MM Bio Practical Q PDF

DR. M. M. P a g e | 31  MCQ notes on Bio 1 1- Biological hazards are blood, body fluids containing bacteria & viruses. 2- Chemical hazard are Acids, alkalis and toxic chemicals. 3- Radiological hazard are Ineffective radioactive waste. 4- Accident are fire and e...

DR. M. M. P a g e | 31  MCQ notes on Bio 1 1- Biological hazards are blood, body fluids containing bacteria & viruses. 2- Chemical hazard are Acids, alkalis and toxic chemicals. 3- Radiological hazard are Ineffective radioactive waste. 4- Accident are fire and electrical 5- General Safety Rules : a) Read instructions carefully before starting your experiment. b) During lab work, keep your hands away from your face. c) Never mix chemicals together unless you are told to do so. d) Notify your teacher if any spills or accidents occur. 6- Glassware Safety : 1. If a piece of glassware gets broken, notify the teacher and should be disposed of in a special glass disposal container. 2. When pouring liquids into glassware: make sure it is resting on a table at least a hands breadth from the edge. 7- Heating Safety : 1. Use protective gloves to handle hot objects. 2. Never reach across an open flame. 3. Always point the top ends of test tubes that are being heated away from people. 4. When heating a test tube, move it around slowly over the flame to distribute the heat evenly. 5. Only glassware that is dry should be heated. 6. Heat glassware by placing it on a wire gauze platform on a ring stand. Do not hold it in your hand. DR. M. M. P a g e | 32 8- First Aid : a) Burn : flush it with water b) Cut and bruises : Do not touch an open wound without safety gloves. Pressing directly on minor cuts will stop bleeding in a few minutes. Apply cold compress to bruises to reduce swelling. c) Eye burn : Flush eyes immediately with plenty of water for several minutes. If a foreign object is lodged in the eye, do not allow the eye to be rubbed. DR. M. M. P a g e | 33  MCQ practical bio 1 1. If a laboratory fire erupts, immediately: A. Notify your instructor B. Run for the fire extinguisher A C. Throw water on the fire D. Open the windows 2. Approved eye protection devices (such as goggles) are worn in the laboratory: A. To avoid eye strain D B. To improve your vision C. Only if you don't have corrective glasses D. Any time chemicals, heat or glassware are used 3. After completing an experiment, all chemical wastes should be: A. Left at your lab station for the next class B. Disposed of according to your instructor's directions B C. Dumped in the sink D. Taken home 4. You are heating a substance in a test tube. Always point the open end of the tube: A. Toward yourself D B. Toward your lab partner C. Toward another classmate D. Away from all people DR. M. M. P a g e | 34 5. If an acid is splashed on your skin, wash at once with: A. Soap B. Oil D C. A paper towel D. Plenty of water 6. When you finish working with chemicals, biological specimens, and other lab substances, always: A. Treat your hands with skin lotion B B. Wash your hands thoroughly with soap and water C. Wipe your hands on a towel D. Wipe your hands on your clothes 7. You have been injured in the laboratory (cut, burn, etc.). First you should: A. Apply first aid yourself B. Tell the science instructor at once B C. See a doctor after school D. Visit the school nurse after class 8. What should you do if you break glass in the lab? A. Tell the teacher, sweep up the glass, and put it where the teacher directs you A B. Tell the teacher, sweep up the glass, and dump it into the garbage C. Pick up the glass with your hands D. Ignore it; the teacher will clean it up DR. M. M. P a g e | 35 9. What is the purpose of wearing personal protective equipment (PPE) in a laboratory? A. To show laboratory authority B B. To protect against potential hazards C. To maintain hygiene D. For aesthetic appeal 10. Which of the following is an essential safety equipment in a laboratory? a) Safety goggles b) Lab coat D c) Fire extinguisher d) All of the above 11. What should you do if you break a glassware in the laboratory? a) Clean it up using your bare hands b) Notify your labmates and clean it up using appropriate equipment B c) Leave it for someone else to clean up later d) Ignore it and continue working 12. What should you do before using a chemical in the laboratory? a) Read the label and understand the hazards b) Taste a small amount to check if it is toxic A c) Mix it with other chemicals to enhance its properties d) Use it without any precautions 13. Which of the following is a proper method for heating a test tube? a) Hold it with your bare hands b) Use a towel or test tube holder B c) Heat it directly over an open flame d) Place it in an ice bath DR. M. M. P a g e | 36 14. What should you do if you encounter a fire in the laboratory? a) Run out of the laboratory immediately b) Use a fire extinguisher to put out the fire D c) Pour water on the fire d) Alert others, evacuate safely, and call for help 15. What should you do with leftover chemicals after an experiment? a) Pour them down the sink b) Store them for future use C c) Dispose of them following proper guidelines d) Leave them on the lab bench for someone else to handle 16. When should you wear gloves in the laboratory? a) Only when handling hazardous chemicals b) Only when working with biological materials D c) Only when working with sharp objects d) Whenever there is a risk of hand contact with any hazardous material 17. Which of the following is a fundamental rule of laboratory safety? a) Wear personal protective equipment (PPE) b) Use any glassware available A c) Taste chemicals to identify them d) Work alone in the laboratory 18. Which of the following should you avoid doing in the laboratory? a) Eating or drinking b) Wearing closed-toe shoes A c) Using your hands to mix chemicals d) Working in a well-ventilated area DR. M. M. P a g e | 37 19. Which of the following is NOT a correct practice when handling glassware in the laboratory? a) Use heat-resistant gloves when handling hot glassware C b) Inspect glassware for cracks or chips before use c) Dispose of broken glassware in a regular trash bin d) Use a brush or appropriate tool to clean glassware 20. What is the correct procedure for disposing of broken glassware? a) Place it in a regular trash bin b) Wrap it in a plastic bag and throw it in the regular trash C c) Dispose of it in a designated glass disposal container d) Reuse it after cleaning and sterilizing 21. Which of the following is NOT a correct practice when working with chemicals in the laboratory? a) Read and understand the safety data sheet (SDS) for each chemical B b) Mix different chemicals together to save space c) Use a fume hood or proper ventilation when working with volatile chemicals d) Label containers with the name of the chemical and its hazard information 22. What is the appropriate way to handle sharps (e.g., needles, broken glass) in the laboratory? a) Dispose of them in a regular trash bin B b) Place them in a designated sharps container c) Recycle them in a glass recycling bin d) Keep them on the lab bench until the end of the experiment 23. What should you do if you accidentally ingest a chemical in the laboratory? a) Induce vomiting immediately b) Drink water to dilute the chemical C c) Seek medical attention and inform your supervisor d) Ignore it and continue working DR. M. M. P a g e | 38 24. Which of the following is an important principle of laboratory safety? A) Rushing through experiments to save time B) Wearing appropriate personal protective equipment (PPE) B C) Eating and drinking in the laboratory D) Working alone without supervision 25. What should you do if you spill a chemical on your skin in the laboratory? A) Ignore it and continue working B) Rinse the area with water and inform your instructor B C) Wipe it off with a paper towel and continue working D) Apply a chemical neutralizer directly on the spill 26. What should you do if foreign object is lodged in the eye? A) Ignore it and continue working B) Wash it off immediately with alcohol C C) Do not allow the eye to be rubbed. D) Apply a burn ointment without rinsing it 27. What should you do if you accidentally spill a small amount of acid on your hand? A) Ignore it and continue working B B) Wash it off immediately with water C) Neutralize it with a base solution D) Apply a burn ointment without rinsing it DR. M. M. P a g e | 39 28. Which of the following should be worn in the laboratory? a) Safety goggles only b) Safety goggles, lab coat, hand gloves, face mask, and hair cap B c) Safety goggles and lab coat only d) Lab coat and hand gloves only 29. How should heated test tubes be handled in the laboratory? a) Hold them with bare hands b) Point the top ends of the test tubes away from people B c) Heat them directly over an open flame d) Use wet test tubes 30. What is the immediate first aid for burns in the laboratory? a) Apply cold compress to the burn area b) Flush with cold water B c) Apply a bandage to the burn area d) Rub ointment on the burn area 31. What should be done if a foreign object is lodged in the eye in the laboratory? a) Rub the eye to remove the object B b) Flush the eye with plenty of water c) Apply an eye patch over the affected eye d) Ignore the object and continue with the experiment DR. M. M. P a g e | 40  MCQ notes practical bio 2 1) Plasma is blood minus cells 2) Serum is plasma minus clotting factors 3) Purple is the most common collecting tube used in tests 4) Purple (EDTA) : used for CBC , HBA1C 5) Green (heparin) : used for ABG 6) Grey (Na fluride) : used for blood glucose 7) Blue (Na citrate) : used for coagulation tests 8) Plain red tube : no additive 9) Serum separator yellow tube : contain clot activator and gel separator 10) Venous sample is the specimen of choice for most routine laboratory tests 11) Most common site for venipuncture is cubital fossa (basilica , cephalic and median cubital vein) 12) Precaution before experiment : patient should : Sitting or lying down Arm downward angle Arm hold still 13) Lab tests require fasting : fasting blood glucose , HOMAIR , C-peptide , lipid profile 14) Order of venipuncture : sanitization , tourniquet application , site cleanse , equipment preparation , tourniquet reapplication and needle insertion , needle removal , blood transfer to collecting tube , labelling , sample transfer and processing 15) Tourniquet : 3-4 inch above venipuncture site for vein visulalization Tight to impede vein not artery In one minute only Vein enhancement DR. M. M. P a g e | 41 16) Cleanse site of venipuncture by gauze soaked with 70% alchol in circular motion from inside to outside 17) Allow alchol to dry for 1 min to avoid stining sensation 18) Insert needle at angle 15-30 degree 19) A needle must be discarded in a safety box (never bend or recap) 20) If recapping absolutely necessary : use one hand technique 21) Non additive tube not require mixing 22) Place specimen must be cooloed in crushed ice slurry 23) Wrap specimen that require protection from light as bilirubin in aluminum foil or light blocking material 24) Plasma or serum separatrion within 2 hours of collection 25) Complication of blood collection : fainting , hematoma , petechie , bleeding , seizures DR. M. M. P a g e | 42  MCQ practical bio 2 1. Venipuncture is a procedure used to: a. Collect urine samples b. Collect blood samples B c. Administer intravenous medications d. Measure blood pressure 2. The most commonly used site for venipuncture is: a. Radial artery b. Femoral vein C c. Cephalic vein d. Dorsal vein 3. Which of the following is the correct order of steps for performing a venipuncture? a. Apply tourniquet, insert needle, fill collection tubes, release tourniquet C b. Clean the site, insert needle, fill collection tubes, remove the needle c. Apply tourniquet, clean the site, insert needle, fill collection tubes d. Clean the site, apply tourniquet, insert needle, fill collection tubes 4. The purpose of using a tourniquet during venipuncture is to: a. Prevent bleeding after needle insertion b. Stabilize the vein for easy puncture C c. Expand the size of the vein for better visibility d. Minimize patient discomfort during the procedure 5. After venipuncture, it is important to apply pressure to the puncture site to: a. Prevent hematoma formation b. Promote blood clotting A c. Reduce the risk of infection d. Ensure accurate test results DR. M. M. P a g e | 43 6. Which of the following is the most common site for venipuncture? a. Radial artery b. Femoral vein D c. Dorsal hand veins d. Median cubital vein 7. The tourniquet is applied during venipuncture to: a. Dilate the vein b. Prevent hematoma formation A c. Reduce patient discomfort d. Enhance blood flow 8. Which of the following steps is not typically involved in the venipuncture procedure? a. Identifying the patient C b. Applying antiseptic to the puncture site c. Inserting the needle at a 90 degree angle to the skin d. Drawing the blood into the collection tube 9. What does the term "venipuncture" refer to? a) Inserting a needle into a vein b) Collecting a blood sample A c) Administering intravenous fluids d) Removing blood from a vein 10. What are the main steps of performing a venipuncture? a) Palpate the vein, clean the site, insert the needle, collect the blood b) Apply a tourniquet, clean the site, insert the needle, release the tourniquet A c) Apply a tourniquet, insert the needle, collect the blood, release the tourniquet d) Clean the site, insert the needle, collect the blood, apply a bandage DR. M. M. P a g e | 44 11. How should the patient's arm be positioned during a venipuncture? a) Straight and extended b) Bend at a 90 degree angle B c) Raised above the head d) Hanging down by the side 12. What should you do if the flow of blood during venipuncture is slow or stops? a) Apply more pressure to the puncture site C b) Reinsert the needle deeper into the vein c) Remove the needle and try a different site d) Ask the patient to pump their fist 13. After collecting the blood sample, what should you do next? a) Remove the needle and apply pressure to the site b) Label the blood sample and deliver it to the laboratory B c) Dispose of the needle and syringe in a sharps container d) Clean the puncture site and apply a bandage 14. What is the recommended site for venous sampling in adults? a) Antecubital fossa b) Dorsum of the hand A c) Jugular vein d) Popliteal vein 15. What tube or container is typically used for collecting venous samples? a) Red top tube b) Green top tube D c) Blue top tube d) Purple top tube DR. M. M. P a g e | 45 16. How should the needle be inserted during venous sampling? a) Perpendicular to the skin b) Parallel to the skin B c) At a 45-degree angle d) At a 90-degree angle 17. Which of the following could be a potential complication of venous sampling? a) Hematoma formation D b) Nerve damage c) Infection at the puncture site d) All of the above 18. What is the purpose of a red top tube in biochemistry? a) Collect whole blood for complete blood count (CBC) b) Collect blood for coagulation studies C c) Collect blood for chemistry and serology tests d) Collect blood for glucose testing 19. What additive is present in a green top tube? a) EDTA (Ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid) b) Sodium fluoride D c) Sodium citrate d) Lithium heparin 20. What is the purpose of a yellow top tube in biochemistry? a) Collect blood for glucose testing b) Collect blood for trace element analysis B c) Collect blood for blood typing and cross match d) Collect blood for clotting factor testing DR. M. M. P a g e | 46 21. Which of the following tests is commonly performed using a purple top tube? a) Blood glucose levels B b) Complete blood count (CBC) c) Liver function tests d) Prothrombin time (PT) test 22. What is the purpose of the additive EDTA in a collecting tube? a) Prevent blood from clotting b) Preserve blood for trace element analysis A c) Enhance blood cell morphology d) Prevent glycolysis in glucose testing 23. What information should be included on the label of a biochemistry collecting tube? a) Patient's name and identification number D b) Date and time of collection c) Test(s) to be performed d) All of the above 24. Serum separation is the process of separating serum from what component of the blood? a) Red blood cells D b) White blood cells c) Platelets d) Plasma 25. Which of the following techniques is commonly used to separate serum from whole blood? a) Centrifugation A b) Filtration c) Evaporation d) Precipitation DR. M. M. P a g e | 47 26. Serum separation is important because it allows for the accurate measurement of: a) Blood glucose levels B b) Liver enzymes c) Complete blood count (CBC) d) Hemoglobin levels 27. What type of tube is commonly used for serum separation? a) Red top tube b) Green top tube A c) Gray top tube d) Yellow top tube 28. What is the main advantage of using serum for laboratory testing instead of whole blood or plasma? a) Serum contains a higher concentration of analytes A b) Serum is less prone to contamination c) Serum provides more accurate test results d) Serum can be stored for longer periods of time 29. Which type of collection tube is commonly used for routine biochemical tests, such as glucose and lipid profiles? a. Red-top tube A b. Lavender-top tube c. Gray-top tube d. Green-top tube DR. M. M. P a g e | 48 30. The tube color most commonly used for collecting blood samples for coagulation studies is: a. Red C b. Yellow c. Light blue d. Purple 31. Gray topped tubes contain a chemical that: A. Stops the action of insulin on glucose B. Prevents the blood from clotting A C. Clots the blood faster D. Increases blood pressure 32. The main anticoagulant for coagulation studies is: A. ethylene diamine tetra-acetic acid (EDTA). B. sodium citrate. A C. heparin. D. oxalate. 33. The difference between plasma and serum is: A. scrum contains fibrinogen. B. serum is obtained from a nonclotted sample. D C. plasma is obtained from a clotted sample. D. plasma contains fibrinogen. 34. Most laboratory tests are performed using: A. arterial blood. B. venous blood. B C. capillary blood. D. oxygenated blood. DR. M. M. P a g e | 49 35. The primary antiseptic for routine venipuncture is: A. iodine. B. chlorhexidine. C C. isopropyl alcohol. D. Betadine. 36. A properly tied tourniquet: A. permits arterial flow and blocks venous flow. B. blocks arterial and venous flow. A C. prevents backflow. D. permits venous flow and blocks arterial flow. 37. The purpose of sodium fluoride in gray stopper tubes is to: A. prevent hemolysis. B. prevent clotting. C C. preserve glucose. D. maintain cellular morphology. 38. The anticoagulant present in a light-blue stopper tube is: A. Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA). B. sodium citrate. B C. heparin. D. potassium oxalate. 39. You are doing a venipuncture on a patient's arm. Where should you place the tourniquet? A. Place it at the puncture site. C B. Place it below the puncture site. C. Place it above the puncture site. D. A tourniquet is not advised for this procedure. DR. M. M. P a g e | 50 40. Which of the following conditions may complicate tourniquet use? A. Addison's disease B. Thyroid tumor D C. Cushing Syndrome D. Sickle Cell disease 41. How can you tell if you are in a vein when using a needle and syringe to draw blood? A. You can tell only by pulling back on the syringe plunger C B. Blood pumps into the syringe on its own C. You will normally see blood appear in the hub of the needle D. There is no way to tell this when you use a needle and syringe 42. How long should the tourniquet be placed around the patient's arm? A. Approximately 4 minutes B. Until the needle is removed D C. Until the entire venipuncture is completed D. No more than 1 minute 43. What is the best angle for needle insertion during venipuncture? A. 5 degrees B. 30 degrees or less B C. 45 degrees D. More than 45 degrees 44. This sample is withdrawn from : a. Blood b. Stool D c. CSF d. Nasal swab DR. M. M. P a g e | 51 45. What is the key difference between plasma and serum? A) Plasma contains fibrinogen, while serum does not. B) Plasma is a component of blood, while serum is a component of urine. C C) Plasma is obtained by centrifuging whole blood with an anticoagulant, while serum is obtained by centrifuging clotted blood. D) Plasma is red in color, while serum is yellow in color. 46. Which of the following laboratory techniques is sed to separate plasma or serum from whole blood? A) Chromatography C B) Spectrophotometry C) Centrifugation D) Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) 47. The additives in this collecting tubes is: a. Clot activator b. Gel separator D c. Na citrate d. EDTA e. Heparin 48. Which blood sampling method is used to measure arterial blood gases? a) Capillary sampling b) Arterial sampling B c) Venous sampling d) Wrist sampling DR. M. M. P a g e | 52 49. Which lab tests typically require fasting? a) Fasting blood glucose b) HOMA-IR D c) C-peptide d) All of the above 50. Which of the following lab tests does NOT require fasting? a) Fasting blood glucose b) Lipid profile D c) Iron tests d) HbA1C DR. M. M. P a g e | 53  MCQ notes Bio 3 1- intensity of color is directly proportional with glucose conc 2- two enzymes of glucose oxidase method is glucose oxidase and H2O2 peroxidase 3- active reagent of urine strip (dipstick) test is glucose oxidase and H2O2 peroxidase 4- normally glucose is absent in urine 5- glucosuria occurs when blood glucose conc exceed renal threshold which is 180 mg/dl 6- glucosmeter determine glucose conc in blood by sample from finger capillary blood 7- normal plasma glucose is 70-110 mg/dl 8- hypoglycemia occurs when glucose less than 60 mg/dl 9- hyperglycemia occurs when glucose above 140 mg/dl 10- principle of glucometer is glucose oxidase method 11- requirement of glucometer is alchol cotton swab , lancet , strip , glucometer 12- colorimeter used to measure conc of colored substance according to degree of absorbance of colored substance 13- principle of colorimeter is glucose oxidase method 14- wave length of colorimeter in glucose measurement is 490-540 nm 15- photo of colorimeter (spectrophotometer) : DR. M. M. P a g e | 54  MCQ notes Bio 3 1. A negative urine test for glucose is provided in the strip/s number: a) One and two b) One and three C c) Two only d) Two and three e) One only 2. By preforming this test , the glucose appears when its concentration in blood is: a) Less than 20 b) 70-120 C c) More than 180 d) 120-150 e) Less than 180 3. All the following are considered to be the requirement of this technique except : a) Syringe b) Alcohol swab A c) Lancet and Lancet device d) Test strips e) Glucose meter 4. What is the active reagent used in measure glucose in the following test: a) Glucose dehydrogenase and oxidase b) Glucose oxidase and peroxidase B c) Glucose dehydrogenase and peroxidase d) Glucose peroxidase and Catalase e) Glucose oxygenase and Catalase DR. M. M. P a g e | 55 5. Glucose detection in urine depends on : a) single enzymatic reaction b) double enzymatic reaction B c) triple enzymatic reaction d) multiple enzymatic reaction 6. Glucose detection in urine needs : a) glucose oxidase b) glucose reductase A c) glucose hydroxylase d) glucose dioxygenase 7. Glucose oxidase convert glucose to: a) glucuronic acid b) iduronic acid D c) gluconic acid d) gluconic acid + H2O2 8. Indicator used in glucose detection in urine is: a) gluconic acid b) toluidine B c) H2O2 d) glucuronic acid 9. Glucose appears in urine if blood glucose is above: a) 120 mg/dl b) 100 mg/dl D c) 70 mg/dl d) 180 mg/dl DR. M. M. P a g e | 56 10. Renal threshold for glucose is.... a) 120 mg/dl b) 100 mg/dl D c) 70 mg/dl d) 180 mg/dl 11. Normal fasting blood glucose is: a) 80-140 mg/dl b) 70-110 mg/dl B c) 50-60 mg/dl d) 30-40 mg/dl 12. Hyperglycemia means the blood glucose level is: a) above 60 mg/dl b) below 50 mg/dl C c) above 140 mg/dl d) below 60 mg/dl 13. Hypoglycemia means the blood glucose level is: a) above 60 mg/dl b) below 60 mg/dl B c) above 140 mg/dl d) below 200 mg/dl 14. The glucose is measured at............nm by colorimeter a) 490 b) 320 A c) 350 d) 400 DR. M. M. P a g e | 57 15. This picture indicates ……… a) normal blood glucose level b) hypoglycemia B c) hyperglycemia d) diabetes mellitus e) liver disease 16. the name of this method: a) biuret method b) urine strip test B c) colorimetry d) immunological reaction 17. the sample is from : a) Arterial blood b) Venous blood C c) Capillary blood d) Plasma 18. The provided glucometer reading represents: a) High blood glucose b) Above renal threshold C c) Below renal threshold d) Renal threshold level e) Low blood glucose DR. M. M. P a g e | 58 19. The reading of the colorimeter in the presence of glucose is: a. Directly proportional to the glucose concentration b. Not proportional to the glucose concentration A c. May be proportional to the glucose concentration d. Fairly proportional to the glucose concentration e. Inversely proportional to the glucose concentration 20. This show: a. Hyperglycemia C b. Hypoglycemia c. Normalglycemia DR. M. M. P a g e | 59  MCQ notes practical bio 4 1) crystalloid (true solution) : homogenous , soluble , not visible size of particles < 1 nm example : saline (Nacl) solution 2) colloid : heyerogenous insoluble dispersed 1-1000 nm Fat globules in milk , plasma proteins 3) Suspension : Heterogenous insoluble soild particles > 1000 nm = > 1 um Flour in water , antibiotic (amoxicillin) 4) Polaritry is distribution of charge around molecule 5) In polar molecules , charge is unevenly distributed as water 6) In non polar molecules , charge is evenly distributed around molecule as benzene 7) Molarity is number of moles in 1 litre of solution 8) Molality is number oif moles in 1 kg of solution 9) Normality is equivelant weight of solute in 1 litre of solution 10) Valence is a measure of atoms combining power with other atoms 11) Osmotic pressure is minimum pressure to stop osmosis DR. M. M. P a g e | 60  MCQ practical bio 4 1. Which of the following is an example of a homogeneous solution? a) Saltwater b) Oil and water A c) Sand and water d) Vinegar and oil 2. A solution in which the solute is present in a lesser amount is called a: a) Dilute solution b) Concentrated solution A c) Saturated solution d) Supersaturated solution 3. Which type of solution consists of small particles dispersed in a liquid and can pass through a semipermeable membrane? a) Crystalloid A b) Colloid c) Suspension d) None of the above 4. Which of the following is an example of a crystalloid solution? a) Blood b) Milk C c) Saline solution d) Gelatin dessert 5. What happens when a suspension is left undisturbed for a while? a) The particles settle down at the bottom. b) The particles dissolve completely in the solvent. A c) The particles become evenly dispersed throughout the solvent. d) The particles react with the solvent, forming a new compound. DR. M. M. P a g e | 61 6. Which type of solution is commonly used for intravenous fluid replacement? a) Crystalloid b) Colloid D c) Suspension d) Both crystalloid and colloid 7. Which of the following is a measure of the concentration of a solute in a solution expressed in moles of solute per liter of solution? a) Molarity A b) Molality c) Normality d) Concentration 8. Which concentration term is temperature-independent? a) Molarity b) Molality B c) Normality d) All of the above 9. Which of the following is defined as the number of equivalents of solute per liter of solution? a) Molarity C b) Molality c) Normality d) Concentration 10. A solution contains 0.5 moles of solute in 1 liter of solution. What is the molarity of the solution? a) 0.5 M A b) 1 M c) 2 M d) 0.25 M DR. M. M. P a g e | 62 11. Molarity is calculated by dividing the moles of solute by the: a) Volume of the solvent b) Volume of the solution B c) Mass of the solvent d) Mass of the solution 12. Which of the following is a measure of the concentration of a solution expressed as the number of moles of solute per kilogram of solvent? a) Molarity B b) Molality c) Normality d) Mass percent 13. Normality is a measure of the concentration of a solution based on: a) The number of moles of solute b) The volume of the solvent C c) The number of equivalents of solute d) The mass of the solvent 14. Molarity is defined as: a) Moles of solute per kilogram of solvent b) Moles of solute per liter of solution B c) Grams of solute per liter of solution d) Moles of solute per mole of solvent 15. Which concentration term depends on the temperature of the solution? a) Molarity b) Molality A c) Normality d) Mass percent DR. M. M. P a g e | 63 16. What is the key difference between molarity and molality? a) Molarity is temperature-dependent, while molality is not. b) Molarity is expressed in moles, while molality is expressed in grams. C c) Molarity considers the volume of the solution, while molality considers the mass of the solvent. d) Molarity is used for solid solutes, while molality is used for liquid solutes. 17. Which concentration term is used to express the number of equivalents of a solute per liter of solution? a) Molarity C b) Molality c) Normality d) Mass percent 18. Osmolarity is a measure of: a) The concentration of solute particles in a solution b) The volume of solvent in a solution A c) The pressure exerted by a solution d) The rate of diffusion of solute particles 19. Why is osmolarity important in medicine and healthcare? a) It helps determine the freezing point of a solution. b) It is used to calculate the surface tension of a solution. C c) It affects the osmotic pressure and movement of water across cell membranes. d) It is a measure of the pH level of a solution. 20. Normality is typically expressed in which units? a) Molarity (mol/L) b) Grams per liter (g/L) C c) Milliequivalents per liter (mEq/L) d) Parts per million (ppm) DR. M. M. P a g e | 64 21. Why is normality important in acid-base chemistry? a) It helps determine the freezing point of a solution. b) It is used to calculate the surface tension of a solution. C c) It indicates the number of acidic or basic equivalents in a solution. d) It is a measure of the pH level of a solution. 22. Polarity refers to: a) The shape of a molecule b) The charge of a molecule C c) The distribution of electrons in a molecule d) The ability of a molecule to dissolve in water 23. Which of the following molecules is polar? a) Carbon dioxide (CO2) b) Methane (CH4) C c) Water (H2O) d) Oxygen (O2) 24. The polarity of a molecule is primarily determined by: a) The number of atoms in the molecule b) The presence of lone pairs of electrons C c) The electronegativity difference between atoms d) The molecular weight of the molecule 25. A polar molecule is characterized by: a) An uneven distribution of charge resulting in positive and negative poles b) An equal distribution of charge resulting in no positive or negative poles A c) An inability to form hydrogen bonds d) A symmetrical arrangement of atoms DR. M. M. P a g e | 65 26. Which of the following is an example of a nonpolar molecule? a) Ethanol (CH3CH2OH) b) Ammonia (NH3) C c) Carbon tetrachloride (CCl4) d) Hydrochloric acid (HCl) 27. Polarity refers to: a) The shape of a molecule b) The charge of a molecule C c) The distribution of electrons in a molecule d) The density of a molecule 28. A molecule is considered polar if: a) It contains only nonpolar bonds b) It contains only polar bonds D c) It has a symmetrical shape d) It has an uneven distribution of electron density 29. Which of the following molecules is nonpolar? a) Water (H2O) b) Carbon dioxide (CO2) B c) Ammonia (NH3) d) Hydrogen fluoride (HF) 30. Which of the following best describes a homogeneous solution? A) A solution in which the solute particles are evenly distributed throughout the solvent. B) A solution in which the solute particles settle at the bottom of the container. A C) A solution in which the solute particles are large and can be easily separated from the solvent. D) A solution in which the solute particles are insoluble and form a precipitate. DR. M. M. P a g e | 66 31. A substance dissolved in a solution is called: a) Solute b) Solvent A c) Colloid d) Crystalloid E) suspension 32. Crystalloid is characterized by: a. Visible under microscope b. Visible to naked eyes C c. soluble d. size of particles 1-1000 nm 33. Oral antibiotics (amoxicillin) are which type of solution a. Crystalloid C b. Colloid c. Suspension 34. Size of particles of Colloid is a. < 1 nm b. 1-1000 nm B c. > 1000 nm DR. M. M. P a g e | 67  MCQ notes practical bio 5 1) biuret method depend on binding of copper to protein in alkaline media by two peptide bonds 2) intensity of violet color is directly proportional to number of peptide bond which is directly proportional with conc of protein 3) normal plasma protein conc 6-8 gm/dl 4) Albumin conc is 3.5-5.5 gm/dl (50-60% of total plasma protein) 5) colorimetry for detection of protein conc depend on which principle >> biuret method 6) ELISA (immunochemical) depend on reaction of protein with specific antibody (most accurate) 7) normal protein conc in urine is less 150 mg/l while albumin less than 20 mg/l 8) active reagent of urine strip for protein detection in urine is tetrabromophenol blue 9) urine strip which change to green highly sensitive to albumin , only in high conc (over 150 mg/l) 10) in heat coagulation test , after addition of acetic acid if turbidity persist >> protein , if dissolve >> phosphate. DR. M. M. P a g e | 68  MCQ Practical Bio 5 1. A negative urine test for protein is provided in the strip/s number: a) Two and three b) One and two D c) One and three d) Three only e) One only 2. The active reagent for protein measurement by this technique is : a) Acetic acld b) Alpha toluidne C c) Tatra-brormo-phenol blue d) Quinolone e) Methylene blue 3. In this test, the formation of protein copper complex depends on : a) Protein concentration b) Presence of only one peptide bond in alkaline media c) Presence of only one peptide bond in acidic media D d) Presence of at least two peptide bonds in alkaline media e) Presence of at least two peptide bonds in acidic media 4. Active reagent for albumin detection by urine strips : a) bromothymol blue B b) bromophenol blue c) peroxidase DR. M. M. P a g e | 69 5. Normal total protein in urine is…………… while albumin……. In urine a) Iess than 150 mg/dl , less than 100 mg/dl C b) Iess than 30 mg/dl , less than 10 mg/dl c) less than 150 mg/ dl less than 20 mg/ dl d) non of above 6. Normal range of total plasma protein : a) 6-10 mg/dl b) 6-8 mg/dl C c) 6-8 g/dl d) 6-13 g/dl 7. Normal range of plasma albumin : a) 6-10 mg/dl b) 6-8 mg/dl D c) 6-8 g/dl d) 3.5-5.5 g/dl 8. Immuno chemical method for protein detection is called : a) ELIFA b) ELISA B c) Colorimetry d) Electrophoresis 9. The intensity of violet color in bluret test depends on: a) type of peptide bonds b) type of amino acids C c) number of peptide bonds d) shape of protein C DR. M. M. P a g e | 70 10. Biuret test is based on: a) reaction between Cu and sulfur amino acids b) reaction between Cu and peptide bonds B c) reaction between Cu and amino groups d) reaction between Cu and carboxyl groups B 11. urine strip is highly sensitive to …... a) globulin b) haemoglobin C c) albumin d) histone C 12. urine strip detect albumin above…… a) 150 mg/L b) 15 mg/L A c) 150 mg/L d) 200 mg/L 13. When protein persist in urine, the indicator color is: a) blue b) green B c) red d) orange 14. In heat coagulation test. the development of turbidity due to: a) protein b) phosphate D c) magnesium d) A and B DR. M. M. P a g e | 71 15. To differentiate between phosphate protein. In heat coagulation test add: a) acetic acid b) folic acid A c) sodium hydroxide d) Bicarbonate 35) Color indicate that protein in urine less than 150 mg / l a) green b) yellow B c) orange d) red 16. the formation of copper protein complex requires two peptide bonds in an alkaline media to produces a: a) Violet A b) White c) Colorless d) Deep blue 17. The measured absorption of total plasma protein is: a) Not proportional to protein concentration. b) Fairly proportional to protein concentration. D c) Inversely proportional to protein concentration. d) Directly proportional to protein concentration. e) May be proportional to protein concentration. 18. The most accurate method to detect plasma protein is: a. Colorimetric assay b. Electrophoresis C c. ELISA d. Urine strips test DR. M. M. P a g e | 72 19. Which method is used to detect proteins present in very low concentrations? a. Biuret test B b. ELISA c. Urinary test strips d. Heat coagulation test 20. The intensity of the violet color formed in the colorimetric assay is proportional to: a. The number of peptide bonds A b. The concentration of copper ions c. The pH of the alkaline media d. The size of the protein molecules 21. Which fraction of plasma proteins migrates closest to the anode during electrophoresis? a. Albumin A b. α-1 globulins c. α-2 globulins d. γ-globulins 22. What does the color change to when proteins are present in urine during the urinary test strip method? a. Green A b. Blue c. Red d. Yellow DR. M. M. P a g e | 73 23. What is the purpose of adding acetic acid during the heat coagulation test? a. To dissolve phosphates b. To enhance protein coagulation A c. To detect the presence of glucose d. To adjust the pH of the urine 24. Which protein component is highly sensitive to tetra-bromophenol blue in the urinary test strip? a. Albumin A b. Hemoglobin c. Fibrinogen d. Globulins 25. Which of the following statements is true regarding protein analysis in body fluids? a. Proteins in body fluids are not affected by diseases. D b. Protein analysis is not important as a disease biomarker. c. Protein components of tissues are not affected by diseases. d. Protein analysis in body fluids can serve as disease biomarkers. 26. The Biuret test is used to determine the concentration of: a. Albumin b. Globulin D c. Fibrinogen d. Total plasma protein DR. M. M. P a g e | 74 27. The measured absorption of total plasma protein is: a. Not proportional to the protein concentration b. Fairly proportional to the protein concentration D c. Inversely proportional to the protein concentration d. Directly proportional to the protein concentration e. May be proportional to the protein concentration 28. In the provided test, the formation of copper-protein complex requires: a. Alkaline pH b. Hydrogen ions. A c. Neutral pH d. Acidic pH e. Hydrogen bonds 29. The provided equipment could measure total plasma proteins depending on: a. The oxidation method b. The ionization method D c. The reduction method d. The Biuret's method e. The adsorption method DR. M. M. P a g e | 75 30. Calorimeter measure ……… for the sample a. Volume B b. Absorbance c. Weight d. Turbidity 31. In the provided test, the formation of copper protein complex requires two peptide bonds in an alkaline media to produces a.. product a. Violet colored A b. White colored c. Colourless d. Deep blue colored e. Light blue colored DR. M. M. P a g e | 76  MCQ notes practical bio 6 1) Functional plasma enzymes : High conc in blood Known function in blood Synthesized in liver , decrease in liver dse Examples : clotting factor , lipoprotein lipase , psedocholinestrase 2) ALT (SGPT) is more sensitive to liver 3) Alkaline phosphatase is increased in bile duct obostruction , bone dse , hyperparathyroidism 4) Acid phosphatase is increased in prostate tumor 5) Amylase , lipase is increased in pancreatitis 6) Creatrine kinase : BB : brain tumor MM : sk ms dse MB : heart dse 7) LDH : LDH 1,2 : myocardial infarction LDH 3 : leukemia LDH 4,5 : liver dse 8) Amylase has three types , maximal at 37 c 9) At 2 c : Deactivation of enzyme Iodine give deep blue color with starch 10) At 100 c : Denaturation of enzyme Iodine give deep blue color with starch 11) At 37 c : Active enzyme No color change 12) At room temperature , amylase is active but less than at 37 c DR. M. M. P a g e | 77  MCQ Practical Bio 6 1. The enzyme more specific for liver is : a) LDH b) CK C c) ALT d) Acid phosphatase e) lipase 2. The CK isoenzymes present in brain is a. BB A b. MM c. BM 3. Which is true about amylase-starch experiment? A) Amylase works best at low temperatures. B) Amylase works best at high pH values. D C) Amylase works best at low enzyme concentrations. D) Amylase works best at specific temperature and pH ranges. D 4. if the temperature is too high in the amylase-starch experiment …… A) The rate of activity will increase. B) The rate of activity will decrease. C) The rate of activity will remain the same. D) The amylase will denature and lose its activity. DR. M. M. P a g e | 78 5. lodine can give a characteristic color DEEP BLUE with: a) glucose D b) maltose c) dextrin d) starch 6. At 37 C , which is true about amylase : a) don't break down starch and gives blue color with iodine. b) breaks down starch so iodine will not change color of iodine B C) Deactivation of enzymes. D) denaturation of enzyme 7. What happens to the color of iodine when starch and amylase mixture is heated to 100°C? a. It changes to deep blue. A b. It remains the same. c. It turns brown. d. It becomes yellow. 8. At what temperature does amylase act maximally? a. 0°C b. 25°C C c. 37°C d. 100°C 9. LDH has a number of isoforms: a. 2 b. 3 D c. 4 d. 5 DR. M. M. P a g e | 79 10. CK is increased in diseases affecting the following: a. Liver kidney, heart b. Kidney, brain, skeletal muscles C c. Brain , heart, skeletal muscles d. Brain, heart, blood 11. The following are non-functional plasma enzymes except: a. LDH b. (BM) isozyme of CPK D c. Prostatic acid phosphatase d. Lipoprotein lipase 12. The wrong statement about LDH is: a. It has 3 isoenzymes b. It is a tetramer A c. It's reversibly converts pyruvate to lactate d. Its LDH1 isoenzyme increases in myocardial infarction 13. A non-functional plasma enzyme is characterized by: a. its presence in plasma in higher concentration. b. having a known function in the blood. C c. absence of its substrate from the blood. d. its synthesis in the liver. e. its decrease in liver disease. 14. The enzyme LDH levels are increased in the blood of patients with : a) cancer prostate b) leukemia B c) hyperparathyroidism d) osteoporosis DR. M. M. P a g e | 80 15. The isoenzymes of LDH a) Differ only in a single amino acid b) Differ in catalytic activity C c) Exist in 5 forms depending on M and H monomer contents d) Occur as monomers 16. Serum acid phosphatase level increases in a) Metastatic carcinoma of prostate b) Myocardial infarction A c) Wilson’s disease d) Liver diseases 17. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases in a) Hypothyroidism b) Carcinoma of prostate C c) Bone tumor d) Myocardial ischemia 18. Serum lipase level increases in a) Paget’s disease b) Gaucher’s disease C c) Acute pancreatitis d) Diabetes mellitus 19. The isoenzymes LDH5 is elevated in a) Myocardial infarction b) Peptic ulcer C c) Liver disease d) Infectious diseases DR. M. M. P a g e | 81 20. LDH1 and LDH2 are elevated in a) Myocardial infarction b) Liver disease A c) Kidney disease d) Brain disease 21. The CK isoenzymes present in cardiac muscle is a) BB and MB b) MM only D c) BB only d) MB only. 22. An example of functional plasma enzyme is a) Lipoprotein lipase b) Amylase A c) Aminotransferase d) Lactate dehydrogenase 23. Which of the following is an example for non-functional plasma enzyme ? a) Pseudocholinesterase b) Lipoprotein lipase D c) Proenzyme of blood coagulation d) Lipase 24. Lactate dehydrogenase is a: a) Monomer b) Dimer C c) Tetramer d) Hexamer DR. M. M. P a g e | 82 25. Serum alkaline phosphatase level increases in: a. Hypothyroidism b. Carcinoma of prostate C c. Bone tumor d. Myocardial ischemia 26. Which of the following is an example for non-functional plasma enzyme? a. Pseudocholinesterase b. Lipoprotein lipase D c. prothrombin d. Acid phosphatse 27. Which of the following mechanisms illustrate the biochemical base of isoenzymes? a. post-transcription modification D b. zymogen activation c. trimming d. post-translation modification 28. Which of the following is an example of an enzyme that exists as a tetramer? a) Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) A b) Acid phosphatase c) Creatine kinase (CK) d) Alkaline phosphatase DR. M. M. P a g e | 83