D), (M), (O), and (M/FC) mean? o​ (D): Dispatch specific procedures. o​ (M): Maintenance specific procedures. o​ (O): Operations specific procedures. o​ (M/FC): Maintenance specific procedures that can be accomplished by a qualified flight crew member. ​ If a system failure occurs on the ground and a system reset procedure is available, where do we find system reset procedures? o​ In the collection of MEL/SR/NEF/GNG/CDL (Comply365 application) ​ Are there different system reset procedures if the aircraft is on the gate vs off the gate? o​ Yes. (FOM 11.3.5) ​ What maintenance items are on the dispatch release? o​ MELs and CDLs. ​ How long can items be deferred? o​ Category A: As specified by the MEL. o​ Category B: 3 consecutive days. o​ Category C: 10 consecutive days. o​ Category D: 120 consecutive days. ​ Which MEL categories can we extend? o​ B and C. (MEL 2.8) ​ Which MEL categories can we not extend? o​ A and D are NOT able to be extended. (MEL 2.8) ​ What repair category is the APU Generator system 24-22-01? o​ C. ​ PLACARD… DESCRIPTION… What is this section for? o​ List of open MEL or CDL. ​ How do we know if an MEL has been extended? o​ It is present on the dispatch release. (FOM 11.3.4) ​ Must the Release and AML agree (match) for deferred items? o​ Yes. (FOM 5.3.9)  ​ How do you inspect the maintenance logbook? o​ Demonstrate knowledge of tail number, airworthiness release, open writeups, MELs, CDLs, and flight release compliance. ​ How do you know an MEL has been extended? o​ Extensions may not be noted on the Aircraft Maintenance Log, but will be acknowledged by the presence of the deferral on the dispatch release. (FOM 11.3.4) ​ Will CDLs be listed on the release? o​ Maybe. If the CDL carries a performance penalty it will be listed on the release where the MELs are listed. ​ What does M/FC mean in a deferral? o​ Maintenance that can be performed by the flight crew. MEL 3.1.1) ​ Are CDLs required to be placarded? o​ Yes. (CDL 1.1) ​ Where does it show they have to be placarded? o​ CDL 1.1 General Limitations. Powerplant 1. Q: What are the two different engine airflow paths after air passes through the fan? A: bypass and core air 2. Q: Which type of airflow provides the majority of the thrust produced at T/O? A: bypass air 3.Q: The N1 assembly is a _____ stage fan connected by a shaft to a _____, low pressure turbine. A: Single; 4 stage (PRM 826) 4.Q: The N2 assembly is a _____ compressor connected by a shaft to a _____ , high pressure turbine. A: 10 stage; 2 stage (PRM 826) 5.Q: What two things help maintain the compressor’s aerodynamic performance and prevent compressor stalls? A: Variable geometry system and operability valve (PRM 827) 6.Q: What controls each engine? A: Full Authority Digital Engine Control (FADEC) (PRM 824) 7.Q: What powers the FADEC system? A: The aircraft electrical system up to 50% N2. Above 50% N2, the FADEC has its own alternator (PRM 832) 8.Q: What is mounted on the accessory gearbox? A: Lubrication pumps; Engine driven hydraulic pumps; IDGs; Air Turbine Starter (ATS); FADEC alternator; engine fuel pumps (PRM 827) 9.Q: What drives the accessory gearbox? A: N2 compressor (PRM 827) 10.Q: When does the operable FADEC channel alternate? A: Every second engine start (PRM 831) 11.Q: At what times will both FADEC channels function together? A: During engine overspeed situations. Both channels will command the FMU shutoff valve to close to control the overspeed (PRM 831) 12.Q: Idle RPM is programmed by the FADEC computer. What are the five idle settings? A: FLIGHT IDLE; APPROACH IDLE; LANDING IDLE; REVERSE IDLE; GROUND IDLE (PRM 832) 13.Q: What does the Automatic Performance Reserve (APR) feature of the FADEC do? A: Automatically increases the thrust for the operating engine (PRM 834) 14.Q: Which is the master engine for the Engine SYNC System? A: Left engine (PRM 847) 15.Q: When using the engine SYNC, what must the values be within for N1 and N2? A: N1 sync – 1.5%; N2 sync – 2.5% (PRM 847) 16.Q: What powers Ignition A and Ignition B? A: AC ESS BUS; BATT BUS through a static inverter (PRM 859) 17.Q: How is the engine oil cooled? A: Fuel/Oil heat exchanger (PRM 848) 18.Q: What moves the translating cowls on the thrust reverser system? A: Hydraulics (PRM 865) 19.Q: What does it mean when the amber REV icon is displayed on the N1 gauge? A: The respective thrust reverser translating cowl is in motion to deploy (PRM 866) 20.Q: What does it mean when a green REV icon is displayed on the N1 gauge?  A: The translating cowl is fully deployed (PRM 866) 21.Q: During reverse thrust operations, what type of airflow is being diverted? A: Bypass air (PRM 826) Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) 1.​ Q: What is the APU’s primary function? A: AC Power (PRM 757) 2.​ Q: The APU generator is rated at what power at FL410? A: 40 KVA (PRM 757) 3.​ Q: What does the green AVAIL light on the APU panel mean? A: APU available for electrical loading (PRM 768) 4.​ Q: What is the APU’s secondary function? A: A Bleed Air Source (PRM 757) 5.​ Q: The APU can supply bleed air for what purposes? A: Engine start; Pressurization; Air conditioning (PRM 757) 6.​ Q: All functions of the APU operation is controlled by what? A: The ECU (PRM 757) 7.​ Q: What is required to open the LCV? A: Pneumatic bleed air pressure and power from the ECU (PRM 772) 8.​ Q: How can the crew manually open the APU LCV? A: Select MANUAL position on the bleed air control panel (PRM 772) 9.​ Q: Can the APU provide bleed air to the anti-ice system in manual mode? A: No. 10.​Q: The amount that the APU intake door opens is dependent on what factors? A: Mach speed; APU speed; WOW (PRM 762) 11.​Q: What switchlight opens the APU door in flight? (PRM 768) ​ A: Start/Stop switchlight (PRM 762) 12.​Q: If the APU intake door position is unknown, how will it be indicated? A: Status page of EICAS will turn to amber dashes (PRM 762)  13.​Q: How is the APU oil cooled? A: Air/Oil heat exchanger (PRM 757) 14.​Q: What supplies fuel to the APU? A: The left collector tank (PRM 765) 15.​Q: What will happen if the APU fuel pump fails? A: An internal bypass will open and bypass the fuel pump; APU high pressure fuel pump will directly draw the fuel from the left collector tank (PRM 764) 16.​Q: When will the APU fuel SOV close automatically? A: When an APU fire is detected PRM (765) 17.​Q: How can the APU fuel SOV be closed manually? A: Pressing APU FIRE PUSH switchlight; Pressing APU PWR/FUEL switchlight (PRM 765) 18.​Q: External locations where the APU can be shut down in the event of an emergency? A: External service panel; In the APU compartment 19.​Q: When does the APU control logic and fault protection revert to ground mode? A: 60 seconds after landing Ice & Rain Protection 1.Q: What systems are protected by the ice and rain protection systems? A: Cowl anti-ice; Wing anit-ice; Forward windshields; Side windows; Air data probes and sensors; Ice detection (PRM 375) 2.Q: The ice protection system protects which areas with bleed air? A: Cowl anti-ice; Wing anti-ice (PRM 377 383) 3.Q: Which areas are electrically protected for the anti-ice system? A: Forward windshield; Side windows; Air data probes; Ice detection probes; T2 probe (PRM 385, 387, 389) 4.Q: What causes the ice annunciator to display? A: The ice detection probe decreases in vibration to the pre-set trip point (PRM 376) 5.Q: When ice is detected, how long are the ice detection probes heated? A: They are automatically electrically heated until the ice is shed. More ice accumulation will cause the probes to heat up again. (PRM 376) 6.Q: Are the cowl anti-ice valves normally failed open or closed?  A: The normally fail OPEN (PRM 383) 7.Q: What directs the hot bleed air onto the engine cowls when selected to ON? A: Piccolo tubes (PRM 384) 8.Q: What portion of the wings are de-iced when the wing anti-ice is selected ON? A: Wing leading edges and slats (PRM 379) 9.Q: Is it possible to de-ice the left wing if the left engine fails? A: Yes, by selecting the WING A/I CROSS BLEED valve to the FROM RIGHT wing position (PRM 381) 10.Q: What is the purpose of the wing temperature sensors on the OB portion of the wing? A: Monitors the leading edge for insufficient temperature and detects failure of the piccolo tube in the outboard portion of slat 3 (PRM 378) 11.Q: What is the purpose of the wing temperature sensors on the IB portion of the wing? A: They monitor the wing temperature to modulate the anti-icing valves and detect an overheat condition (PRM 378) 12.Q: If an underheat condition is detected, what will be displayed? A: L/R WING A/I caution message on EICAS; Wing anti-ice duct turns amber (PRM 378) 13.Q: If an overheat condition is detected, what will happen? A: Triple chime; WING OVHT warning on EICAS; “Wing overheat” aural message; Wing anti-ice duct- red; Respective A/I valve will close (PRM 381) 14.Q: At what time does the wing anti-ice system heat the wings to the high temperature schedule? A: When the SLATS are extended (PRM 377 378) 15.Q: Are the wing anti-ice valves failed to open or closed? A: Closed (PRM 378) 16.Q: What is the purpose of the white arc on the N2 indicator? A: Keeping N2 RPM above the white arc ensures proper bleed air to de-ice the wings (PRM 381) 17.Q: What occurs when the left windshield is selected to the LOW position? A: The windshield is heated to LOW. Side windows are heated to LOW (PRM 389) 18.Q: What occurs when the left windshield is selected to the HIGH position? A: The windshield is heated to HIGH. Side window remains in LOW (PRM 389) 19.Q: What will automatically occur if the windshield overheats? A: A L/R WSHLD HEAT caution message on EICAS; Power is removed from the window (PRM 390) 20.Q: Do the probe heat switches have any control when the aircraft is airborne? A: No. All probes go to HIGH HEAT when WOW (PRM 387) Pressurization 1.Q: How many CPC’s are there? A: 2 (PRM 71) 2.Q: When do the Cabin Pressure Controllers (CPC’s) alternate active controllers? A: Three minutes after landing (PRM 72) 3.Q: How can we manually switch which Cabin Pressure Controller is active? A: Press the PRESS CONTROL switchlight twice (PRM 72) 4.Q: What are the sources for cooling air available to the EFIS and EICAS displays? A: (2) AC powered cooling fans; Cockpit air conditioning duct (PRM 67) 5.Q: What is the purpose of the ground valve? A: Dumps avionics cooling air overboard while on ground for more efficient cooling (requires the MCD or galley service door to be opened); Ensures aircraft is depressurized while on the ground (PRM 71) 6.Q: What are the functions of the microprocessor (CPAM)? A: Generate EICAS indications; Caution message at 8,500; Warning message at 10,000; DIFF PRESS warning message at 8.6 PSID; SEAT BELT signs at 10,000 when in Auto; Drop pax 02 masks above 14000’ cabin altitude; Control ground valve opening and closing; Limit cabin pressure to 14,500 +/- 500. (PRM 72, 73) 7.Q: Is the outflow valve controlled electrically or pneumatically? A: Electrically (PRM 74) 8.Q: When does cabin overpressure relief occur? A: Above 8.6 PSI (PRM 76) 9.Q: When does cabin altitude under pressure relief occur? A; -0.5 PSI (PRM 76) 10.Q: What occurs with the cabin pressurization system during the flight abort mode?  A: Departure field is remembered for 10 min after takeoff. If a return to field is accomplished, the cabin altitude already set (PRM 77) Pneumatics 1.Q: What are the different bleed air sources for the aircraft? ​ A: Engines, APU, External Air (PRM 720) 2.Q: Engines supply bleed air for what purposes? ​ A: Engine starting, AC/pressurization, Anti-icing (PRM 720) 3.Q: APU supplies bleed air for what purposes? ​ A: Engine starting, AC/pressurization (PRM 730) 4.Q: What prevents the APU from providing bleed air when the anti-ice is selected ON? A: The ACSC interlock. With the anti-ice selected ON it will close the APU LCV (PRM 730) 5.Q: Can the engines and APU supply bleed air to the manifold at the same time? ​ A: No (PRM 727) 6.Q: Which source of bleed air has priority on the ground? A: APU (PRM 727) 7.Q: What source of bleed air has priority in the air? A: Engines (PRM 730) 8.Q: What automatically selects the appropriate bleed air source? A: The ACSC (PRM 730) 9.Q: The aircraft’s bleed air system is normally powered from which stage of compressor bleed air? A: 6th stage (PRM 723) 10.Q: Under high demand the high -pressure bleed valve will open and supply which stage bleed air to the system? A: 10th stage (PRM 723) 11.Q: Is it possible to tell if the 10th stage bleed air is being supplied to the system? A: No (PRM 723) 12.Q: How is the isolation valve operated? A: Electrically (PRM 724) 13.Q: What is the purpose of the PRSOV? A: It limits bleed air to 45 +/- 3 PSI (PRM 722) 14.Q: What is the purpose of the APU load control valve (LCV)? A: It regulates the bleed air of the APU to pressurize the manifold(PRM 723) 15.Q: The bleed source rotary switch and isolation valve switch will only function under what circumstances? A: If the bleed air switch is selected to MANUAL (PRM 737) 16.Q: The AILC will monitor what 5 zones? A: Left Bleed Duct; Right Bleed Duct; Left Cowl Anti-Ice; Right Cowl Anti-Ice; Wing Anti-Ice (PRM 732) 17.Q: What method is used to detect bleed air leaks in the following systems? Left and right bleed ducts; Wing leading egde anti-ice ducts; Engine Cowl A: Dual sensing loops; Dual sensing loops and temperature sensors; pressure transducer (PRM 732) 18.Q: If a bleed air leak is detected within the engine bleed air duct, what will automatically close? A: The respective engine bleed air valve (PRM 735) 19.Q: If a bleed air leak is detected within the wing anti-ice duct, what will automatically close? A: The respective wing anti-ice valve (PRM 735) FIRE AND OVERHEAT PROTECTION 1.Q: What areas are protected by a fire extinguishing system? A: Engines; APU; Cargo compartments; Lav(s) waste disposal (PRM 243, 245, 249) 2.. Q: Smoke, overheat, or fire detection is provided in what areas? A: Engines; APU; Cargo compartments; Lav(s); Wheel wells (PRM 243) 3.Q: The APU and engines are protected by what type of system? A: Dual loop system (PRM 245, 249) 4.Q: The wheel wells are protected by what type of system? A: Single loop system (PRM 257) 5.Q: Will the APU and engine fire protection system function if a single loop fails? A: Yes, the failed loop is automatically inhibited and the remaining loop will provide protection (PRM 245) 6.Q: What is the purpose of the fire detection loop in the main landing gear wheel wells? A: They detect and indicate a wheel or brake overheat condition (PRM 257) 7.Q: Pressing the CARGO SMOKE switchlight will accomplish what? A: Illuminates the green Push to Discharge switchlights; arms the squibs on each of the cargo bottles; selects the bay where the extinguishing agent will be discharged (PRM 253) 8.Q: What must occur for the lav fire bottle to discharge? A: Automatically discharges into the waste container when there is exposure to high heat and the capsules melt (PRM 255) 9.Q: If any of the fire extinguishing system does not test properly, how will the pilots know? A: No FIRE SYS OK advisory message; applicable failure message (PRM 260) 10.Q: The FIDEEX control unit will indicate a fire when a change in what is detected within the loops? A: Resistance (PRM 246) 11.Q: How many fire bottles are installed for the engines use? A: Two (PRM 247) 12.Q: Can we fire two bottles into one engine? A: Yes. (PRM 247) 13.Q: How many fire bottles are installed for the APU use? A: One (PRM 251) 14.Q: Pressing either ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight will do what? A: Trips off generator; Closed the hydraulic SOV; Closes the fuel SOV; Shuts off bleed air; Arms both bottles to be fired into that engine, illuminates green Push to Discharge switchlight (PRM 247) 15.Q: Pressing the BOTTLE 1/2 ARMED PUSH TO DISC switchlight will do what? A: It will fire the respective fire bottle into the engine as selected by the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight (PRM 247) 16.Q: Pressing the APU FIRE PUSH switchlight will do what? A: APU fire shutoff relay is energized to shut down the APU; Closes APU fuel SOV; Closes APU LCV; Trips off APU generator; Arms the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISC switchlight; APU bottle squib is armed (PRM 251) 17.Q: If a fire is detected within the APU what will occur? A: On Ground – APU shuts down and after 5 sec the APU fire bottle will discharge, horn will sound. Inflight – APU shutdown automatically, bottle manual discharge (PRM 249) 18.Q: Pressing the BOTTLE ARMED PUSH TO DISCH switchlight on the cargo fire extinguishing panel will do what? A: Rapidly discharges the first bottle into associated compartment; Second bottle has a slow discharge rate over the course of 60 minutes. (PRM 253 254) 19.Q: If smoke or fire is detected in the aft cargo compartment, what will automatically happen? A: AFT CARGO SMOKE warning message, triple chime, AFT CARGO SMOKE PUSH switchlight illuminates; Intake SOV closes; Exhaust SOV closes; Heater is de-energized (PRM 253) Electrical 1. Q: AC power is provided by what sources? A: Main Generators; APU Generator; ADG; External AC (PRM 216) 2.Q: DC power is provided by what sources? A: Main battery; APU battery; TRUs (PRM 222) 3.Q: What are the two sub components of the IDGs? A: Constant speed drive (CSD); 40 KVA generator (PRM 219) 4.Q: Once the IDG has been disconnected, can it be reconnected in the air? A: No, only by maintenance personnel on the ground (PRM 220) 5.Q: What faults will cause the IDG switchlight to illuminate? A: High oil temperature; Low oil pressure (PRM 219) 6.Q: The IDG will automatically disconnect with what two conditions? A: Overtorque; Overtemperature (PRM 220) 7.Q: Generator fault protection is provided for what? A: Under/Over voltage; Under/Over frequency, Generator or bus overcurrent, out of phase (PRM 220) 8.Q: With the external power on the aircraft, what will happen when an engine driven generator comes online? A: The white IN USE switchlight will change and indicate green AVAIL. The engine driven generator is picking up the entire load (PRM 209) 9.Q: What is the purpose of the AC switchlight on the external service panel? A: It will power the AC Service Bus. This supplies power to the electrical outlets in the cabin and lav for aircraft cleaning (PRM 230) 10. Q: When will the AC ESS XFER light be illuminated? A: When the AC ESS BUS is being powered by AC BUS 2 (PRM 229) 11.Q: What is the power source priority for AC Bus 1? A: Generator 1; APU Generator; Generator 2; External AC (PRM 228) 12.Q: What would happen if a Bus fault condition were to occur on either AC Bus 1 or AC Bus 2? A: The buses associated generator would be taken offline (PRM 205) 13. Q: Would the AC Bus be transferred to the next generator in line? A: No, the AUTO XFER FAIL switchlight would illuminate indicating a fault preventing auto transfer (PRM 208) 14.Q: When will the ADG automatically deploy? A: Any aircraft generator has been online; AC Bus 1 & 2 become unpowered; Weight-off-wheels (PRM 216) 15. Q: Once the ADG is deployed, what will it power? A: AC Essential Bus; Hydraulic Pump 3B; Slats and flaps; pitch trim channel 2 (PRM 216, 218) 16. Q: Below what speed will the ADG be unable to provide power? A: 135 kts (PRM 216) 17. Q. During the EMER POWER QRH, it will tell you physically pull the ADG Handle to deploy, why? A: This closes Emergency Tie Contactors allowing DC Essential Bus to remain powered by the batteries after landing (WoW). 18.Q: Following ADG deployment, how can a generator be selected if it once again becomes operational? A: Push the PWR TXFR OVERRIDE button to restore generator power to AC Bus 1 & 2 (PRM 219) 19. Q: How many TRUs? Each is rated at how many amps? A: (4) at 120 amps (PRM 223) 20. Q: What do TRU’s do? A: For devices requiring DC power, 115-volt AC power is converted into unregulated 28 volt DC power by Transformer Rectifiers Units (TRU). (PRM 223) 21. Q: The APU battery is rated at ______ amps. A: 43 (PRM 228) 22. Q: The main battery is rated at ______ amps. A: 17 (PRM 228) 23. Q: How long can the batteries provide power in the event of total electrical failure? A: 30 minutes (PRM 228) 24. Q: When will the main bus tie automatically close? A: Anytime that TRU 1 or 2 fails (PRM 226) 25. Q: What happens automatically anytime the DC main tie closes? A: The DC Utility Bus is load shed (PRM 226) 26. Q: When will the DC EMER BUS be displayed on the synoptic page? A: If there is a problem on the bus itself or if there is a problem with one of the two sources of power for the bus (PRM 229) 27. Q: What items are powered through the DC Emergency Bus? A: Engine & APU fuel SOV; Hydraulic SOV; Fire Extinguisher circuits (PRM 229) 28. Q: When does the DC essential tie automatically close? A: Failure of essential TRU 1 or essential TRU 2 (PRM 227) 29.Q: What is the purpose of the essential TRU 2 transfer contactor? A: In the event of multiple malfunctions, to allow ESS TRU 2 to be powered by the ESS AC BUS (PRM 228) Fuel/Fuel SOPs 1.Q: By what means are the wing tanks refueled? A: Pressure refueling; Gravity (overwing) refueling (PRM 321 & 322) 2.Q: How can the center tank be refueled? A: Only by pressure refueling (PRM 319) 3.Q: Where are the collector tanks physically located on the aircraft? A: Within the center tank (PRM 326) 4.Q: All fuel drawn from the fuel system comes from where? A: The collector tanks (PRM 326) 5.Q: What keeps the collector tanks full? A: Scavenge ejector pumps (PRM 326) 6.Q: Fuel tank venting is provided by what?  A: NACA vents (PRM 324) 7.Q: Where are the NACA vents located on the aircraft? A: Underside of the wings near the trailing edge (PRM 324) 8.Q: What is the purpose of the NACA vents? A: Venting during refueling/defueling; Normal venting during flight; Positive head pressure of pressure to fuel tanks during flight (PRM 324) 9.Q: Is it normal for the center tank to show an increase in quantity during a climb? A: Yes, the fuel has entered the NACA vents and returned to the center tank (PRM 324) 10.Q: What prevents fuel from moving within the main tanks during low wing maneuvers? A: One way flow valves (PRM 324) 11.Q: If one channel of the fuel computer fails, what will happen? A: The other channel automatically takes control (PRM 325) 12.Q: How many different types of ejectors are within the fuel system? A: Main ejectors; Scavenge ejectors; Transfer ejectors (PRM 326 &329) 13.Q: What is the purpose of the main ejectors? A: To provide a positive head of pressure to the engine driven HP fuel pumps (PRM 326) 14.Q: What is the purpose of the transfer ejectors? A: Move fuel from the center tank to wing tanks (PRM 329) 15.Q: What is the purpose of the scavenge ejectors? A: Move fuel from the wing tanks to the collector tanks (PRM 326) 16.Q: What is the primary purpose for the fuel boost pumps? A: Provide fuel for engine start and provide a backup source of fuel pressure in the event of a main ejector failure (PRM 327) 17.Q: What powers the fuel boost pumps? A: DC power (PRM 327) 18.Q: If only battery power is available, will the fuel boost pumps operate? A: Only the left boost pump will be operational (QRH 4-11) 19.Q: What occurs when both fuel boost pumps are selected in? A: It will arm the fuel pumps to operate when a decrease in pressure is detected within the fuel manifold (PRM 327) 20.Q: During engine start will both fuel pumps be working? A: Both fuel pumps will function if only one engine is running and at least the running engine side boost pump is selected in. Following the second engine start, the boost pumps are then in the ARM position (PRM 327) 21.Q: Are the fuel SOV’s normally opened or closed? A: Open (PRM 349) 22.Q: How may the fuel SOV’s be closed to engines and APU? A: Pressing either ENG FIRE switchlight; Pressing the APU FIRE switchlight (PRM 349) 23.Q: How is the fuel heated within the fuel system? A: Fuel/oil heat exchanger (PRM 329) 24.Q: What will happen if the fuel filter becomes clogged? A: L/R FUEL FILTER caution light illuminates and the bypass valve opens to allow fuel to bypass the fuel filter (PRM 329) 25.Q: Is the APU fuel pump DC or AC powered? A: DC powered (PRM 329) 26.Q: When does automatic fuel transfer occur from the center tank to the wings? A: When the wing tank fuel quantity reaches 93% the fuel computer directs the transfer ejectors to transfer fuel from the center tank to the wing tanks. Transfer then stops when the wing tank is full (PRM 338) 27.Q: By what means is fuel crossflow provided for? A: Power crossflow; Gravity crossflow (PRM 331-333) 28.Q: Power crossflow can be accomplished by what two means? A: Automatic; Manual (PRM 331 &332) 29.Q: How is automatic powered crossflow between the main tanks achieved? A: Fuel computer will automatically crossflow fuel when a 200lb fuel imbalance occurs. Crossflow will stop when the fuel is balanced within 50lbs (PRM 331) 30.Q: How is the manual powered crossflow between main tanks achieved? A: Press the MAN XFLOW switchlight; Activate the crossflow pump on the low tank side (PRM 333) 31.Q: At what times would you use the gravity crossflow method to balance the wing tanks? A: Only if the powered crossflow system is not operational (PRM 335) 32.Q: How is gravity crossflow of the main fuel tanks achieved? A: Select the GRAVITY XFLOW switchlight OPEN; When fuel is balanced you must manually close the crossflow valve (PRM 335) 33.Q: What methods are provided for fuel quantity gauging? A: A digital display; Magnetic level indicators (MLI) (PRM 344-346) 34.Q: When will the digital fuel quantity readout turn amber? A: Total fuel quantity is less than 1200 lbs; Fuel imbalance exceeds 800 lbs (PRM 351) 35.Q: At what time will the center tank fuel quantity indication be shown as white? A: When the center tank quantity is 0lbs (PRM 351) 36.Q: Where is the bulk fuel temperature measured from? A: The right wing tank (PRM 350) 37.Q: When will the bulk fuel temperature readout be amber? A: When the bulk fuel temperature is below – 40*C (PRM 350) ​ 38.Q: At what temperature will the fuel feed temperature indicate amber? A: Fuel temperature is below 5*C (PRM 350) Hydraulics 1.Q: How many hydraulic systems are on the aircraft? A: (3) – HYD SYS 1; HYD SYS 2; HYD SYS 3 (PRM 358) 2.Q: What is the normal operating pressure for each system? A: 3000 +/-200 PSI (PRM 362) 3.Q: What hydraulic pumps are directly controlled from the hydraulic control panel? A: 1B, 3A, 3B, 2B (PRM 363) 4.Q: HYD SYS 1 and 2 are normally driven by what? A: Engine Driven Pumps 1A and 2A (PRM 362) 5.Q: HYD SYS 1 and 2 EDPs are backed up by what? A: Electric AC motor pumps 1B and 2B (PRM 363) 6.Q: HYD SYS 3 is normally driven by what? A: AC motor pump 3A (PRM 367) 7.Q: HYD SYS 3 is backed up by what? A: AC motor pump 3B (PRM 367) 8.Q: How do we turn on pumps 1A and 2A? A: Start the respective engine (PRM 369) 9.Q: When in AUTO, HYD pumps 1B, 2B and 3B will operate when? A: Anytime an AC generator is available; Flaps selected out of 0* position (PRM 363, 367) 10.Q: What is the purpose of the ground interlock for the hydraulic system. A: It allows you to manually operate the hydraulic system backup pumps while on the ground (PRM 363) 11.Q: All primary flight controls are powered by AT LEAST how many HYD system(s)? A: Two (PRM 371) 12.Q: What is the purpose of the hydraulic accumulators? A: Satisfies instantaneous demands of the systems and dampens out pressure surges within the system (PRM 364, 366) 13.Q: What is the purpose of the HYD SOV’s? A: To interrupt the flow of hydraulic fluid from the reservoirs to the engine driven pumps in the event of an overheat or fluid leak (PRM 365) 14.Q: Are the HYD SOV’s normally opened or closed? A: Open (PRM 365) 15.Q: Where can the HYD shutoff valve position be viewed? A: HYD system synoptic page (PRM 371) 16.Q: How is it possible to close the HYD SOV’s? A: Pressing the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight; Pressing the HYD SOV switchlight (PRM 370) 17.Q: Which of the HYD systems require more cooling? A: HYD 1 and HYD 2 systems (PRM 361) 18.Q: Why do HYD 1 and HYD 2 systems require fluid cooling? A: Their proximity to aircraft engines and other heat within the nacelle (PRM 361) 19.Q: How is the hydraulic fluid cooled for HYD 1 and HYD 2 systems? A: Air/ Hydraulic Oil heat exchanger (PRM 361) 20.Q: Where does the air come from for the heat exchanger for HYD systems 1 and 2? A: Ram air scoop on the tail (PRM 364) 21.Q: Does HYD system 3 use an air/hydraulic oil heat exchanger?  A: No (PRM 366) 22.Q: If the engine driven HYD pump fails inflight, will the backup pump automatically power the system? A: No, the backup pump must be selected ON (PRM 363) 23.Q: If all AC power is lost while inflight, how will we control the aircraft? A: Hydraulic Pump 3B is automatically powered by the ADG Bus regardless of switch position (PRM 367) 24.Q: When does the HYD system pressure readout turn amber on the HYD system synoptic page? A: < 1800 PSI (PRM 371) 25.Q: When does the HYD system pressure readout turn white on the HYD system synoptic page? A: > 3200 PSI (PRM 371) 26.Q: When does the HYD system temperature readout indicate amber on the HYD synoptic page? A: At or above 96*C (PRM 371) 27.Q: When does the HYD quantity readout indicate green? A: Between 45% and 85% (PRM 371) FLIGHT INSTRUMENTS 1.Q: What are the 3 sources of cooling air for the EFIS and EICAS displays? A: (2) AC display fans; Recirculation fan; Cockpit air conditioning duct (PRM 404) 2.Q: What does the color logic indicate on the following EICAS colors? Green, Amber, Red, Black, Blue A: Green: Normal; Amber: Below normal; Red: Above normal; Black: No flow; Blue: Structure (PRM 426) 3.Q: What do the different valve colors indicate on the EICAS system? White, Amber, Green, ½ Magenta A: White: Valve is operable; Amber: Valve inoperable; Green: Valve is performing work; ½ Magenta: Insufficient data (PRM 425) 4.Q: When are CAS Messages inhibited?  A: Takeoff: Two Conditions – (1) Engines are at takeoff thrust; Below 100 knots (2) Above 100 knots; 20* with gear up; The speed is < 170 KIAS with flaps > 30* or airspeed is < 190 KIAS with slats and flaps at 0*; Radio Alt < 500’ AGL with both throttles at < maximum landing setting or with flaps > 30*; One thrust lever is selected IDLE with gear up (PRM 481) 25.Q: The landing horn cannot be muted under what circumstances? A: Flaps are selected >30* with gear up; Both thrust levers are retarded to IDLE (PRM 481) 26.Q: When will the landing horn automatically mute? A: During windshear conditions (PRM 481) 27.Q: What is indicated on EICAS when the gear horn is manually selected to MUTE? A: HORN MUTED advisory message (PRM 494) 28.Q: When will the TOO LOW GEAR warning sound? A: Within 500’ AGL and < 190KIAS (PRM 481) 29.Q: When is the main gear emergency extension procedure used? A: Failure of the landing gear control circuity; Loss of HYD 3 SYS pressure (PRM 467) 30.Q: What does pulling the alternate gear T-Handle do?  A: Mechanically releases the up-locks on MLG, gear free falls down assisted by HYD 2 SYS pressure; NLG, HYD 2 SYS pressure releases the up-locks and the slipstream forces the NLG down (PRM 468) 31.Q: Once the landing gear is extended by using the alternate system, what must happen to raise the gear again under normal circumstances? A: HYD 3 SYS pressure must be restored (PRM 467 468) 32.Q: Which HYD SYS are required to extend the gear using the alternate gear extension method? A: HYD SYS 2 auxiliary actuator assists in MLG extension and also assists in releasing the up-locks for the NLG (PRM 466 467) 33.Q: MLG bays contain what to provide for overheat protection? A: Single loop overheat detection wire (PRM 476) 34.Q: When conducting the MLG overheat test, what is being tested in the following switch positions? (MLG BAY OVHT and MLG OVHT FAIL) A: MLG BAY OVHT – continuity of loops, generates a MLG BAY OVHT warning on EICAS if the test is successful; MLG OVHT FAIL- simulates a Failure detection of the overheat detection system, generates MLG OVHT FAIL caution on EICAS if successful (PRM 476 477) 35.Q: Is the NW steering system directly connected to the rudder pedals? A: No, it is a steer by wire system (PRM 478) 36.Q: What hydraulic system powers the NW steering system? A: HYD SYS 3 (PRM 478) 37.Q: What are the steering limits of the NW steering system? A: Tiller, 80* left or right; Rudder, 8* left or right; Free castoring, 80* left or right (PRM 478) 38.Q: During towing operations, the torque links can be removed to provide what degree of NW castor? A: 360* (PRM 478) 39.Q: Where are the torque links actually located on the nosewheel steering? A: On the back of the NLG assembly (PRM 462 463) 40.Q: What is indicated if a failure occurs within the nose steering system? A: A STEERING INOP caution message will appear on EICAS and the system will default to free castor mode (PRM 479) 41.Q: In order to check the brake wear indicator pins, what must first be accomplished? A: The parking brake must be set (PRM 470) 42.Q: Normally, how many of the main wheels will be held if the parking brake is applied? A: All four (PRM 473) 43.Q: With the hydraulics OFF, which wheel brakes will hold? A: Only the IB brakes (PRM 473) 44.Q: With the hydraulics OFF, how many parking brake applications will the accumulator permit? A: Six brake applications (PRM 473) 45.Q: Loss of either HYD SYS 2 or 3 will cause a loss of how much braking capacity? A: 50% (PRM 4699 470) 46.Q: The anti-skid control unit (ASCU) will regulate brake pressure to each wheel independently or together? A: Independently (PRM 471) 47.Q: When is the anti-skid disabled? A: Parking brake set; Below 10 KIAS; Anti-skid selected OFF; In-flight (PRM 471) 48.Q: What conditions must be met to ARM the anti-skid system? A: Switch – ARM; Parking brake – OFF; 1 MLG down (PRM 471) 49.Q: When will the anti-skid become operational after landing? A: > 35 KIAS or WOW for 5 sec (if a wheel speed sensor fails) (PRM 471) 50.Q: Where are the brake temperatures displayed? A: ED 2 status page (PRM 474) 51.Q: Brake temperatures are displayed when? A: Landing gear is extended; Flaps/slats are extended; Brake temps are not normal; Flaps or slats half speed message (PRM 474) 52.Q: What is the numerical range of the BTMS? A: 1 to 20 ( 200 only PRM 243 ) 53.Q: Each number on the BTMS system represents an increase of how many degrees? A: 95*F or 35*C (200 PRM only 243 ) 54.Q: Once the brake temperatures cool following a brake overheat warning, what must be accomplished? A: The BTMS OVHT WARN RESET button must be pressed to restore the color logic of the indicator (PRM 477) EFIS 1.Q: The EFIS system consists of how many CRT displays? A: Four (PRM 403) 2.Q: What are the displays each pilot is provided with for flight information on the EFIS system? A: Primary Flight Display (PFD); Multi-function Display (MFD) (PRM 536) 3.Q: What are the seven available NAV formats for the MFD’s? A: HSI; Nav air sector map; FMS map; FMS flight plan; Radar; EGPWS; TCAS (PRM 536) 4.Q: What other displays can be transferred to display on the MFD through the reversionary display panel? A: PFD; EICAS display (PRM 435) 5.Q: What is the purpose of the reversionary display panel? A: It directly controls what is displayed on the MFD. It is used in the event that a PFD or EICAS display failure (PRM 432) 6.Q: What is the purpose of the source selector panel? A: It provides an alternate source of data to both PFD displays at the same time (PRM 435) 7.Q: Each DCP will control its respective EFIS displays provided that _____ is selected on the source selection panel. A: NORM (PRM 435) 8.Q: What will happen by selecting the source selection panel DISPL CONT knob to either the 1 or 2 position? A: It will allow the selected DCP to operate both the CA’s and FO’s EFIS displays. It’s used if one DCP were to fail (PRM 435) 9.Q: If the source selection panel DSPL CONT knob were selected to either the 1 or 2 position, what would display on the PFD’s? A: Either DCP 1 or DCP 2 (PRM 435) 10.Q: What is the purpose of the air data reference panel? A: It selects the altimeter settings and speeds (PRM 626) 11.Q: The EFIS compare monitor compares which instruments? A: CA’s and FO’s PFD (PRM 682) 12.Q: If the EFIS compare monitor detects a mismatch, how will it be displayed?  A: A caution message will be displayed on the CA’s and FO’s PFD indicating the system that has mismatched (PRM 682) 13.Q: What information does the EFIS compare monitor compare and what are the tolerances? A: Heading- diff of >6*; Roll- Diff of 4* before GS capture, Diff of 3* after GS capture; IAS Diff of > 10 KIAS, Altitude Diff > 60’ LOC Diff between receivers; GS Diff between receivers; RA only monitored within 1000’ AGL (PRM 682) 14.Q: What are the components of the pitot static system? A: CA’s and FO’s pitot tubes; Standby pitot tube; CA’s and FO’s static sources; Static source to ISI (PRM 385, 628 ) 15.Q: Where is the TAT probe located on the aircraft? A: Below the FO’s side window (PRM 386) 16.Q: What reference can the air data reference panel set? A: Altimeter; MDA; DA; Takeoff speeds; Target speed (PRM 626) 17.Q: What errors are displayed on the PFD with air data flags? A: IAS; ALT; VDS (PRM 637) 18.Q: What is the function of the trend vector? A: It estimates where the airspeed will be in 10 sec at the current trend (PRM 637) 19.Q: If the RA data becomes invalid, how is it indicated? A: Red box displayed on the PFD (PRM 646) 20.Q: If the AHRS is indicating ATT/HDG ALIGNING DO NOT TAXI, what action should be taken when on the ground or in flight? A: Ground- do not move the aircraft; In Flight – hold the aircraft straight and level for the first 30 sec of alignment (PRM 649) 21.Q: What does AMI stand for in relation to windshear conditions? A: Alpha Margin Indicator (PRM 655) 22.Q: What does the AMI represent when displayed on the PFD during a windshear encounter? A: Maximum pitch allowed prior to reaching stick shaker (PRM 655) 23.Q: A caution windshear alert is displayed for what: A: Increasing performance (PRM 655) 24.Q: A warning windshear alert is displayed for what? A: Decreasing performance (PRM 655) 25.Q: What are the NAV source selections available to display on the PFD? A: VOR1/LOC1; VOR2/LOC2; FMS1/FMS2; OFF (PRM 535) 26.Q: When displaying cross side information, how is it identified? A: Display indications are AMBER (PRM 535) 27.Q: If DME 1 is in HOLD, how is it displayed? A: An amber H is displayed next to the frequency on the nav radio; An amber H is displayed on the PFD next to NAV identifier, station id is removed (PRM 532) 28.Q: What is indicated if a red boxed DCP1 or DCP2 warning is displayed on the PFD’s? A: The associated DCP has failed (PRM 666) 29.Q: What is displayed if a CRT overheats? A: A red DISPLAY TEMP is indicated (PRM 666) 30.Q: If a CRT overheats, is it possible to regain the display function? A: Yes, it will automatically resume operation once the display cools (PRM 666) 31.Q: The radar will not overlay on what MFD formats? A: HAS; FMS flight plan (PRM 675) 32.Q: The terrain format will not overlay on what MFD formats? A: HSI; FMS flight plan; Radar (PRM 550) 33.Q: What functions will the Integrated Standby Indicator (ISI) provide? A: Altitude; Airspeed; Attitude (PRM 685) 34.Q: What source powers the ISI? A: Battery Bus (PRM 685) 35.Q: Where does the ISI receive its NAV data from? A: NAV 1 or BTU (PRM 685) 36.Q: What does the CAGE function button do on the ISI? A: It will set the horizon to 0* when held in for 2 sec (PRM 685) 37.Q: What does the STD button do on the ISI? A: Changes barometric pressure to 29.92” (PRM 685) 38.Q: What is the priority order of the EGPWS system? A: Stalls; Windshear; Ground proximity (PRM 548) 39.Q: How many transponders are installed in the aircraft?  A: Two (PRM 540) 40.Q: From what panel are the transponders selected from? A: Backup RTU (PRM 540) 41.Q: The EGPWS uses color logic to display terrain information ahead of the aircraft. What is meant by shading/low density and solid/high density readout? A: Shading/Low density- no immediate threat; Solid/High density- immediate danger (voice warning heard, EGPWS switchlight flashes) (PRM 550) 42.Q: What will automatically occur if conflicting terrain is detected ahead of the aircraft? A: Terrain overlay automatically display on MFD range set to 10NM; Caution voice heard; EGPWS switchlight flashes (PRM 550) 43.Q: When receiving a caution from the EGPWS system, time available to impact? A: 60 sec (PRM 550) 44.Q: When a warning is received from the EGPWS system, time available to impact? A: 30 sec (PRM 550) 45.Q: TCAS indications are presented on what instruments? A: PFD; MFD (PRM 563) 46.Q: How is other traffic displayed on the TCAS? A: Blue open diamond (PRM 564) 47.Q: How is the proximity traffic displayed on the TCAS?​ A: Blue solid diamond (PRM 564) 48.Q: What is the definition of proximity traffic on the TCAS System? A: Within 1200’ and/or 6 NM of your aircraft (PRM 564) 49.Q: When is a TCAS TA alert generated and how is it displayed? A: Target aircraft is within 40 sec CPA (closest point of approach); Displayed as solid yellow circle (PRM 565) 50.Q: When is a TCAS RA alert generated and how is it displayed? A: Target aircraft is within 25 sec CPA; Displayed as a solid red square (PRM 566) 51.Q: If a TCAS RA is generated, how long until the pilots must respond? A: 5 sec (PRM 566) 52.Q: If a TCAS corrective RA is generated, how long until the pilots must respond?  A: 2.5 sec (PRM 566) 53.Q: How can the ground clutter suppression mode on the radar be activated? A: By pressing the center of the GAIN control knob (PRM 578) 54.Q: When pushing the SEC sector scan pushbutton on the radar control panel, what will the cycle sweeps change to? A: 30* and 60* (PRM 580) 55.Q: What is the purpose of the XFR pushbutton on the radar control panel? A: Selects which radar control panel will operate both radars in the event one control fails (PRM 581) FLIGHT CONTROLS 1.Q: What are considered the primary flight controls? A: Elevator; Rudder; Ailerons (PRM 268) 2.Q: What are considered the secondary flight controls? A: Flaps; Slats; Ground/Lift dumping devices; Multi-function spoilers; Stabilizer trim; Aileron trim; Rudder trim (PRM 268) 3.Q: What are the actuators called that move the flight controls? A: Power Control Units (PCUs) (PRM 268) 4.Q: Are the PCUs mechanically or hydraulically actuated? A: Hydraulically (PRM 268) 5.Q: Home many PCUs on each of the primary flight controls? A: Ailerons (2); Rudder (3); Elevator (3) (PRM 273) 6.Q: The left aileron is powered by what (2) hydraulic systems? A: HYD systems 1 and 3 (PRM 271) 7.Q: The right aileron is powered by what (2) hydraulic systems? A: HYD systems 2 and 3 (PRM 271) 8. Q: How are the ailerons controlled, what sends a signal to them to move? A: Cables and pulleys. (PRM p.273) (PRM 268) 9..Q: Each wing has _________ spoiler panels. A: 4 (PRM 269) 10.Q: What are the (2) inboard spoiler panels on each wing called? A: Ground spoilers (PRM 269) 11.Q: What are the (2) outboard spoiler panels on each wing called? A: Multi-function spoilers (PRM 269) 12.Q: What controls MFS operation? A: The MFS system is controlled by SSCU 1 & SSCU 2 (PRM 273) 13.Q: What flight controls are electrically operated? A: Flaps; Slats; Stabilizer trim; Rudder trim; Aileron trim (PRM 281) 14.Q: The primary flight controls are controlled and actuated how? A: Electrically controlled; Hydraulically actuated (PRM 273 ) 15.Q: What flight controls are fly-by-wire? A: All spoilers (PRM 273 ) 16.Q: How are the elevators coupled together? A: A torque tube (PRM 279) 17.Q: When separated, the left elevator is controlled through ______ yoke and right elevator is controlled through ______ yoke. A: Captain’s (Left); First Officer’s (Right) (PRM 279) 18.Q: What is the PITCH DISC T handle used for? A: To disconnect control columns in case of a jam in one of the elevator’s cable runs (PRM 280) 19.Q: At what times can the rudder input be limited? A: In-flight with both engines operating (PRM 277) 20.Q: What is the function of the rudder travel limiter? A: Limits rudder travel while in flight to reduce the rudder load (PRM 277) 21.Q: If a single PCU jams on the rudder, what will isolate the jam? A: The load limiter (PRM 277) 22.Q: Protection for a cable jam in the rudder system is provided for by what? A: Anti-jam mechanism (PRM 277) 23.Q. Do all 3 rudder PCU’s need to be working to move the rudder? A: No only one needs to be operational to use rudder trim (PRM 277) 24.Q: What provides for gust lock functions while on ground? A: Trapped hydraulic fluid (PRM 277) 25.Q: What is required for the rudder trim to function? A: Power from at least one hydraulic system (PRM 277) 26.Q: How many yaw damper systems are on the aircraft? A: Two (PRM 278) 27.Q. How can you disengage the yaw dampers? A: YD DISC buttons on the center console, if the YD channel fails and upon landing they disengage. (PRM 278) 28.Q. What is the purpose of Yaw Dampers? A: Improve directional stability and prevents oscillations from turning into a dutch roll scenario. (PRM 278) 29.Q: Yaw Damper 1 receives input from ______, Yaw Damper 2 receives input from ______. A: FCC 1; FCC 2 (PRM 278) 30..Q: How can yaw dampers be disconnected? A: Pressing yaw damper DISC button on yaw damper control panel (PRM 278) 31.Q: What is the purpose of the yaw damper switchlights? A: To engage the yaw dampers (PRM 278) 32..Q: A single yaw damper failure will cause what message? A: Status message (White) (PRM 278) 33..Q.A dual yaw damper failure will cause what message? A: YAW DAMPER caution message on EICAS (PRM 278) 34.Q: When the aileron torque tube has been disconnected, which control operates the left/right aileron? A: Left – Captain’s yoke; Right – First Officer’s yoke (PRM 275) 35.Q: What is the purpose of the ROLL DISC T handle A: To disconnect the ailerons in the event of a jammed aileron (PRM 275) 36.Q. What two situations would you pull the ROLL DISC handle? A: Jammed aileron or uncommanded movement of the aileron PCU. (PRM 275) 37.Q: The multi-function spoilers will assist the ailerons at what times? A: During low speed turns on the down wing only (PRM 273) 38.Q: Are the Flight Spoilers Hydraulic or Electric? A: Hydraulic (PRM 293) 39.Q: Captain’s yoke controls ______ and _____when the ROLL DISC T handle is pulled. A: Left aileron; Right multi-function spoilers. (PRM 276) 40.Q: First Officer’s yoke controls _____ and ______ when the ROLL DISC T handle is pulled.  A: Right aileron; Left multi-function spoilers (PRM 276) 41.Q: What switchlight will illuminate after the ROLL DISC T handle is pulled? A: ROLL SEL switchlight (PRM 276) 42.Q: What is the purpose of the ROLL SEL switchlight? A: Confirms that the ROLL DISC T handle has been pulled (PRM 275) 43.Q: What is indicated if the PLT ROLL switchlight illuminates while in flight? A: An aileron PCU runaway has occurred (PRM 275) 44.Q: With an aileron PCU runaway, what does PLT ROLL MEAN? A: If it is a PLT roll, the operative aileron is on the Captain’s side (PRM 275) 45Q: What does bungee breakout automatically provide? A: Commands both MFSs to respond to inputs from the operable control wheel (PRM 275) 46.Q: What does the roll select sw light do. A: Amber you must select a side for MFS control. Green it has chosen for you. (PRM 275) 47.Q: What is the purpose of the aileron flutter dampers? A: Prevents aileron flutter if all hydraulics are lost in flight; Acts as a gust lock on ground with hydraulics depressurized (PRM 273) 48.Q: Stabilizer angle between nose up and nose down attitudes. A: Nose up + 13* while nose down is -2* (PRM 283) 49.Q: How many channels are there for stabilizer trim? A: 2 (PRM 283) 50.Q: How can the stabilizer channels be engaged? A: By selecting the 2 STAB channel switchlights “IN” (PRM 283) 51.Q: How can the stabilizer channels be disconnected? A: Selecting the STAB TRIM DISC switch on CA/FO yoke (PRM 284) 52.Q: If a single stabilizer channel fails, what is displayed on the EICAS? A: Status message (White) (PRM 313) 53.Q: If both stabilizer channels fail, what is displayed on the EICAS? A: Caution message (PRM 313) 54.Q: The stab trim switches are what type? A: Split switches (PRM 286) 55.Q: What is the priority for the stab trim?  A: Captain’s trim; First Officer’s trim; Autopilot trim; Auto trim; Mach trim (PRM 283) 56.Q: What does Mach trim provide? A: It provides the aircraft stability when operating above.4 Mach with the autopilot disengaged (PRM 284) 57.Q: What are the requirements for the Mach trim to function? A: At least one stab trim channel engaged; Autopilot off; Above.4 Mach (PRM 285) 58.Q: What is required for the aileron trim system to function? A: At least one hydraulic system powered (PRM 281) 59.Q: Control of the flaps is provided for by what two sources? A: Flap select lever; Emergency flap switch (PRM 289) 60.Q: What positions are hard gates on the slat/flap lever? A: 8* and 20* selections (PRM 290) 61.Q: During slat/flap extension, which moves first? A: Slats followed by flaps (PRM 292) 62.Q: During slat/flap retraction, which moves first? A: Flaps followed by slats (PRM 292) 63.Q: What are the flap lever indications on the flap lever? A: 0*; 1*; 8*; 20*; 30*; 45* (PRM 292) 64.Q: 1* position on the slats/flaps lever, what position do the slats/flaps extent to? A: Slats 20*; Flaps 0* (PRM 292) 65.Q: 8* position on the slats/flaps lever, what position do the slats/flaps extend to? A: Slats 20*; Flaps 8* (PRM 292) 66.Q: 20* position on the slats/flaps lever, what position do the slats/flaps extend? A: Slats 25*; Flaps 20* (PRM 292) 67.Q: How many leading edge slat panels are there on each wing? A: 3 (PRM 287) 68.Q: Which is the largest leading edge slat? A: Inboard anf they get progressively smaller toward the wing tips (PRM 287) 69.Q: How are the slats de-iced? A: Bleed air through the piccolo tubes (PRM 379) 70.Q: What will occur if one slat actuator was to fail? A: The other two will drag the slat into position (PRM 287) 71.Q: What receives electrical commands to initiate flap movement? A: Slat Flap Electronic Control Unit (SFECU) (PRM 288) 72.Q: What type of flaps does the aircraft have? A: Double slotted flaps (PRM 287) 73.Q: How many flap panels are on each wing? A: 2, Inboard and Outboard flaps (PRM 287) 74.Q: What will occur if the flap speed is exceeded? A: Overspeed warning (PRM 145) 75.Q: If the flaps are being powered by the ADG, what is the difference in operation? A: Flaps/Slats half speed (QRH 73 ) 76. Q: What is the purpose of the EMER FLAP switch? A: Positions the slats to 20* (25*non next gen JDP) and flaps to 20* in the event of a slat/flap lever failure (PRM 289) 77.Q: Where is the EMER FLAP switch located? A: Center pedestal aft right. (PRM 290) 78.Q: When operating above the maximum flap speed 230 KIAS, will the EMER FLAP lever function? A: No (PRM 289) 79.Q: When are the slat/flap positions indicated on the EICAS primary page? A: Slats or flaps are > 0*; Gear is not up and locked; Brake temps are not in green range; Slats/flaps are indicating half speed (PRM 291) 80.Q: What are the multi-function spoilers used for? A: Speed brakes; Roll assist @ low airspeeds on down wing; Ground lift dumping (GLD) (PRM 273) 81.Q: Which panels are considered the GLDs? A: Inner 2 panels (PRM 298) 82.Q: What are the available selections on the GLD control panel? A: MAN ARM – manually arms GLD; AUTO – system requires certain conditions to deploy; MAN DISARM – manually disarms GLD if manually armed (PRM 298) 83.Q: The GLD system will arm when: A: Switch is selected to AUTO; Thrust levers are advanced towards takeoff; Wheel speed indicates 45 knots or more (PRM 298) 84.Q: The GLD will auto deploy under what conditions? A: System has armed itself; Both TLs retarded towards FI; * any 2 of the following: Wheel speed > 16kts, RA is 7’or less; 1 WOW indication (PRM 299) 85.Q: The GLD system will automatically retract under what conditions? A: Both TLs below T/O thrust; The aircraft on ground at least 40 sec; Wheel speed below 45 kts for at least 10 sec (PRM 299) 86.Q: The multi-function spoilers will assist the GLD system when? A: WOW indication received from both mains; * any 1 of following: Wheel speed is > 16 kts on any pair, RA indicates 7’ or less (PRM 293) 87.Q: What influence does GLD Ground Spoilers/Multifunction Spoilers deploy logic have on hard landings? A: If the thrust levers are not at idle, even with all other criteria met, GLD will not extend at touchdown. This will very likely result in a bounced landing. If the thrust levers are pulled to idle in the bounce, the GLD criteria is now met (Wheel Speed and Rad Alt) resulting in GLD extension in the air. This often results in a hard handing from a high rate of descent due to the GLD. I usually illustrate this with the Mesa video - (PRM 293) 88..Q: What is required to manually deploy GLDs? A: A single valid WOW signal (PRM 298) 89.Q: At what N1 setting will TAKEOFF CONFIG warning occur during takeoff if the system is mis-configured? A: 70% N1 on both engines (PRM 301) 90.Q: What is the purpose of having a stick pusher ON/OFF switch on both sides of cockpit? A: It allows either pilot to disconnect the stick pusher if necessary (PRM 303) 91.Q: What is required for the stick pusher to operate? A: Both stick pusher switches must be selected “ON” (PRM 303) 92.Q: What will occur if the AP/SP switch is depressed on the yoke? A: Autopilot disconnect; Stick pusher is disabled for the length of time the switch is held down (PRM 305) 93.Q: When will the STALL switchlight on the glareshield illuminate and flash red? A: It is activated with stick pusher activation (PRM 304) 94.Q: With the onset of a stall, what are the stall activation trip points? A: Auto ignition activates; Stick shaker/autopilot disengages; Stick pusher/stall warning switchlight activates; Stall audio to is heard (PRM 302) AUTO FLIGHT CONTROL SYSTEM (AFCS) 1.Q: What is the purpose of the auto flight control system (AFCS)? A: To integrate the auto pilot and flight director systems (PRM 93) 2.Q: Where does the AFCS system supply information to? A: Flight directors (FD); Autopilot; Autopilot pitch trim; Yaw dampers (PRM 93) 3.Q: What is the function of the integrated avionics processing system (IAPS)? A: The interface between the various avionics systems (PRM 93) 4.Q: What are the main processors for the IAPS system? A: Flight Control Computer 1 (FCC 1); Flight Control Computer 2 (FCC 2) (PRM 93) 5.Q: Where do the FCC’s receive information? A: Flight Control Panel (FCP); Data Concentrator Units (DCU’s); Radio systems; Flight Management Computers FMC’s) (PRM 93) 6.Q: Are both flight directors usually active? A: No, usually not. One is active and the other is standby. They work together during takeoff mode, approach mode and go-around mode (PRM 94) 7.Q: What appears if the FD fails? A: A red boxed FD appears on the PFD. An appropriate status message FD 1(2) FAIL will appear on the EICAS (PRM 94) 8.Q: What would be the action taken if the FD 1 display failed? A: Select the transfer button on the FCP to select the opposite side (PRM 94) 9.Q: When the Flight Directors are operating independently, what supplies guidance to the Captain’s FD? A: FCC 1 (PRM 94) 10.Q: The top of the FMA indicates what mode? A: Lateral (PRM 96) 11.Q: The bottom of the FMA indicates what mode? A: Vertical (PRM 96) 12.Q: What is the meaning of the red line running through the active mode of the FMA?​ A: The data is invalid (PRM 96) 13.Q: The active field text will flash green for how long while capturing? A: 5 sec (PRM 96) 14.Q: What are the FCP modes on the glareshield? A: Flight director and course selector; Autopilot; Vertical modes; Lateral modes (PRM 98) 15.Q: Is it possible to turn the FD off with the autopilot engaged? A: No (PRM 96) 16.Q: Pressing the center of the course selector knob on the FCP does? A: Sets 0* deviation to the station that is tuned (PRM 98) 17.Q: What is the purpose of the FD transfer switch? A: It allows the pilot to select the active FD (PRM 99) 18.Q: What is the indication on the PFD that tells which FD is selective as active? A: A white arrow (PRM 99) 19.Q: What do the green status lights on each side of the XFER switchlight of the FCP indicate? A: It indicates which FCC is providing information to the autopilot. No Green Lights- CA side active; Green Lights (each side of button) FO side active (PRM 99) 20.Q: When will the FD synchronization switch operate? A: When the autopilot is disengaged (PRM 100) 21.Q: How long will the SYNC message appear on the PFD when the FD sync switch is pressed? A: For 3 sec or as long as the button is held down (PRM 100) 22.Q: Selecting the TOTO switch on the thrust levers will go what while on the ground? A: Display TO in the active field on FMA; Activates the TO lateral and vertical modes; Lateral mode goes to heading hold with a 5* bank authority; Selects a variable pitch up mode; Updates the FMS with current runway coordinates (PRM 102) 23.Q: What is the default lateral mode when selecting the autopilot ON? A: ROLL (PRM 108) 24.Q: What is the default vertical mode when selecting the autopilot ON? A: PITCH (PRM 114) 25.Q: What happens to the aircraft bank if the autopilot is engaged during a bank? A: Aircraft bank 5* - current bank is maintained (PRM 108) 26.Q: What happens when you press the center of the heading knob on the FCP? A: The heading bug will sync to the aircraft’s current heading (PRM 106) 27.Q: LOC capture will automatically disarm what modes if they are engaged? A: Half bank; Turbulence; Heading (PRM 111) 28.Q: What does the 1/2 bank mode do? A: Restricts the aircraft to bank angle of 15* (PRM 109) 29.Q: When does the 1/2 bank mode engage on its own? A: > 31600’ (PRM 109) 30.Q: Is it possible to de-activate 1/2 bank mode when above 31600’? A: Yes, by selecting the 1/2 BANK pushbutton on the FCP (PRM 109) 31.Q: 1/2 bank mode selection is not available in what modes? A: Takeoff; Approach; Go-around (PRM 109) 32.Q: How is altitude capture indicated on the PFD? A: A flashing green ALTS message in the FMA (PRM 116) 33.Q: At what times will the altitude alert function give an aural tone? A: 1000’ prior to reaching altitude; Deviations +/- 300’ from selected altitude (PRM 146) 34.Q: When the TOGA button is pressed, what pitch indication will you receive during the go-around? A: SE - approximately 10* pitch up; 2 engine – approximately 15* pitch up (PRM 112) 35.Q: Each click of the manual pitch wheel will adjust the pitch command bars by? A: ½* up or down (PRM 114) 36.Q: Each click of the manual pitch wheel on the FCP will adjust the vertical speed by? A: 100 FPM (PRM 124) 37.Q: Repeatedly pressing the SPEED button on the FCP will cycle between what modes? A: IAS; Climb or Descent; Pitch (PRM 118) 38.Q: What is required to engage the autopilot? A: Both FCC’s operational; One yaw damper operational/engaged; 1 stab channel engaged; No faults in the stab trim system; No significant with the aircraft; Autopilot disconnect BAR is UP (ON) on the FCP (PRM 148) 39.Q: How may the autopilot be disengaged? A: Selecting BAR to DOWN (OFF) on the FCP; Pressing the AP ENG button on FCP; Pressing A/P disconnect button on yoke; Activation of the stab trim split switches; Pressing YAW DAMPER DISC button; Pressing TOGA button on thrust levers (PRM 152) 40.Q: The autopilot will disconnect automatically with what scenarios? A: Stick shaker; Windshear warning; Failure of both yaw dampers (PRM 152) 41.Q: If you advance the thrust levers beyond _____ during takeoff without the T/O CONFIG OK advisory message you will receive an aural alert as well as a status message. A: 70% (PRM 301) 42.Q: What components must be configured correctly to receive a T/O CONFIG OK advisory message? A: Flaps/Slats; Aileron trim; Rudder trim; Stabilizer trim; Spoilers; Parking brake; Autopilot (PRM 301) LIGHTING 1.Q: When will the seatbelt signs illuminate when in the AUTO position? A: Flaps selected > 0*; Landing gear is selected down; Cabin altitudes of 10000’ or more (PRM 511) 2.Q: When will the NO SMOKING signs illuminate when in the AUTO position? A: Landing gear selected down; Cabin altitudes of 10000’ or more (PRM 511) 3.Q: What locations can control the emergency lights? A: Cockpit; Forward; FA panel (PRM 513) 4.Q: When will the emergency lights caution message be displayed? A: When emergency lights are selected OFF (PRM 522) 5.Q: What does the emergency lights illuminate? A: Selected cabin ceiling and floor lighting; Emergency exits; Egress lighting on the exterior (PRM 513) 6.Q: How are the emergency lights powered? A: (4) rechargeable battery packs (PRM 513) 7.Q: How long will the emergency lights illuminate when activated? A: 15 Min (PRM 513) 8.Q: Will the forward FA panel emergency lights switch override the cockpit switch? A: Yes, if the cockpit switch is selected to the OFF position (PRM 513) 9.Q: When the emergency lights are ARMED, the illuminate automatically when? A: Failure of the Essential AC Bus or Essential DC Bus (PRM 513) 10.Q: How many navigation lights are installed in each wingtip? A: Two (PRM 499) 11.Q: When will the secondary navigation light illuminate? A: Failure of the main light; Primary navigation light overheat (PRM 499) 12.Q: Are the Primary and Secondary navigation lights the same size bulb? A: No, the secondary bulb is smaller (PRM 499) 13.Q: How many landing lights and their location? A: Left wing; Right Wing; Nose (PRM 502) 14.Q: Where are the taxi lights physically located on the aircraft? A: In the wing roots with the landing lights (PRM 502) COMMUNICATIONS 1.Q. What must be pressed to make a PA announcement? A. select the ACP transmit switch to PA, press the PA switchlight, use either the control wheel R/T switch or ACP R/T switch, or the hand held mike to transmit. (PRM 179) 2.Q: What functions are disabled on the observers ACP? A: Overhead speaker is inoperative; NORM/EMER switch is disabled (PRM 189) 3.Q: What does the CHIME switchlight produce when pressed? A: High/Low chime (PRM 179) 4.Q: The CALL switchlight on the intercom control unit produces what type of chime when pressed? A: High/Low (PRM 179) 5.Q: When the EMER pushlight is pressed on the intercom control unit, what indications appear in the cabin? A: Causes the switchlights to flash on both, cockpit and FA panels; Hi/Low triple chime; Illuminates the flashing red light on the mid cabin overhead emergency exit sign (PRM 180) 6.Q: When the NO SMOKING or FASTEN SEATBELT signs are selected ON, what type of chime is heard? A: Single low chime (PRM 181) 7.Q: What are the primary radio frequency controllers? A: Remote Transmitting Units (RTU) (PRM 166) 8.Q: What frequencies can be changed from both the RTU’s and the FMS radio page? A: COMM; NAV; ADF; Transponder Codes (PRM 193) 9.Q: How do you turn the RTU’s OFF? A: They cannot be turned off. They are powered anytime AC power is available to the aircraft (PRM 166) 10.Q: If the main page is selected and nothing is entered, how long before the MAIN page reverts back to top page on the RTU’s? A: 20 sec (PRM 173) 11.Q: The RTU’s are capable of displaying three different types of frequency presentations which include: A: Active frequency; Standby frequency; Pre-select frequency ({PRM 173) 12.Q: If the squelch is selected off through the RTU, how will it be indicated? A: SQ OFF message is displayed on the top page of the RTU (PRM 173) 13.Q: What is the purpose of the Backup Tuning Unit (BTU)? A: It provides reversionary control of the RTU’s in the event that both RTU’s fail or during a complete electrical failure (PRM 168, 175, & 193) 14. Q: If RTU1 fails what are some other ways to change the com1, or nav1 frequencies? A: Selection of the 1/2 line select key allows either RTU to monitor and tune the off-side radio on: FMS radio page. Backup tuning unit (PRM 168, 175, & 193) 15.Q: During normal operations the BTU is selected to what mode? A: Standby (PRM 168, 175, & 193) 16.Q: What frequencies will the BTU duplicate when selected to the standby mode? A: NAV 1 and COMM 1 (PRM 168, 175, & 193) 17.Q: What is displayed on the RTU screen if it fails? A: Nothing, the screen goes blank (PRM 192) 18.Q: If RTU 1 were to fail, how can NAV1, COMM1 and ADF1 frequencies be changed? A: Select the inhibit switch on the BTU for the respective RTU. This will allow the cross side tuning from the opposite side RTU. This will not work without first selecting INHIBIT (PRM 192) 19.Q: If we have an RTU failure, what actions can we take? A: Inhibit the failed RTU and tune with the operable RTU using the ½ button on the ACP (QRH driven) (PRM 168 &175) 20.Q. What does a RTU failure look like? A: The effected RTU would be black. Would run QRH and use the RTU inhibit switch for failed RTU and use the 1/2 button to tune the effected COM. (PRM 168 &175) 21.Q: What does the ½ sw do? A: Allows tuning the offside radio. (PRM 168 & 175) 22.Q: How is the cross side tuning indicated? A: The selected display will display in amber (PRM 174) 23: Q: Is there any other way to tune the radios. A: FMS. (PRM 193) 24.Q: What does the EMER switch do on the ACP? A: In case of an ACP malfunction, the CA ACP EMER switch bypasses the ACP circuitry, directly connecting the CA to VHF 1 and NAV 1 (FO switch connects VHF 2 and NAV 2 to FO). (PRM 189 & 190) 25.Q: What does FMS TUNE INHIBIT do? A: It does not allow the radio tuning units to be auto tuned by the FMS. Consequently, the RTUs cannot be put in autotune. (Check that switch if you can’t get them in autotune) (PRM192) 26.Q: What is the purpose of the VOICE/BOTH switch on the ACP’s? A: Allows pilot to receive voice only or voice and identifier when verifying navigational radio signals. (PRM 168) 27.Q: Does VHF 1 work on Batt power? A: Yes thru the backup tuning unit. (Bombardier PRM 4-25) 28.Q: Does the PA work on Batt power? A: Yes. (QRH 4-8 & PRM 199) 29.Q. Can we override the FA’s PA announcement from the cockpit? A: Yes (PRM 179) 30.Q: The PA system volume goes to HIGH automatically when what occurs?  A: Either engine is running; APU is running (PRM 177) 31.Q: What is the priority order for transmitting over the PA? A: Captain; First Officer; Flight Attendants (PRM 177) 32.Q: What other function does the PA system provide other than direct communications? A: It provides the logic for chimes and lights associated with the flight deck and cabin calls (PRM 179) 33.Q: The Interphone System connects to what locations on the aircraft? A: Flight Deck; Both FA panels; External service panels; Fueling panel; Aft equipment bay; Avionics bay. (PRM 183) 34.Q: The cockpit voice recorder (CVR) will record four areas of communications which include: A: CA voice; FO voice; Area Microphone; Mixed PA and observer’s voice (PRM 194) 35.Q: The underwater locator feature of the CVR will stay active? A: 30 days (PRM 195) 36.Q: The CVR will record data for how long? A: 120 Min (PSA PRM 194 says 30 minutes. Bombardier PRM 4-34 says 30 minutes or 120 minutes) 37.Q: Where is the CVR physically located? A: In the aft equipment bay. (PRM 194) 38.Q: When does the CVR begin to record? A: When DC ESS Bus is powered. (QRH 4-13 PRM 194) 39.Q: When does the FDR begin recording? A: Beacon on, strobes on, WOW sensed by the PSEU. (I’ll go into the FDR FAIL status message and ask if the FDR is really failed). (PRM 196) 40.Q: How much data will the FDR record? A: 25 hrs (PRM 196) 41.Q: The underwater locating device on the FDR will function? A: 30 days (PRM 196) 42.Q: What is the function of the FDR EVENT button? A: Time/Date Stamp for later review; EICAS message is displayed when selected (PRM 197) Doors 1.Q: All doors except two are monitored by the PSEU (proximity sensing Unit) which doors are not monitored? A: Aft equipment bay, and flight crew escape hatch (PRM pages 799 and 814) 2.Q: Doors that are associated with Emergency Evacuation Procedures? A: Passenger door; Galley service door; (4) emergency over wing exits (900), (2) emergency over wing exits (700); Flight compartment emergency escape hatch. (PRM 786) 3. Of the doors associated with the Emergency Evacuation Procedures, which is not monitored by the PSEU that would generate a “DOORS” message on the EICAS? A: Flight compartment emergency escape hatch. (PRM 814) 4: What door(s) on the door synoptic page give a master warning when opened? A: The main cabin door. (PRM 822) 5.Q. Can the over wing exits be opened from the outside? A: Yes (PRM 822) 6.Q: In normal operations, can the over wing exits be opened in flight? A: No. (PRM 802) 7.Q. What doors does the PSEU monitor? A. Passenger door, galley door, over wing emergency doors, avionics bay and cargo doors. (PRM 786) 8.Q: Does the flight escape hatch have a locked indication? A: Yes, but not a CAS indication. We must visually inspect the two green witness marks are aligned. (PRM 801) 9.Q: What does a PROX SYS FAULT 1 white status message mean and can you depart with it? A: Demonstrate an understanding of the Proximity sensing system and the ability to reference QRH Status messages and GO/NO GO list or MEL. It means one door, WOW, gear, or thrust reverser sensor is failed or “unreasonable”. No, you cannot depart with the message (cannot MEL it). 10.Q: What is the max weight in the aft cargo bay if the CRJ900? A: 3740 (POH 3.14, and FRED) 11.Q: How many pax allowed on passenger door? A: 4/ 1000lbs (PRM 789) OXYGEN SYSTEM 1.Q: Oxygen is supplied by what independent systems? A: Cockpit (gaseous); Cabin (chemical reaction) (PR 696) 2.Q: What would the indication be if the oxygen system thermally discharges? A: The green blowout disc would be missing (PRM 697) 3.Q: What PSI is the cockpit oxygen full? A: 1850 PSI (PRM 696) 4.Q: Where is the oxygen service panel physically located on the aircraft? A: Right side of nose (PRM 697) 5.Q: Where is the oxygen cylinder physically located on the aircraft for the cockpit system? A: In the wardrobe closet (PRM 696) 6.Q: Where is the oxygen bottle pressure displayed? A: EICAS status page (PRM 696) 7.Q: The oxygen pressure readout will turn amber? A: