Aircraft Systems and Procedures Quiz
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Questions and Answers

What is the minimum altitude required for a complex engine failure procedure in visual meteorological conditions (VMC)?

400 feet

Where would you find the procedures for a complex special engine failure?

PSA Station Bulletins

Under what circumstances will the IDG automatically disconnect?

The IDG will automatically disconnect when it experiences overtorque or overtemperature.

Explain the difference between Actual Landing Distance and Operational Landing Distance.

<p>Actual Landing Distance is the minimum runway needed to stop using maximum braking effort. Operational Landing Distance is the minimum runway needed using normal pilot technique.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the power source priorities for AC Bus 1, from highest to lowest?

<p>The power source priorities for AC Bus 1 are: Generator 1, APU Generator, Generator 2, and External AC.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the consequences of a Bus fault condition on either AC Bus 1 or AC Bus 2.

<p>A Bus fault condition on either AC Bus 1 or AC Bus 2 will result in the associated generator being taken offline.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what circumstances would you use Actual Landing Distance?

<p>When directed by the Quick Reference Handbook.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What does the phrase 'BLEEDS OPEN' signify on the Takeoff Reference List (TLR)?

<p>It means that the engines are supplying bleed air to the air conditioning system for takeoff.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What will happen if a Bus fault occurs and the automatic transfer system fails to switch to the next available generator?

<p>If the automatic transfer system fails to switch to the next available generator, the AUTO XFER FAIL switchlight will illuminate, indicating a fault preventing auto transfer.</p> Signup and view all the answers

List the conditions that will trigger the automatic deployment of the ADG.

<p>The ADG will automatically deploy when any aircraft generator has been online, AC Bus 1 &amp; 2 become unpowered, and weight-off-wheels (WoW) conditions are met.</p> Signup and view all the answers

If you enter the assumed FLEX temperature from ACARS and the N1 is below the listed value, what should you do?

<p>You should lower the assumed temperature in the EPRF MENU Page of the FMS (Flight Management System).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the purpose of the AC switchlight on the external service panel.

<p>The AC switchlight on the external service panel indicates when the AC Service Bus is powered. This bus supplies power to the electrical outlets in the cabin and lav for aircraft cleaning.</p> Signup and view all the answers

On the TLR's listed EFP (Engine Failure Procedure), when can you turn to fly the designated heading?

<p>400 feet in VMC (Visual Meteorological Conditions) and 1,000 feet in IMC (Instrument Meteorological Conditions).</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the function of the TRUs and how many are there on the aircraft?

<p>There are four TRUs on the aircraft, each rated at 120 amps. They are used to convert AC power to DC power for various systems on the aircraft.</p> Signup and view all the answers

During a takeoff roll, how do you determine if there's sufficient runway to stop in the event of a rejected takeoff?

<p>If you did not hear the 'V1 callout', you will have enough runway to stop using maximum braking.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Why is it necessary to physically pull the ADG handle during the EMER POWER QRH procedure?

<p>Physically pulling the ADG handle closes the Emergency Tie Contactors, allowing the DC Essential Bus to remain powered by the batteries after landing (WoW).</p> Signup and view all the answers

According to the PSA FOM, what are the minimum weather requirements for a takeoff alternate to be considered valid?

<p>The weather at the takeoff alternate must meet the lowest available CAT I approach minimums and cannot be reduced.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the criteria for determining the distance limit for a takeoff alternate.

<p>The takeoff alternate must be within one hour of flight time from the departure airport, calculated using normal cruise speed with one engine inoperative. PSA has standardized this to a maximum distance of 300 miles.</p> Signup and view all the answers

When is a takeoff alternate mandatory based on weather conditions at the departure airport?

<p>A takeoff alternate is required if the weather at the departure airport is below the lowest available CAT I approach minimums.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the specific RVR values that determine who, the Captain or First Officer, will conduct the takeoff?

<p>For RVR values of 4000 or less, the Captain (unless a qualified check airman) will conduct the takeoff. For RVR values of 1600 or less, the Captain will conduct the takeoff, regardless of the First Officer's experience level.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the meaning of "CL & HIRL" as used in the context of runway lighting.

<p>CL &amp; HIRL stand for Centerline Lights and High Intensity Runway Lights, respectively. These are specific types of runway lighting systems that aid in visibility during low light conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the "1, 2, 3 Rule" and how does it relate to the need for an alternate airport?

<p>The &quot;1, 2, 3 Rule&quot; is a shorthand for the requirement of an alternate airport when the forecasted weather at the destination airport is below the minimums needed for a final approach. The number refers to the number of approaches that are feasible given the weather conditions.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the minimum weather requirements for an approach to an alternate airport after a diversion?

<p>The minimum weather requirements for an approach to an alternate airport after a diversion vary depending on the situation, but typically involve ensuring the weather meets the published minimums for the chosen approach procedure.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How does the FOM guidance on takeoff visibility requirements for First Officers with low time differ from that of experienced First Officers?

<p>Low-time First Officers are only allowed to take off when RVR is above 4000. More experienced First Officers can take off with RVR as low as 1600.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the process for manually powered crossflow between the main fuel tanks.

<p>To manually crossflow fuel between the main tanks, press the MAN XFLOW switchlight and activate the crossflow pump on the low tank side.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two methods of fuel quantity gauging on this aircraft?

<p>The two methods of fuel quantity gauging are a digital display and magnetic level indicators (MLI).</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what conditions will the digital fuel quantity readout turn amber?

<p>The digital fuel quantity readout will turn amber if the total fuel quantity is less than 1200lbs or if the fuel imbalance exceeds 800lbs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

When will the center tank fuel quantity indication be displayed as white?

<p>The center tank fuel quantity indication will be displayed as white when the center tank quantity is 0lbs.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain the circumstances under which the bulk fuel temperature readout will turn amber.

<p>The bulk fuel temperature readout will turn amber when the bulk fuel temperature is below -40°C.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the normal operating pressure for each of the aircraft's three hydraulic systems?

<p>The normal operating pressure for each of the aircraft's three hydraulic systems is 3000 +/- 200 PSI.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two primary methods for driving hydraulic systems 1 and 2?

<p>Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 are normally driven by engine-driven pumps 1A and 2A. These systems are backed up by electric AC motor pumps 1B and 2B, respectively.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Under what conditions will hydraulic pumps 1B, 2B, and 3B automatically activate in AUTO mode?

<p>In AUTO mode, hydraulic pumps 1B, 2B, and 3B will automatically activate when an AC generator is available and when flaps are selected out of the 0° position.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the purpose of the hydraulic accumulators in the aircraft's hydraulic system.

<p>Hydraulic accumulators serve two critical functions: they provide immediate pressure to meet sudden system demands and they dampen out pressure fluctuations within the system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the role of the hydraulic shut-off valves (SOVs) in the event of a hydraulic system overheat or fluid leak?

<p>The SOVs are designed to automatically block the flow of hydraulic fluid from the reservoirs to the engine-driven pumps in case of an overheat or leak, preventing further damage to the system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Explain how you can manually close the hydraulic shut-off valves (SOVs).

<p>The SOVs can be manually closed by pressing either the ENG FIRE PUSH switchlight or the HYD SOV switchlight in the cockpit.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Which hydraulic systems require additional cooling and why?

<p>Hydraulic systems 1 and 2 require additional cooling due to their proximity to the aircraft engines and the heat generated within the nacelle.</p> Signup and view all the answers

Describe the method used to cool the hydraulic fluid in systems 1 and 2.

<p>The hydraulic fluid in systems 1 and 2 is cooled using an air/hydraulic oil heat exchanger, which utilizes ram air from a scoop on the tail of the aircraft.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the hydraulic system pressure readout on the synoptic page when the system pressure falls below 1800 PSI?

<p>The hydraulic system pressure readout turns amber on the synoptic page when the pressure drops below 1800 PSI, indicating a potential pressure issue.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the three sources of cooling air utilized for the EFIS and EICAS displays?

<p>The EFIS and EICAS displays are cooled by three sources: two AC display fans, a recirculation fan, and the cockpit air conditioning duct.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What is the significance of the green color on the hydraulic quantity readout on the HYD system synoptic page?

<p>A green color on the hydraulic quantity readout indicates the fluid level is between 45% and 85%, signifying a sufficient amount of hydraulic fluid in the system.</p> Signup and view all the answers

How long will the emergency lights remain illuminated after they are activated?

<p>15 minutes</p> Signup and view all the answers

What triggers the automatic illumination of the emergency lights?

<p>Failure of the Essential AC Bus or Essential DC Bus</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the two primary radio frequency controllers used in the aircraft?

<p>Remote Transmitting Units (RTUs)</p> Signup and view all the answers

What type of chime is produced when the CALL switchlight is pressed on the intercom control unit?

<p>A high/low chime</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens when the EMER pushlight is pressed on the intercom control unit?

<p>It causes the switchlights to flash on both the cockpit and FA panels, produces a Hi/Low triple chime, and illuminates the flashing red light on the mid-cabin overhead emergency exit sign.</p> Signup and view all the answers

What frequencies can be adjusted from both the RTUs and the FMS radio page?

<p>COMM, NAV, ADF, Transponder Codes</p> Signup and view all the answers

What happens to the main navigation light if it fails or overheats?

<p>The secondary navigation light illuminates</p> Signup and view all the answers

What are the locations for the taxi lights on the aircraft?

<p>In the wing roots, along with the landing lights</p> Signup and view all the answers

Study Notes

EFB

  • The minimum iPad battery charge required before a daily flight sequence is fully charged near 100%.
  • Required software and apps include Apple iOS, Jeppesen Flight Deck Pro X, Comply365, and AA HOT, each version must be updated by the compliance date on the EFB STAR.
  • The EFB STAR contains current updates.
  • Jepp charts and "Comply" items within comply365 must be current by the compliance date.
  • Checking the iPad for storage compliance is part of complying with required apps.
  • All pilots are required to check for updates and verify successful EFB updates prior to the first flight.

Dispatch Release/Flight Planning

  • Required release items include aircraft registration, flight number, flight type, airports (origin, destination, alternate 1, alternate 2), and takeoff fuel.
  • Minimum fuel must be declared if projected fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 45 minutes of fuel remaining.
  • Declaring minimum fuel does not guarantee priority handling but implies little to no delays.
  • Emergency fuel must be declared if projected fuel consumption will result in landing with less than 30 minutes of fuel remaining.

Ramp/Takeoff Fuel

  • Ramp fuel is the sum of takeoff fuel, tanker fuel, and taxi fuel.
  • Ramp fuel tolerance is +/- 500 lbs as long as it is not below takeoff fuel + taxi fuel.
  • Takeoff fuel is calculated as burn, reserve, alternate, and contingency fuel.
  • Fuel burn is the sum of climb, cruise, descent, and instrument approach at destination fuel requirements.
  • Contingency fuel accounts for anticipated delays, such as traffic delays, holding and missed approaches.
  • Tanker fuel provides additional fuel needed for APU burn at the gate and unusual ground delays.

Minimum Contingency Fuel

  • Minimum contingency fuel requirement is 330 lbs.
  • Minimum tanker fuel requirements for CRJ700 is 937 lbs and for CRJ900 is 1082 lbs.
  • Minimum reserve fuel requirements for CRJ700 is 2100 lbs and for CRJ900 is 2220 lbs.

Weather (Dispatch Release)

  • Aircraft registration, flight number, type, minimum fuel (takeoff), and airports (origin/destination/alternate 1/alternate 2) are required items for a dispatch release.
  • At the destination, the weather must be at or above the minimums for the anticipated approach.
  • A takeoff alternate is needed when the departure airport weather condition drops below the lowest available CAT 1 approach minimums.
  • The takeoff alternate is located within one hour of the departure airport, based on normal cruise speed.
  • The weather required for the takeoff alternate is not reducible.
  • The lowest visibility RVR allowable for a captain is 500.
  • No, all three RVRs reporting systems can be nonoperative, and a pilot is still able to takeoff.

Weather (Dispatch Release)

  • Additional notes on weather criteria related to alternate airports and minimum weather conditions needed for a safe flight. Includes further detail on weather requirements for different alternate airports, conditions needed to initiate a CAT II approach, and references to quick reference documents for further detail on alternate airport setup and briefings.

TLR (Performance)

  • MFPTW stands for Maximum Flight Plan Takeoff Weight. It considers all flight planning limits but excludes Maximum Runway Takeoff Weight (MRTW). It takes into account MTOW and MLDW + planned fuel burn.
  • MFPTW cannot be exceeded, and compliance with structural and operating weight limits is critical to prevent aircraft damage during flight. Minimums will cover Landing and Takeoff weights.
  • Runway may be considered wet if there is sufficient moisture causing reflectivity.
  • PMRTW is Planned Max Runway Takeoff Weight.
  • The takeoff weight is subject to MELs (Minimum Equipment List) and CDLs (Consecutive Daily Limits) as well as weight penalties and Anti-ice configuration.
  • PQNH is Planned altimeter setting.
  • The takeoff roll conditions and specific procedures to follow.

MEL/CDL

  • (D) refers to Dispatch specific procedures.
  • (M) refers to Maintenance specific procedures.
  • (O) refers to Operations specific procedures.
  • (M/FC) refers to Maintenance specific procedures that can be accomplished by a qualified flight crew member.
  • System reset procedures can be found in the document collection of MEL/SR/NEF/GNG/CDL (Comply365 application)
  • Different system reset procedures may exist if the aircraft is in the gate vs off the gate.
  • MELs and CDLs are on the dispatch release.
  • Category A can be deferred by the MEL.
  • Category B can be deferred for 3 consecutive days.
  • Category C can be deferred for 10 consecutive days.
  • Category D can be deferred for 120 consecutive days.
  • Category B and C can be extended.
  • Category A and D cannot be extended.
  • (C1 to C10)

Powerplant

  • Bypass and core air are the two airflow paths after air passes through the fan.
  • Bypass air provides majority of thrust during takeoff.
  • The N1 assembly is a single-stage fan.
  • The N2 assembly is a multi-stage compressor.
  • Variable geometry system and operability valves maintain compressor aerodynamic performance and prevent compressor stalls.
  • FADEC is full authority digital engine control that controls each engine.

Other

  • Many other topics are covered in the notes, including discussion of specific components, their functions and operating limits, as well as procedures for emergency situations.

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EFB and Flight Planning Mock Questions PDF

Description

Test your knowledge on complex engine failure procedures, landing distances, and AC bus systems in aircraft. This quiz covers critical concepts essential for understanding aircraft operations and safety in VMC. Perfect for aviation students and professionals alike.

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